HB3249 101ST GENERAL ASSEMBLY

LRB101 07760 AMC 52809 b

101ST GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2019 and 2020
HB3249

Introduced , by Rep. Gregory Harris

SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:

See Index

Creates the First 2019 General Revisory Act. Combines multiple versions of Sections amended by more than one Public Act. Renumbers Sections of various Acts to eliminate duplication. Corrects obsolete cross-references and technical errors. Makes stylistic changes. Effective immediately.

FISCAL NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

PENSION IMPACT NOTE ACT MAY APPLY

A BILL FOR

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2019 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 100-534 through 100-1177 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Sections 4.29 and 4.39 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.29)

Sec. 4.29. Act Acts repealed on December 31, 2019. The following Act is repealed on December 31, 2019:

The Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 100-716, eff. 8-3-18; 100-796, eff. 8-10-18; revised 9-6-18.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.39)

Sec. 4.39. Acts Act repealed on January 1, 2029 and December 31, 2029.

(a) The following Act is repealed on January 1, 2029:

The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act.

(b) The following Act is repealed on December 31, 2029:

The Structural Pest Control Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-716, eff. 8-3-18; 100-796, eff. 8-10-18; revised 9-6-18.)

Section 10. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is amended by changing Sections 5-30, 10-25, 10-50, and 10-75 as follows:

(5 ILCS 100/5-30) (from Ch. 127, par. 1005-30)

Sec. 5-30. Regulatory flexibility. When an agency proposes a new rule or an amendment to an existing rule that may have an impact on small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities, the agency shall do each of the following:

(a) The agency shall consider each of the following methods for reducing the impact of the rulemaking on small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities. The agency shall reduce the impact by utilizing one or more of the following methods if it finds that the methods are legal and feasible in meeting the statutory objectives that are the basis of the proposed rulemaking.

(1) Establish less stringent compliance or reporting requirements in the rule for small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(2) Establish less stringent schedules or deadlines in the rule for compliance or reporting requirements for small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(3) Consolidate or simplify the rule's compliance or reporting requirements for small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(4) Establish performance standards to replace design or operational standards in the rule for small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(5) Exempt small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities from any or all requirements of the rule.

(b) Before or during the notice period required under subsection (b) of Section 5-40, the agency shall provide an opportunity for small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities to participate in the rulemaking process. The agency shall utilize one or more of the following techniques. These techniques are in addition to other rulemaking requirements imposed by this Act or by any other Act.

(1) The inclusion in any advance notice of possible rulemaking of a statement that the rule may have an impact on small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(2) The publication of a notice of rulemaking in publications likely to be obtained by small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(3) The direct notification of interested small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(4) The conduct of public hearings concerning the impact of the rule on small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(5) The use of special hearing or comment procedures to reduce the cost or complexity of participation in the rulemaking by small businesses, not for profit corporations, or small municipalities.

(c) Prior to the filing for publication in the Illinois Register of any proposed rule or amendment that may have an adverse impact on small businesses, each agency must prepare an economic impact analysis which shall be filed with the proposed rule and publicized in the Illinois Register together with the proposed rule. The economic impact analysis shall include the following:

(1) An identification of the types and estimate of the number of the small businesses subject to the proposed rule or amendment. The agency shall identify the types of businesses subject to the proposed rule using the following 2-digit codes from the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS):

11 Agriculture, Forestry, Fishing and Hunting.

21 Mining.

22 Utilities.

23 Construction.

31-33 Manufacturing.

42 Wholesale Trade.

44-45 Retail Trade.

48-49 Transportation and Warehousing.

51 Information.

52 Finance and Insurance.

53 Real Estate Rental and Leasing.

54 Professional, Scientific, and Technical Services.

55 Management of Companies and Enterprises.

56 Administrative and Support and Waste Management and Remediation Services.

61 Educational Services.

62 Health Care and Social Assistance.

71 Arts, Entertainment, and Recreation.

72 Accommodation and Food Services.

81 Other Services (except Public Administration).

92 Public Administration.

The agency shall also identify the impact of the proposed rule by identifying as many of the following categories that the agency reasonably believes the proposed rule will impact:

A. Hiring and additional staffing.

B. Regulatory requirements.

C. Purchasing.

D. Insurance changes.

E. Licensing fees.

F. Equipment and material needs.

G. Training requirements.

H. Recordkeeping Record keeping.

I. Compensation and benefits.

J. Other potential impacted categories.

(2) The projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for compliance with the proposed rule or amendment, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparation of the report or record.

(3) A statement of the probable positive or negative economic effect on impacted small businesses.

(4) A description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed rule or amendment. The alternatives must be consistent with the stated objectives of the applicable statutes and the proposed rulemaking.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall place notification of all proposed rules affecting small business on its website. The notification shall include the information provided by the agency under this subsection (c) together with the summary of the proposed rule published by the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules in the Flinn Report.

The Business Assistance Office shall prepare an impact analysis of the rule or amendment describing its effect on small businesses whenever the Office believes, in its discretion, that an analysis is warranted or whenever requested to do so by 25 interested persons, an association representing at least 100 interested persons, the Governor, a unit of local government, or the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules. The impact analysis shall be completed before or within the notice period as described in subsection (b) of Section 5-40. Upon completion of any analysis in accordance with this subsection (c), the preparing agency or the Business Assistance Office shall submit the analysis to the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules, to any interested person who requested the analysis, and, if the agency prepared the analysis, to the Business Assistance Office.

For purposes of this subsection (c), "small business" means a business with fewer than 50 full-time employees or less than $4,000,000 in gross annual sales.

This subsection does not apply to rules and standards described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of subsection (c) of Section 1-5.

(Source: P.A. 100-688, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(5 ILCS 100/10-25) (from Ch. 127, par. 1010-25)

Sec. 10-25. Contested cases; notice; hearing.

(a) In a contested case, all parties shall be afforded an opportunity for a hearing after reasonable notice. The notice shall be served personally, by certified or registered mail, by email as provided by Section 10-75, or as otherwise provided by law upon the parties or their agents appointed to receive service of process and shall include the following:

(1) A statement of the time, place, and nature of the hearing.

(2) A statement of the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held.

(3) A reference to the particular Sections of the substantive and procedural statutes and rules involved.

(4) Except where a more detailed statement is otherwise provided for by law, a short and plain statement of the matters asserted, the consequences of a failure to respond, and the official file or other reference number.

(5) To the extent such information is available, the names, phone numbers, email addresses, and mailing addresses of the administrative law judge, or designated agency contact, the parties, and all other persons to whom the agency gives notice of the hearing unless otherwise confidential by law.

(b) An opportunity shall be afforded all parties to be represented by legal counsel and to respond and present evidence and argument.

(c) Unless precluded by law, disposition may be made of any contested case by stipulation, agreed settlement, consent order, or default.

(Source: P.A. 100-880, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(5 ILCS 100/10-50) (from Ch. 127, par. 1010-50)

Sec. 10-50. Decisions and orders.

(a) A final decision or order adverse to a party (other than the agency) in a contested case shall be in writing or stated in the record. A final decision shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, separately stated. Findings of fact, if set forth in statutory language, shall be accompanied by a concise and explicit statement of the underlying facts supporting the findings. If, in accordance with agency rules, a party submitted proposed findings of fact, the decision shall include a ruling upon each proposed finding. Parties or their agents appointed to receive service of process shall be notified either personally, by registered or certified mail, or by email as provided by Section 10-75, or as otherwise provided by law. Upon request a copy of the decision or order shall be delivered or mailed forthwith to each party and to his attorney of record.

(b) All agency orders shall specify whether they are final and subject to the Administrative Review Law. Every final order shall contain a list of all parties of record to the case including the name and address of the agency or officer entering the order and the addresses of each party as known to the agency where the parties may be served with pleadings, notices, or service of process for any review or further proceedings. Every final order shall also state whether the rules of the agency require any motion or request for reconsideration and cite the rule for the requirement. The changes made by this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly apply to all actions filed under the Administrative Review Law on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(c) A decision by any agency in a contested case under this Act shall be void unless the proceedings are conducted in compliance with the provisions of this Act relating to contested cases, except to the extent those provisions are waived under Section 10-70 and except to the extent the agency has adopted its own rules for contested cases as authorized in Section 1-5.

(Source: P.A. 100-212, eff. 8-18-17; 100-880, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(5 ILCS 100/10-75)

Sec. 10-75. Service by email.

(a) The following requirements shall apply for consenting to accept service by email:

(1) At any time either before or after its issuance of a hearing notice as described in Section 10-25, an agency may require any attorney representing a party to the hearing to provide one or more email addresses at which he or she they shall accept service of documents described in Sections 10-25 and 10-50 in connection with the hearing. A party represented by an attorney may provide the email address of the attorney.

(2) To the extent a person or entity is subject to licensure, permitting, or regulation by the agency, or submits an application for licensure or permitting to the agency, that agency may require, as a condition of such application, licensure, permitting, or regulation, that such persons or entities consent to service by email of the documents described in Sections 10-25 and 10-50 for any hearings that may arise in connection with such application, licensure or regulation, provided that the agency: (i) requires that any person or entity providing such an email address update that email address if it is changed; and (ii) annually verifies that email address.

(3) At any time either before or after its issuance of a hearing notice as described in Section 10-25, an agency may request, but not require, an unrepresented party that is not subject to paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) to consent to accept service by email of the documents described in Sections 10-25 and 10-50 by designating an email address at which they will accept service.

(4) Any person or entity who submits an email address under this Section shall also be given the option to designate no more than two secondary email addresses at which the person or entity consents to accept service, provided that, if any secondary email address is designated, an agency must serve the documents to both the designated primary and secondary email addresses.

(b) Notwithstanding any party's consent to accept service by email, no document described in Section Sections 10-25 or 10-50 may be served by email to the extent the document contains:

(1) a Social Security or individual taxpayer identification number;

(2) a driver's license number;

(3) a financial account number;

(4) a debit or credit card number;

(5) any other information that could reasonably be deemed personal, proprietary, confidential, or trade secret information; or

(6) any information about or concerning a minor.

(c) Service by email is deemed complete on the day of transmission. Agencies that use email to serve documents under Sections 10-25 and 10-50 shall adopt rules that specify the standard for confirming delivery, and in failure to confirm delivery, what steps the agency will take to ensure that service by email or other means is accomplished.

(d) This Section shall not apply with respect to any service of notice other than under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-880, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/3) (from Ch. 116, par. 203)

Sec. 3. (a) Each public body shall make available to any person for inspection or copying all public records, except as otherwise provided in Sections 7 and 8.5 of this Act. Notwithstanding any other law, a public body may not grant to any person or entity, whether by contract, license, or otherwise, the exclusive right to access and disseminate any public record as defined in this Act.

(b) Subject to the fee provisions of Section 6 of this Act, each public body shall promptly provide, to any person who submits a request, a copy of any public record required to be disclosed by subsection (a) of this Section and shall certify such copy if so requested.

(c) Requests for inspection or copies shall be made in writing and directed to the public body. Written requests may be submitted to a public body via personal delivery, mail, telefax, or other means available to the public body. A public body may honor oral requests for inspection or copying. A public body may not require that a request be submitted on a standard form or require the requester to specify the purpose for a request, except to determine whether the records are requested for a commercial purpose or whether to grant a request for a fee waiver. All requests for inspection and copying received by a public body shall immediately be forwarded to its Freedom of Information officer or designee.

(d) Each public body shall, promptly, either comply with or deny a request for public records within 5 business days after its receipt of the request, unless the time for response is properly extended under subsection (e) of this Section. Denial shall be in writing as provided in Section 9 of this Act. Failure to comply with a written request, extend the time for response, or deny a request within 5 business days after its receipt shall be considered a denial of the request. A public body that fails to respond to a request within the requisite periods in this Section but thereafter provides the requester with copies of the requested public records may not impose a fee for such copies. A public body that fails to respond to a request received may not treat the request as unduly burdensome under subsection (g).

(e) The time for response under this Section may be extended by the public body for not more than 5 business days from the original due date for any of the following reasons:

(i) the requested records are stored in whole or in part at other locations than the office having charge of the requested records;

(ii) the request requires the collection of a substantial number of specified records;

(iii) the request is couched in categorical terms and requires an extensive search for the records responsive to it;

(iv) the requested records have not been located in the course of routine search and additional efforts are being made to locate them;

(v) the requested records require examination and evaluation by personnel having the necessary competence and discretion to determine if they are exempt from disclosure under Section 7 of this Act or should be revealed only with appropriate deletions;

(vi) the request for records cannot be complied with by the public body within the time limits prescribed by subsection (d) paragraph (c) of this Section without unduly burdening or interfering with the operations of the public body;

(vii) there is a need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another public body or among 2 two or more components of a public body having a substantial interest in the determination or in the subject matter of the request.

The person making a request and the public body may agree in writing to extend the time for compliance for a period to be determined by the parties. If the requester and the public body agree to extend the period for compliance, a failure by the public body to comply with any previous deadlines shall not be treated as a denial of the request for the records.

(f) When additional time is required for any of the above reasons, the public body shall, within 5 business days after receipt of the request, notify the person making the request of the reasons for the extension and the date by which the response will be forthcoming. Failure to respond within the time permitted for extension shall be considered a denial of the request. A public body that fails to respond to a request within the time permitted for extension but thereafter provides the requester with copies of the requested public records may not impose a fee for those copies. A public body that requests an extension and subsequently fails to respond to the request may not treat the request as unduly burdensome under subsection (g).

(g) Requests calling for all records falling within a category shall be complied with unless compliance with the request would be unduly burdensome for the complying public body and there is no way to narrow the request and the burden on the public body outweighs the public interest in the information. Before invoking this exemption, the public body shall extend to the person making the request an opportunity to confer with it in an attempt to reduce the request to manageable proportions. If any public body responds to a categorical request by stating that compliance would unduly burden its operation and the conditions described above are met, it shall do so in writing, specifying the reasons why it would be unduly burdensome and the extent to which compliance will so burden the operations of the public body. Such a response shall be treated as a denial of the request for information.

Repeated requests from the same person for the same records that are unchanged or identical to records previously provided or properly denied under this Act shall be deemed unduly burdensome under this provision.

(h) Each public body may promulgate rules and regulations in conformity with the provisions of this Section pertaining to the availability of records and procedures to be followed, including:

(i) the times and places where such records will be made available, and

(ii) the persons from whom such records may be obtained.

(i) The time periods for compliance or denial of a request to inspect or copy records set out in this Section shall not apply to requests for records made for a commercial purpose, requests by a recurrent requester, or voluminous requests. Such requests shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 3.1, 3.2, and 3.6 of this Act, as applicable.

(Source: P.A. 98-1129, eff. 12-3-14; revised 9-17-18.)

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Record Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law).

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(ll) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 5-30.8 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(mm) (ll) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 4.2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act.

(nn) (ll) Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 70 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; 99-863, eff. 8-19-16; 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; 100-464, eff. 8-28-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-517, eff. 6-1-18; 100-646, eff. 7-27-18; 100-690, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-887, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-12-18.)

Section 20. The Illinois Notary Public Act is amended by changing Section 7-108 as follows:

(5 ILCS 312/7-108) (from Ch. 102, par. 207-108)

Sec. 7-108. Reprimand, suspension, and revocation of commission.

(a) The Secretary of State may revoke the commission of any notary public who, during the current term of appointment:

(1) submits an application for commission and appointment as a notary public which contains substantial and material misstatement or omission of fact; or

(2) is convicted of any felony, misdemeanors, including those defined in Part C, Articles 16, 17, 18, 19, and 21, and Part E, Articles 31, 32, and 33 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or official misconduct under this Act.

(b) Whenever the Secretary of State believes that a violation of this Article has occurred, he or she may investigate any such violation. The Secretary may also investigate possible violations of this Article upon a signed written complaint on a form designated by the Secretary.

(c) A notary's failure to cooperate or respond to an investigation by the Secretary of State is a failure by the notary to fully and faithfully discharge the responsibilities and duties of a notary and shall result in suspension or revocation of the notary's commission.

(d) All written complaints which on their face appear to establish facts which, if proven true, would constitute an act of misrepresentation or fraud in notarization or on the part of the notary shall be investigated by the Secretary of State to determine whether cause exists to reprimand, suspend, or revoke the commission of the notary.

(e) The Secretary of State may deliver a written official warning and reprimand to a notary, or may revoke or suspend a notary's commission, for any of the following:

(1) a notary's official misconduct, as defined under Section 7-104;

(2) any ground for which an application for appointment as a notary may be denied for failure to complete application requirements as provided under Section 2-102;

(3) any prohibited act provided under Section 6-104; or

(4) a violation of any provision of the general statutes.

(f) After investigation and upon a determination by the Secretary of State that one or more prohibited acts have has been performed in the notarization of a document, the Secretary shall, after considering the extent of the prohibited act and the degree of culpability of the notary, order one or more of the following courses of action:

(1) issue a letter of warning to the notary, including the Secretary's findings;

(2) order suspension of the commission of the notary for a period of time designated by the Secretary;

(3) order revocation of the commission of the notary;

(4) refer the allegations to the appropriate State's Attorney's Office or the Attorney General for criminal investigation; or

(5) refer the allegations to the Illinois Attorney Registration and Disciplinary Commission for disciplinary proceedings.

(g) After a notary receives notice from the Secretary of State that his or her commission has been revoked, that notary shall immediately deliver his or her official seal to the Secretary.

(h) A notary whose appointment has been revoked due to a violation of this Act shall not be eligible for a new commission as a notary public in this State for a period of at least 5 years from the date of the final revocation.

(i) A notary may voluntarily resign from appointment by notifying the Secretary of State in writing of his or her intention to do so, and by physically returning his or her stamp to the Secretary. A voluntary resignation shall not stop or preclude any investigation into a notary's conduct, or prevent further suspension or revocation by the Secretary, who may pursue any such investigation to a conclusion and issue any finding.

(j) Upon a determination by a sworn law enforcement officer that the allegations raised by the complaint are founded, and the notary has received notice of suspension or revocation from the Secretary of State, the notary is entitled to an administrative hearing.

(k) The Secretary of State shall adopt administrative hearing rules applicable to this Section that are consistent with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-809, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

Section 25. The State Employee Indemnification Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(5 ILCS 350/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 1301)

Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act:

(a) The term "State" means the State of Illinois, the General Assembly, the court, or any State office, department, division, bureau, board, commission, or committee, the governing boards of the public institutions of higher education created by the State, the Illinois National Guard, the Illinois State Guard, the Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, any poison control center designated under the Poison Control System Act that receives State funding, or any other agency or instrumentality of the State. It does not mean any local public entity as that term is defined in Section 1-206 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act or a pension fund.

(b) The term "employee" means: any present or former elected or appointed officer, trustee or employee of the State, or of a pension fund; any present or former commissioner or employee of the Executive Ethics Commission or of the Legislative Ethics Commission; any present or former Executive, Legislative, or Auditor General's Inspector General; any present or former employee of an Office of an Executive, Legislative, or Auditor General's Inspector General; any present or former member of the Illinois National Guard while on active duty; any present or former member of the Illinois State Guard while on State active duty; individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, or the Department of Veterans' Affairs to provide services; individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) to provide services including but not limited to treatment and other services for sexually violent persons; individuals or organizations who contract with the Department of Military Affairs for youth programs; individuals or organizations who contract to perform carnival and amusement ride safety inspections for the Department of Labor; individuals who contract with the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to provide legal services, but only when performing duties within the scope of the Office's prosecutorial activities; individual representatives of or designated organizations authorized to represent the Office of State Long-Term Ombudsman for the Department on Aging; individual representatives of or organizations designated by the Department on Aging in the performance of their duties as adult protective services agencies or regional administrative agencies under the Adult Protective Services Act; individuals or organizations appointed as members of a review team or the Advisory Council under the Adult Protective Services Act; individuals or organizations who perform volunteer services for the State where such volunteer relationship is reduced to writing; individuals who serve on any public entity (whether created by law or administrative action) described in paragraph (a) of this Section; individuals or not for profit organizations who, either as volunteers, where such volunteer relationship is reduced to writing, or pursuant to contract, furnish professional advice or consultation to any agency or instrumentality of the State; individuals who serve as foster parents for the Department of Children and Family Services when caring for youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act; individuals who serve as members of an independent team of experts under the Developmental Disability and Mental Health Safety Act (also known as Brian's Law); and individuals who serve as arbitrators pursuant to Part 10A of Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure and the rules of the Supreme Court implementing Part 10A, each as now or hereafter amended; the term "employee" does not mean an independent contractor except as provided in this Section. The term includes an individual appointed as an inspector by the Director of State Police when performing duties within the scope of the activities of a Metropolitan Enforcement Group or a law enforcement organization established under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act. An individual who renders professional advice and consultation to the State through an organization which qualifies as an "employee" under the Act is also an employee. The term includes the estate or personal representative of an employee.

(c) The term "pension fund" means a retirement system or pension fund created under the Illinois Pension Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; 100-1030, eff. 8-22-18; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 30. The State Employment Records Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(5 ILCS 410/20)

Sec. 20. Reports. State agencies shall collect, classify, maintain, and report all information required by this Act on a fiscal year basis. Agencies shall file, as public information and by January 1, 1993 and each year thereafter, a copy of all reports required by this Act with the Office of the Secretary of State, and shall submit an annual report to the Governor.

Each agency's annual report shall include a description of the agency's activities in implementing the State Hispanic Employment Plan, the State Asian-American Employment Plan, and the bilingual employment plan in accordance with the reporting requirements developed by the Department of Central Management Services pursuant to Section 405-125 of the Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

In addition to submitting the agency work force report, each executive branch constitutional officer, each institution of higher education under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Board of Higher Education, each community college under the jurisdiction of the Illinois Community College Board, and the Illinois Toll Highway Authority shall report to the General Assembly by February 1 of each year its activities implementing strategies and programs, and its progress, in the hiring and promotion of Hispanics, Asian-Americans, and bilingual persons at supervisory, technical, professional, and managerial levels, including assessments of bilingual service needs and information received from the Auditor General pursuant to its periodic review responsibilities.

(Source: P.A. 96-1286, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1341, eff. 7-27-10; 97-856, eff. 7-27-12; revised 10-10-18.)

Section 35. The State Employee Housing Act is amended by changing Section 5-35 as follows:

(5 ILCS 412/5-35)

Sec. 5-35. Housing justification. The Department of Natural Resources, and the University of Illinois shall each develop written criteria for determining which employment positions necessitate provision of State housing. The criteria shall include the specific employee responsibilities that can only be performed effectively by occupying State housing.

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 40. The Illinois Governmental Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 4A-101 as follows:

(5 ILCS 420/4A-101) (from Ch. 127, par. 604A-101)

Sec. 4A-101. Persons required to file. The following persons shall file verified written statements of economic interests, as provided in this Article:

(a) Members of the General Assembly and candidates for nomination or election to the General Assembly.

(b) Persons holding an elected office in the Executive Branch of this State, and candidates for nomination or election to these offices.

(c) Members of a Commission or Board created by the Illinois Constitution, and candidates for nomination or election to such Commission or Board.

(d) Persons whose appointment to office is subject to confirmation by the Senate and persons appointed by the Governor to any other position on a board or commission described in subsection (a) of Section 15 of the Gubernatorial Boards and Commissions Act.

(e) Holders of, and candidates for nomination or election to, the office of judge or associate judge of the Circuit Court and the office of judge of the Appellate or Supreme Court.

(f) Persons who are employed by any branch, agency, authority or board of the government of this State, including but not limited to, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, the Illinois Housing Development Authority, the Illinois Community College Board, and institutions under the jurisdiction of the Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Governors Governor's State University, Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, or Board of Trustees of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy, and are compensated for services as employees and not as independent contractors and who:

(1) are, or function as, the head of a department, commission, board, division, bureau, authority or other administrative unit within the government of this State, or who exercise similar authority within the government of this State;

(2) have direct supervisory authority over, or direct responsibility for the formulation, negotiation, issuance or execution of contracts entered into by the State in the amount of $5,000 or more;

(3) have authority for the issuance or promulgation of rules and regulations within areas under the authority of the State;

(4) have authority for the approval of professional licenses;

(5) have responsibility with respect to the financial inspection of regulated nongovernmental entities;

(6) adjudicate, arbitrate, or decide any judicial or administrative proceeding, or review the adjudication, arbitration or decision of any judicial or administrative proceeding within the authority of the State;

(7) have supervisory responsibility for 20 or more employees of the State;

(8) negotiate, assign, authorize, or grant naming rights or sponsorship rights regarding any property or asset of the State, whether real, personal, tangible, or intangible; or

(9) have responsibility with respect to the procurement of goods or services.

(g) Persons who are elected to office in a unit of local government, and candidates for nomination or election to that office, including regional superintendents of school districts.

(h) Persons appointed to the governing board of a unit of local government, or of a special district, and persons appointed to a zoning board, or zoning board of appeals, or to a regional, county, or municipal plan commission, or to a board of review of any county, and persons appointed to the Board of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority and any Trustee appointed under Section 22 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, and persons appointed to a board or commission of a unit of local government who have authority to authorize the expenditure of public funds. This subsection does not apply to members of boards or commissions who function in an advisory capacity.

(i) Persons who are employed by a unit of local government and are compensated for services as employees and not as independent contractors and who:

(1) are, or function as, the head of a department, division, bureau, authority or other administrative unit within the unit of local government, or who exercise similar authority within the unit of local government;

(2) have direct supervisory authority over, or direct responsibility for the formulation, negotiation, issuance or execution of contracts entered into by the unit of local government in the amount of $1,000 or greater;

(3) have authority to approve licenses and permits by the unit of local government; this item does not include employees who function in a ministerial capacity;

(4) adjudicate, arbitrate, or decide any judicial or administrative proceeding, or review the adjudication, arbitration or decision of any judicial or administrative proceeding within the authority of the unit of local government;

(5) have authority to issue or promulgate rules and regulations within areas under the authority of the unit of local government; or

(6) have supervisory responsibility for 20 or more employees of the unit of local government.

(j) Persons on the Board of Trustees of the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy.

(k) Persons employed by a school district in positions that require that person to hold an administrative or a chief school business official endorsement.

(l) Special government agents. A "special government agent" is a person who is directed, retained, designated, appointed, or employed, with or without compensation, by or on behalf of a statewide executive branch constitutional officer to make an ex parte communication under Section 5-50 of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act or Section 5-165 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(m) Members of the board of commissioners of any flood prevention district created under the Flood Prevention District Act or the Beardstown Regional Flood Prevention District Act.

(n) Members of the board of any retirement system or investment board established under the Illinois Pension Code, if not required to file under any other provision of this Section.

(o) Members of the board of any pension fund established under the Illinois Pension Code, if not required to file under any other provision of this Section.

(p) Members of the investment advisory panel created under Section 20 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

This Section shall not be construed to prevent any unit of local government from enacting financial disclosure requirements that mandate more information than required by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-6, eff. 4-3-09; 96-543, eff. 8-17-09; 96-555, eff. 8-18-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-309, eff. 8-11-11; 97-754, eff. 7-6-12; revised 10-10-18.)

Section 45. The State Officials and Employees Ethics Act is amended by changing Section 25-5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 430/25-5)

Sec. 25-5. Legislative Ethics Commission.

(a) The Legislative Ethics Commission is created.

(b) The Legislative Ethics Commission shall consist of 8 commissioners appointed 2 each by the President and Minority Leader of the Senate and the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

The terms of the initial commissioners shall commence upon qualification. Each appointing authority shall designate one appointee who shall serve for a 2-year term running through June 30, 2005. Each appointing authority shall designate one appointee who shall serve for a 4-year term running through June 30, 2007. The initial appointments shall be made within 60 days after the effective date of this Act.

After the initial terms, commissioners shall serve for 4-year terms commencing on July 1 of the year of appointment and running through June 30 of the fourth following year. Commissioners may be reappointed to one or more subsequent terms.

Vacancies occurring other than at the end of a term shall be filled by the appointing authority only for the balance of the term of the commissioner whose office is vacant.

Terms shall run regardless of whether the position is filled.

(c) The appointing authorities shall appoint commissioners who have experience holding governmental office or employment and may appoint commissioners who are members of the General Assembly as well as commissioners from the general public. A commissioner who is a member of the General Assembly must recuse himself or herself from participating in any matter relating to any investigation or proceeding in which he or she is the subject or is a complainant. A person is not eligible to serve as a commissioner if that person (i) has been convicted of a felony or a crime of dishonesty or moral turpitude, (ii) is, or was within the preceding 12 months, engaged in activities that require registration under the Lobbyist Registration Act, (iii) is a relative of the appointing authority, (iv) is a State officer or employee other than a member of the General Assembly, or (v) is a candidate for statewide office, federal office, or judicial office.

(c-5) If a commissioner is required to recuse himself or herself from participating in a matter as provided in subsection (c), the recusal shall create a temporary vacancy for the limited purpose of consideration of the matter for which the commissioner recused himself or herself, and the appointing authority for the recusing commissioner shall make a temporary appointment to fill the vacancy for consideration of the matter for which the commissioner recused himself or herself.

(d) The Legislative Ethics Commission shall have jurisdiction over current and former members of the General Assembly regarding events occurring during a member's term of office and current and former State employees regarding events occurring during any period of employment where the State employee's ultimate jurisdictional authority is (i) a legislative leader, (ii) the Senate Operations Commission, or (iii) the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services. The jurisdiction of the Commission is limited to matters arising under this Act.

An officer or executive branch State employee serving on a legislative branch board or commission remains subject to the jurisdiction of the Executive Ethics Commission and is not subject to the jurisdiction of the Legislative Ethics Commission.

(e) The Legislative Ethics Commission must meet, either in person or by other technological means, monthly or as often as necessary. At the first meeting of the Legislative Ethics Commission, the commissioners shall choose from their number a chairperson and other officers that they deem appropriate. The terms of officers shall be for 2 years commencing July 1 and running through June 30 of the second following year. Meetings shall be held at the call of the chairperson or any 3 commissioners. Official action by the Commission shall require the affirmative vote of 5 commissioners, and a quorum shall consist of 5 commissioners. Commissioners shall receive no compensation but may be reimbursed for their reasonable expenses actually incurred in the performance of their duties.

(f) No commissioner, other than a commissioner who is a member of the General Assembly, or employee of the Legislative Ethics Commission may during his or her term of appointment or employment:

(1) become a candidate for any elective office;

(2) hold any other elected or appointed public office except for appointments on governmental advisory boards or study commissions or as otherwise expressly authorized by law;

(3) be actively involved in the affairs of any political party or political organization; or

(4) advocate for the appointment of another person to an appointed or elected office or position or actively participate in any campaign for any elective office.

(f-5) No commissioner who is a member of the General Assembly may be a candidate for statewide office, federal office, or judicial office. If a commissioner who is a member of the General Assembly files petitions to be a candidate for a statewide office, federal office, or judicial office, he or she shall be deemed to have resigned from his or her position as a commissioner on the date his or her name is certified for the ballot by the State Board of Elections or local election authority and his or her position as a commissioner shall be deemed vacant. Such person may not be reappointed to the Commission during any time he or she is a candidate for statewide office, federal office, or judicial office.

(g) An appointing authority may remove a commissioner only for cause.

(h) The Legislative Ethics Commission shall appoint an Executive Director subject to the approval of at least 3 of the 4 legislative leaders. The compensation of the Executive Director shall be as determined by the Commission. The Executive Director of the Legislative Ethics Commission may employ, subject to the approval of at least 3 of the 4 legislative leaders, and determine the compensation of staff, as appropriations permit.

(i) In consultation with the Legislative Inspector General, the Legislative Ethics Commission may develop comprehensive training for members and employees under its jurisdiction that includes, but is not limited to, sexual harassment, employment discrimination, and workplace civility. The training may be recommended to the ultimate jurisdictional authorities and may be approved by the Commission to satisfy the sexual harassment training required under Section 5-10.5 or be provided in addition to the annual sexual harassment training required under Section 5-10.5. The Commission may seek input from governmental agencies or private entities for guidance in developing such training.

(Source: P.A. 100-588, eff. 6-8-18; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 50. The State Commemorative Dates Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 195 as follows:

(5 ILCS 490/195)

Sec. 195. Illinois Statehood Day. December 3rd of each year is designated as Illinois Statehood Day, to be observed throughout the State as a day to commemorate December 3, 1818 as the day Illinois became the 21st State to join the Union. Each year, within 10 days before Illinois Statehood Day, the Governor shall issue a proclamation announcing the recognition of Statehood Day, and designate the official events that shall be held in honor of Illinois obtaining statehood on December 3, 1818.

(Source: P.A. 100-898, eff. 1-1-19.)

(5 ILCS 490/196)

Sec. 196 195. Day of the Horse. The fifth day of March of each year shall be designated as the Day of the Horse, to be observed throughout the State as a day to encourage citizens to honor and celebrate the role of equines in the history and character of Illinois, and to recognize the benefits of the equine industry to the economy, agriculture, tourism, and quality of life in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 100-1033, eff. 8-22-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 55. The Community-Law Enforcement Partnership for Deflection and Substance Use Disorder Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 35 as follows:

(5 ILCS 820/15)

Sec. 15. Authorization.

(a) Any law enforcement agency may establish a deflection program subject to the provisions of this Act in partnership with one or more licensed providers of substance use disorder treatment services and one or more community members or organizations.

(b) The deflection program may involve a post-overdose deflection response, a self-referral deflection response, an active outreach deflection response, an officer prevention deflection response, or an officer intervention deflection response, or any combination of those.

(c) Nothing shall preclude the General Assembly from adding other responses to a deflection program, or preclude a law enforcement agency from developing a deflection program response based on a model unique and responsive to local issues, substance use or mental health needs, and partnerships, using sound and promising or evidence-based practices.

(c-5) Whenever appropriate and available, case management should be provided by a licensed treatment provider or other appropriate provider and may include peer recovery support approaches.

(d) To receive funding for activities as described in Section 35 of this Act, planning for the deflection program shall include:

(1) the involvement of one or more licensed treatment programs and one or more community members member or organizations organization; and

(2) an agreement with the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority to collect and evaluate relevant statistical data related to the program, as established by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority in paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 25 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-1025, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(5 ILCS 820/35)

Sec. 35. Funding.

(a) The General Assembly may appropriate funds to the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the purpose of funding law enforcement agencies for services provided by deflection program partners as part of deflection programs subject to subsection (d) of Section 15 of this Act.

(b) The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority may adopt guidelines and requirements to direct the distribution of funds for expenses related to deflection programs. Funding shall be made available to support both new and existing deflection programs in a broad spectrum of geographic regions in this State, including urban, suburban, and rural communities. Activities eligible for funding under this Act may include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) activities related to program administration, coordination, or management, including, but not limited to, the development of collaborative partnerships with licensed treatment providers and community members or organizations; collection of program data; or monitoring of compliance with a local deflection program plan;

(2) case management including case management provided prior to assessment, diagnosis, and engagement in treatment, as well as assistance navigating and gaining access to various treatment modalities and support services;

(3) peer recovery or recovery support services that include the perspectives of persons with the experience of recovering from a substance use disorder, either themselves or as family members;

(4) transportation to a licensed treatment provider or other program partner location;

(5) program evaluation activities.

(c) Specific linkage agreements with recovery support services or self-help entities may be a requirement of the program services protocols. All deflection programs shall encourage the involvement of key family members and significant others as a part of a family-based approach to treatment. All deflection programs are encouraged to use evidence-based practices and outcome measures in the provision of substance use disorder treatment and medication-assisted medication assisted treatment for persons with opioid use disorders.

(Source: P.A. 100-1025, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 60. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 3-4, 4-12, 5-15, 6-44, 6A-7, 7-2, 7-58, 17-22, and 24A-10 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/3-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 3-4)

Sec. 3-4. No patient who has resided for less than 180 days in any hospital or mental institution in this State, shall by virtue of his abode at such hospital or mental institution be deemed a resident or legal voter in the town, city, village or election district or precinct in which such hospital or mental institution may be situated; but every such person shall be deemed a resident of the town, city, village or election district or precinct in which he resided next prior to becoming a patient of such hospital or mental institution. However, the term "hospital" does not include skilled nursing facilities.

(Source: P.A. 100-1110, eff. 8-28-18; revised 9-26-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/4-12) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-12)

Sec. 4-12. Any voter or voters in the township, city, village or incorporated town containing such precinct, and any precinct committeeperson in the county, may, between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. of Monday and Tuesday of the second week prior to the week in which the 1970 primary election for the nomination of candidates for State and county offices or any election thereafter is to be held, make application in writing, to the county clerk, to have any name upon the register of any precinct erased. Such application shall be, in substance, in the words and figures following:

"I, being a qualified voter, registered from No. .... Street in the .... precinct of the .... ward of the city (village or town of) .... (or of the .... town of ....) do hereby solemnly swear (or affirm) that .... registered from No. .... Street is not a qualified voter in the .... precinct of .... ward of the city (village or town) of .... (or of the .... town of ....) and hence I ask that his name be erased from the register of such precinct for the following reason .....

Affiant further says that he has personal knowledge of the facts set forth in the above affidavit.

(Signed) .....

Subscribed and sworn to before me on (insert date).

....

....

....."

Such application shall be signed and sworn to by the applicant before the county clerk or any deputy authorized by the county clerk for that purpose, and filed with said clerk. Thereupon notice of such application, and of the time and place of hearing thereon, with a demand to appear before the county clerk and show cause why his name shall not be erased from said register, shall be mailed, in an envelope duly stamped and directed to such person at the address upon said register, at least four days before the day fixed in said notice to show cause. If such person has provided the election authority with an e-mail address, then the election authority shall also send the same notice by electronic mail at least 4 days before the day fixed in said notice to show cause.

A like notice shall be mailed to the person or persons making the application to have the name upon such register erased to appear and show cause why said name should be erased, the notice to set out the day and hour of such hearing. If the voter making such application fails to appear before said clerk at the time set for the hearing as fixed in the said notice or fails to show cause why the name upon such register shall be erased, the application to erase may be dismissed by the county clerk.

Any voter making the application is privileged from arrest while presenting it to the county clerk, and while going to and from the office of the county clerk.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/5-15) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-15)

Sec. 5-15. Any voter or voters in the township, city, village, or incorporated town containing such precinct, and any precinct committeeperson in the county, may, between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and six o'clock p.m. of the Monday and Tuesday of the third week immediately preceding the week in which such April 10, 1962 Primary Election is to be held, make application in writing, before such County Clerk, to have any name upon such register of any precinct erased. Thereafter such application shall be made between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and six o'clock p.m. of Monday and Tuesday of the second week prior to the week in which any county, city, village, township, or incorporated town election is to be held. Such application shall be in substance, in the words and figures following:

"I, being a qualified voter, registered from No. .... Street in the .... precinct of the .... Ward of the city (village or town of .... ) of the .... District .... town of .... do hereby solemnly swear (or affirm) that .... registered from No. .... Street is not a qualified voter in the .... precinct of the .... ward of the city (village or town) of .... or of the .... district town of .... hence I ask that his name be erased from the register of such precinct for the following reason ..... Affiant further says that he has personal knowledge of the facts set forth in the above affidavit.

(Signed) .....

Subscribed and sworn to before me on (insert date).

....

....

...."

Such application shall be signed and sworn to by the applicant before the County Clerk or any Deputy authorized by the County Clerk for that purpose, and filed with the Clerk. Thereupon notice of such application, with a demand to appear before the County Clerk and show cause why his name shall not be erased from the register, shall be mailed by special delivery, duly stamped and directed, to such person, to the address upon said register at least 4 days before the day fixed in said notice to show cause. If such person has provided the election authority with an e-mail address, then the election authority shall also send the same notice by electronic mail at least 4 days before the day fixed in said notice to show cause.

A like notice shall be mailed to the person or persons making the application to have the name upon such register erased to appear and show cause why the name should be erased, the notice to set out the day and hour of such hearing. If the voter making such application fails to appear before the Clerk at the time set for the hearing as fixed in the said notice or fails to show cause why the name upon such register shall be erased, the application may be dismissed by the County Clerk.

Any voter making such application or applications shall be privileged from arrest while presenting the same to the County Clerk, and while whilst going to and returning from the office of the County Clerk.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-18-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/6-44) (from Ch. 46, par. 6-44)

Sec. 6-44. Any voter or voters in the ward, village or incorporated town containing such precinct, and any precinct committeeperson in the county, may, between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and six p.m. of Monday and Tuesday of the second week prior to the week in which such election is to be held make application in writing, before such board of election commissioners, to have any name upon such register of any precinct erased. However, in municipalities having a population of more than 500,000 and having a board of election commissioners (except as otherwise provided for such municipalities in Section 6-60 of this Article) and in all cities, villages and incorporated towns within the jurisdiction of such board, such application shall be made between the hours of nine o'clock a.m. and six o'clock p.m. of Monday and Tuesday of the second week prior to the week in which such election is to be held. Such application shall be, in substance, in the words and figures following:

"I, being a qualified voter, registered from No. .... street in the .... precinct of the .... ward of the city (village or town) of .... do hereby solemnly swear (or affirm) that I have personal knowledge that .... registered from No. .... street is not a qualified voter in the .... precinct of the .... ward of the city (village or town) of .... and hence I ask that his name be erased from the register of such precinct for the following reason ....

Affiant further says that he has personal knowledge of the facts set forth in the above affidavit.

(Signed)....

Subscribed and sworn to before me on (insert date).

....

...."

Such application shall be signed and sworn to by the applicant before any member of the board or the clerk thereof and filed with said board. Thereupon notice of such application, with a demand to appear before the board of election commissioners and show cause why his name shall not be erased from said register, shall be personally served upon such person or left at his place of residence indicated in such register, or in the case of a homeless individual, at his or her mailing address, by a messenger of said board of election commissioners, and, as to the manner and time of serving such notice such messenger shall make affidavit; the messenger shall also make affidavit of the fact in case he cannot find such person or his place of residence, and that he went to the place named on such register as his or her place of residence. Such notice shall be served at least one day before the time fixed for such party to show cause.

The commissioners shall also cause a like notice or demand to be sent by mail duly stamped and directed, to such person, to the address upon the register at least 2 days before the day fixed in the notice to show cause.

A like notice shall be served on the person or persons making the application to have the name upon such register erased to appear and show cause why said name shall be erased, the notice to set out the day and hour of such hearing. If the voter making such application fails to appear before said board at the time set for the hearing as fixed in the notice or fails to show cause why the name upon such register shall be erased, the application may be dismissed by the board.

Any voter making such application or applications shall be privileged from arrest while presenting the same to the board of election commissioners, and while going to and returning from the board of election commissioners.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/6A-7) (from Ch. 46, par. 6A-7)

Sec. 6A-7. Dissolution.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), any county which has established a board of election commissioners may subsequently vote to dissolve such board in the same manner as provided in Article 6 for cities, villages, and incorporated towns, except that the petition to the circuit court to submit to the vote of the electors of the county the proposition to dissolve the board of election commissioners shall be signed by at least 10% of the registered voters of the county.

(b) A county board in a county that has established a county board of election commissioners in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 6A-1 of this the Election Code may, by ordinance or resolution, dissolve the county board of election commissioners and transfer its functions to the county clerk.

(Source: P.A. 100-628, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-19-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-2) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-2)

Sec. 7-2. A political party, which at the general election for State and county officers then next preceding a primary, polled more than 5 per cent of the entire vote cast in the State, is hereby declared to be a political party within the State, and shall nominate all candidates provided for in this Article 7 under the provisions hereof, and shall elect precinct, township, ward, and State central committeepersons as herein provided.

A political party, which at the general election for State and county officers then next preceding a primary, cast more than 5 per cent of the entire vote cast within any congressional district, is hereby declared to be a political party within the meaning of this Article, within such congressional district, and shall nominate its candidate for Representative in Congress, under the provisions hereof. A political party, which at the general election for State and county officers then next preceding a primary, cast more than 5 per cent of the entire vote cast in any county, is hereby declared to be a political party within the meaning of this Article, within said county, and shall nominate all county officers in said county under the provisions hereof, and shall elect precinct, township, and ward committeepersons, as herein provided. ;

A political party, which at the municipal election for city, village, or incorporated town officers then next preceding a primary, cast more than 5 per cent of the entire vote cast in any city, or village, or incorporated town is hereby declared to be a political party within the meaning of this Article, within said city, village, or incorporated town, and shall nominate all city, village, or incorporated town officers in said city, or village, or incorporated town under the provisions hereof to the extent and in the cases provided in Section 7-1.

A political party, which at the municipal election for town officers then next preceding a primary, cast more than 5 per cent of the entire vote cast in said town, is hereby declared to be a political party within the meaning of this Article, within said town, and shall nominate all town officers in said town under the provisions hereof to the extent and in the cases provided in Section 7-1.

A political party, which at the municipal election in any other municipality or political subdivision, (except townships and school districts), for municipal or other officers therein then next preceding a primary, cast more than 5 per cent of the entire vote cast in such municipality or political subdivision, is hereby declared to be a political party within the meaning of this Article, within said municipality or political subdivision, and shall nominate all municipal or other officers therein under the provisions hereof to the extent and in the cases provided in Section 7-1.

Provided, that no political organization or group shall be qualified as a political party hereunder, or given a place on a ballot, which organization or group is associated, directly or indirectly, with Communist, Fascist, Nazi, or other un-American principles and engages in activities or propaganda designed to teach subservience to the political principles and ideals of foreign nations or the overthrow by violence of the established constitutional form of government of the United States and the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-18-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/7-58) (from Ch. 46, par. 7-58)

Sec. 7-58. Each county clerk or board of election commissioners shall, upon completion of the canvassing of the returns, make and transmit to the State Board of Elections and to each election authority whose duty it is to print the official ballot for the election for which the nomination is made a proclamation of the results of the primary. The proclamation shall state the name of each candidate of each political party so nominated or elected, as shown by the returns, together with the name of the office for which he or she was nominated or elected, including precinct, township and ward committeepersons, and including in the case of the State Board of Elections, candidates for State central committeepersons, and delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating conventions. If a notice of contest is filed, the election authority shall, within one business day after receiving a certified copy of the court's judgment or order, amend its proclamation accordingly and proceed to file an amended proclamation with the appropriate election authorities and with the State Board of Elections.

The State Board of Elections shall issue a certificate of election to each of the persons shown by the returns and the proclamation thereof to be elected State central committeepersons, and delegates and alternate delegates to National nominating nomination conventions; and the county clerk shall issue a certificate of election to each person shown by the returns to be elected precinct, township or ward committeeperson. The certificate issued to such precinct committeeperson shall state the number of ballots voted in his or her precinct by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary at which he or she was elected. The certificate issued to such township committeeperson shall state the number of ballots voted in his or her township or part of a township, as the case may be, by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary at which he or she was elected. The certificate issued to such ward committeeperson shall state the number of ballots voted in his or her ward by the primary electors of his or her party at the primary at which he or she was elected.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/17-22) (from Ch. 46, par. 17-22)

Sec. 17-22. The judges of election shall make the tally sheet and certificate of results in triplicate. If, however, the number of established political parties, as defined in Section 10-2, exceeds 2, one additional copy shall be made for each established political party in excess of 2. One list of voters, or other proper return with such certificate written thereon, and accompanying tally sheet footed up so as to show the correct number of votes cast for each person voted for, shall be carefully enveloped and sealed up by the judges of election, 2 of whom (one from each of the 2 major political parties) shall immediately deliver same to the county clerk, or his deputy, at the office of the county clerk, or to an officially designated receiving station established by the county clerk where a duly authorized representative of the county clerk shall receive said envelopes for immediate transmission to the office of county clerk, who shall safely keep them. The other certificates of results and accompanying tally sheet shall be carefully enveloped and sealed up and duly directed, respectively, to the chair chairp of the county central committee of each then existing established political party, and by another of the judges of election deposited immediately in the nearest United States letter deposit. However, if any county chair notifies the county clerk not later than 10 days before the election of his desire to receive the envelope addressed to him at the point and at the time same are delivered to the county clerk, his deputy or receiving station designee the envelopes shall be delivered to such county chair or his designee immediately upon receipt thereof by the county clerk, his deputy or his receiving station designee. The person or persons so designated by a county chair shall sign an official receipt acknowledging receipt of said envelopes. The poll book and tally list filed with the county clerk shall be kept one year, and certified copies thereof shall be evidence in all courts, proceedings and election contests. Before the returns are sealed up, as aforesaid, the judges shall compare the tally papers, footings and certificates and see that they are correct and duplicates of each other, and certify to the correctness of the same.

At the consolidated election, the judges of election shall make a tally sheet and certificate of results for each political subdivision for which candidates or public questions are on the ballot at such election, and shall sign, seal in a marked envelope and deliver them to the county clerk with the other certificates of results herein required. Such tally sheets and certificates of results may be duplicates of the tally sheet and certificate of results otherwise required by this Section, showing all votes for all candidates and public questions voted for or upon in the precinct, or may be on separate forms prepared by the election authority and showing only those votes cast for candidates and public questions of each such political subdivision.

Within 2 days of delivery of complete returns of the consolidated election, the county clerk shall transmit an original, sealed tally sheet and certificate of results from each precinct in his jurisdiction in which candidates or public questions of a political subdivision were on the ballot to the local election official of such political subdivision. Each local election official, within 24 hours of receipt of all of the tally sheets and certificates of results for all precincts in which candidates or public questions of his political subdivision were on the ballot, shall transmit such sealed tally sheets and certificates of results to the canvassing board for that political subdivision.

In the case of referenda for the formation of a political subdivision, the tally sheets and certificates of results shall be transmitted by the county clerk to the circuit court that ordered the proposition submitted or to the officials designated by the court to conduct the canvass of votes. In the case of school referenda for which a regional superintendent of schools is responsible for the canvass of votes, the county clerk shall transmit the tally sheets and certificates of results to the regional superintendent of schools.

Where voting machines or electronic voting systems are used, the provisions of this section may be modified as required or authorized by Article 24 or Article 24A, whichever is applicable.

Only judges appointed under the provisions of subsection (a) of Section 13-4 or subsection (b) of Section 14-1 may make any delivery required by this Section from judges of election to a county clerk, or his or her deputy, at the office of the county clerk or to a county clerk's duly authorized representative at the county clerk's officially designated receiving station.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

(10 ILCS 5/24A-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-10)

Sec. 24A-10. (1) In an election jurisdiction which has adopted an electronic voting system, the election official in charge of the election shall select one of the 3 following procedures for receiving, counting, tallying, and return of the ballots:

(a) Two ballot boxes shall be provided for each polling place. The first ballot box is for the depositing of votes cast on the electronic voting system; and the second ballot box is for all votes cast on paper ballots, including any paper ballots required to be voted other than on the electronic voting system. Ballots deposited in the second ballot box shall be counted, tallied, and returned as is elsewhere provided in this Code "The Election Code," as amended, for the counting and handling of paper ballots. Immediately after the closing of the polls, the judges of election shall make out a slip indicating the number of persons who voted in the precinct at the election. Such slip shall be signed by all the judges of election and shall be inserted by them in the first ballot box. The judges of election shall thereupon immediately lock each ballot box; provided, that if such box is not of a type which may be securely locked, such box shall be sealed with filament tape provided for such purpose which shall be wrapped around the box lengthwise and crosswise, at least twice each way, and in such manner that the seal completely covers the slot in the ballot box, and each of the judges shall sign such seal. Thereupon two of the judges of election, of different political parties, shall forthwith and by the most direct route transport both ballot boxes to the counting location designated by the county clerk or board of election commissioners.

Before the ballots of a precinct are fed to the electronic tabulating equipment, the first ballot box shall be opened at the central counting station by the two precinct transport judges. Upon opening a ballot box, such team shall first count the number of ballots in the box. If 2 or more are folded together so as to appear to have been cast by the same person, all of the ballots so folded together shall be marked and returned with the other ballots in the same condition, as near as may be, in which they were found when first opened, but shall not be counted. If the remaining ballots are found to exceed the number of persons voting in the precinct as shown by the slip signed by the judges of election, the ballots shall be replaced in the box, and the box closed and well shaken and again opened and one of the precinct transport judges shall publicly draw out so many ballots unopened as are equal to such excess.

Such excess ballots shall be marked "Excess-Not Counted" and signed by the two precinct transport judges and shall be placed in the "After 7:00 p.m. Defective Ballots Envelope". The number of excess ballots shall be noted in the remarks section of the Certificate of Results. "Excess" ballots shall not be counted in the total of "defective" ballots.

The precinct transport judges shall then examine the remaining ballots for write-in votes and shall count and tabulate the write-in vote; or

(b) A single ballot box, for the deposit of all votes cast, shall be used. All ballots which are not to be tabulated on the electronic voting system shall be counted, tallied, and returned as elsewhere provided in this Code "The Election Code," as amended, for the counting and handling of paper ballots.

All ballots to be processed and tabulated with the electronic voting system shall be processed as follows:

Immediately after the closing of the polls, the precinct judges of election then shall open the ballot box and canvass the votes polled to determine that the number of ballots therein agree with the number of voters voting as shown by the applications for ballot or if the same do not agree the judges of election shall make such ballots agree with the applications for ballot in the manner provided by Section 17-18 of this Code. "The Election Code." The judges of election shall then examine all ballot cards and ballot card envelopes which are in the ballot box to determine whether the ballot cards and ballot card envelopes bear the initials of a precinct judge of election. If any ballot card or ballot card envelope is not initialed, it shall be marked on the back "Defective," initialed as to such label by all judges immediately under such word "Defective," and not counted, but placed in the envelope provided for that purpose labeled "Defective Ballots Envelope."

When an electronic voting system is used which utilizes a ballot card, before separating the ballot cards from their respective covering envelopes, the judges of election shall examine the ballot card envelopes for write-in votes. When the voter has voted a write-in vote, the judges of election shall compare the write-in vote with the votes on the ballot card to determine whether such write-in results in an overvote for any office. In case of an overvote for any office, the judges of election, consisting in each case of at least one judge of election of each of the two major political parties, shall make a true duplicate ballot of all votes on such ballot card except for the office which is overvoted, by using the ballot label booklet of the precinct and one of the marking devices of the precinct so as to transfer all votes of the voter except for the office overvoted, to an official ballot card of that kind used in the precinct at that election. The original ballot card and envelope upon which there is an overvote shall be clearly labeled "Overvoted Ballot", and each shall bear the same serial number which shall be placed thereon by the judges of election, commencing with number 1 and continuing consecutively for the ballots of that kind in that precinct. The judges of election shall initial the "Duplicate Overvoted Ballot" ballot cards and shall place them in the box for return of the ballots. The "Overvoted Ballot" ballots and their envelopes shall be placed in the "Duplicate Ballots" envelope. Envelopes bearing write-in votes marked in the place designated therefor and bearing the initials of a precinct judge of election and not resulting in an overvote and otherwise complying with the election laws as to marking shall be counted, tallied, and their votes recorded on a tally sheet provided by the election official in charge of the election. The ballot cards and ballot card envelopes shall be separated and all except any defective or overvoted shall be placed separately in the box for return of the ballots. The judges of election shall examine the ballots and ballot cards to determine if any is damaged or defective so that it cannot be counted by the automatic tabulating equipment. If any ballot or ballot card is damaged or defective so that it cannot properly be counted by the automatic tabulating equipment, the judges of election, consisting in each case of at least one judge of election of each of the two major political parties, shall make a true duplicate ballot of all votes on such ballot card by using the ballot label booklet of the precinct and one of the marking devices of the precinct. The original ballot or ballot card and envelope shall be clearly labeled "Damaged Ballot" and the ballot or ballot card so produced "Duplicate Damaged Ballot," and each shall bear the same number which shall be placed thereon by the judges of election, commencing with number 1 and continuing consecutively for the ballots of that kind in the precinct. The judges of election shall initial the "Duplicate Damaged Ballot" ballot or ballot cards, and shall place them in the box for return of the ballots. The "Damaged Ballot" ballots or ballot cards and their envelopes shall be placed in the "Duplicated Ballots" envelope. A slip indicating the number of voters voting in person shall be made out, signed by all judges of election, and inserted in the box for return of the ballots. The tally sheets recording the write-in votes shall be placed in this box. The judges of election thereupon immediately shall securely lock the ballot box or other suitable box furnished for return of the ballots by the election official in charge of the election; provided that if such box is not of a type which may be securely locked, such box shall be sealed with filament tape provided for such purpose which shall be wrapped around the box lengthwise and crosswise, at least twice each way. A separate adhesive seal label signed by each of the judges of election of the precinct shall be affixed to the box so as to cover any slot therein and to identify the box of the precinct; and if such box is sealed with filament tape as provided herein rather than locked, such tape shall be wrapped around the box as provided herein, but in such manner that the separate adhesive seal label affixed to the box and signed by the judges may not be removed without breaking the filament tape and disturbing the signature of the judges. Thereupon, 2 of the judges of election, of different major political parties, forthwith shall by the most direct route transport the box for return of the ballots and enclosed ballots and returns to the central counting location designated by the election official in charge of the election. If, however, because of the lack of adequate parking facilities at the central counting location or for any other reason, it is impossible or impracticable for the boxes from all the polling places to be delivered directly to the central counting location, the election official in charge of the election may designate some other location to which the boxes shall be delivered by the 2 precinct judges. While at such other location the boxes shall be in the care and custody of one or more teams, each consisting of 4 persons, 2 from each of the two major political parties, designated for such purpose by the election official in charge of elections from recommendations by the appropriate political party organizations. As soon as possible, the boxes shall be transported from such other location to the central counting location by one or more teams, each consisting of 4 persons, 2 from each of the 2 major political parties, designated for such purpose by the election official in charge of elections from recommendations by the appropriate political party organizations.

The "Defective Ballots" envelope, and "Duplicated Ballots" envelope each shall be securely sealed and the flap or end thereof of each signed by the precinct judges of election and returned to the central counting location with the box for return of the ballots, enclosed ballots and returns.

At the central counting location, a team of tally judges designated by the election official in charge of the election shall check the box returned containing the ballots to determine that all seals are intact, and thereupon shall open the box, check the voters' slip and compare the number of ballots so delivered against the total number of voters of the precinct who voted, remove the ballots or ballot cards and deliver them to the technicians operating the automatic tabulating equipment. Any discrepancies between the number of ballots and total number of voters shall be noted on a sheet furnished for that purpose and signed by the tally judges; or

(c) A single ballot box, for the deposit of all votes cast, shall be used. Immediately after the closing of the polls, the precinct judges of election shall securely lock the ballot box; provided that if such box is not of a type which may be securely locked, such box shall be sealed with filament tape provided for such purpose which shall be wrapped around the box lengthwise and crosswise, at least twice each way. A separate adhesive seal label signed by each of the judges of election of the precinct shall be affixed to the box so as to cover any slot therein and to identify the box of the precinct; and if such box is sealed with filament tape as provided herein rather than locked, such tape shall be wrapped around the box as provided herein, but in such manner that the separate adhesive seal label affixed to the box and signed by the judges may not be removed without breaking the filament tape and disturbing the signature of the judges. Thereupon, 2 of the judges of election, of different major political parties, shall forthwith by the most direct route transport the box for return of the ballots and enclosed vote by mail and early ballots and returns to the central counting location designated by the election official in charge of the election. If however, because of the lack of adequate parking facilities at the central counting location or for some other reason, it is impossible or impracticable for the boxes from all the polling places to be delivered directly to the central counting location, the election official in charge of the election may designate some other location to which the boxes shall be delivered by the 2 precinct judges. While at such other location the boxes shall be in the care and custody of one or more teams, each consisting of 4 persons, 2 from each of the two major political parties, designated for such purpose by the election official in charge of elections from recommendations by the appropriate political party organizations. As soon as possible, the boxes shall be transported from such other location to the central counting location by one or more teams, each consisting of 4 persons, 2 from each of the 2 major political parties, designated for such purpose by the election official in charge of the election from recommendations by the appropriate political party organizations.

At the central counting location there shall be one or more teams of tally judges who possess the same qualifications as tally judges in election jurisdictions using paper ballots. The number of such teams shall be determined by the election authority. Each team shall consist of 5 tally judges, 3 selected and approved by the county board from a certified list furnished by the chair of the county central committee of the party with the majority of members on the county board and 2 selected and approved by the county board from a certified list furnished by the chair of the county central committee of the party with the second largest number of members on the county board. At the central counting location a team of tally judges shall open the ballot box and canvass the votes polled to determine that the number of ballot sheets therein agree with the number of voters voting as shown by the applications for ballot; and, if the same do not agree, the tally judges shall make such ballots agree with the number of applications for ballot in the manner provided by Section 17-18 of this the Election Code. The tally judges shall then examine all ballot sheets which are in the ballot box to determine whether they bear the initials of the precinct judge of election. If any ballot is not initialed, it shall be marked on the back "Defective", initialed as to such label by all tally judges immediately under such word "Defective", and not counted, but placed in the envelope provided for that purpose labeled "Defective Ballots Envelope". An overvote for one office shall invalidate only the vote or count of that particular office.

At the central counting location, a team of tally judges designated by the election official in charge of the election shall deliver the ballot sheets to the technicians operating the automatic tabulating equipment. Any discrepancies between the number of ballots and total number of voters shall be noted on a sheet furnished for that purpose and signed by the tally judges.

(2) Regardless of which procedure described in subsection (1) of this Section is used, the judges of election designated to transport the ballots, properly signed and sealed as provided herein, shall ensure that the ballots are delivered to the central counting station no later than 12 hours after the polls close. At the central counting station a team of tally judges designated by the election official in charge of the election shall examine the ballots so transported and shall not accept ballots for tabulating which are not signed and sealed as provided in subsection (1) of this Section until the judges transporting the same make and sign the necessary corrections. Upon acceptance of the ballots by a team of tally judges at the central counting station, the election judges transporting the same shall take a receipt signed by the election official in charge of the election and stamped with the date and time of acceptance. The election judges whose duty it is to transport any ballots shall, in the event such ballots cannot be found when needed, on proper request, produce the receipt which they are to take as above provided.

(Source: P.A. 100-1027, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-10-18.)

Section 65. The Executive Reorganization Implementation Act is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:

(15 ILCS 15/3.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1050)

Sec. 3.1. "Agency directly responsible to the Governor" or "agency" means any office, officer, division, or part thereof, and any other office, nonelective officer, department, division, bureau, board, or commission in the executive branch of State government, except that it does not apply to any agency whose primary function is service to the General Assembly or the Judicial Branch of State government, or to any agency administered by the Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller or State Treasurer. In addition the term does not apply to the following agencies created by law with the primary responsibility of exercising regulatory or adjudicatory functions independently of the Governor:

(1) the State Board of Elections;

(2) the State Board of Education;

(3) the Illinois Commerce Commission;

(4) the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission;

(5) the Civil Service Commission;

(6) the Fair Employment Practices Commission;

(7) the Pollution Control Board;

(8) the Department of State Police Merit Board;

(9) the Illinois Racing Board;

(10) the Illinois Power Agency; and

(11) the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(Source: P.A. 100-995, eff. 8-20-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1050)

Sec. 3.1. "Agency directly responsible to the Governor" or "agency" means any office, officer, division, or part thereof, and any other office, nonelective officer, department, division, bureau, board, or commission in the executive branch of State government, except that it does not apply to any agency whose primary function is service to the General Assembly or the Judicial Branch of State government, or to any agency administered by the Attorney General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller or State Treasurer. In addition the term does not apply to the following agencies created by law with the primary responsibility of exercising regulatory or adjudicatory functions independently of the Governor:

(1) the State Board of Elections;

(2) the State Board of Education;

(3) the Illinois Commerce Commission;

(4) the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission;

(5) the Civil Service Commission;

(6) the Fair Employment Practices Commission;

(7) the Pollution Control Board;

(8) the Department of State Police Merit Board;

(9) the Illinois Racing Board;

(10) the Illinois Power Agency; and

(11) the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board; and .

(12) (11) the Illinois Liquor Control Commission.

(Source: P.A. 100-995, eff. 8-20-18; 100-1050, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 70. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/12) (from Ch. 124, par. 32)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-717)

Sec. 12. Fees concerning standard Illinois Identification Cards. The fees required under this Act for standard Illinois Identification Cards must accompany any application provided for in this Act, and the Secretary shall collect such fees as follows:

All fees collected under this Act shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State treasury, except that the following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund: (i) 80% of the fee for an original, renewal, or duplicate Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005; and (ii) 80% of the fee for a corrected Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005.

An individual, who resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State or federal government, who makes an application for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee, must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by the applicant on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that such person resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State or federal government.

The application of a homeless individual for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee must be accompanied by an affirmation by a qualified person, as defined in Section 4C of this Act, on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the applicant is currently homeless as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

For the application for the first Illinois Identification Card of a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible or a foster child to be issued at no fee, the youth must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by his or her court appointed attorney or an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the person is a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible or a foster child.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's Office with a police report showing that his or her identification card was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose identification card has been lost or stolen.

As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 99-607, eff. 7-22-16; 99-659, eff. 7-28-17; 99-907, eff. 7-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-827, eff. 8-13-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-717)

Sec. 12. Fees concerning standard Illinois Identification Cards. The fees required under this Act for standard Illinois Identification Cards must accompany any application provided for in this Act, and the Secretary shall collect such fees as follows:

All fees collected under this Act shall be paid into the Road Fund of the State treasury, except that the following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund: (i) 80% of the fee for an original, renewal, or duplicate Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005; and (ii) 80% of the fee for a corrected Illinois Identification Card issued on or after January 1, 2005.

An individual, who resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State or federal government, who makes an application for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee, must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by the applicant on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that such person resides in a veterans home or veterans hospital operated by the State or federal government.

The application of a homeless individual for an Illinois Identification Card to be issued at no fee must be accompanied by an affirmation by a qualified person, as defined in Section 4C of this Act, on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the applicant is currently homeless as defined in Section 1A of this Act.

For the application for the first Illinois Identification Card of a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible or a foster child to be issued at no fee, the youth must submit, along with the application, an affirmation by his or her court appointed attorney or an employee of the Department of Children and Family Services on a form provided by the Secretary of State, that the person is a youth for whom the Department of Children and Family Services is legally responsible or a foster child.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's Office with a police report showing that his or her identification card was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate identification card shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose identification card has been lost or stolen.

As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 99-607, eff. 7-22-16; 99-659, eff. 7-28-17; 99-907, eff. 7-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-717, eff. 7-1-19; 100-827, eff. 8-13-18; revised 9-4-18.)

Section 75. The State Treasurer Act is amended by changing Section 16.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 505/16.5)

Sec. 16.5. College Savings Pool.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Account owner" means any person or entity who has opened an account or to whom ownership of an account has been transferred, as allowed by the Internal Revenue Code, and who has authority to withdraw funds, direct withdrawal of funds, change the designated beneficiary, or otherwise exercise control over an account in the College Savings Pool.

"Donor" means any person or entity who makes contributions to an account in the College Savings Pool.

"Designated beneficiary" means any individual designated as the beneficiary of an account in the College Savings Pool by an account owner. A designated beneficiary must have a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number. In the case of an account established as part of a scholarship program permitted under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, the designated beneficiary is any individual receiving benefits accumulated in the account as a scholarship.

"Member of the family" has the same meaning ascribed to that term under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code.

"Nonqualified withdrawal" means a distribution from an account other than a distribution that (i) is used for the qualified expenses of the designated beneficiary; (ii) results from the beneficiary's death or disability; (iii) is a rollover to another account in the College Savings Pool; or (iv) is a rollover to an ABLE account, as defined in Section 16.6 of this Act, or any distribution that, within 60 days after such distribution, is transferred to an ABLE account of the designated beneficiary or a member of the family of the designated beneficiary to the extent that the distribution, when added to all other contributions made to the ABLE account for the taxable year, does not exceed the limitation under Section 529A(b)(2)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code.

"Program manager" means any financial institution or entity lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois selected by the State Treasurer to oversee the recordkeeping, custody, customer service, investment management, and marketing for one or more of the programs in the College Savings Pool.

"Qualified expenses" means: (i) tuition, fees, and the costs of books, supplies, and equipment required for enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution; (ii) expenses for special needs services, in the case of a special needs beneficiary, which are incurred in connection with such enrollment or attendance; (iii) certain expenses for the purchase of computer or peripheral equipment, as defined in Section 168 of the federal Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 168), computer software, as defined in Section 197 of the federal Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 197), or Internet access and related services, if such equipment, software, or services are to be used primarily by the beneficiary during any of the years the beneficiary is enrolled at an eligible educational institution, except that, such expenses shall not include expenses for computer software designed for sports, games, or hobbies, unless the software is predominantly educational in nature; and (iv) room and board expenses incurred while attending an eligible educational institution at least half-time. "Eligible educational institutions", as used in this Section, means public and private colleges, junior colleges, graduate schools, and certain vocational institutions that are described in Section 481 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1088) and that are eligible to participate in Department of Education student aid programs. A student shall be considered to be enrolled at least half-time if the student is enrolled for at least half the full-time academic workload for the course of study the student is pursuing as determined under the standards of the institution at which the student is enrolled.

(b) Establishment of the Pool. The State Treasurer may establish and administer a College Savings Pool as a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code. The Pool may consist of one or more college savings programs. The State Treasurer, in administering the College Savings Pool, may receive, hold, and invest moneys paid into the Pool and perform such other actions as are necessary to ensure that the Pool operates as a qualified tuition program in accordance with Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Administration of the College Savings Pool. The State Treasurer may engage one or more financial institutions to handle the overall administration, investment management, recordkeeping, and marketing of the programs in the College Savings Pool. The contributions deposited in the Pool, and any earnings thereon, shall not constitute property of the State or be commingled with State funds and the State shall have no claim to or against, or interest in, such funds.

(d) Availability of the College Savings Pool. The State Treasurer may permit persons, including trustees of trusts and custodians under a Uniform Transfers to Minors Act or Uniform Gifts to Minors Act account, and certain legal entities to be account owners, including as part of a scholarship program, provided that: (1) an individual, trustee or custodian must have a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number, be at least 18 years of age, and have a valid United States street address; and (2) a legal entity must have a valid taxpayer identification number and a valid United States street address. Both in-state and out-of-state persons may be account owners and donors, and both in-state and out-of-state individuals may be designated beneficiaries in the College Savings Pool.

(e) Fees. The State Treasurer shall establish fees to be imposed on accounts to recover the costs of administration, recordkeeping, and investment management. The Treasurer must use his or her best efforts to keep these fees as low as possible and consistent with administration of high quality competitive college savings programs.

(f) Investments in the State. To enhance the safety and liquidity of the College Savings Pool, to ensure the diversification of the investment portfolio of the College Savings Pool, and in an effort to keep investment dollars in the State of Illinois, the State Treasurer may make a percentage of each account available for investment in participating financial institutions doing business in the State.

(g) Investment policy. The Treasurer shall develop, publish, and implement an investment policy covering the investment of the moneys in each of the programs in the College Savings Pool. The policy shall be published each year as part of the audit of the College Savings Pool by the Auditor General, which shall be distributed to all account owners in such program. The Treasurer shall notify all account owners in such program in writing, and the Treasurer shall publish in a newspaper of general circulation in both Chicago and Springfield, any changes to the previously published investment policy at least 30 calendar days before implementing the policy. Any investment policy adopted by the Treasurer shall be reviewed and updated if necessary within 90 days following the date that the State Treasurer takes office.

(h) Investment restrictions. An account owner may, directly or indirectly, direct the investment of any contributions to the College Savings Pool (or any earnings thereon) only as provided in Section 529(b)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code. Donors and designated beneficiaries, in those capacities, may not, directly or indirectly, direct the investment of any contributions to the Pool (or any earnings thereon).

(i) Distributions. Distributions from an account in the College Savings Pool may be used for the designated beneficiary's qualified expenses. Funds contained in a College Savings Pool account may be rolled over into an eligible ABLE account, as defined in Section 16.6 of this Act, to the extent permitted by Section 529(c)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code. To the extent a nonqualified withdrawal is made from an account, the earnings portion of such distribution may be treated by the Internal Revenue Service as income subject to income tax and a 10% federal penalty tax. Internet

Distributions made from the College Savings Pool may be made directly to the educational institution, directly to a vendor, in the form of a check payable to both the designated beneficiary and the institution or vendor, directly to the designated beneficiary or account owner, or in any other manner that is permissible under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(j) Contributions. Contributions to the College Savings Pool shall be as follows:

(1) Contributions to an account in the College Savings Pool may be made only in cash.

(2) The Treasurer shall limit the contributions that may be made to the College Savings Pool on behalf of a designated beneficiary, as required under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, to prevent contributions for the benefit of a designated beneficiary in excess of those necessary to provide for the qualified expenses of the designated beneficiary. The Pool shall not permit any additional contributions to an account as soon as the aggregate accounts for the designated beneficiary in the Pool reach a specified account balance limit applicable to all designated beneficiaries.

(3) The contributions made on behalf of a designated beneficiary who is also a beneficiary under the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program shall be further restricted to ensure that the contributions in both programs combined do not exceed the limit established for the College Savings Pool.

(k) Illinois Student Assistance Commission. The Treasurer shall provide the Illinois Student Assistance Commission each year at a time designated by the Commission, an electronic report of all account owner accounts in the Treasurer's College Savings Pool, listing total contributions and disbursements from each individual account during the previous calendar year. As soon thereafter as is possible following receipt of the Treasurer's report, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission shall, in turn, provide the Treasurer with an electronic report listing those College Savings Pool account owners who also participate in the State's prepaid tuition program, administered by the Commission. The Commission shall be responsible for filing any combined tax reports regarding State qualified savings programs required by the United States Internal Revenue Service.

The Treasurer shall work with the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to coordinate the marketing of the College Savings Pool and the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program when considered beneficial by the Treasurer and the Director of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission. The Treasurer shall provide a separate accounting for each designated beneficiary to each account owner.

(l) Prohibition; exemption. No interest in the program, or any portion thereof, may be used as security for a loan. Moneys held in an account invested in the College Savings Pool shall be exempt from all claims of the creditors of the account owner, donor, or designated beneficiary of that account, except for the non-exempt College Savings Pool transfers to or from the account as defined under subsection (j) of Section 12-1001 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(m) Taxation. The assets of the College Savings Pool and its income and operation shall be exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and any of its subdivisions. The accrued earnings on investments in the Pool once disbursed on behalf of a designated beneficiary shall be similarly exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and its subdivisions, so long as they are used for qualified expenses. Contributions to a College Savings Pool account during the taxable year may be deducted from adjusted gross income as provided in Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The provisions of this paragraph are exempt from Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

(n) Rules. The Treasurer shall adopt rules he or she considers necessary for the efficient administration of the College Savings Pool. The rules shall provide whatever additional parameters and restrictions are necessary to ensure that the College Savings Pool meets all of the requirements for a qualified state tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code.

The rules shall provide for the administration expenses of the Pool to be paid from its earnings and for the investment earnings in excess of the expenses to be credited at least monthly to the account owners in the Pool in a manner which equitably reflects the differing amounts of their respective investments in the Pool and the differing periods of time for which those amounts were in the custody of the Pool.

The rules shall require the maintenance of records that enable the Treasurer's office to produce a report for each account in the Pool at least annually that documents the account balance and investment earnings.

Notice of any proposed amendments to the rules and regulations shall be provided to all account owners prior to adoption. Amendments to rules and regulations shall apply only to contributions made after the adoption of the amendment.

(o) Bond. The State Treasurer shall give bond with at least one surety, payable to and for the benefit of the account owners in the College Savings Pool, in the penal sum of $10,000,000, conditioned upon the faithful discharge of his or her duties in relation to the College Savings Pool.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-161, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-905, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 80. The Deposit of State Moneys Act is amended by changing Section 22.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 520/22.5) (from Ch. 130, par. 41a)

(For force and effect of certain provisions, see Section 90 of P.A. 94-79)

Sec. 22.5. Permitted investments. The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest and reinvest any State money in the treasury which is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, in obligations of the United States government or its agencies or of National Mortgage Associations established by or under the National Housing Act, 12 1201 U.S.C. 1701 et seq., or in mortgage participation certificates representing undivided interests in specified, first-lien conventional residential Illinois mortgages that are underwritten, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation or in Affordable Housing Program Trust Fund Bonds or Notes as defined in and issued pursuant to the Illinois Housing Development Act. All such obligations shall be considered as cash and may be delivered over as cash by a State Treasurer to his successor.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, purchase any state bonds with any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and interest on the bonds. The bonds shall be considered as cash and may be delivered over as cash by the State Treasurer to his successor.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest any State money in the treasury that is not needed for current expenditure due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in shares, withdrawable accounts, and investment certificates of savings and building and loan associations, incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States; provided, however, that investments may be made only in those savings and loan or building and loan associations the shares and withdrawable accounts or other forms of investment securities of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

The State Treasurer may not invest State money in any savings and loan or building and loan association unless a commitment by the savings and loan (or building and loan) association, executed by the president or chief executive officer of that association, is submitted in the following form:

The .................. Savings and Loan (or Building and Loan) Association pledges not to reject arbitrarily mortgage loans for residential properties within any specific part of the community served by the savings and loan (or building and loan) association because of the location of the property. The savings and loan (or building and loan) association also pledges to make loans available on low and moderate income residential property throughout the community within the limits of its legal restrictions and prudent financial practices.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest, at a price not to exceed par, any State money in the treasury that is not needed for current expenditures due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and interest on any State bonds, in bonds issued by counties or municipal corporations of the State of Illinois.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest any State money in the Treasury which is not needed for current expenditure, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury which has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in participations in loans, the principal of which participation is fully guaranteed by an agency or instrumentality of the United States government; provided, however, that such loan participations are represented by certificates issued only by banks which are incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States, and such banks, but not the loan participation certificates, are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.

Whenever the total amount of vouchers presented to the Comptroller under Section 9 of the State Comptroller Act exceeds the funds available in the General Revenue Fund by $1,000,000,000 or more, then the State Treasurer may invest any State money in the Treasury, other than money in the General Revenue Fund, Health Insurance Reserve Fund, Attorney General Court Ordered and Voluntary Compliance Payment Projects Fund, Attorney General Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund, and Attorney General's State Projects and Court Ordered Distribution Fund, which is not needed for current expenditures, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury which has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds with the Office of the Comptroller in order to enable the Comptroller to pay outstanding vouchers. At any time, and from time to time outstanding, such investment shall not be greater than $2,000,000,000. Such investment shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund or Health Insurance Reserve Fund as determined by the Comptroller. Such investment shall be repaid by the Comptroller with an interest rate tied to the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) or the Federal Funds Rate or an equivalent market established variable rate, but in no case shall such interest rate exceed the lesser of the penalty rate established under the State Prompt Payment Act or the timely pay interest rate under Section 368a of the Illinois Insurance Code. The State Treasurer and the Comptroller shall enter into an intergovernmental agreement to establish procedures for such investments, which market established variable rate to which the interest rate for the investments should be tied, and other terms which the State Treasurer and Comptroller reasonably believe to be mutually beneficial concerning these investments by the State Treasurer. The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall also enter into a written agreement for each such investment that specifies the period of the investment, the payment interval, the interest rate to be paid, the funds in the Treasury from which the Treasurer will draw the investment, and other terms upon which the State Treasurer and Comptroller mutually agree. Such investment agreements shall be public records and the State Treasurer shall post the terms of all such investment agreements on the State Treasurer's official website. In compliance with the intergovernmental agreement, the Comptroller shall order and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts sufficient for the payment of principal and interest invested by the State Treasurer with the Office of the Comptroller under this paragraph from the General Revenue Fund or the Health Insurance Reserve Fund to the respective funds in the Treasury from which the State Treasurer drew the investment. Public Act 100-1107 This amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing authority for all amounts necessary for the payment of principal and interest on the investments made with the Office of the Comptroller by the State Treasurer under this paragraph, and the irrevocable and continuing authority for and direction to the Comptroller and Treasurer to make the necessary transfers.

The State Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, invest or reinvest any State money in the Treasury that is not needed for current expenditure, due or about to become due, or any money in the State Treasury that has been set aside and held for the payment of the principal of and the interest on any State bonds, in any of the following:

(1) Bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, Treasury bills, or other securities now or hereafter issued that are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States of America as to principal and interest.

(2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of the United States of America, its agencies, and instrumentalities.

(2.5) Bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar obligations of a foreign government, other than the Republic of the Sudan, that are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of that government as to principal and interest, but only if the foreign government has not defaulted and has met its payment obligations in a timely manner on all similar obligations for a period of at least 25 years immediately before the time of acquiring those obligations.

(3) Interest-bearing savings accounts, interest-bearing certificates of deposit, interest-bearing time deposits, or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any bank as defined by the Illinois Banking Act.

(4) Interest-bearing accounts, certificates of deposit, or any other investments constituting direct obligations of any savings and loan associations incorporated under the laws of this State or any other state or under the laws of the United States.

(5) Dividend-bearing share accounts, share certificate accounts, or class of share accounts of a credit union chartered under the laws of this State or the laws of the United States; provided, however, the principal office of the credit union must be located within the State of Illinois.

(6) Bankers' acceptances of banks whose senior obligations are rated in the top 2 rating categories by 2 national rating agencies and maintain that rating during the term of the investment.

(7) Short-term obligations of either corporations or limited liability companies organized in the United States with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if (i) the obligations are rated at the time of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications established by at least 2 standard rating services and mature not later than 270 days from the date of purchase, (ii) the purchases do not exceed 10% of the corporation's or the limited liability company's outstanding obligations, (iii) no more than one-third of the public agency's funds are invested in short-term obligations of either corporations or limited liability companies, and (iv) the corporation or the limited liability company has not been placed on the list of restricted companies by the Illinois Investment Policy Board under Section 1-110.16 of the Illinois Pension Code.

(7.5) Obligations of either corporations or limited liability companies organized in the United States, that have a significant presence in this State, with assets exceeding $500,000,000 if: (i) the obligations are rated at the time of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications established by at least 2 standard rating services and mature more than 270 days, but less than 5 years, from the date of purchase; (ii) the purchases do not exceed 10% of the corporation's or the limited liability company's outstanding obligations; (iii) no more than 5% of the public agency's funds are invested in such obligations of corporations or limited liability companies; and (iv) the corporation or the limited liability company has not been placed on the list of restricted companies by the Illinois Investment Policy Board under Section 1-110.16 of the Illinois Pension Code. The authorization of the Treasurer to invest in new obligations under this paragraph shall expire on June 30, 2019.

(8) Money market mutual funds registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, provided that the portfolio of the money market mutual fund is limited to obligations described in this Section and to agreements to repurchase such obligations.

(9) The Public Treasurers' Investment Pool created under Section 17 of the State Treasurer Act or in a fund managed, operated, and administered by a bank.

(10) Repurchase agreements of government securities having the meaning set out in the Government Securities Act of 1986, as now or hereafter amended or succeeded, subject to the provisions of that Act and the regulations issued thereunder.

(11) Investments made in accordance with the Technology Development Act.

For purposes of this Section, "agencies" of the United States Government includes:

(i) the federal land banks, federal intermediate credit banks, banks for cooperatives, federal farm credit banks, or any other entity authorized to issue debt obligations under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 et seq.) and Acts amendatory thereto;

(ii) the federal home loan banks and the federal home loan mortgage corporation;

(iii) the Commodity Credit Corporation; and

(iv) any other agency created by Act of Congress.

The Treasurer may, with the approval of the Governor, lend any securities acquired under this Act. However, securities may be lent under this Section only in accordance with Federal Financial Institution Examination Council guidelines and only if the securities are collateralized at a level sufficient to assure the safety of the securities, taking into account market value fluctuation. The securities may be collateralized by cash or collateral acceptable under Sections 11 and 11.1.

(Source: P.A. 99-856, eff. 8-19-16; 100-1107, eff. 8-27-18; revised 9-27-18.)

Section 85. The Substance Use Disorder Act is amended by changing Section 55-30 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 55-35 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/55-30)

Sec. 55-30. Rate increase.

(a) The Department July 6, 2017 (Public Act 100-23) shall by rule develop the increased rate methodology and annualize the increased rate beginning with State fiscal year 2018 contracts to licensed providers of community-based substance use disorder intervention or treatment, based on the additional amounts appropriated for the purpose of providing a rate increase to licensed providers. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsection (y) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this Section.

(b) Within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery shall apply an increase in rates of 3% above the rate paid on June 30, 2017 to all Medicaid and non-Medicaid reimbursable service rates. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsection (bb) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this subsection (b).

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-14-18.)

(20 ILCS 301/55-35)

Sec. 55-35. Tobacco enforcement.

(a) The Department of Human Services may contract with the Food and Drug Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.

(b) Grant funds received from the Food and Drug Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for conducting unannounced investigations of Illinois tobacco vendors shall be deposited into the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund starting July 1, 2018.

(Source: P.A. 100-1012, eff. 8-21-18.)

(20 ILCS 301/55-40)

Sec. 55-40 55-35. Recovery residences.

(a) As used in this Section, "recovery residence" means a sober, safe, and healthy living environment that promotes recovery from alcohol and other drug use and associated problems. These residences are not subject to Department licensure as they are viewed as independent living residences that only provide peer support and a lengthened exposure to the culture of recovery.

(b) The Department shall develop and maintain an online registry for recovery residences that operate in Illinois to serve as a resource for individuals seeking continued recovery assistance.

(c) Non-licensable recovery residences are encouraged to register with the Department and the registry shall be publicly available through online posting.

(d) The registry shall indicate any accreditation, certification, or licensure that each recovery residence has received from an entity that has developed uniform national standards. The registry shall also indicate each recovery residence's location in order to assist providers and individuals in finding alcohol and drug free housing options with like-minded residents who are committed to alcohol and drug free living.

(e) Registrants are encouraged to seek national accreditation from any entity that has developed uniform State or national standards for recovery residences.

(f) The Department shall include a disclaimer on the registry that states that the recovery residences are not regulated by the Department and their listing is provided as a resource but not as an endorsement by the State.

(Source: P.A. 100-1062, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-14-18.)

Section 90. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in screening techniques to identify substance use disorders, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred for an assessment at an organization appropriately licensed by the Department of Human Services for substance use disorder treatment.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a youth in care and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the youth in care, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such youth in care. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt children with physical or mental disabilities, children who are older, or other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were youth in care or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25, or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were youth in care for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set, except that reunification services may be offered as provided in paragraph (F) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. On and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 16 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency. The Department shall assign a caseworker to attend any hearing involving a youth in the care and custody of the Department who is placed on aftercare release, including hearings involving sanctions for violation of aftercare release conditions and aftercare release revocation hearings.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10-day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10-day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a youth in care who was placed in the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Youth in care who are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those youth are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall ensure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts youth in care for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) (Blank).

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place child or child with a disability and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Department of State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Department of State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a youth in care turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on July 22, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1189), a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Department of State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Department of State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; 100-522, eff. 9-22-17; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-978, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 95. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 605-1020 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-1020)

Sec. 605-1020. Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, there is hereby established an Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program that shall be administered by the Department beginning on July 1 of the first fiscal year for which an appropriation of State moneys is made for that purpose and continuing for the next 2 immediately succeeding fiscal years; however, the Department is not required to administer the program in any fiscal year for which such an appropriation has not been made. The purpose of the program shall be to encourage and assist beginning entrepreneurs in starting new businesses by providing reimbursements to those entrepreneurs for any State filing, permitting, or licensing fees associated with the formation of such a business in the State.

(b) Applicants for participation in the Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program shall apply to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, within one year after the formation of the business for which the entrepreneur seeks reimbursement of those fees. The Department shall adopt rules for the review and approval of applications, provided that it (1) shall give priority to applicants who are women or minority persons, or both, and (2) shall not approve any application by a person who will not be a beginning entrepreneur. Reimbursements under this Section shall be provided in the manner determined by the Department. In no event shall an applicant apply for participation in the program more than 3 times.

(c) The aggregate amount of all reimbursements provided by the Department pursuant to this Section shall not exceed $500,000 in any State fiscal year.

(d) On or before February 1 of the last calendar year during which the pilot program is in effect, the Department shall submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the cumulative effectiveness of the Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program. The review shall include, but not be limited to, the number and type of businesses that were formed in connection with the pilot program, the current status of each business formed in connection with the pilot program, the number of employees employed by each such business, the economic impact to the State from the pilot program, the satisfaction of participants in the pilot program, and a recommendation as to whether the program should be continued. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(e) As used in this Section:

"Beginning entrepreneur" means an individual who, at the time he or she applies for participation in the program, has less than 5 years of experience as a business owner and is not a current business owner.

"Woman" and "minority person" have the meanings given to those terms in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-541, eff. 11-7-17; 100-785, eff. 8-10-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 8-31-18.)

Section 100. The Illinois Enterprise Zone Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 9.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 655/4) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 604)

Sec. 4. Qualifications for enterprise zones.

(1) An area is qualified to become an enterprise zone which:

(a) is a contiguous area, provided that a zone area may exclude wholly surrounded territory within its boundaries;

(b) comprises a minimum of one-half square mile and not more than 12 square miles, or 15 square miles if the zone is located within the jurisdiction of 4 or more counties or municipalities, in total area, exclusive of lakes and waterways; however, in such cases where the enterprise zone is a joint effort of three or more units of government, or two or more units of government if situated in a township which is divided by a municipality of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants, and where the certification has been in effect at least one year, the total area shall comprise a minimum of one-half square mile and not more than thirteen square miles in total area exclusive of lakes and waterways;

(c) (blank);

(d) (blank);

(e) is (1) entirely within a municipality or (2) entirely within the unincorporated areas of a county, except where reasonable need is established for such zone to cover portions of more than one municipality or county or (3) both comprises (i) all or part of a municipality and (ii) an unincorporated area of a county; and

(f) meets 3 or more of the following criteria:

(1) all or part of the local labor market area has had an annual average unemployment rate of at least 120% of the State's annual average unemployment rate for the most recent calendar year or the most recent fiscal year as reported by the Department of Employment Security;

(2) designation will result in the development of substantial employment opportunities by creating or retaining a minimum aggregate of 1,000 full-time equivalent jobs due to an aggregate investment of $100,000,000 or more, and will help alleviate the effects of poverty and unemployment within the local labor market area;

(3) all or part of the local labor market area has a poverty rate of at least 20% according to the latest federal decennial census, 50% or more of children in the local labor market area participate in the federal free lunch program according to reported statistics from the State Board of Education, or 20% or more households in the local labor market area receive food stamps according to the latest federal decennial census;

(4) an abandoned coal mine, a brownfield (as defined in Section 58.2 of the Environmental Protection Act), or an inactive nuclear-powered nuclear powered electrical generation facility where spent nuclear fuel is stored on-site is located in the proposed zone area, or all or a portion of the proposed zone was declared a federal disaster area in the 3 years preceding the date of application;

(5) the local labor market area contains a presence of large employers that have downsized over the years, the labor market area has experienced plant closures in the 5 years prior to the date of application affecting more than 50 workers, or the local labor market area has experienced State or federal facility closures in the 5 years prior to the date of application affecting more than 50 workers;

(6) based on data from Multiple Listing Service information or other suitable sources, the local labor market area contains a high floor vacancy rate of industrial or commercial properties, vacant or demolished commercial and industrial structures are prevalent in the local labor market area, or industrial structures in the local labor market area are not used because of age, deterioration, relocation of the former occupants, or cessation of operation;

(7) the applicant demonstrates a substantial plan for using the designation to improve the State and local government tax base, including income, sales, and property taxes;

(8) significant public infrastructure is present in the local labor market area in addition to a plan for infrastructure development and improvement;

(9) high schools or community colleges located within the local labor market area are engaged in ACT Work Keys, Manufacturing Skills Standard Certification, or other industry-based credentials that prepare students for careers;

(10) the change in equalized assessed valuation of industrial and/or commercial properties in the 5 years prior to the date of application is equal to or less than 50% of the State average change in equalized assessed valuation for industrial and/or commercial properties, as applicable, for the same period of time; or

(11) the applicant demonstrates a substantial plan for using the designation to encourage: (i) participation by businesses owned by minorities, women, and persons with disabilities, as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act; and (ii) the hiring of minorities, women, and persons with disabilities.

As provided in Section 10-5.3 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, upon the expiration of the term of each River Edge Redevelopment Zone in existence on August 7, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-905) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, that River Edge Redevelopment Zone will become available for its previous designee or a new applicant to compete for designation as an enterprise zone. No preference for designation will be given to the previous designee of the zone.

(2) Any criteria established by the Department or by law which utilize the rate of unemployment for a particular area shall provide that all persons who are not presently employed and have exhausted all unemployment benefits shall be considered unemployed, whether or not such persons are actively seeking employment.

(Source: P.A. 100-838, eff. 8-13-18; 100-1149, eff. 12-14-18; revised 1-3-19.)

(20 ILCS 655/9.1) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 614)

Sec. 9.1. State and local regulatory alternatives.

(a) Agencies may provide in their rules and regulations for:

(i) the exemption of business enterprises within enterprise zones; or,

(ii) modifications or alternatives specifically applicable to business enterprises within enterprise zones, which impose less stringent standards or alternative standards for compliance (including performance-based standards as a substitute for specific mandates of methods, procedures, or equipment).

Such exemptions, modifications, or alternatives shall be effected by rule or regulation promulgated in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Agency promulgating such exemptions, modifications, or alternatives shall file with its proposed rule or regulation its findings that the proposed rule or regulation provides economic incentives within enterprise zones which promote the purposes of this Act, and which, to the extent they include any exemptions or reductions in regulatory standards or requirements, outweigh the need or justification for the existing rule or regulation.

(b) If any agency promulgates a rule or regulation pursuant to paragraph (a) affecting a rule or regulation contained on the list published by the Department pursuant to Section 9, prior to the completion of the rulemaking rule making process for the Department's rules under that Section, the agency shall immediately transmit a copy of its proposed rule or regulation to the Department, together with a statement of reasons as to why the Department should defer to the agency's proposed rule or regulation. Agency rules promulgated under paragraph (a) shall, however, be subject to the exemption rules and regulations of the Department promulgated under Section 9.

(c) Within enterprise zones, the designating county or municipality may modify all local ordinances and regulations regarding (1) zoning; (2) licensing; (3) building codes, excluding however, any regulations treating building defects; (4) rent control and price controls (except for the minimum wage). Notwithstanding any shorter statute of limitation to the contrary, actions against any contractor or architect who designs, constructs, or rehabilitates a building or structure in an enterprise zone in accordance with local standards specifically applicable within zones which have been relaxed may be commenced within 10 years from the time of beneficial occupancy of the building or use of the structure.

(Source: P.A. 82-1019; revised 9-27-18.)

Section 105. The State Parks Designation Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 840/1) (from Ch. 105, par. 468g)

Sec. 1. The following described areas are designated State Parks and have the names herein ascribed to them:

Adeline Jay Geo-Karis Illinois Beach State Park, in Lake County;

Apple River Canyon State Park, in Jo Daviess County;

Argyle Lake State Park, in McDonough County;

Beaver Dam State Park, in Macoupin County;

Buffalo Rock State Park, in LaSalle La Salle County;

Castle Rock State Park, in Ogle County;

Cave-in-Rock State Park, in Hardin County;

Chain O'Lakes State Park, in Lake and McHenry Counties;

Delabar State Park, in Henderson County;

Dixon State Park, in Lee County;

Dixon Springs State Park, in Pope County;

Eagle Creek State Park, in Shelby County;

Eldon Hazlet State Park, in Clinton County;

Ferne Clyffe State Park, in Johnson County;

Fort Creve Coeur State Park, in Tazewell County;

Fort Defiance State Park, in Alexander County;

Fort Massac State Park, in Massac County;

Fox Ridge State Park, in Coles County;

Frank Holten State Park, in St. Clair County;

Funk's Grove State Park, in McLean County;

Gebhard Woods State Park, in Grundy County;

Giant City State Park, in Jackson and Union Counties;

Goose Lake Prairie State Park, in Grundy County;

Hazel and Bill Rutherford Wildlife Prairie State Park, in Peoria County;

Hennepin Canal Parkway State Park, in Bureau, Henry, Rock Island, Lee and Whiteside Counties;

Horseshoe Lake State Park, in Madison and St. Clair Counties;

Illini State Park, in LaSalle La Salle County;

Illinois and Michigan Canal State Park, in the counties of Cook, Will, Grundy, DuPage and LaSalle La Salle;

Johnson Sauk Trail State Park, in Henry County;

Jubilee College State Park, in Peoria County, excepting Jubilee College State Historic Site as described in Section 7.1 of the Historic Preservation Act;

Kankakee River State Park, in Kankakee and Will Counties;

Kickapoo State Park, in Vermilion County;

Lake Le-Aqua-Na State Park, in Stephenson County;

Lake Murphysboro State Park, in Jackson County;

Laurence C. Warren State Park, in Cook County;

Lincoln Trail Homestead State Park, in Macon County;

Lincoln Trail State Park, in Clark County;

Lowden State Park, in Ogle County;

Matthiessen State Park, in LaSalle La Salle County;

McHenry Dam and Lake Defiance State Park, in McHenry County;

Mississippi Palisades State Park, in Carroll County;

Moraine View State Park, in McLean County;

Morrison-Rockwood State Park, in Whiteside County;

Nauvoo State Park, in Hancock County, containing Horton Lake;

Pere Marquette State Park, in Jersey County;

Prophetstown State Park, in Whiteside County;

Pyramid State Park, in Perry County;

Railsplitter State Park, in Logan County;

Ramsey Lake State Park, in Fayette County;

Red Hills State Park, in Lawrence County;

Rock Cut State Park, in Winnebago County, containing Pierce Lake;

Rock Island Trail State Park, in Peoria and Stark Counties;

Sam Parr State Park, in Jasper County;

Sangchris Lake State Park, in Christian and Sangamon Counties;

Shabbona Lake and State Park, in DeKalb County;

Siloam Springs State Park, in Brown and Adams Counties;

Silver Springs State Park, in Kendall County;

South Shore State Park, in Clinton County;

Spitler Woods State Park, in Macon County;

Starved Rock State Park, in LaSalle La Salle County;

Stephen A. Forbes State Park, in Marion County;

Walnut Point State Park, in Douglas County;

Wayne Fitzgerrell State Park, in Franklin County;

Weinberg-King State Park, in Schuyler County;

Weldon Springs State Park, in DeWitt County;

White Pines Forest State Park, in Ogle County;

William G. Stratton State Park, in Grundy County;

Wolf Creek State Park, in Shelby County.

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 110. The Outdoor Recreation Resources Act is amended by changing Section 2a as follows:

(20 ILCS 860/2a) (from Ch. 105, par. 532a)

Sec. 2a. The Department of Natural Resources is authorized to have prepared with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity and to maintain, and keep up to date up-to-date a comprehensive plan for the preservation of the historically significant properties and interests of the State.

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 115. The Recreational Trails of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 25.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 862/25.5)

Sec. 25.5. Off-highway vehicle trails public access sticker.

(a) An off-highway vehicle trails public access sticker is a separate and additional requirement from the Off-Highway Vehicle Usage Stamp under Section 26 of this Act.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section, a person may not operate and an owner may not give permission to another to operate an off-highway vehicle on lands or waters in public off-highway vehicle parks paid for, operated, or supported by the grant program established under subsection (d) of Section 15 of this Act unless the off-highway vehicle displays an off-highway vehicle trails public access sticker in a manner prescribed by the Department by rule.

(c) An off-highway vehicle does not need an off-highway vehicle trails a public access sticker if the off-highway vehicle is used on private land or if the off-highway vehicle is owned by the State, the federal government, or a unit of local government.

(d) The Department shall issue an off-highway vehicle trails the public access sticker stickers and shall charge the following fees:

(1) $30 for 3 years for individuals;

(2) $50 for 3 years for rental units;

(3) $75 for 3 years for dealer and manufacturer demonstrations and research;

(4) $50 for 3 years for an all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle used for production agriculture, as defined in Section 3-821 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(5) $50 for 3 years for residents of a State other than Illinois that does not have a reciprocal agreement with the Department, under subsection (e) of this Section; and

(6) $50 for 3 years for an all-terrain vehicle or off-highway motorcycle that does not have a title. The Department, by administrative rule, may make replacement stickers available at a reduced cost. The fees for public access stickers shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.

(e) The Department may enter into reciprocal agreements with other states that have a similar off-highway vehicle trails public access sticker program to allow residents of those states to operate off-highway vehicles on land or lands or waters in public off-highway vehicle parks paid for, operated, or supported by the off-highway vehicle trails grant program established under subsection (d) of Section 15 of this Act without acquiring an off-highway vehicle trails public access sticker in this State under subsection (b) of this Section.

(f) The Department may license vendors to sell off-highway vehicle trails public access stickers. Issuing fees may be set by administrative rule.

(g) Any person participating in an organized competitive event on land or lands in off-highway vehicle parks paid for, operated by, or supported by the grant program established in subsection (d) of Section 15 shall display the public access sticker required under subsection (b) of this Section or pay $5 per event. Fees collected under this subsection shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-798, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 120. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 1-17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded, or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Adult student with a disability" means an adult student, age 18 through 21, inclusive, with an Individual Education Program, other than a resident of a facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services in accordance with the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this definition, "through age 21, inclusive", means through the day before the student's 22nd birthday.

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health Care Worker Registry" or "Registry" means the Health Care Worker Registry under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The Inspector General shall further ensure (i) every person authorized to conduct investigations at community agencies receives ongoing training in Title 59, Parts 115, 116, and 119 of the Illinois Administrative Code, and (ii) every person authorized to conduct investigations shall receive ongoing training in Title 59, Part 50 of the Illinois Administrative Code. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement.

(1) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(2) Reporting allegations of adult students with disabilities. Upon receipt of a reportable allegation regarding an adult student with a disability, the Department's Office of the Inspector General shall determine whether the allegation meets the criteria for the Domestic Abuse Program under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. If the allegation is reportable to that program, the Office of the Inspector General shall initiate an investigation. If the allegation is not reportable to the Domestic Abuse Program, the Office of the Inspector General shall make an expeditious referral to the respective law enforcement entity. If the alleged victim is already receiving services from the Department, the Office of the Inspector General shall also make a referral to the respective Department of Human Services' Division or Bureau.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, finding an allegation is unsubstantiated, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The director of the facility or agency shall be responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of the investigative report consistent with State and federal law. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the victim, the victim's guardian, and the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order. Unredacted investigative reports, as well as raw data, may be shared with a local law enforcement entity, a State's Attorney's office, or a county coroner's office upon written request.

(n) Written responses, clarification requests, and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Requests for clarification. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General clarify the finding or findings for which clarification is sought.

(3) Requests for reconsideration. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of the Inspector General reconsider the finding or findings or the recommendations. A request for reconsideration shall be subject to a multi-layer review and shall include at least one reviewer who did not participate in the investigation or approval of the original investigative report. After the multi-layer review process has been completed, the Inspector General shall make the final determination on the reconsideration request. The investigation shall be reopened if the reconsideration determination finds that additional information is needed to complete the investigative record.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure, or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30-day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health Care Worker Registry.

(1) Reporting to the Registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the Registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the Registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the Registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the Registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at Registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the Registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the Registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(6) Removal from Registry. At any time after the report to the Registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the Registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the Registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving Health Care Worker Registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or parents a parent of persons a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that an individual is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to an individual in contravention of that individual's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the individual's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to an individual be considered abuse under this Section if the individual has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-323, eff. 8-7-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-313, eff. 8-24-17; 100-432, eff. 8-25-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-943, eff. 1-1-19; 100-991, eff. 8-20-18; 100-1098, eff. 8-26-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 125. The Regional Integrated Behavioral Health Networks Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1340/25)

Sec. 25. Development of Network plans. Each Network shall develop a plan for its respective region that addresses the following:

(a) Inventory of all mental health and substance use disorder services, primary health care facilities and services, private hospitals, State-operated psychiatric hospitals, long-term long term care facilities, social services, transportation services, and any services available to serve persons with mental and substance use illnesses.

(b) Identification of unmet community needs, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) Waiting lists in community mental health and substance use disorder services.

(2) Hospital emergency department use by persons with mental and substance use illnesses, including volume, length of stay, and challenges associated with obtaining psychiatric assessment.

(3) Difficulty obtaining admission to inpatient facilities, and reasons therefor therefore.

(4) Availability of primary care providers in the community, including Federally Qualified Health Centers and Rural Health Centers.

(5) Availability of psychiatrists and mental health professionals.

(6) Transportation issues.

(7) Other.

(c) Identification of opportunities to improve access to mental and substance use disorder services through the integration of specialty behavioral health services with primary care, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) Availability of Federally Qualified Health Centers in community with mental health staff.

(2) Development of accountable care organizations or other primary care entities.

(3) Availability of acute care hospitals with specialized psychiatric capacity.

(4) Community providers with an interest in collaborating with acute care providers.

(d) Development of a plan to address community needs, including a specific timeline for implementation of specific objectives and establishment of evaluation measures. The comprehensive plan should include the complete continuum of behavioral health services, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) Prevention.

(2) Client assessment and diagnosis.

(3) An array of outpatient behavioral health services.

(4) Case coordination.

(5) Crisis and emergency services.

(6) Treatment, including inpatient psychiatric services in public and private hospitals.

(7) Long-term Long term care facilities.

(8) Community residential alternatives to institutional settings.

(9) Primary care services.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-25-18.)

Section 130. The Department of Innovation and Technology Act is amended by changing Sections 1-35 and 1-45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1370/1-35)

Sec. 1-35. Communications.

(a) The Department shall develop and implement a comprehensive plan to coordinate or centralize communications among State agencies with offices at different locations. The plan shall be updated based on a continuing study of communications problems of State government and shall include any information technology-related technology related equipment or service used for communication purposes including digital, analog, or future transmission medium, whether for voice, data, or any combination thereof. The plan shall take into consideration systems that might effect economies, including, but not limited to, quantity discount services and may include provision of telecommunications service to local and federal government entities located within this State if State interests can be served by so doing.

(b) The Department shall provide for and coordinate communications services for State agencies and, when requested and when in the best interests of the State, for units of federal or local governments and public and not-for-profit institutions of primary, secondary, and higher education. The Department may make use of, or support or provide any information technology-related technology related communications equipment or services necessary and available to support the needs of interested parties not associated with State government provided that State government usage shall have first priority. For this purpose the Department shall have the power to do all of the following:

(1) Provide for and control the procurement, retention, installation, and maintenance of communications equipment or services used by State agencies in the interest of efficiency and economy.

(2) Review existing standards and, where appropriate, propose to establish new or modified standards for State agencies which shall include a minimum of one telecommunication device for the deaf installed and operational within each State agency, to provide public access to agency information for those persons who are hearing or speech impaired. The Department shall consult the Department of Human Services to develop standards and implementation for this equipment.

(3) Establish charges for information technology for State agencies and, when requested, for units of federal or local government and public and not-for-profit institutions of primary, secondary, or higher education. Entities charged for these services shall pay the Department.

(4) Instruct all State agencies to report their usage of communication services regularly to the Department in the manner the Department may prescribe.

(5) Analyze the present and future aims and needs of all State agencies in the area of communications services and plan to serve those aims and needs in the most effective and efficient manner.

(6) Provide telecommunications and other communications services.

(7) Establish the administrative organization within the Department that is required to accomplish the purpose of this Section.

As used in this subsection (b) only, "State agencies" means all departments, officers, commissions, boards, institutions, and bodies politic and corporate of the State except (i) the judicial branch, including, without limitation, the several courts of the State, the offices of the clerk of the supreme court and the clerks of the appellate court, and the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts, (ii) State constitutional offices, and (iii) the General Assembly, legislative service agencies, and all officers of the General Assembly.

This subsection (b) does not apply to the procurement of Next Generation 9-1-1 service as governed by Section 15.6b of the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 9-26-18.)

(20 ILCS 1370/1-45)

Sec. 1-45. Grants for distance learning services. The Department may award grants to public community colleges and educational education service centers for development and implementation of telecommunications systems that provide distance learning services.

(Source: P.A. 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 135. The Illinois Information Security Improvement Act is amended by changing Sections 5-20 and 5-25 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1375/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Statewide Chief Information Security Officer. The position of Statewide Chief Information Security Officer is established within the Office. The Secretary shall appoint a Statewide Chief Information Security Officer who shall serve at the pleasure of the Secretary. The Statewide Chief Information Security Officer shall report to and be under the supervision of the Secretary. The Statewide Chief Information Security Officer shall exhibit a background and experience in information security, information technology, or risk management, or exhibit other appropriate expertise required to fulfill the duties of the Statewide Chief Information Security Officer. If the Statewide Chief Information Security Officer is unable or unavailable to perform the duties and responsibilities under Section 5-25 25, all powers and authority granted to the Statewide Chief Information Security Officer may be exercised by the Secretary or his or her designee.

(Source: P.A. 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(20 ILCS 1375/5-25)

Sec. 5-25. Responsibilities.

(a) The Secretary shall:

(1) appoint a Statewide Chief Information Security Officer pursuant to Section 5-20 20;

(2) provide the Office with the staffing and resources deemed necessary by the Secretary to fulfill the responsibilities of the Office;

(3) oversee statewide information security policies and practices, including:

(A) directing and overseeing the development, implementation, and communication of statewide information security policies, standards, and guidelines;

(B) overseeing the education of State agency personnel regarding the requirement to identify and provide information security protections commensurate with the risk and magnitude of the harm resulting from the unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction of information in a critical information system;

(C) overseeing the development and implementation of a statewide information security risk management program;

(D) overseeing State agency compliance with the requirements of this Section;

(E) coordinating Information Security policies and practices with related information and personnel resources management policies and procedures; and

(F) providing an effective and efficient process to assist State agencies with complying with the requirements of this Act.

(b) The Statewide Chief Information Security Officer shall:

(1) serve as the head of the Office and ensure the execution of the responsibilities of the Office as set forth in subsection (c) of Section 5-15 15, the Statewide Chief Information Security Officer shall also oversee State agency personnel with significant responsibilities for information security and ensure a competent workforce that keeps pace with the changing information security environment;

(2) develop and recommend information security policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines to the Secretary for statewide adoption and monitor compliance with these policies, standards, guidelines, and procedures through periodic testing;

(3) develop and maintain risk-based, cost-effective information security programs and control techniques to address all applicable security and compliance requirements throughout the life cycle of State agency information systems;

(4) establish the procedures, processes, and technologies to rapidly and effectively identify threats, risks, and vulnerabilities to State information systems, and ensure the prioritization of the remediation of vulnerabilities that pose risk to the State;

(5) develop and implement capabilities and procedures for detecting, reporting, and responding to information security incidents;

(6) establish and direct a statewide information security risk management program to identify information security risks in State agencies and deploy risk mitigation strategies, processes, and procedures;

(7) establish the State's capability to sufficiently protect the security of data through effective information system security planning, secure system development, acquisition, and deployment, the application of protective technologies and information system certification, accreditation, and assessments;

(8) ensure that State agency personnel, including contractors, are appropriately screened and receive information security awareness training;

(9) convene meetings with agency heads and other State officials to help ensure:

(A) the ongoing communication of risk and risk reduction strategies,

(B) effective implementation of information security policies and practices, and

(C) the incorporation of and compliance with information security policies, standards, and guidelines into the policies and procedures of the agencies;

(10) provide operational and technical assistance to State agencies in implementing policies, principles, standards, and guidelines on information security, including implementation of standards promulgated under subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section, and provide assistance and effective and efficient means for State agencies to comply with the State agency requirements under this Act;

(11) in coordination and consultation with the Secretary and the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, review State agency budget requests related to Information Security systems and provide recommendations to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget;

(12) ensure the preparation and maintenance of plans and procedures to provide cyber resilience and continuity of operations for critical information systems that support the operations of the State; and

(13) take such other actions as the Secretary may direct.

(Source: P.A. 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 140. The Illinois Lottery Law is amended by changing Sections 2, 9.1, and 20 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 21.10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1605/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 1152)

Sec. 2. This Act is enacted to implement and establish within the State a lottery to be conducted by the State through the Department. The entire net proceeds of the Lottery are to be used for the support of the State's Common School Fund, except as provided in subsection (o) of Section 9.1 and Sections 21.5, 21.6, 21.7, 21.8, 21.9, and 21.10, and 21.11. The General Assembly finds that it is in the public interest for the Department to conduct the functions of the Lottery with the assistance of a private manager under a management agreement overseen by the Department. The Department shall be accountable to the General Assembly and the people of the State through a comprehensive system of regulation, audits, reports, and enduring operational oversight. The Department's ongoing conduct of the Lottery through a management agreement with a private manager shall act to promote and ensure the integrity, security, honesty, and fairness of the Lottery's operation and administration. It is the intent of the General Assembly that the Department shall conduct the Lottery with the assistance of a private manager under a management agreement at all times in a manner consistent with 18 U.S.C. 1307(a)(1), 1307(b)(1), 1953(b)(4).

Beginning with Fiscal Year 2018 and every year thereafter, any moneys transferred from the State Lottery Fund to the Common School Fund shall be supplemental to, and not in lieu of, any other money due to be transferred to the Common School Fund by law or appropriation.

(Source: P.A. 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-466, eff. 6-1-18; 100-647, eff. 7-30-18; 100-1068, eff. 8-24-18; revised 9-20-18.)

(20 ILCS 1605/9.1)

Sec. 9.1. Private manager and management agreement.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Offeror" means a person or group of persons that responds to a request for qualifications under this Section.

"Request for qualifications" means all materials and documents prepared by the Department to solicit the following from offerors:

(1) Statements of qualifications.

(2) Proposals to enter into a management agreement, including the identity of any prospective vendor or vendors that the offeror intends to initially engage to assist the offeror in performing its obligations under the management agreement.

"Final offer" means the last proposal submitted by an offeror in response to the request for qualifications, including the identity of any prospective vendor or vendors that the offeror intends to initially engage to assist the offeror in performing its obligations under the management agreement.

"Final offeror" means the offeror ultimately selected by the Governor to be the private manager for the Lottery under subsection (h) of this Section.

(b) By September 15, 2010, the Governor shall select a private manager for the total management of the Lottery with integrated functions, such as lottery game design, supply of goods and services, and advertising and as specified in this Section.

(c) Pursuant to the terms of this subsection, the Department shall endeavor to expeditiously terminate the existing contracts in support of the Lottery in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly in connection with the selection of the private manager. As part of its obligation to terminate these contracts and select the private manager, the Department shall establish a mutually agreeable timetable to transfer the functions of existing contractors to the private manager so that existing Lottery operations are not materially diminished or impaired during the transition. To that end, the Department shall do the following:

(1) where such contracts contain a provision authorizing termination upon notice, the Department shall provide notice of termination to occur upon the mutually agreed timetable for transfer of functions;

(2) upon the expiration of any initial term or renewal term of the current Lottery contracts, the Department shall not renew such contract for a term extending beyond the mutually agreed timetable for transfer of functions; or

(3) in the event any current contract provides for termination of that contract upon the implementation of a contract with the private manager, the Department shall perform all necessary actions to terminate the contract on the date that coincides with the mutually agreed timetable for transfer of functions.

If the contracts to support the current operation of the Lottery in effect on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly are not subject to termination as provided for in this subsection (c), then the Department may include a provision in the contract with the private manager specifying a mutually agreeable methodology for incorporation.

(c-5) The Department shall include provisions in the management agreement whereby the private manager shall, for a fee, and pursuant to a contract negotiated with the Department (the "Employee Use Contract"), utilize the services of current Department employees to assist in the administration and operation of the Lottery. The Department shall be the employer of all such bargaining unit employees assigned to perform such work for the private manager, and such employees shall be State employees, as defined by the Personnel Code. Department employees shall operate under the same employment policies, rules, regulations, and procedures, as other employees of the Department. In addition, neither historical representation rights under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, nor existing collective bargaining agreements, shall be disturbed by the management agreement with the private manager for the management of the Lottery.

(d) The management agreement with the private manager shall include all of the following:

(1) A term not to exceed 10 years, including any renewals.

(2) A provision specifying that the Department:

(A) shall exercise actual control over all significant business decisions;

(A-5) has the authority to direct or countermand operating decisions by the private manager at any time;

(B) has ready access at any time to information regarding Lottery operations;

(C) has the right to demand and receive information from the private manager concerning any aspect of the Lottery operations at any time; and

(D) retains ownership of all trade names, trademarks, and intellectual property associated with the Lottery.

(3) A provision imposing an affirmative duty on the private manager to provide the Department with material information and with any information the private manager reasonably believes the Department would want to know to enable the Department to conduct the Lottery.

(4) A provision requiring the private manager to provide the Department with advance notice of any operating decision that bears significantly on the public interest, including, but not limited to, decisions on the kinds of games to be offered to the public and decisions affecting the relative risk and reward of the games being offered, so the Department has a reasonable opportunity to evaluate and countermand that decision.

(5) A provision providing for compensation of the private manager that may consist of, among other things, a fee for services and a performance based bonus as consideration for managing the Lottery, including terms that may provide the private manager with an increase in compensation if Lottery revenues grow by a specified percentage in a given year.

(6) (Blank).

(7) A provision requiring the deposit of all Lottery proceeds to be deposited into the State Lottery Fund except as otherwise provided in Section 20 of this Act.

(8) A provision requiring the private manager to locate its principal office within the State.

(8-5) A provision encouraging that at least 20% of the cost of contracts entered into for goods and services by the private manager in connection with its management of the Lottery, other than contracts with sales agents or technical advisors, be awarded to businesses that are a minority-owned business, a women-owned business, or a business owned by a person with disability, as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(9) A requirement that so long as the private manager complies with all the conditions of the agreement under the oversight of the Department, the private manager shall have the following duties and obligations with respect to the management of the Lottery:

(A) The right to use equipment and other assets used in the operation of the Lottery.

(B) The rights and obligations under contracts with retailers and vendors.

(C) The implementation of a comprehensive security program by the private manager.

(D) The implementation of a comprehensive system of internal audits.

(E) The implementation of a program by the private manager to curb compulsive gambling by persons playing the Lottery.

(F) A system for determining (i) the type of Lottery games, (ii) the method of selecting winning tickets, (iii) the manner of payment of prizes to holders of winning tickets, (iv) the frequency of drawings of winning tickets, (v) the method to be used in selling tickets, (vi) a system for verifying the validity of tickets claimed to be winning tickets, (vii) the basis upon which retailer commissions are established by the manager, and (viii) minimum payouts.

(10) A requirement that advertising and promotion must be consistent with Section 7.8a of this Act.

(11) A requirement that the private manager market the Lottery to those residents who are new, infrequent, or lapsed players of the Lottery, especially those who are most likely to make regular purchases on the Internet as permitted by law.

(12) A code of ethics for the private manager's officers and employees.

(13) A requirement that the Department monitor and oversee the private manager's practices and take action that the Department considers appropriate to ensure that the private manager is in compliance with the terms of the management agreement, while allowing the manager, unless specifically prohibited by law or the management agreement, to negotiate and sign its own contracts with vendors.

(14) A provision requiring the private manager to periodically file, at least on an annual basis, appropriate financial statements in a form and manner acceptable to the Department.

(15) Cash reserves requirements.

(16) Procedural requirements for obtaining the prior approval of the Department when a management agreement or an interest in a management agreement is sold, assigned, transferred, or pledged as collateral to secure financing.

(17) Grounds for the termination of the management agreement by the Department or the private manager.

(18) Procedures for amendment of the agreement.

(19) A provision requiring the private manager to engage in an open and competitive bidding process for any procurement having a cost in excess of $50,000 that is not a part of the private manager's final offer. The process shall favor the selection of a vendor deemed to have submitted a proposal that provides the Lottery with the best overall value. The process shall not be subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, unless specifically required by the management agreement.

(20) The transition of rights and obligations, including any associated equipment or other assets used in the operation of the Lottery, from the manager to any successor manager of the lottery, including the Department, following the termination of or foreclosure upon the management agreement.

(21) Right of use of copyrights, trademarks, and service marks held by the Department in the name of the State. The agreement must provide that any use of them by the manager shall only be for the purpose of fulfilling its obligations under the management agreement during the term of the agreement.

(22) The disclosure of any information requested by the Department to enable it to comply with the reporting requirements and information requests provided for under subsection (p) of this Section.

(e) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Department shall select a private manager through a competitive request for qualifications process consistent with Section 20-35 of the Illinois Procurement Code, which shall take into account:

(1) the offeror's ability to market the Lottery to those residents who are new, infrequent, or lapsed players of the Lottery, especially those who are most likely to make regular purchases on the Internet;

(2) the offeror's ability to address the State's concern with the social effects of gambling on those who can least afford to do so;

(3) the offeror's ability to provide the most successful management of the Lottery for the benefit of the people of the State based on current and past business practices or plans of the offeror; and

(4) the offeror's poor or inadequate past performance in servicing, equipping, operating or managing a lottery on behalf of Illinois, another State or foreign government and attracting persons who are not currently regular players of a lottery.

(f) The Department may retain the services of an advisor or advisors with significant experience in financial services or the management, operation, and procurement of goods, services, and equipment for a government-run lottery to assist in the preparation of the terms of the request for qualifications and selection of the private manager. Any prospective advisor seeking to provide services under this subsection (f) shall disclose any material business or financial relationship during the past 3 years with any potential offeror, or with a contractor or subcontractor presently providing goods, services, or equipment to the Department to support the Lottery. The Department shall evaluate the material business or financial relationship of each prospective advisor. The Department shall not select any prospective advisor with a substantial business or financial relationship that the Department deems to impair the objectivity of the services to be provided by the prospective advisor. During the course of the advisor's engagement by the Department, and for a period of one year thereafter, the advisor shall not enter into any business or financial relationship with any offeror or any vendor identified to assist an offeror in performing its obligations under the management agreement. Any advisor retained by the Department shall be disqualified from being an offeror. The Department shall not include terms in the request for qualifications that provide a material advantage whether directly or indirectly to any potential offeror, or any contractor or subcontractor presently providing goods, services, or equipment to the Department to support the Lottery, including terms contained in previous responses to requests for proposals or qualifications submitted to Illinois, another State or foreign government when those terms are uniquely associated with a particular potential offeror, contractor, or subcontractor. The request for proposals offered by the Department on December 22, 2008 as "LOT08GAMESYS" and reference number "22016176" is declared void.

(g) The Department shall select at least 2 offerors as finalists to potentially serve as the private manager no later than August 9, 2010. Upon making preliminary selections, the Department shall schedule a public hearing on the finalists' proposals and provide public notice of the hearing at least 7 calendar days before the hearing. The notice must include all of the following:

(1) The date, time, and place of the hearing.

(2) The subject matter of the hearing.

(3) A brief description of the management agreement to be awarded.

(4) The identity of the offerors that have been selected as finalists to serve as the private manager.

(5) The address and telephone number of the Department.

(h) At the public hearing, the Department shall (i) provide sufficient time for each finalist to present and explain its proposal to the Department and the Governor or the Governor's designee, including an opportunity to respond to questions posed by the Department, Governor, or designee and (ii) allow the public and non-selected offerors to comment on the presentations. The Governor or a designee shall attend the public hearing. After the public hearing, the Department shall have 14 calendar days to recommend to the Governor whether a management agreement should be entered into with a particular finalist. After reviewing the Department's recommendation, the Governor may accept or reject the Department's recommendation, and shall select a final offeror as the private manager by publication of a notice in the Illinois Procurement Bulletin on or before September 15, 2010. The Governor shall include in the notice a detailed explanation and the reasons why the final offeror is superior to other offerors and will provide management services in a manner that best achieves the objectives of this Section. The Governor shall also sign the management agreement with the private manager.

(i) Any action to contest the private manager selected by the Governor under this Section must be brought within 7 calendar days after the publication of the notice of the designation of the private manager as provided in subsection (h) of this Section.

(j) The Lottery shall remain, for so long as a private manager manages the Lottery in accordance with provisions of this Act, a Lottery conducted by the State, and the State shall not be authorized to sell or transfer the Lottery to a third party.

(k) Any tangible personal property used exclusively in connection with the lottery that is owned by the Department and leased to the private manager shall be owned by the Department in the name of the State and shall be considered to be public property devoted to an essential public and governmental function.

(l) The Department may exercise any of its powers under this Section or any other law as necessary or desirable for the execution of the Department's powers under this Section.

(m) Neither this Section nor any management agreement entered into under this Section prohibits the General Assembly from authorizing forms of gambling that are not in direct competition with the Lottery.

(n) The private manager shall be subject to a complete investigation in the third, seventh, and tenth years of the agreement (if the agreement is for a 10-year term) by the Department in cooperation with the Auditor General to determine whether the private manager has complied with this Section and the management agreement. The private manager shall bear the cost of an investigation or reinvestigation of the private manager under this subsection.

(o) The powers conferred by this Section are in addition and supplemental to the powers conferred by any other law. If any other law or rule is inconsistent with this Section, including, but not limited to, provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, then this Section controls as to any management agreement entered into under this Section. This Section and any rules adopted under this Section contain full and complete authority for a management agreement between the Department and a private manager. No law, procedure, proceeding, publication, notice, consent, approval, order, or act by the Department or any other officer, Department, agency, or instrumentality of the State or any political subdivision is required for the Department to enter into a management agreement under this Section. This Section contains full and complete authority for the Department to approve any contracts entered into by a private manager with a vendor providing goods, services, or both goods and services to the private manager under the terms of the management agreement, including subcontractors of such vendors.

Upon receipt of a written request from the Chief Procurement Officer, the Department shall provide to the Chief Procurement Officer a complete and un-redacted copy of the management agreement or any contract that is subject to the Department's approval authority under this subsection (o). The Department shall provide a copy of the agreement or contract to the Chief Procurement Officer in the time specified by the Chief Procurement Officer in his or her written request, but no later than 5 business days after the request is received by the Department. The Chief Procurement Officer must retain any portions of the management agreement or of any contract designated by the Department as confidential, proprietary, or trade secret information in complete confidence pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. The Department shall also provide the Chief Procurement Officer with reasonable advance written notice of any contract that is pending Department approval.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, the Chief Procurement Officer shall adopt administrative rules, including emergency rules, to establish a procurement process to select a successor private manager if a private management agreement has been terminated. The selection process shall at a minimum take into account the criteria set forth in items (1) through (4) of subsection (e) of this Section and may include provisions consistent with subsections (f), (g), (h), and (i) of this Section. The Chief Procurement Officer shall also implement and administer the adopted selection process upon the termination of a private management agreement. The Department, after the Chief Procurement Officer certifies that the procurement process has been followed in accordance with the rules adopted under this subsection (o), shall select a final offeror as the private manager and sign the management agreement with the private manager.

Except as provided in Sections 21.5, 21.6, 21.7, 21.8, 21.9, and 21.10, and 21.11, 21.10 the Department shall distribute all proceeds of lottery tickets and shares sold in the following priority and manner:

(1) The payment of prizes and retailer bonuses.

(2) The payment of costs incurred in the operation and administration of the Lottery, including the payment of sums due to the private manager under the management agreement with the Department.

(3) On the last day of each month or as soon thereafter as possible, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the State Lottery Fund to the Common School Fund an amount that is equal to the proceeds transferred in the corresponding month of fiscal year 2009, as adjusted for inflation, to the Common School Fund.

(4) On or before September 30 of each fiscal year, deposit any estimated remaining proceeds from the prior fiscal year, subject to payments under items (1), (2), and (3), into the Capital Projects Fund. Beginning in fiscal year 2019, the amount deposited shall be increased or decreased each year by the amount the estimated payment differs from the amount determined from each year-end financial audit. Only remaining net deficits from prior fiscal years may reduce the requirement to deposit these funds, as determined by the annual financial audit.

(p) The Department shall be subject to the following reporting and information request requirements:

(1) the Department shall submit written quarterly reports to the Governor and the General Assembly on the activities and actions of the private manager selected under this Section;

(2) upon request of the Chief Procurement Officer, the Department shall promptly produce information related to the procurement activities of the Department and the private manager requested by the Chief Procurement Officer; the Chief Procurement Officer must retain confidential, proprietary, or trade secret information designated by the Department in complete confidence pursuant to subsection (g) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act; and

(3) at least 30 days prior to the beginning of the Department's fiscal year, the Department shall prepare an annual written report on the activities of the private manager selected under this Section and deliver that report to the Governor and General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-647, eff. 7-30-18; 100-1068, eff. 8-24-18; revised 9-20-18.)

(20 ILCS 1605/20) (from Ch. 120, par. 1170)

Sec. 20. State Lottery Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the "State Lottery Fund". Such fund shall consist of all revenues received from (1) the sale of lottery tickets or shares, (net of commissions, fees representing those expenses that are directly proportionate to the sale of tickets or shares at the agent location, and prizes of less than $600 which have been validly paid at the agent level), (2) application fees, and (3) all other sources including moneys credited or transferred thereto from any other fund or source pursuant to law. Interest earnings of the State Lottery Fund shall be credited to the Common School Fund.

(b) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.5 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.5.

(c) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.6 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.6.

(d) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.7 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.7.

(e) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.8 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.8.

(f) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.9 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.9.

(g) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.10 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.10.

(h) (g) The receipt and distribution of moneys under Section 21.11 21.10 of this Act shall be in accordance with Section 21.11 21.10.

(Source: P.A. 100-647, eff. 7-30-18; 100-1068, eff. 8-24-18; revised 9-20-18.)

(20 ILCS 1605/21.10)

Sec. 21.10. Scratch-off for State police memorials.

(a) The Department shall offer a special instant scratch-off game for the benefit of State police memorials. The game shall commence on January 1, 2019 or as soon thereafter, at the discretion of the Director, as is reasonably practical. The operation of the game shall be governed by this Act and any rules adopted by the Department. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with any other provision of this Act, then this Section governs.

(b) The net revenue from the State police memorials scratch-off game shall be deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund and distributed equally, as soon as practical but at least on a monthly basis, to the Chicago Police Memorial Foundation Fund, the Police Memorial Committee Fund, and the Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund. Moneys transferred to the funds under this Section shall be used, subject to appropriation, to fund grants for building and maintaining memorials and parks; holding annual memorial commemorations; giving scholarships to children of officers killed or catastrophically injured in the line of duty, or those interested in pursuing a career in law enforcement; providing financial assistance to police officers and their families when a police officer is killed or injured in the line of duty; and providing financial assistance to officers for the purchase or replacement of bulletproof bullet proof vests to be used in the line of duty.

For purposes of this subsection, "net revenue" means the total amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid out in the prizes and the actual administrative expenses of the Department solely related to the scratch-off game under this Section.

(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the State police memorials scratch-off game, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off lottery game.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-647, eff. 7-30-18; revised 9-17-18.)

(20 ILCS 1605/21.11)

Sec. 21.11 21.10. Scratch-off for homelessness prevention programs.

(a) The Department shall offer a special instant scratch-off game to fund homelessness prevention programs. The game shall commence on July 1, 2019 or as soon thereafter, at the discretion of the Director, as is reasonably practical. The operation of the game shall be governed by this Act and any rules adopted by the Department. If any provision of this Section is inconsistent with any other provision of this Act, then this Section governs.

(b) The Homelessness Prevention Revenue Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. The net revenue from the scratch-off game to fund homelessness prevention programs shall be deposited into the Homelessness Prevention Revenue Fund. Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Human Services solely for grants to homelessness prevention and assistance projects under the Homelessness Prevention Act.

As used in this subsection, "net revenue" means the total amount for which tickets have been sold less the sum of the amount paid out in the prizes and the actual administrative expenses of the Department solely related to the scratch-off game under this Section.

(c) During the time that tickets are sold for the scratch-off game to fund homelessness prevention programs, the Department shall not unreasonably diminish the efforts devoted to marketing any other instant scratch-off lottery game.

(d) The Department may adopt any rules necessary to implement and administer the provisions of this Section.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect any revenue that any Homelessness Prevention line item receives through the General Revenue Fund or the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-1068, eff. 8-24-18; revised 9-17-18.)

Section 145. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 4.4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/4.4)

Sec. 4.4. Direct support person credential pilot program.

(a) In this Section, "direct support person credential" means a document issued to an individual by a recognized accrediting body attesting that the individual has met the professional requirements of the credentialing program by the Division of Developmental Disabilities of the Department of Human Services.

(b) The Division shall initiate a program to continue to gain the expertise and knowledge of the developmental disabilities workforce and of the developmental disabilities workforce recruitment and retention needs throughout the developmental disabilities field. The Division shall implement a direct support person credential pilot program to assist and attract persons into the field of direct support, advance direct support as a career, and professionalize the field to promote workforce recruitment and retention efforts, advanced skills and competencies, and further ensure the health, safety, and well-being of persons being served.

(c) The direct support person credential pilot program is created within the Division to assist persons in the field of developmental disabilities in obtaining obtain a credential in their fields of expertise.

(d) The pilot program shall be administered by the Division for 3 years. The pilot program shall include providers, licensed and certified by the Division or by the Department of Public Health. The purpose of the pilot program is to assess how the establishment of a State-accredited direct support person credential:

(1) promotes recruitment and retention efforts in the developmental disabilities field, notably the direct support person position;

(2) enhances competence in the developmental disabilities field;

(3) yields quality supports and services to persons with developmental disabilities; and

(4) advances the health and safety requirements set forth by the State.

(e) The Division, in administering the pilot program, shall consider, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) best practices learning initiatives, including the University of Minnesota's college of direct support and all Illinois Department of Human Services-approved direct support person competencies;

(2) national direct support professional and person competencies or credentialing-based standards and trainings;

(3) facilitating direct support person's portfolio development;

(4) the role and value of skill mentors; and

(5) creating a career ladder.

(f) The Division shall produce a report detailing the progress of the pilot program, including, but not limited to:

(1) the rate of recruitment and retention for direct support persons of providers participating in the pilot program compared to the rate for non-participating providers;

(2) the number of direct support persons credentialed; and

(3) the enhancement of quality supports and services to persons with developmental disabilities.

(Source: P.A. 100-754, eff. 8-10-18; revised 9-25-18.)

Section 150. The Military Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1805/21) (from Ch. 129, par. 220.21)

Sec. 21. The Assistant Adjutant General for Army shall be the chief administrative assistant to the Adjutant General for Army matters and the Assistant Adjutant General for Air shall be the chief administrative assistant to the Adjutant General for Air matters and both shall perform such duties as may be directed by the Adjutant General. In the event of the death or disability of the Adjutant General or any other occurrence that creates a vacancy in the office,, the Commander-in-Chief shall designate either the Assistant Adjutant General for Army or the Assistant Adjutant General for Air as the Acting Adjutant General to perform the duties of the office until an Adjutant General is appointed.

(Source: P.A. 100-1030, eff. 8-22-18; revised 10-2-18.)

Section 155. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, sexual orientation, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities.

The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report.

The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(8.5) To accept continuing education credit for mandated reporter training on how to recognize and report child abuse offered by the Department of Children and Family Services and completed by any person who holds a professional license issued by the Department and who is a mandated reporter under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this paragraph.

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act and notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing Act or administrative rule, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) (Blank).

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(f-5) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall allow an applicant to provide his or her individual taxpayer identification number as an alternative to providing a social security number when applying for a license.

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facie evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. For individuals licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the title "Retired" may be used in the profile required by the Patients' Right to Know Act. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) The Department shall make available on its website general information explaining how the Department utilizes criminal history information in making licensure application decisions, including a list of enumerated offenses that serve as a statutory bar to licensure.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 99-330, eff. 8-10-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-262, eff. 8-22-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-872, eff. 8-14-18; 100-883, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1078, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 160. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-307 and 2310-313 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-307)

Sec. 2310-307. Concussion brochure. As used in this Section, "concussion" and "interscholastic athletic activity" have the meanings meaning ascribed to those terms under Section 22-80 of the School Code. The Department shall, subject to appropriation, develop, publish, and disseminate a brochure to educate the general public on the effects of concussions in children and discuss how to look for concussion warning signs in children, including, but not limited to, delays in the learning development of children. The brochure shall be distributed free of charge by schools to any child or the parent or guardian of a child who may have sustained a concussion, regardless of whether or not the concussion occurred while the child was participating in an interscholastic athletic activity.

(Source: P.A. 100-747, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-27-18.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-313)

Sec. 2310-313. Sepsis Review Task Force.

(a) The Sepsis Review Task Force is created. The Task Force shall study sepsis early intervention and the prevention of loss of life from sepsis. The Task Force's study shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) studying the Medical Patient Rights Act, reviewing how other states handle patients' rights, and determining how Illinois can improve patients' rights and prevent sepsis based on the approaches of the other states;

(2) investigating specific advances in medical technology that could identify sepsis in blood tests;

(3) studying medical record sharing that would enable physicians and patients to see results from blood work that was drawn at hospitals;

(4) best practices and protocols for hospitals, long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, ID/DD facilities under the ID/DD Community Care Act, and group homes; and

(5) developing develop best practices and protocols for emergency first responders in the field dealing with patients who potentially are in septic shock or others who are suffering from sepsis.

(b) The Task Force shall consist of the following members, appointed by the Director of Public Health:

(1) one representative of a statewide association representing hospitals;

(2) two representatives of a statewide organization representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, one of whom shall represent hospitalists;

(3) one representative of a statewide organization representing emergency physicians;

(4) one representative of a statewide labor union representing nurses;

(5) two representatives of statewide organizations representing long-term care facilities;

(6) one representative of a statewide organization representing facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act or ID/DD Community Care Act;

(7) the Chief of the Department's Division of Emergency Medical Services and Highway Safety or his or her designee;

(8) one representative of an ambulance or emergency medical services association;

(9) three representatives of a nationwide sepsis advocacy organization;

(10) one representative of a medical research department at a public university; and

(11) one representative of a statewide association representing medical information management professionals.

Task Force members shall serve without compensation. If a vacancy occurs in the Task Force membership, the vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. The Department of Public Health shall provide the Task Force with administrative and other support.

(Source: P.A. 100-1100, eff. 8-26-18; revised 9-27-18.)

Section 165. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section. A sentence is terminated notwithstanding any outstanding financial legal obligation.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registration Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. In a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2019.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not deny a petition for sealing under this Section because the petitioner has not satisfied an outstanding legal financial obligation established, imposed, or originated by a court, law enforcement agency, or a municipal, State, county, or other unit of local government, including, but not limited to, any cost, assessment, fine, or fee. An outstanding legal financial obligation does not include any court ordered restitution to a victim under Section 5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the restitution has been converted to a civil judgment. Nothing in this subparagraph (C) waives, rescinds, or abrogates a legal financial obligation or otherwise eliminates or affects the right of the holder of any financial obligation to pursue collection under applicable federal, State, or local law.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(E) Upon motion, the court may order that a sealed judgment or other court record necessary to demonstrate the amount of any legal financial obligation due and owing be made available for the limited purpose of collecting any legal financial obligations owed by the petitioner that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceeding for which those records have been sealed. The records made available under this subparagraph (E) shall not be entered into the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act and shall be immediately re-impounded upon the collection of the outstanding financial obligations.

(F) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a circuit court clerk may access a sealed record for the limited purpose of collecting payment for any legal financial obligations that were established, imposed, or originated in the criminal proceedings for which those records have been sealed.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund. If the record brought under an expungement petition was previously sealed under this Section, the fee for the expungement petition for that same record shall be waived.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282), may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282). The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Department of State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Department of State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(h) Sealing; trafficking victims.

(1) A trafficking victim as defined by paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall be eligible to petition for immediate sealing of his or her criminal record upon the completion of his or her last sentence if his or her participation in the underlying offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(2) A petitioner under this subsection (h), in addition to the requirements provided under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, shall include in his or her petition a clear and concise statement that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(3) If an objection is filed alleging that the petitioner is not entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h), the court shall conduct a hearing under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section and the court shall determine whether the petitioner is entitled to immediate sealing under this subsection (h). A petitioner is eligible for immediate relief under this subsection (h) if he or she shows, by a preponderance of the evidence, that: (A) he or she was a victim of human trafficking at the time of the offense; and (B) that his or her participation in the offense was a direct result of human trafficking under Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or a severe form of trafficking under the federal Trafficking Victims Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-378, eff. 1-1-16; 99-385, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16; 99-881, eff. 1-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-282, eff. 1-1-18; 100-284, eff. 8-24-17; 100-287, eff. 8-24-17; 100-692, eff. 8-3-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-776, eff. 8-10-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 8-30-18.)

Section 170. The State Fire Marshal Act is amended by changing Section 2.5 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2905/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Equipment exchange program.

(a) The Office shall create and maintain an equipment exchange program under which fire departments, fire protection districts, and township fire departments can donate or sell equipment to, trade equipment with, or buy equipment from each other.

(b) Under this program, the Office, in consultation with the Department of Innovation and Technology, shall maintain a website that allows fire departments, fire protection districts, and township fire departments to post information and photographs about needed equipment and equipment that is available for trade, donation, or sale. This website must be separate from, and not a part of, the Office's main website; however, the Office must post a hyperlink on its main website that points to the website established under this subsection (b).

(c) The Office or a fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department that donates, trades, or sells fire protection equipment to another fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department under this Section is not liable for any damage or injury caused by the donated, traded, or sold fire protection equipment, except for damage or injury caused by its willful and wanton misconduct, if it discloses in writing to the recipient at the time of the donation, trade, or sale any known damage to or deficiencies in the equipment.

This Section does not relieve any fire department, fire protection district, or township fire department from liability, unless otherwise provided by law, for any damage or injury caused by donated, traded, or sold fire protection equipment that was received through the equipment exchange program.

(d) The Office must promote the program to encourage the efficient exchange of equipment among local government entities.

(e) The Office must implement the changes to the equipment exchange program required under Public Act 94-175 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly no later than July 1, 2006.

(Source: P.A. 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 9-27-18.)

Section 175. The Historic Preservation Act is amended by changing Sections 3.1 and 4.5 and by adding Section 28 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3405/3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Agency abolished; functions transferred.

(a) On August 3, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-695) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Historic Preservation Agency, including the Board of Trustees, is hereby abolished and all powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities of the Historic Preservation Agency, except those functions relating to the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum, shall be transferred to the Department of Natural Resources. The powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to the functions of the Historic Preservation Agency transferred under Public Act 100-695 this this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall be vested in and shall be exercised by the Department of Natural Resources. Each act done in the exercise of those powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities shall have the same legal effect as if done by the Historic Preservation Agency or its divisions, officers, or employees.

(b) The personnel and positions within the Historic Preservation Agency shall be transferred to the Department of Natural Resources and shall continue their service within the Department of Natural Resources. The status and rights of those employees under the Personnel Code shall not be affected by Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. The status and rights of the employees and the State of Illinois and its agencies under the Personnel Code, the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, and applicable collective bargaining agreements or under any pension, retirement, or annuity plan, shall not be affected by Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(c) All books, records, papers, documents, property (real and personal), contracts, causes of action, and pending business pertaining to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred by Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly from the Historic Preservation Agency to the Department of Natural Resources, including, but not limited to, material in electronic or magnetic format and necessary computer hardware and software, shall be transferred to the Department of Natural Resources.

(d) With respect to the functions of the Historic Preservation Agency transferred under Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department of Natural Resources is the successor agency to the Historic Preservation Agency under the Successor Agency Act and Section 9b of the State Finance Act. All unexpended appropriations and balances and other funds available for use by the Historic Preservation Agency shall, under the direction of the Governor, be transferred for use by the Department of Natural Resources in accordance with Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. Unexpended balances so transferred shall be expended by the Department of Natural Resources only for the purpose for which the appropriations were originally made.

(e) The manner in which any official is appointed, except that when any provision of an Executive Order or Act provides for the membership of the Historic Preservation Agency on any council, commission, board, or other entity, the Director of Natural Resources or his or her designee shall serve in that place; if more than one person is required by law to serve on any council, commission, board, or other entity, then an equivalent number of representatives of the Department of Natural Resources shall so serve.

(f) Whenever reports or notices are required to be made or given or papers or documents furnished or served by any person to or upon the Historic Preservation Agency in connection with any of the powers, duties, rights, or responsibilities transferred by Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the same shall be made, given, furnished, or served in the same manner to or upon the Department of Natural Resources.

(g) Any rules of the Historic Preservation Agency that relate to its powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities and are in full force on August 3, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-695) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall become the rules of the Department of Natural Resources. Public Act 100-695 This amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly does not affect the legality of any of those rules in the Illinois Administrative Code. Any proposed rule filed with the Secretary of State by the Historic Preservation Agency that is pending in the rulemaking process on August 3, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-695) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and pertain to the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities transferred, shall be deemed to have been filed by the Department of Natural Resources. As soon as practicable hereafter, the Department of Natural Resources shall revise and clarify the rules transferred to it under Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly to reflect the reorganization of powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities affected by Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, using the procedures for recodification of rules available under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that existing title, part, and section numbering for the affected rules may be retained. On and after August 3, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-695) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department of Natural Resources may propose and adopt, under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, any other rules that relate to the functions of the Historic Preservation Agency transferred to and that will now be administered by the Department of Natural Resources.

(h) The transfer of powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities to the Department of Natural Resources under Public Act 100-695 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly does not affect any person's rights, obligations, or duties, including any civil or criminal penalties applicable, arising out of those transferred powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities.

(i) Public Act 100-695 This amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly does not affect any act done, ratified, or canceled, or any right occurring or established, or any action or proceeding had or commenced in an administrative, civil, or criminal cause by the Historic Preservation Agency before August 3, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-695) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly; those actions or proceedings may be defended, prosecuted, or continued by the Department of Natural Resources.

(j) Public Act 100-695 This amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly does not contravene, and shall not be construed to contravene, any State statute except as provided in this Section or federal law.

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-2-18.)

(20 ILCS 3405/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Division of Historic Preservation. On and after August 3, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-695) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Division of Historic Preservation of the Department of Natural Resources Office of Land Management shall exercise all rights, powers, and duties vested in the Historic Sites and Preservation Division. The head of the Division shall be known as the Division Manager of Historic Preservation. The Department of Natural Resources may employ or retain other persons to assist in the discharge of its functions under this Act, subject to the Personnel Code and any other applicable Department policies.

(Source: P.A. 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-2-18.)

(20 ILCS 3405/28 new)

Sec. 28. Illinois Historic Sites Fund. All monies received for historic preservation programs administered by the Department, including grants, direct and indirect cost reimbursements, income from marketing activities, gifts, donations and bequests, from private organizations, individuals, other State agencies or federal agencies, monies received from publications, and copying and certification fees related to such programs, and all income from fees generated from admissions, special events, parking, camping, concession and property rental, shall be deposited into a special fund in the State treasury, to be known as the Illinois Historic Sites Fund, which is hereby created. Subject to appropriation, the monies in such fund shall be used by the Department for historic preservation purposes only.

The Illinois Historic Sites Fund is not subject to administrative charges or charge-backs, including but not limited to those authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act.

Section 180. The Illinois Historic Preservation Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3410/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 133d1)

Sec. 1. This Act shall be known as the "Illinois Historic Sites Advisory Council Preservation Act".

(Source: P.A. 79-1383.)

(20 ILCS 3410/15 rep.)

Section 185. The Illinois Historic Preservation Act is amended by repealing Section 15.

Section 195. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 805-15, 830-30, 830-35, 830-55, and 845-75 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3501/805-15)

Sec. 805-15. Industrial Project Insurance Fund. There is created the Industrial Project Insurance Fund, hereafter referred to in Sections 805-15 through 805-50 of this Act as the "Fund". The Treasurer shall have custody of the Fund, which shall be held outside of the State treasury, except that custody may be transferred to and held by any bank, trust company or other fiduciary with whom the Authority executes a trust agreement as authorized by paragraph (h) of Section 805-20 of this Act. Any portion of the Fund against which a charge has been made, shall be held for the benefit of the holders of the loans or bonds insured under Section 805-20 of this Act or the holders of State Guarantees under Article 830 of this Act. There shall be deposited in the Fund such amounts, including but not limited to:

(a) All receipts of bond and loan insurance premiums;

(b) All proceeds of assets of whatever nature received by the Authority as a result of default or delinquency with respect to insured loans or bonds or State Guarantees with respect to which payments from the Fund have been made, including proceeds from the sale, disposal, lease or rental of real or personal property which the Authority may receive under the provisions of this Article but excluding the proceeds of insurance hereunder;

(c) All receipts from any applicable contract or agreement entered into by the Authority under paragraph (b) of Section 805-20 of this Act;

(d) Any State appropriations, transfers of appropriations, or transfers of general obligation bond proceeds or other monies made available to the Fund. Amounts in the Fund shall be used in accordance with the provisions of this Article to satisfy any valid insurance claim payable therefrom and may be used for any other purpose determined by the Authority in accordance with insurance contract or contracts with financial institutions entered into pursuant to this Act, including without limitation protecting the interest of the Authority in industrial projects during periods of loan delinquency or upon loan default through the purchase of industrial projects in foreclosure proceedings or in lieu of foreclosure or through any other means. Such amounts may also be used to pay administrative costs and expenses reasonably allocable to the activities in connection with the Fund and to pay taxes, maintenance, insurance, security and any other costs and expenses of bidding for, acquiring, owning, carrying and disposing of industrial projects or PACE Projects, which were financed with the proceeds of loans or insured bonds, including loans or loan participations made under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40. In the case of a default in payment with respect to any loan, mortgage or other agreement so insured or otherwise representing possible loss to the Authority, the amount of the default shall immediately, and at all times during the continuance of such default, and to the extent provided in any applicable agreement, constitute a charge on the Fund. Any amounts in the Fund not currently needed to meet the obligations of the Fund may be invested as provided by law in obligations designated by the Authority, or used to make direct loans or purchase loan participations under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40. All income from such investments shall become part of the Fund. All income from direct loans or loan participations made under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40 shall become funds of the Authority. In making such investments, the Authority shall act with the care, skill, diligence and prudence under the circumstances of a prudent person acting in a like capacity in the conduct of an enterprise of like character and with like aims. It shall diversify such investments of the Authority so as to minimize the risk of large losses, unless under the circumstances it is clearly not prudent to do so. Amounts in the Fund may also be used to satisfy State Guarantees under Article 830 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-919, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(20 ILCS 3501/830-30)

Sec. 830-30. State Guarantees for existing debt.

(a) The Authority is authorized to issue State Guarantees for farmers' existing debts held by a lender. For the purposes of this Section, a farmer shall be a resident of Illinois, who is a principal operator of a farm or land, at least 50% of whose annual gross income is derived from farming and whose debt to asset ratio shall not be less than 40%, except in those cases where the applicant has previously used the guarantee program there shall be no debt to asset ratio or income restriction. For the purposes of this Section, debt to asset ratio shall mean the current outstanding liabilities of the farmer divided by the current outstanding assets of the farmer. The Authority shall establish the maximum permissible debt to asset ratio based on criteria established by the Authority. Lenders shall apply for the State Guarantees on forms provided by the Authority and certify that the application and any other documents submitted are true and correct. The lender or borrower, or both in combination, shall pay an administrative fee as determined by the Authority. The applicant shall be responsible for paying any fees or charges involved in recording mortgages, releases, financing statements, insurance for secondary market issues and any other similar fees or charges as the Authority may require. The application shall at a minimum contain the farmer's name, address, present credit and financial information, including cash flow statements, financial statements, balance sheets, and any other information pertinent to the application, and the collateral to be used to secure the State Guarantee. In addition, the lender must agree to bring the farmer's debt to a current status at the time the State Guarantee is provided and must also agree to charge a fixed or adjustable interest rate which the Authority determines to be below the market rate of interest generally available to the borrower. If both the lender and applicant agree, the interest rate on the State Guarantee Loan can be converted to a fixed interest rate at any time during the term of the loan. Any State Guarantees provided under this Section (i) shall not exceed $500,000 per farmer, (ii) shall be set up on a payment schedule not to exceed 30 years, and shall be no longer than 30 years in duration, and (iii) shall be subject to an annual review and renewal by the lender and the Authority; provided that only one such State Guarantee shall be outstanding per farmer at any one time. No State Guarantee shall be revoked by the Authority without a 90-day notice, in writing, to all parties. In those cases where the borrower has not previously used the guarantee program, the lender shall not call due any loan during the first 3 years for any reason except for lack of performance or insufficient collateral. The lender can review and withdraw or continue with the State Guarantee on an annual basis after the first 3 years of the loan, provided a 90-day notice, in writing, to all parties has been given.

(b) The Authority shall provide or renew a State Guarantee to a lender if:

(i) A fee equal to 25 basis points on the loan is paid to the Authority on an annual basis by the lender.

(ii) The application provides collateral acceptable to the Authority that is at least equal to the State's portion of the Guarantee to be provided.

(iii) The lender assumes all responsibility and costs for pursuing legal action on collecting any loan that is delinquent or in default.

(iv) The lender is responsible for the first 15% of the outstanding principal of the note for which the State Guarantee has been applied.

(c) There is hereby created outside of the State treasury a special fund to be known as the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund. The State Treasurer shall be custodian of this Fund. Any amounts in the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund not currently needed to meet the obligations of the Fund shall be invested as provided by law or used by the Authority to make direct loans or originate or purchase loan participations under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40. All interest earned from these investments shall be deposited into the Fund until the Fund reaches the maximum amount authorized in this Act; thereafter, interest earned shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund. After September 1, 1989, annual investment earnings equal to 1.5% of the Fund shall remain in the Fund to be used for the purposes established in Section 830-40 of this Act. All earnings on direct loans or loan participations made by the Authority under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40 with amounts in this Fund shall become funds of the Authority. The Authority is authorized to transfer to the Fund such amounts as are necessary to satisfy claims during the duration of the State Guarantee program to secure State Guarantees issued under this Section, provided that amounts to be paid from the Industrial Project Insurance Fund created under Article 805 of this Act may be paid by the Authority directly to satisfy claims and need not be deposited first into the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund. If for any reason the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation sufficient to meet these obligations, this Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation of an amount necessary to secure guarantees as defaults occur and the irrevocable and continuing authority for, and direction to, the State Treasurer and the Comptroller to make the necessary transfers to the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund, as directed by the Governor, out of the General Revenue Fund. Within 30 days after November 15, 1985, the Authority may transfer up to $7,000,000 from available appropriations into the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund for the purposes of this Act. Thereafter, the Authority may transfer additional amounts into the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund to secure guarantees for defaults as defaults occur. In the event of default by the farmer, the lender shall be entitled to, and the Authority shall direct payment on, the State Guarantee after 90 days of delinquency. All payments by the Authority to satisfy claims against the State Guarantee shall be made, in whole or in part, from any of the following funds in such order and in such amounts as the Authority shall determine: (1) the Industrial Project Insurance Fund created under Article 805 of this Act (if the Authority exercises its discretion under subsection (j) of Section 805-20); (2) the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund; or (3) the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund. The Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund shall guarantee receipt of payment of the 85% of the principal and interest owed on the State Guarantee Loan by the farmer to the guarantee holder, provided that payments by the Authority to satisfy claims against the State Guarantee shall be made in accordance with the preceding sentence. It shall be the responsibility of the lender to proceed with the collecting and disposing of collateral on the State Guarantee under this Section, Section 830-35, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, Section 830-55, or Article 835 within 14 months of the time the State Guarantee is declared delinquent; provided, however, that the lender shall not collect or dispose of collateral on the State Guarantee without the express written prior approval of the Authority. If the lender does not dispose of the collateral within 14 months, the lender shall be liable to repay to the State interest on the State Guarantee equal to the same rate which the lender charges on the State Guarantee; provided, however, that the Authority may extend the 14-month period for a lender in the case of bankruptcy or extenuating circumstances. The Fund from which a payment is made shall be reimbursed for any amounts paid from that Fund under this Section, Section 830-35, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, Section 830-55, or Article 835 upon liquidation of the collateral. The Authority, by resolution of the Board, may borrow sums from the Fund and provide for repayment as soon as may be practical upon receipt of payments of principal and interest by a farmer. Money may be borrowed from the Fund by the Authority for the sole purpose of paying certain interest costs for farmers associated with selling a loan subject to a State Guarantee in a secondary market as may be deemed reasonable and necessary by the Authority.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section 830-30 with respect to the farmers and lenders who may obtain State Guarantees, the Authority may promulgate rules establishing the eligibility of farmers and lenders to participate in the State guarantee program and the terms, standards, and procedures that will apply, when the Authority finds that emergency conditions in Illinois agriculture have created the need for State Guarantees pursuant to terms, standards, and procedures other than those specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-509, eff. 6-24-16; 100-919, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(20 ILCS 3501/830-35)

Sec. 830-35. State Guarantees for loans to farmers and agribusiness; eligibility.

(a) The Authority is authorized to issue State Guarantees to lenders for loans to eligible farmers and agribusinesses for purposes set forth in this Section. For purposes of this Section, an eligible farmer shall be a resident of Illinois (i) who is principal operator of a farm or land, at least 50% of whose annual gross income is derived from farming, (ii) whose annual total sales of agricultural products, commodities, or livestock exceeds $20,000, and (iii) whose net worth does not exceed $500,000. An eligible agribusiness shall be that as defined in Section 801-10 of this Act. The Authority may approve applications by farmers and agribusinesses that promote diversification of the farm economy of this State through the growth and development of new crops or livestock not customarily grown or produced in this State or that emphasize a vertical integration of grain or livestock produced or raised in this State into a finished agricultural product for consumption or use. "New crops or livestock not customarily grown or produced in this State" shall not include corn, soybeans, wheat, swine, or beef or dairy cattle. "Vertical integration of grain or livestock produced or raised in this State" shall include any new or existing grain or livestock grown or produced in this State. Lenders shall apply for the State Guarantees on forms provided by the Authority, certify that the application and any other documents submitted are true and correct, and pay an administrative fee as determined by the Authority. The applicant shall be responsible for paying any fees or charges involved in recording mortgages, releases, financing statements, insurance for secondary market issues and any other similar fees or charges as the Authority may require. The application shall at a minimum contain the farmer's or agribusiness' name, address, present credit and financial information, including cash flow statements, financial statements, balance sheets, and any other information pertinent to the application, and the collateral to be used to secure the State Guarantee. In addition, the lender must agree to charge an interest rate, which may vary, on the loan that the Authority determines to be below the market rate of interest generally available to the borrower. If both the lender and applicant agree, the interest rate on the State Guarantee Loan can be converted to a fixed interest rate at any time during the term of the loan. Any State Guarantees provided under this Section (i) shall not exceed $500,000 per farmer or an amount as determined by the Authority on a case-by-case basis for an agribusiness, (ii) shall not exceed a term of 15 years, and (iii) shall be subject to an annual review and renewal by the lender and the Authority; provided that only one such State Guarantee shall be made per farmer or agribusiness, except that additional State Guarantees may be made for purposes of expansion of projects financed in part by a previously issued State Guarantee. No State Guarantee shall be revoked by the Authority without a 90-day notice, in writing, to all parties. The lender shall not call due any loan for any reason except for lack of performance, insufficient collateral, or maturity. A lender may review and withdraw or continue with a State Guarantee on an annual basis after the first 5 years following closing of the loan application if the loan contract provides for an interest rate that shall not vary. A lender shall not withdraw a State Guarantee if the loan contract provides for an interest rate that may vary, except for reasons set forth herein.

(b) The Authority shall provide or renew a State Guarantee to a lender if:

(i) A fee equal to 25 basis points on the loan is paid to the Authority on an annual basis by the lender.

(ii) The application provides collateral acceptable to the Authority that is at least equal to the State's portion of the Guarantee to be provided.

(iii) The lender assumes all responsibility and costs for pursuing legal action on collecting any loan that is delinquent or in default.

(iv) The lender is responsible for the first 15% of the outstanding principal of the note for which the State Guarantee has been applied.

(c) There is hereby created outside of the State treasury a special fund to be known as the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund. The State Treasurer shall be custodian of this Fund. Any amounts in the Fund not currently needed to meet the obligations of the Fund shall be invested as provided by law, or used by the Authority to make direct loans or originate or purchase loan participations under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40. All interest earned from these investments shall be deposited into the Fund until the Fund reaches the maximum amounts authorized in this Act; thereafter, interest earned shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund. After September 1, 1989, annual investment earnings equal to 1.5% of the Fund shall remain in the Fund to be used for the purposes established in Section 830-40 of this Act. All earnings on direct loans or loan participations made by the Authority under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40 with amounts in this Fund shall become funds of the Authority. The Authority is authorized to transfer such amounts as are necessary to satisfy claims from available appropriations and from fund balances of the Farm Emergency Assistance Fund as of June 30 of each year to the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund to secure State Guarantees issued under this Section, Sections 830-30, 830-45, 830-50, and 830-55, and Article 835 of this Act. Amounts to be paid from the Industrial Project Insurance Fund created under Article 805 of this Act may be paid by the Authority directly to satisfy claims and need not be deposited first into the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund. If for any reason the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation sufficient to meet these obligations, this Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation of an amount necessary to secure guarantees as defaults occur and the irrevocable and continuing authority for, and direction to, the State Treasurer and the Comptroller to make the necessary transfers to the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund, as directed by the Governor, out of the General Revenue Fund. In the event of default by the borrower on State Guarantee Loans under this Section, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, or Section 830-55, the lender shall be entitled to, and the Authority shall direct payment on, the State Guarantee after 90 days of delinquency. All payments by the Authority to satisfy claims against the State Guarantee shall be made, in whole or in part, from any of the following funds in such order and in such amounts as the Authority shall determine: (1) the Industrial Project Insurance Fund created under Article 805 of this Act (if the Authority exercises its discretion under subsection (j) of Section 805-20); (2) the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund; or (3) the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund. It shall be the responsibility of the lender to proceed with the collecting and disposing of collateral on the State Guarantee under this Section, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, or Section 830-55 within 14 months of the time the State Guarantee is declared delinquent. If the lender does not dispose of the collateral within 14 months, the lender shall be liable to repay to the State interest on the State Guarantee equal to the same rate that the lender charges on the State Guarantee, provided that the Authority shall have the authority to extend the 14-month period for a lender in the case of bankruptcy or extenuating circumstances. The Fund shall be reimbursed for any amounts paid under this Section, Section 830-30, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, Section 830-55, or Article 835 upon liquidation of the collateral. The Authority, by resolution of the Board, may borrow sums from the Fund and provide for repayment as soon as may be practical upon receipt of payments of principal and interest by a borrower on State Guarantee Loans under this Section, Section 830-30, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, Section 830-55, or Article 835. Money may be borrowed from the Fund by the Authority for the sole purpose of paying certain interest costs for borrowers associated with selling a loan subject to a State Guarantee under this Section, Section 830-30, Section 830-45, Section 830-50, Section 830-55, or Article 835 in a secondary market as may be deemed reasonable and necessary by the Authority.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section 830-35 with respect to the farmers, agribusinesses, and lenders who may obtain State Guarantees, the Authority may promulgate rules establishing the eligibility of farmers, agribusinesses, and lenders to participate in the State Guarantee program and the terms, standards, and procedures that will apply, when the Authority finds that emergency conditions in Illinois agriculture have created the need for State Guarantees pursuant to terms, standards, and procedures other than those specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-509, eff. 6-24-16; 100-919, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(20 ILCS 3501/830-55)

Sec. 830-55. Working Capital Loan Guarantee Program.

(a) The Authority is authorized to issue State Guarantees to lenders for loans to finance needed input costs related to and in connection with planting and raising agricultural crops and commodities in Illinois. Eligible input costs include, but are not limited to, fertilizer, chemicals, feed, seed, fuel, parts, and repairs. At the discretion of the Authority, the farmer, producer, or agribusiness must be able to provide the originating lender with a first lien on the proposed crop or commodity to be raised and an assignment of Federal Crop Insurance sufficient to secure the Working Capital Loan. Additional collateral may be required as deemed necessary by the lender and the Authority.

For the purposes of this Section, an eligible farmer, producer, or agribusiness is a resident of Illinois who is at least 18 years of age and who is a principal operator of a farm or land, who derives at least 50% of annual gross income from farming, and whose debt to asset ratio is not less than 40%. For the purposes of this Section, debt to asset ratio means current outstanding liabilities, including any debt to be financed or refinanced under this Section 830-55, divided by current outstanding assets. The Authority shall establish the maximum permissible debt to asset ratio based on criteria established by the Authority. Lenders shall apply for the State Guarantees on forms provided by the Authority and certify that the application and any other documents submitted are true and correct. The lender or borrower, or both in combination, shall pay an administrative fee as determined by the Authority. The applicant shall be responsible for paying any fee or charge involved in recording mortgages, releases, financing statements, insurance for secondary market issues, and any other similar fee or charge that the Authority may require. The application shall at a minimum contain the borrower's name, address, present credit and financial information, including cash flow statements, financial statements, balance sheets, and any other information pertinent to the application, and the collateral to be used to secure the State Guarantee. In addition, the borrower must certify to the Authority that, at the time the State Guarantee is provided, the borrower will not be delinquent in the repayment of any debt. The lender must agree to charge a fixed or adjustable interest rate that the Authority determines to be below the market rate of interest generally available to the borrower. If both the lender and applicant agree, the interest rate on the State guaranteed loan can be converted to a fixed interest rate at any time during the term of the loan. State Guarantees provided under this Section (i) shall not exceed $250,000 per borrower, (ii) shall be repaid annually, and (iii) shall be subject to an annual review and renewal by the lender and the Authority. The State Guarantee may be renewed annually, for a period not to exceed 3 total years per State Guarantee, if the borrower meets financial criteria and other conditions, as established by the Authority. A farmer or agribusiness may use this program more than once provided the aggregate principal amount of State Guarantees under this Section to that farmer or agribusiness does not exceed $250,000 annually. No State Guarantee shall be revoked by the Authority without a 90-day notice, in writing, to all parties.

(b) The Authority shall provide a State Guarantee to a lender if:

(i) The borrower pays to the Authority a fee equal to 100 basis points on the loan.

(ii) The application provides collateral acceptable to the Authority that is at least equal to the State Guarantee.

(iii) The lender assumes all responsibility and costs for pursuing legal action on collecting any loan that is delinquent or in default.

(iv) The lender is at risk for the first 15% of the outstanding principal of the note for which the State Guarantee is provided.

(c) The Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund, the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund, and the Industrial Project Insurance Fund may be used to secure State Guarantees issued under this Section as provided in Section 830-30, Section 830-35, and subsection (j) of Section 805-20, respectively, or to make direct loans or purchase loan participations under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40. If the Authority exercises its discretion under subsection (j) of Section 805-20 to secure a State Guarantee with the Industrial Project Insurance Fund and also exercises its discretion under this subsection to secure the same State Guarantee with the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund, the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund, or both, all payments by the Authority to satisfy claims against the State Guarantee shall be made from the Industrial Project Insurance Fund, the Illinois Agricultural Loan Guarantee Fund, or the Illinois Farmer and Agribusiness Loan Guarantee Fund, as applicable, in such order and in such amounts as the Authority shall determine.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section 830-55 with respect to the borrowers and lenders who may obtain State Guarantees, the Authority may promulgate rules establishing the eligibility of borrowers and lenders to participate in the State Guarantee program and the terms, standards, and procedures that will apply, when the Authority finds that emergency conditions in Illinois agriculture have created the need for State Guarantees pursuant to terms, standards, and procedures other than those specified in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-509, eff. 6-24-16; 100-919, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(20 ILCS 3501/845-75)

Sec. 845-75. Transfer of functions from previously existing authorities to the Illinois Finance Authority.

(a) The Illinois Finance Authority created by the Illinois Finance Authority Act shall succeed to, assume and exercise all rights, powers, duties and responsibilities formerly exercised by the following Authorities and entities (herein called the "Predecessor Authorities") prior to the abolition of the Predecessor Authorities by this Act:

The Illinois Development Finance Authority

The Illinois Farm Development Authority

The Illinois Health Facilities Authority

The Illinois Educational Facilities Authority

The Illinois Community Development Finance Corporation

The Illinois Rural Bond Bank

The Illinois Research Park Authority

(b) All books, records, papers, documents and pending business in any way pertaining to the Predecessor Authorities are transferred to the Illinois Finance Authority, but any rights or obligations of any person under any contract made by, or under any rules, regulations, uniform standards, criteria and guidelines established or approved by, such Predecessor Authorities shall be unaffected thereby. All bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness outstanding on the effective date of this Act shall be unaffected by the transfer of functions to the Illinois Finance Authority. No rule, regulation, standard, criteria or guideline promulgated, established or approved by the Predecessor Authorities pursuant to an exercise of any right, power, duty or responsibility assumed by and transferred to the Illinois Finance Authority shall be affected by this Act, and all such rules, regulations, standards, criteria and guidelines shall become those of the Illinois Finance Authority until such time as they are amended or repealed by the Illinois Finance Authority.

(c) The Illinois Finance Authority may exercise all of the rights, powers, duties, and responsibilities that were provided for the Illinois Research Park Authority under the provisions of the Illinois Research Park Authority Act, as the text of that Act existed on December 31, 2003, notwithstanding the fact that Public Act 88-669, which created the Illinois Research Park Authority Act, has been held to be unconstitutional as a violation of the single subject clause of the Illinois Constitution in People v. Olender, Docket No. 98932, opinion filed December 15, 2005.

(d) The enactment of Public Act 100-919 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall not affect any right accrued or liability incurred prior to its enactment, including the validity or enforceability of any prior action taken by the Illinois Finance Authority with respect to loans made, or loan participations purchased, by the Authority under subsection subsections (i) or (r) of Section 801-40.

(Source: P.A. 100-919, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 200. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Section 1-75 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Planning and Procurement Bureau. The Planning and Procurement Bureau has the following duties and responsibilities:

(a) The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall each year, beginning in 2008, develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois. Beginning with the delivery year commencing on June 1, 2017, the Planning and Procurement Bureau shall develop plans and processes for the procurement of zero emission credits from zero emission facilities in accordance with the requirements of subsection (d-5) of this Section. The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall also develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. This Section shall not apply to a small multi-jurisdictional utility until such time as a small multi-jurisdictional utility requests the Agency to prepare a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. For the purposes of this Section, the term "eligible retail customers" has the same definition as found in Section 16-111.5(a) of the Public Utilities Act.

Beginning with the plan or plans to be implemented in the 2017 delivery year, the Agency shall no longer include the procurement of renewable energy resources in the annual procurement plans required by this subsection (a), except as provided in subsection (q) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, and shall instead develop a long-term renewable resources procurement plan in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(1) The Agency shall each year, beginning in 2008, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for experts or expert consulting firms to develop the procurement plans in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience assembling large-scale power supply plans or portfolios for end-use customers;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, risk management, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including managing supply risk;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit protocols and familiarity with contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(2) The Agency shall each year, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for a procurement administrator to conduct the competitive procurement processes in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience administering a large-scale competitive procurement process;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including risk management experience;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit and contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(3) The Agency shall provide affected utilities and other interested parties with the lists of qualified experts or expert consulting firms identified through the request for qualifications processes that are under consideration to develop the procurement plans and to serve as the procurement administrator. The Agency shall also provide each qualified expert's or expert consulting firm's response to the request for qualifications. All information provided under this subparagraph shall also be provided to the Commission. The Agency may provide by rule for fees associated with supplying the information to utilities and other interested parties. These parties shall, within 5 business days, notify the Agency in writing if they object to any experts or expert consulting firms on the lists. Objections shall be based on:

(A) failure to satisfy qualification criteria;

(B) identification of a conflict of interest; or

(C) evidence of inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected utilities.

The Agency shall remove experts or expert consulting firms from the lists within 10 days if there is a reasonable basis for an objection and provide the updated lists to the affected utilities and other interested parties. If the Agency fails to remove an expert or expert consulting firm from a list, an objecting party may seek review by the Commission within 5 days thereafter by filing a petition, and the Commission shall render a ruling on the petition within 10 days. There is no right of appeal of the Commission's ruling.

(4) The Agency shall issue requests for proposals to the qualified experts or expert consulting firms to develop a procurement plan for the affected utilities and to serve as procurement administrator.

(5) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm to develop procurement plans based on the proposals submitted and shall award contracts of up to 5 years to those selected.

(6) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm, with approval of the Commission, to serve as procurement administrator based on the proposals submitted. If the Commission rejects, within 5 days, the Agency's selection, the Agency shall submit another recommendation within 3 days based on the proposals submitted. The Agency shall award a 5-year contract to the expert or expert consulting firm so selected with Commission approval.

(b) The experts or expert consulting firms retained by the Agency shall, as appropriate, prepare procurement plans, and conduct a competitive procurement process as prescribed in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in the State of Illinois, and for eligible Illinois retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load.

(c) Renewable portfolio standard.

(1)(A) The Agency shall develop a long-term renewable resources procurement plan that shall include procurement programs and competitive procurement events necessary to meet the goals set forth in this subsection (c). The initial long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall be released for comment no later than 160 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906). The Agency shall review, and may revise on an expedited basis, the long-term renewable resources procurement plan at least every 2 years, which shall be conducted in conjunction with the procurement plan under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent practicable to minimize administrative expense. The long-term renewable resources procurement plans shall be subject to review and approval by the Commission under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(B) Subject to subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (1), the long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall include the goals for procurement of renewable energy credits to meet at least the following overall percentages: 13% by the 2017 delivery year; increasing by at least 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to at least 25% by the 2025 delivery year; and continuing at no less than 25% for each delivery year thereafter. In the event of a conflict between these goals and the new wind and new photovoltaic procurement requirements described in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1), the long-term plan shall prioritize compliance with the new wind and new photovoltaic procurement requirements described in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1) over the annual percentage targets described in this subparagraph (B).

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2017, the procurement plan shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources equal to at least 13% of each utility's load for eligible retail customers and 13% of the applicable portion of each utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers, which applicable portion shall equal 50% of the utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers on February 28, 2017.

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018, the procurement plan shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources equal to at least 14.5% of each utility's load for eligible retail customers and 14.5% of the applicable portion of each utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers, which applicable portion shall equal 75% of the utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers on February 28, 2017.

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2019, and for each year thereafter, the procurement plans shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources equal to a minimum percentage of each utility's load for all retail customers as follows: 16% by June 1, 2019; increasing by 1.5% each year thereafter to 25% by June 1, 2025; and 25% by June 1, 2026 and each year thereafter.

For each delivery year, the Agency shall first recognize each utility's obligations for that delivery year under existing contracts. Any renewable energy credits under existing contracts, including renewable energy credits as part of renewable energy resources, shall be used to meet the goals set forth in this subsection (c) for the delivery year.

(C) Of the renewable energy credits procured under this subsection (c), at least 75% shall come from wind and photovoltaic projects. The long-term renewable resources procurement plan described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1) shall include the procurement of renewable energy credits in amounts equal to at least the following:

(i) By the end of the 2020 delivery year:

At least 2,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new wind projects; and

At least 2,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new photovoltaic projects; of that amount, to the extent possible, the Agency shall procure: at least 50% from solar photovoltaic projects using the program outlined in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) from distributed renewable energy generation devices or community renewable generation projects; at least 40% from utility-scale solar projects; at least 2% from brownfield site photovoltaic projects that are not community renewable generation projects; and the remainder shall be determined through the long-term planning process described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1).

(ii) By the end of the 2025 delivery year:

At least 3,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new wind projects; and

At least 3,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new photovoltaic projects; of that amount, to the extent possible, the Agency shall procure: at least 50% from solar photovoltaic projects using the program outlined in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) from distributed renewable energy devices or community renewable generation projects; at least 40% from utility-scale solar projects; at least 2% from brownfield site photovoltaic projects that are not community renewable generation projects; and the remainder shall be determined through the long-term planning process described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1).

(iii) By the end of the 2030 delivery year:

At least 4,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new wind projects; and

At least 4,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new photovoltaic projects; of that amount, to the extent possible, the Agency shall procure: at least 50% from solar photovoltaic projects using the program outlined in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) from distributed renewable energy devices or community renewable generation projects; at least 40% from utility-scale solar projects; at least 2% from brownfield site photovoltaic projects that are not community renewable generation projects; and the remainder shall be determined through the long-term planning process described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1).

For purposes of this Section:

"New wind projects" means wind renewable energy facilities that are energized after June 1, 2017 for the delivery year commencing June 1, 2017 or within 3 years after the date the Commission approves contracts for subsequent delivery years.

"New photovoltaic projects" means photovoltaic renewable energy facilities that are energized after June 1, 2017. Photovoltaic projects developed under Section 1-56 of this Act shall not apply towards the new photovoltaic project requirements in this subparagraph (C).

(D) Renewable energy credits shall be cost effective. For purposes of this subsection (c), "cost effective" means that the costs of procuring renewable energy resources do not cause the limit stated in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (1) to be exceeded and, for renewable energy credits procured through a competitive procurement event, do not exceed benchmarks based on market prices for like products in the region. For purposes of this subsection (c), "like products" means contracts for renewable energy credits from the same or substantially similar technology, same or substantially similar vintage (new or existing), the same or substantially similar quantity, and the same or substantially similar contract length and structure. Benchmarks shall be developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval. If price benchmarks for like products in the region are not available, the procurement administrator shall establish price benchmarks based on publicly available data on regional technology costs and expected current and future regional energy prices. The benchmarks in this Section shall not be used to curtail or otherwise reduce contractual obligations entered into by or through the Agency prior to June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906).

(E) For purposes of this subsection (c), the required procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources for a particular year commencing prior to June 1, 2017 shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the delivery year ending immediately prior to the procurement, and, for delivery years commencing on and after June 1, 2017, the required procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the electric utility in the delivery year ending immediately prior to the procurement, to all retail customers in its service territory. For purposes of this subsection (c), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (c), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c), the total of renewable energy resources procured under the procurement plan for any single year shall be subject to the limitations of this subparagraph (E). Such procurement shall be reduced for all retail customers based on the amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007 or the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2011. To arrive at a maximum dollar amount of renewable energy resources to be procured for the particular delivery year, the resulting per kilowatthour amount shall be applied to the actual amount of kilowatthours of electricity delivered, or applicable portion of such amount as specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c), as applicable, by the electric utility in the delivery year immediately prior to the procurement to all retail customers in its service territory. The calculations required by this subparagraph (E) shall be made only once for each delivery year at the time that the renewable energy resources are procured. Once the determination as to the amount of renewable energy resources to procure is made based on the calculations set forth in this subparagraph (E) and the contracts procuring those amounts are executed, no subsequent rate impact determinations shall be made and no adjustments to those contract amounts shall be allowed. All costs incurred under such contracts shall be fully recoverable by the electric utility as provided in this Section.

(F) If the limitation on the amount of renewable energy resources procured in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (1) prevents the Agency from meeting all of the goals in this subsection (c), the Agency's long-term plan shall prioritize compliance with the requirements of this subsection (c) regarding renewable energy credits in the following order:

(i) renewable energy credits under existing contractual obligations;

(i-5) funding for the Illinois Solar for All Program, as described in subparagraph (O) of this paragraph (1);

(ii) renewable energy credits necessary to comply with the new wind and new photovoltaic procurement requirements described in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1); and

(iii) renewable energy credits necessary to meet the remaining requirements of this subsection (c).

(G) The following provisions shall apply to the Agency's procurement of renewable energy credits under this subsection (c):

(i) Notwithstanding whether a long-term renewable resources procurement plan has been approved, the Agency shall conduct an initial forward procurement for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale wind projects within 160 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906). For the purposes of this initial forward procurement, the Agency shall solicit 15-year contracts for delivery of 1,000,000 renewable energy credits delivered annually from new utility-scale wind projects to begin delivery on June 1, 2019, if available, but not later than June 1, 2021. Payments to suppliers of renewable energy credits shall commence upon delivery. Renewable energy credits procured under this initial procurement shall be included in the Agency's long-term plan and shall apply to all renewable energy goals in this subsection (c).

(ii) Notwithstanding whether a long-term renewable resources procurement plan has been approved, the Agency shall conduct an initial forward procurement for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale solar projects and brownfield site photovoltaic projects within one year after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906). For the purposes of this initial forward procurement, the Agency shall solicit 15-year contracts for delivery of 1,000,000 renewable energy credits delivered annually from new utility-scale solar projects and brownfield site photovoltaic projects to begin delivery on June 1, 2019, if available, but not later than June 1, 2021. The Agency may structure this initial procurement in one or more discrete procurement events. Payments to suppliers of renewable energy credits shall commence upon delivery. Renewable energy credits procured under this initial procurement shall be included in the Agency's long-term plan and shall apply to all renewable energy goals in this subsection (c).

(iii) Subsequent forward procurements for utility-scale wind projects shall solicit at least 1,000,000 renewable energy credits delivered annually per procurement event and shall be planned, scheduled, and designed such that the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits delivered from all new wind projects in each delivery year shall not exceed the Agency's projection of the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits that will be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects, including utility-scale and distributed photovoltaic devices, in the same delivery year at the time scheduled for wind contract delivery.

(iv) If, at any time after the time set for delivery of renewable energy credits pursuant to the initial procurements in items (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph (G), the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits projected to be delivered from all new wind projects in a given delivery year exceeds the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits projected to be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects in that delivery year by 200,000 or more renewable energy credits, then the Agency shall within 60 days adjust the procurement programs in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan to ensure that the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new wind projects does not exceed the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects by 200,000 or more renewable energy credits, provided that nothing in this Section shall preclude the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects from exceeding the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new wind projects in each delivery year and provided further that nothing in this item (iv) shall require the curtailment of an executed contract. The Agency shall update, on a quarterly basis, its projection of the renewable energy credits to be delivered from all projects in each delivery year. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, the Agency may adjust the timing of procurement events conducted under this subparagraph (G). The long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall set forth the process by which the adjustments may be made.

(v) All procurements under this subparagraph (G) shall comply with the geographic requirements in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (1) and shall follow the procurement processes and procedures described in this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent practicable, and these processes and procedures may be expedited to accommodate the schedule established by this subparagraph (G).

(H) The procurement of renewable energy resources for a given delivery year shall be reduced as described in this subparagraph (H) if an alternative retail electric supplier meets the requirements described in this subparagraph (H).

(i) Within 45 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), an alternative retail electric supplier or its successor shall submit an informational filing to the Illinois Commerce Commission certifying that, as of December 31, 2015, the alternative retail electric supplier owned one or more electric generating facilities that generates renewable energy resources as defined in Section 1-10 of this Act, provided that such facilities are not powered by wind or photovoltaics, and the facilities generate one renewable energy credit for each megawatthour of energy produced from the facility.

The informational filing shall identify each facility that was eligible to satisfy the alternative retail electric supplier's obligations under Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act as described in this item (i).

(ii) For a given delivery year, the alternative retail electric supplier may elect to supply its retail customers with renewable energy credits from the facility or facilities described in item (i) of this subparagraph (H) that continue to be owned by the alternative retail electric supplier.

(iii) The alternative retail electric supplier shall notify the Agency and the applicable utility, no later than February 28 of the year preceding the applicable delivery year or 15 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), whichever is later, of its election under item (ii) of this subparagraph (H) to supply renewable energy credits to retail customers of the utility. Such election shall identify the amount of renewable energy credits to be supplied by the alternative retail electric supplier to the utility's retail customers and the source of the renewable energy credits identified in the informational filing as described in item (i) of this subparagraph (H), subject to the following limitations:

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018, the maximum amount of renewable energy credits to be supplied by an alternative retail electric supplier under this subparagraph (H) shall be 68% multiplied by 25% multiplied by 14.5% multiplied by the amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the alternative retail electric supplier to Illinois retail customers during the delivery year ending May 31, 2016.

For delivery years beginning June 1, 2019 and each year thereafter, the maximum amount of renewable energy credits to be supplied by an alternative retail electric supplier under this subparagraph (H) shall be 68% multiplied by 50% multiplied by 16% multiplied by the amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the alternative retail electric supplier to Illinois retail customers during the delivery year ending May 31, 2016, provided that the 16% value shall increase by 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to 25% by the delivery year beginning June 1, 2025, and thereafter the 25% value shall apply to each delivery year.

For each delivery year, the total amount of renewable energy credits supplied by all alternative retail electric suppliers under this subparagraph (H) shall not exceed 9% of the Illinois target renewable energy credit quantity. The Illinois target renewable energy credit quantity for the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018 is 14.5% multiplied by the total amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered in the delivery year immediately preceding that delivery year, provided that the 14.5% shall increase by 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to 25% by the delivery year beginning June 1, 2025, and thereafter the 25% value shall apply to each delivery year.

If the requirements set forth in items (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph (H) are met, the charges that would otherwise be applicable to the retail customers of the alternative retail electric supplier under paragraph (6) of this subsection (c) for the applicable delivery year shall be reduced by the ratio of the quantity of renewable energy credits supplied by the alternative retail electric supplier compared to that supplier's target renewable energy credit quantity. The supplier's target renewable energy credit quantity for the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018 is 14.5% multiplied by the total amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the alternative retail supplier in that delivery year, provided that the 14.5% shall increase by 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to 25% by the delivery year beginning June 1, 2025, and thereafter the 25% value shall apply to each delivery year.

On or before April 1 of each year, the Agency shall annually publish a report on its website that identifies the aggregate amount of renewable energy credits supplied by alternative retail electric suppliers under this subparagraph (H).

(I) The Agency shall design its long-term renewable energy procurement plan to maximize the State's interest in the health, safety, and welfare of its residents, including but not limited to minimizing sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, particulate matter and other pollution that adversely affects public health in this State, increasing fuel and resource diversity in this State, enhancing the reliability and resiliency of the electricity distribution system in this State, meeting goals to limit carbon dioxide emissions under federal or State law, and contributing to a cleaner and healthier environment for the citizens of this State. In order to further these legislative purposes, renewable energy credits shall be eligible to be counted toward the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c) if they are generated from facilities located in this State. The Agency may qualify renewable energy credits from facilities located in states adjacent to Illinois if the generator demonstrates and the Agency determines that the operation of such facility or facilities will help promote the State's interest in the health, safety, and welfare of its residents based on the public interest criteria described above. To ensure that the public interest criteria are applied to the procurement and given full effect, the Agency's long-term procurement plan shall describe in detail how each public interest factor shall be considered and weighted for facilities located in states adjacent to Illinois.

(J) In order to promote the competitive development of renewable energy resources in furtherance of the State's interest in the health, safety, and welfare of its residents, renewable energy credits shall not be eligible to be counted toward the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c) if they are sourced from a generating unit whose costs were being recovered through rates regulated by this State or any other state or states on or after January 1, 2017. Each contract executed to purchase renewable energy credits under this subsection (c) shall provide for the contract's termination if the costs of the generating unit supplying the renewable energy credits subsequently begin to be recovered through rates regulated by this State or any other state or states; and each contract shall further provide that, in that event, the supplier of the credits must return 110% of all payments received under the contract. Amounts returned under the requirements of this subparagraph (J) shall be retained by the utility and all of these amounts shall be used for the procurement of additional renewable energy credits from new wind or new photovoltaic resources as defined in this subsection (c). The long-term plan shall provide that these renewable energy credits shall be procured in the next procurement event.

Notwithstanding the limitations of this subparagraph (J), renewable energy credits sourced from generating units that are constructed, purchased, owned, or leased by an electric utility as part of an approved project, program, or pilot under Section 1-56 of this Act shall be eligible to be counted toward the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c), regardless of how the costs of these units are recovered.

(K) The long-term renewable resources procurement plan developed by the Agency in accordance with subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1) shall include an Adjustable Block program for the procurement of renewable energy credits from new photovoltaic projects that are distributed renewable energy generation devices or new photovoltaic community renewable generation projects. The Adjustable Block program shall be designed to provide a transparent schedule of prices and quantities to enable the photovoltaic market to scale up and for renewable energy credit prices to adjust at a predictable rate over time. The prices set by the Adjustable Block program can be reflected as a set value or as the product of a formula.

The Adjustable Block program shall include for each category of eligible projects: a schedule of standard block purchase prices to be offered; a series of steps, with associated nameplate capacity and purchase prices that adjust from step to step; and automatic opening of the next step as soon as the nameplate capacity and available purchase prices for an open step are fully committed or reserved. Only projects energized on or after June 1, 2017 shall be eligible for the Adjustable Block program. For each block group the Agency shall determine the number of blocks, the amount of generation capacity in each block, and the purchase price for each block, provided that the purchase price provided and the total amount of generation in all blocks for all block groups shall be sufficient to meet the goals in this subsection (c). The Agency may periodically review its prior decisions establishing the number of blocks, the amount of generation capacity in each block, and the purchase price for each block, and may propose, on an expedited basis, changes to these previously set values, including but not limited to redistributing these amounts and the available funds as necessary and appropriate, subject to Commission approval as part of the periodic plan revision process described in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. The Agency may define different block sizes, purchase prices, or other distinct terms and conditions for projects located in different utility service territories if the Agency deems it necessary to meet the goals in this subsection (c).

The Adjustable Block program shall include at least the following block groups in at least the following amounts, which may be adjusted upon review by the Agency and approval by the Commission as described in this subparagraph (K):

(i) At least 25% from distributed renewable energy generation devices with a nameplate capacity of no more than 10 kilowatts.

(ii) At least 25% from distributed renewable energy generation devices with a nameplate capacity of more than 10 kilowatts and no more than 2,000 kilowatts. The Agency may create sub-categories within this category to account for the differences between projects for small commercial customers, large commercial customers, and public or non-profit customers.

(iii) At least 25% from photovoltaic community renewable generation projects.

(iv) The remaining 25% shall be allocated as specified by the Agency in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan.

The Adjustable Block program shall be designed to ensure that renewable energy credits are procured from photovoltaic distributed renewable energy generation devices and new photovoltaic community renewable energy generation projects in diverse locations and are not concentrated in a few geographic areas.

(L) The procurement of photovoltaic renewable energy credits under items (i) through (iv) of subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) shall be subject to the following contract and payment terms:

(i) The Agency shall procure contracts of at least 15 years in length.

(ii) For those renewable energy credits that qualify and are procured under item (i) of subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1), the renewable energy credit purchase price shall be paid in full by the contracting utilities at the time that the facility producing the renewable energy credits is interconnected at the distribution system level of the utility and energized. The electric utility shall receive and retire all renewable energy credits generated by the project for the first 15 years of operation.

(iii) For those renewable energy credits that qualify and are procured under item (ii) and (iii) of subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) and any additional categories of distributed generation included in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan and approved by the Commission, 20 percent of the renewable energy credit purchase price shall be paid by the contracting utilities at the time that the facility producing the renewable energy credits is interconnected at the distribution system level of the utility and energized. The remaining portion shall be paid ratably over the subsequent 4-year period. The electric utility shall receive and retire all renewable energy credits generated by the project for the first 15 years of operation.

(iv) Each contract shall include provisions to ensure the delivery of the renewable energy credits for the full term of the contract.

(v) The utility shall be the counterparty to the contracts executed under this subparagraph (L) that are approved by the Commission under the process described in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. No contract shall be executed for an amount that is less than one renewable energy credit per year.

(vi) If, at any time, approved applications for the Adjustable Block program exceed funds collected by the electric utility or would cause the Agency to exceed the limitation described in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (1) on the amount of renewable energy resources that may be procured, then the Agency shall consider future uncommitted funds to be reserved for these contracts on a first-come, first-served basis, with the delivery of renewable energy credits required beginning at the time that the reserved funds become available.

(vii) Nothing in this Section shall require the utility to advance any payment or pay any amounts that exceed the actual amount of revenues collected by the utility under paragraph (6) of this subsection (c) and subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act, and contracts executed under this Section shall expressly incorporate this limitation.

(M) The Agency shall be authorized to retain one or more experts or expert consulting firms to develop, administer, implement, operate, and evaluate the Adjustable Block program described in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1), and the Agency shall retain the consultant or consultants in the same manner, to the extent practicable, as the Agency retains others to administer provisions of this Act, including, but not limited to, the procurement administrator. The selection of experts and expert consulting firms and the procurement process described in this subparagraph (M) are exempt from the requirements of Section 20-10 of the Illinois Procurement Code, under Section 20-10 of that Code. The Agency shall strive to minimize administrative expenses in the implementation of the Adjustable Block program.

The Agency and its consultant or consultants shall monitor block activity, share program activity with stakeholders and conduct regularly scheduled meetings to discuss program activity and market conditions. If necessary, the Agency may make prospective administrative adjustments to the Adjustable Block program design, such as redistributing available funds or making adjustments to purchase prices as necessary to achieve the goals of this subsection (c). Program modifications to any price, capacity block, or other program element that do not deviate from the Commission's approved value by more than 25% shall take effect immediately and are not subject to Commission review and approval. Program modifications to any price, capacity block, or other program element that deviate more than 25% from the Commission's approved value must be approved by the Commission as a long-term plan amendment under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. The Agency shall consider stakeholder feedback when making adjustments to the Adjustable Block design and shall notify stakeholders in advance of any planned changes.

(N) The long-term renewable resources procurement plan required by this subsection (c) shall include a community renewable generation program. The Agency shall establish the terms, conditions, and program requirements for community renewable generation projects with a goal to expand renewable energy generating facility access to a broader group of energy consumers, to ensure robust participation opportunities for residential and small commercial customers and those who cannot install renewable energy on their own properties. Any plan approved by the Commission shall allow subscriptions to community renewable generation projects to be portable and transferable. For purposes of this subparagraph (N), "portable" means that subscriptions may be retained by the subscriber even if the subscriber relocates or changes its address within the same utility service territory; and "transferable" means that a subscriber may assign or sell subscriptions to another person within the same utility service territory.

Electric utilities shall provide a monetary credit to a subscriber's subsequent bill for service for the proportional output of a community renewable generation project attributable to that subscriber as specified in Section 16-107.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

The Agency shall purchase renewable energy credits from subscribed shares of photovoltaic community renewable generation projects through the Adjustable Block program described in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) or through the Illinois Solar for All Program described in Section 1-56 of this Act. The electric utility shall purchase any unsubscribed energy from community renewable generation projects that are Qualifying Facilities ("QF") under the electric utility's tariff for purchasing the output from QFs under Public Utilities Regulatory Policies Act of 1978.

The owners of and any subscribers to a community renewable generation project shall not be considered public utilities or alternative retail electricity suppliers under the Public Utilities Act solely as a result of their interest in or subscription to a community renewable generation project and shall not be required to become an alternative retail electric supplier by participating in a community renewable generation project with a public utility.

(O) For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018, the long-term renewable resources procurement plan required by this subsection (c) shall provide for the Agency to procure contracts to continue offering the Illinois Solar for All Program described in subsection (b) of Section 1-56 of this Act, and the contracts approved by the Commission shall be executed by the utilities that are subject to this subsection (c). The long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall allocate 5% of the funds available under the plan for the applicable delivery year, or $10,000,000 per delivery year, whichever is greater, to fund the programs, and the plan shall determine the amount of funding to be apportioned to the programs identified in subsection (b) of Section 1-56 of this Act; provided that for the delivery years beginning June 1, 2017, June 1, 2021, and June 1, 2025, the long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall allocate 10% of the funds available under the plan for the applicable delivery year, or $20,000,000 per delivery year, whichever is greater, and $10,000,000 of such funds in such year shall be used by an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State to implement a Commission-approved plan under Section 16-108.12 of the Public Utilities Act. In making the determinations required under this subparagraph (O), the Commission shall consider the experience and performance under the programs and any evaluation reports. The Commission shall also provide for an independent evaluation of those programs on a periodic basis that are funded under this subparagraph (O).

(2) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(4) The electric utility shall retire all renewable energy credits used to comply with the standard.

(5) Beginning with the 2010 delivery year and ending June 1, 2017, an electric utility subject to this subsection (c) shall apply the lesser of the maximum alternative compliance payment rate or the most recent estimated alternative compliance payment rate for its service territory for the corresponding compliance period, established pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act to its retail customers that take service pursuant to the electric utility's hourly pricing tariff or tariffs. The electric utility shall retain all amounts collected as a result of the application of the alternative compliance payment rate or rates to such customers, and, beginning in 2011, the utility shall include in the information provided under item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act the amounts collected under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates for the prior year ending May 31. Notwithstanding any limitation on the procurement of renewable energy resources imposed by item (2) of this subsection (c), the Agency shall increase its spending on the purchase of renewable energy resources to be procured by the electric utility for the next plan year by an amount equal to the amounts collected by the utility under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates in the prior year ending May 31.

(6) The electric utility shall be entitled to recover all of its costs associated with the procurement of renewable energy credits under plans approved under this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. These costs shall include associated reasonable expenses for implementing the procurement programs, including, but not limited to, the costs of administering and evaluating the Adjustable Block program, through an automatic adjustment clause tariff in accordance with subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(7) Renewable energy credits procured from new photovoltaic projects or new distributed renewable energy generation devices under this Section after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) must be procured from devices installed by a qualified person in compliance with the requirements of Section 16-128A of the Public Utilities Act and any rules or regulations adopted thereunder.

In meeting the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c), to the extent feasible and consistent with State and federal law, the renewable energy credit procurements, Adjustable Block solar program, and community renewable generation program shall provide employment opportunities for all segments of the population and workforce, including minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises, and shall not, consistent with State and federal law, discriminate based on race or socioeconomic status.

(d) Clean coal portfolio standard.

(1) The procurement plans shall include electricity generated using clean coal. Each utility shall enter into one or more sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility, as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), covering electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility representing at least 5% of each utility's total supply to serve the load of eligible retail customers in 2015 and each year thereafter, as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), subject to the limits specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). It is the goal of the State that by January 1, 2025, 25% of the electricity used in the State shall be generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities. For purposes of this subsection (d), "cost-effective" means that the expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) to be exceeded and do not exceed cost-based benchmarks, which shall be developed to assess all expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by clean coal facilities, other than the initial clean coal facility, by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval.

A utility party to a sourcing agreement shall immediately retire any emission credits that it receives in connection with the electricity covered by such agreement.

Utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting the purchases under the sourcing agreement to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

A utility shall be deemed to have complied with the clean coal portfolio standard specified in this subsection (d) if the utility enters into a sourcing agreement as required by this subsection (d).

(2) For purposes of this subsection (d), the required execution of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the planning year ending immediately prior to the agreement's execution. For purposes of this subsection (d), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (d), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d), the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any given year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to:

(A) in 2010, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(B) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(C) in 2012, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2011 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(D) in 2013, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2012 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009; and

(E) thereafter, the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of (i) 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or (ii) the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2013. These requirements may be altered only as provided by statute.

No later than June 30, 2015, the Commission shall review the limitation on the total amount paid under sourcing agreements, if any, with clean coal facilities pursuant to this subsection (d) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the amount of electricity generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities that is covered by sourcing agreements.

(3) Initial clean coal facility. In order to promote development of clean coal facilities in Illinois, each electric utility subject to this Section shall execute a sourcing agreement to source electricity from a proposed clean coal facility in Illinois (the "initial clean coal facility") that will have a nameplate capacity of at least 500 MW when commercial operation commences, that has a final Clean Air Act permit on June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1027), and that will meet the definition of clean coal facility in Section 1-10 of this Act when commercial operation commences. The sourcing agreements with this initial clean coal facility shall be subject to both approval of the initial clean coal facility by the General Assembly and satisfaction of the requirements of paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) and shall be executed within 90 days after any such approval by the General Assembly. The Agency and the Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with the initial clean coal facility during the term of such a sourcing agreement. A utility's sourcing agreement for electricity produced by the initial clean coal facility shall include:

(A) a formula contractual price (the "contract price") approved pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which shall:

(i) be determined using a cost of service methodology employing either a level or deferred capital recovery component, based on a capital structure consisting of 45% equity and 55% debt, and a return on equity as may be approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, which in any case may not exceed the lower of 11.5% or the rate of return approved by the General Assembly pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d); and

(ii) provide that all miscellaneous net revenue, including but not limited to net revenue from the sale of emission allowances, if any, substitute natural gas, if any, grants or other support provided by the State of Illinois or the United States Government, firm transmission rights, if any, by-products produced by the facility, energy or capacity derived from the facility and not covered by a sourcing agreement pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) or item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, whether generated from the synthesis gas derived from coal, from SNG, or from natural gas, shall be credited against the revenue requirement for this initial clean coal facility;

(B) power purchase provisions, which shall:

(i) provide that the utility party to such sourcing agreement shall pay the contract price for electricity delivered under such sourcing agreement;

(ii) require delivery of electricity to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement;

(iii) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to buy from the initial clean coal facility in each hour an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount purchased by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d); and

(iv) be considered pre-existing contracts in such utility's procurement plans for eligible retail customers;

(C) contract for differences provisions, which shall:

(i) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to contract with the initial clean coal facility in each hour with respect to an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the utility's service territory in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount paid by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(ii) provide that the utility's payment obligation in respect of the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i) shall be limited to an amount equal to (1) the difference between the contract price determined pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) and the day-ahead price for electricity delivered to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement (or any successor delivery point at which such utility's supply obligations are financially settled on an hourly basis) (the "reference price") on the day preceding the day on which the electricity is delivered to the initial clean coal facility busbar, multiplied by (2) the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i); and

(iii) not require the utility to take physical delivery of the electricity produced by the facility;

(D) general provisions, which shall:

(i) specify a term of no more than 30 years, commencing on the commercial operation date of the facility;

(ii) provide that utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting purchases under the sourcing agreements entered into to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act;

(iii) provide that all costs associated with the initial clean coal facility will be periodically reported to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and to purchasers in accordance with applicable laws governing cost-based wholesale power contracts;

(iv) permit the Illinois Power Agency to assume ownership of the initial clean coal facility, without monetary consideration and otherwise on reasonable terms acceptable to the Agency, if the Agency so requests no less than 3 years prior to the end of the stated contract term;

(v) require the owner of the initial clean coal facility to provide documentation to the Commission each year, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, accurately reporting the quantity of carbon emissions from the facility that have been captured and sequestered and report any quantities of carbon released from the site or sites at which carbon emissions were sequestered in prior years, based on continuous monitoring of such sites. If, in any year after the first year of commercial operation, the owner of the facility fails to demonstrate that the initial clean coal facility captured and sequestered at least 50% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit or that sequestration of emissions from prior years has failed, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, the owner of the facility must offset excess emissions. Any such carbon offsets must be permanent, additional, verifiable, real, located within the State of Illinois, and legally and practicably enforceable. The cost of such offsets for the facility that are not recoverable shall not exceed $15 million in any given year. No costs of any such purchases of carbon offsets may be recovered from a utility or its customers. All carbon offsets purchased for this purpose and any carbon emission credits associated with sequestration of carbon from the facility must be permanently retired. The initial clean coal facility shall not forfeit its designation as a clean coal facility if the facility fails to fully comply with the applicable carbon sequestration requirements in any given year, provided the requisite offsets are purchased. However, the Attorney General, on behalf of the People of the State of Illinois, may specifically enforce the facility's sequestration requirement and the other terms of this contract provision. Compliance with the sequestration requirements and offset purchase requirements specified in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) shall be reviewed annually by an independent expert retained by the owner of the initial clean coal facility, with the advance written approval of the Attorney General. The Commission may, in the course of the review specified in item (vii), reduce the allowable return on equity for the facility if the facility willfully fails to comply with the carbon capture and sequestration requirements set forth in this item (v);

(vi) include limits on, and accordingly provide for modification of, the amount the utility is required to source under the sourcing agreement consistent with paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(vii) require Commission review: (1) to determine the justness, reasonableness, and prudence of the inputs to the formula referenced in subparagraphs (A)(i) through (A)(iii) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), prior to an adjustment in those inputs including, without limitation, the capital structure and return on equity, fuel costs, and other operations and maintenance costs and (2) to approve the costs to be passed through to customers under the sourcing agreement by which the utility satisfies its statutory obligations. Commission review shall occur no less than every 3 years, regardless of whether any adjustments have been proposed, and shall be completed within 9 months;

(viii) limit the utility's obligation to such amount as the utility is allowed to recover through tariffs filed with the Commission, provided that neither the clean coal facility nor the utility waives any right to assert federal pre-emption or any other argument in response to a purported disallowance of recovery costs;

(ix) limit the utility's or alternative retail electric supplier's obligation to incur any liability until such time as the facility is in commercial operation and generating power and energy and such power and energy is being delivered to the facility busbar;

(x) provide that the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility, which is the counterparty to such sourcing agreement, shall have the right from time to time to elect whether the obligations of the utility party thereto shall be governed by the power purchase provisions or the contract for differences provisions;

(xi) append documentation showing that the formula rate and contract, insofar as they relate to the power purchase provisions, have been approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Section 205 of the Federal Power Act;

(xii) provide that any changes to the terms of the contract, insofar as such changes relate to the power purchase provisions, are subject to review under the public interest standard applied by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Sections 205 and 206 of the Federal Power Act; and

(xiii) conform with customary lender requirements in power purchase agreements used as the basis for financing non-utility generators.

(4) Effective date of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility. Any proposed sourcing agreement with the initial clean coal facility shall not become effective unless the following reports are prepared and submitted and authorizations and approvals obtained:

(i) Facility cost report. The owner of the initial clean coal facility shall submit to the Commission, the Agency, and the General Assembly a front-end engineering and design study, a facility cost report, method of financing (including but not limited to structure and associated costs), and an operating and maintenance cost quote for the facility (collectively "facility cost report"), which shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, and shall provide the Commission and the Agency access to the work papers, relied upon documents, and any other backup documentation related to the facility cost report.

(ii) Commission report. Within 6 months following receipt of the facility cost report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, shall submit a report to the General Assembly setting forth its analysis of the facility cost report. Such report shall include, but not be limited to, a comparison of the costs associated with electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility to the costs associated with electricity generated by other types of generation facilities, an analysis of the rate impacts on residential and small business customers over the life of the sourcing agreements, and an analysis of the likelihood that the initial clean coal facility will commence commercial operation by and be delivering power to the facility's busbar by 2016. To assist in the preparation of its report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, may hire one or more experts or consultants, the costs of which shall be paid for by the owner of the initial clean coal facility. The Commission and Agency may begin the process of selecting such experts or consultants prior to receipt of the facility cost report.

(iii) General Assembly approval. The proposed sourcing agreements shall not take effect unless, based on the facility cost report and the Commission's report, the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation approving (A) the projected price, stated in cents per kilowatthour, to be charged for electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility, (B) the projected impact on residential and small business customers' bills over the life of the sourcing agreements, and (C) the maximum allowable return on equity for the project; and

(iv) Commission review. If the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation pursuant to subparagraph (iii) approving a sourcing agreement, the Commission shall, within 90 days of such enactment, complete a review of such sourcing agreement. During such time period, the Commission shall implement any directive of the General Assembly, resolve any disputes between the parties to the sourcing agreement concerning the terms of such agreement, approve the form of such agreement, and issue an order finding that the sourcing agreement is prudent and reasonable.

The facility cost report shall be prepared as follows:

(A) The facility cost report shall be prepared by duly licensed engineering and construction firms detailing the estimated capital costs payable to one or more contractors or suppliers for the engineering, procurement and construction of the components comprising the initial clean coal facility and the estimated costs of operation and maintenance of the facility. The facility cost report shall include:

(i) an estimate of the capital cost of the core plant based on one or more front end engineering and design studies for the gasification island and related facilities. The core plant shall include all civil, structural, mechanical, electrical, control, and safety systems.

(ii) an estimate of the capital cost of the balance of the plant, including any capital costs associated with sequestration of carbon dioxide emissions and all interconnects and interfaces required to operate the facility, such as transmission of electricity, construction or backfeed power supply, pipelines to transport substitute natural gas or carbon dioxide, potable water supply, natural gas supply, water supply, water discharge, landfill, access roads, and coal delivery.

The quoted construction costs shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include capitalized financing costs during construction, taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the construction cost quote is expressed.

(B) The front end engineering and design study for the gasification island and the cost study for the balance of plant shall include sufficient design work to permit quantification of major categories of materials, commodities and labor hours, and receipt of quotes from vendors of major equipment required to construct and operate the clean coal facility.

(C) The facility cost report shall also include an operating and maintenance cost quote that will provide the estimated cost of delivered fuel, personnel, maintenance contracts, chemicals, catalysts, consumables, spares, and other fixed and variable operations and maintenance costs. The delivered fuel cost estimate will be provided by a recognized third party expert or experts in the fuel and transportation industries. The balance of the operating and maintenance cost quote, excluding delivered fuel costs, will be developed based on the inputs provided by duly licensed engineering and construction firms performing the construction cost quote, potential vendors under long-term service agreements and plant operating agreements, or recognized third party plant operator or operators.

The operating and maintenance cost quote (including the cost of the front end engineering and design study) shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the operating and maintenance cost quote is expressed.

(D) The facility cost report shall also include an analysis of the initial clean coal facility's ability to deliver power and energy into the applicable regional transmission organization markets and an analysis of the expected capacity factor for the initial clean coal facility.

(E) Amounts paid to third parties unrelated to the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility to prepare the core plant construction cost quote, including the front end engineering and design study, and the operating and maintenance cost quote will be reimbursed through Coal Development Bonds.

(5) Re-powering and retrofitting coal-fired power plants previously owned by Illinois utilities to qualify as clean coal facilities. During the 2009 procurement planning process and thereafter, the Agency and the Commission shall consider sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by power plants that were previously owned by Illinois utilities and that have been or will be converted into clean coal facilities, as defined by Section 1-10 of this Act. Pursuant to such procurement planning process, the owners of such facilities may propose to the Agency sourcing agreements with utilities and alternative retail electric suppliers required to comply with subsection (d) of this Section and item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, covering electricity generated by such facilities. In the case of sourcing agreements that are power purchase agreements, the contract price for electricity sales shall be established on a cost of service basis. In the case of sourcing agreements that are contracts for differences, the contract price from which the reference price is subtracted shall be established on a cost of service basis. The Agency and the Commission may approve any such utility sourcing agreements that do not exceed cost-based benchmarks developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff and the procurement monitor, subject to Commission review and approval. The Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with these clean coal facilities during the term of any such contract.

(6) Costs incurred under this subsection (d) or pursuant to a contract entered into under this subsection (d) shall be deemed prudently incurred and reasonable in amount and the electric utility shall be entitled to full cost recovery pursuant to the tariffs filed with the Commission.

(d-5) Zero emission standard.

(1) Beginning with the delivery year commencing on June 1, 2017, the Agency shall, for electric utilities that serve at least 100,000 retail customers in this State, procure contracts with zero emission facilities that are reasonably capable of generating cost-effective zero emission credits in an amount approximately equal to 16% of the actual amount of electricity delivered by each electric utility to retail customers in the State during calendar year 2014. For an electric utility serving fewer than 100,000 retail customers in this State that requested, under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, that the Agency procure power and energy for all or a portion of the utility's Illinois load for the delivery year commencing June 1, 2016, the Agency shall procure contracts with zero emission facilities that are reasonably capable of generating cost-effective zero emission credits in an amount approximately equal to 16% of the portion of power and energy to be procured by the Agency for the utility. The duration of the contracts procured under this subsection (d-5) shall be for a term of 10 years ending May 31, 2027. The quantity of zero emission credits to be procured under the contracts shall be all of the zero emission credits generated by the zero emission facility in each delivery year; however, if the zero emission facility is owned by more than one entity, then the quantity of zero emission credits to be procured under the contracts shall be the amount of zero emission credits that are generated from the portion of the zero emission facility that is owned by the winning supplier.

The 16% value identified in this paragraph (1) is the average of the percentage targets in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section 1-75 of this Act for the 5 delivery years beginning June 1, 2017.

The procurement process shall be subject to the following provisions:

(A) Those zero emission facilities that intend to participate in the procurement shall submit to the Agency the following eligibility information for each zero emission facility on or before the date established by the Agency:

(i) the in-service date and remaining useful life of the zero emission facility;

(ii) the amount of power generated annually for each of the years 2005 through 2015, and the projected zero emission credits to be generated over the remaining useful life of the zero emission facility, which shall be used to determine the capability of each facility;

(iii) the annual zero emission facility cost projections, expressed on a per megawatthour basis, over the next 6 delivery years, which shall include the following: operation and maintenance expenses; fully allocated overhead costs, which shall be allocated using the methodology developed by the Institute for Nuclear Power Operations; fuel expenditures; non-fuel capital expenditures; spent fuel expenditures; a return on working capital; the cost of operational and market risks that could be avoided by ceasing operation; and any other costs necessary for continued operations, provided that "necessary" means, for purposes of this item (iii), that the costs could reasonably be avoided only by ceasing operations of the zero emission facility; and

(iv) a commitment to continue operating, for the duration of the contract or contracts executed under the procurement held under this subsection (d-5), the zero emission facility that produces the zero emission credits to be procured in the procurement.

The information described in item (iii) of this subparagraph (A) may be submitted on a confidential basis and shall be treated and maintained by the Agency, the procurement administrator, and the Commission as confidential and proprietary and exempt from disclosure under subparagraphs (a) and (g) of paragraph (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. The Office of Attorney General shall have access to, and maintain the confidentiality of, such information pursuant to Section 6.5 of the Attorney General Act.

(B) The price for each zero emission credit procured under this subsection (d-5) for each delivery year shall be in an amount that equals the Social Cost of Carbon, expressed on a price per megawatthour basis. However, to ensure that the procurement remains affordable to retail customers in this State if electricity prices increase, the price in an applicable delivery year shall be reduced below the Social Cost of Carbon by the amount ("Price Adjustment") by which the market price index for the applicable delivery year exceeds the baseline market price index for the consecutive 12-month period ending May 31, 2016. If the Price Adjustment is greater than or equal to the Social Cost of Carbon in an applicable delivery year, then no payments shall be due in that delivery year. The components of this calculation are defined as follows:

(i) Social Cost of Carbon: The Social Cost of Carbon is $16.50 per megawatthour, which is based on the U.S. Interagency Working Group on Social Cost of Carbon's price in the August 2016 Technical Update using a 3% discount rate, adjusted for inflation for each year of the program. Beginning with the delivery year commencing June 1, 2023, the price per megawatthour shall increase by $1 per megawatthour, and continue to increase by an additional $1 per megawatthour each delivery year thereafter.

(ii) Baseline market price index: The baseline market price index for the consecutive 12-month period ending May 31, 2016 is $31.40 per megawatthour, which is based on the sum of (aa) the average day-ahead energy price across all hours of such 12-month period at the PJM Interconnection LLC Northern Illinois Hub, (bb) 50% multiplied by the Base Residual Auction, or its successor, capacity price for the rest of the RTO zone group determined by PJM Interconnection LLC, divided by 24 hours per day, and (cc) 50% multiplied by the Planning Resource Auction, or its successor, capacity price for Zone 4 determined by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., divided by 24 hours per day.

(iii) Market price index: The market price index for a delivery year shall be the sum of projected energy prices and projected capacity prices determined as follows:

(aa) Projected energy prices: the projected energy prices for the applicable delivery year shall be calculated once for the year using the forward market price for the PJM Interconnection, LLC Northern Illinois Hub. The forward market price shall be calculated as follows: the energy forward prices for each month of the applicable delivery year averaged for each trade date during the calendar year immediately preceding that delivery year to produce a single energy forward price for the delivery year. The forward market price calculation shall use data published by the Intercontinental Exchange, or its successor.

(bb) Projected capacity prices:

(I) For the delivery years commencing June 1, 2017, June 1, 2018, and June 1, 2019, the projected capacity price shall be equal to the sum of (1) 50% multiplied by the Base Residual Auction, or its successor, price for the rest of the RTO zone group as determined by PJM Interconnection LLC, divided by 24 hours per day and, (2) 50% multiplied by the resource auction price determined in the resource auction administered by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., in which the largest percentage of load cleared for Local Resource Zone 4, divided by 24 hours per day, and where such price is determined by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.

(II) For the delivery year commencing June 1, 2020, and each year thereafter, the projected capacity price shall be equal to the sum of (1) 50% multiplied by the Base Residual Auction, or its successor, price for the ComEd zone as determined by PJM Interconnection LLC, divided by 24 hours per day, and (2) 50% multiplied by the resource auction price determined in the resource auction administered by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., in which the largest percentage of load cleared for Local Resource Zone 4, divided by 24 hours per day, and where such price is determined by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.

For purposes of this subsection (d-5):

"Rest of the RTO" and "ComEd Zone" shall have the meaning ascribed to them by PJM Interconnection, LLC.

"RTO" means regional transmission organization.

(C) No later than 45 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), the Agency shall publish its proposed zero emission standard procurement plan. The plan shall be consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (1) and shall provide that winning bids shall be selected based on public interest criteria that include, but are not limited to, minimizing carbon dioxide emissions that result from electricity consumed in Illinois and minimizing sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and particulate matter emissions that adversely affect the citizens of this State. In particular, the selection of winning bids shall take into account the incremental environmental benefits resulting from the procurement, such as any existing environmental benefits that are preserved by the procurements held under Public Act 99-906 and would cease to exist if the procurements were not held, including the preservation of zero emission facilities. The plan shall also describe in detail how each public interest factor shall be considered and weighted in the bid selection process to ensure that the public interest criteria are applied to the procurement and given full effect.

For purposes of developing the plan, the Agency shall consider any reports issued by a State agency, board, or commission under House Resolution 1146 of the 98th General Assembly and paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section 1-75 of this Act, as well as publicly available analyses and studies performed by or for regional transmission organizations that serve the State and their independent market monitors.

Upon publishing of the zero emission standard procurement plan, copies of the plan shall be posted and made publicly available on the Agency's website. All interested parties shall have 10 days following the date of posting to provide comment to the Agency on the plan. All comments shall be posted to the Agency's website. Following the end of the comment period, but no more than 60 days later than June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906), the Agency shall revise the plan as necessary based on the comments received and file its zero emission standard procurement plan with the Commission.

If the Commission determines that the plan will result in the procurement of cost-effective zero emission credits, then the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, but no later than 45 days after the Agency filed the plan, approve the plan or approve with modification. For purposes of this subsection (d-5), "cost effective" means the projected costs of procuring zero emission credits from zero emission facilities do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection to be exceeded.

(C-5) As part of the Commission's review and acceptance or rejection of the procurement results, the Commission shall, in its public notice of successful bidders:

(i) identify how the winning bids satisfy the public interest criteria described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1) of minimizing carbon dioxide emissions that result from electricity consumed in Illinois and minimizing sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and particulate matter emissions that adversely affect the citizens of this State;

(ii) specifically address how the selection of winning bids takes into account the incremental environmental benefits resulting from the procurement, including any existing environmental benefits that are preserved by the procurements held under Public Act 99-906 and would have ceased to exist if the procurements had not been held, such as the preservation of zero emission facilities;

(iii) quantify the environmental benefit of preserving the resources identified in item (ii) of this subparagraph (C-5), including the following:

(aa) the value of avoided greenhouse gas emissions measured as the product of the zero emission facilities' output over the contract term multiplied by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency eGrid subregion carbon dioxide emission rate and the U.S. Interagency Working Group on Social Cost of Carbon's price in the August 2016 Technical Update using a 3% discount rate, adjusted for inflation for each delivery year; and

(bb) the costs of replacement with other zero carbon dioxide resources, including wind and photovoltaic, based upon the simple average of the following:

(I) the price, or if there is more than one price, the average of the prices, paid for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale wind projects in the procurement events specified in item (i) of subparagraph (G) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section 1-75 of this Act; and

(II) the price, or if there is more than one price, the average of the prices, paid for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale solar projects and brownfield site photovoltaic projects in the procurement events specified in item (ii) of subparagraph (G) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section 1-75 of this Act and, after January 1, 2015, renewable energy credits from photovoltaic distributed generation projects in procurement events held under subsection (c) of this Section 1-75 of this Act.

Each utility shall enter into binding contractual arrangements with the winning suppliers.

The procurement described in this subsection (d-5), including, but not limited to, the execution of all contracts procured, shall be completed no later than May 10, 2017. Based on the effective date of Public Act 99-906, the Agency and Commission may, as appropriate, modify the various dates and timelines under this subparagraph and subparagraphs (C) and (D) of this paragraph (1). The procurement and plan approval processes required by this subsection (d-5) shall be conducted in conjunction with the procurement and plan approval processes required by subsection (c) of this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, to the extent practicable. Notwithstanding whether a procurement event is conducted under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, the Agency shall immediately initiate a procurement process on June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906).

(D) Following the procurement event described in this paragraph (1) and consistent with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (1), the Agency shall calculate the payments to be made under each contract for the next delivery year based on the market price index for that delivery year. The Agency shall publish the payment calculations no later than May 25, 2017 and every May 25 thereafter.

(E) Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d-5), the contracts executed under this subsection (d-5) shall provide that the zero emission facility may, as applicable, suspend or terminate performance under the contracts in the following instances:

(i) A zero emission facility shall be excused from its performance under the contract for any cause beyond the control of the resource, including, but not restricted to, acts of God, flood, drought, earthquake, storm, fire, lightning, epidemic, war, riot, civil disturbance or disobedience, labor dispute, labor or material shortage, sabotage, acts of public enemy, explosions, orders, regulations or restrictions imposed by governmental, military, or lawfully established civilian authorities, which, in any of the foregoing cases, by exercise of commercially reasonable efforts the zero emission facility could not reasonably have been expected to avoid, and which, by the exercise of commercially reasonable efforts, it has been unable to overcome. In such event, the zero emission facility shall be excused from performance for the duration of the event, including, but not limited to, delivery of zero emission credits, and no payment shall be due to the zero emission facility during the duration of the event.

(ii) A zero emission facility shall be permitted to terminate the contract if legislation is enacted into law by the General Assembly that imposes or authorizes a new tax, special assessment, or fee on the generation of electricity, the ownership or leasehold of a generating unit, or the privilege or occupation of such generation, ownership, or leasehold of generation units by a zero emission facility. However, the provisions of this item (ii) do not apply to any generally applicable tax, special assessment or fee, or requirements imposed by federal law.

(iii) A zero emission facility shall be permitted to terminate the contract in the event that the resource requires capital expenditures in excess of $40,000,000 that were neither known nor reasonably foreseeable at the time it executed the contract and that a prudent owner or operator of such resource would not undertake.

(iv) A zero emission facility shall be permitted to terminate the contract in the event the Nuclear Regulatory Commission terminates the resource's license.

(F) If the zero emission facility elects to terminate a contract under this subparagraph (E) , of this paragraph (1), then the Commission shall reopen the docket in which the Commission approved the zero emission standard procurement plan under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1) and, after notice and hearing, enter an order acknowledging the contract termination election if such termination is consistent with the provisions of this subsection (d-5).

(2) For purposes of this subsection (d-5), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (d-5), the total amount paid for electric service includes, without limitation, amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d-5), the contracts executed under this subsection (d-5) shall provide that the total of zero emission credits procured under a procurement plan shall be subject to the limitations of this paragraph (2). For each delivery year, the contractual volume receiving payments in such year shall be reduced for all retail customers based on the amount necessary to limit the net increase that delivery year to the costs of those credits included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than 1.65% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by eligible retail customers during the year ending May 31, 2009. The result of this computation shall apply to and reduce the procurement for all retail customers, and all those customers shall pay the same single, uniform cents per kilowatthour charge under subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act. To arrive at a maximum dollar amount of zero emission credits to be paid for the particular delivery year, the resulting per kilowatthour amount shall be applied to the actual amount of kilowatthours of electricity delivered by the electric utility in the delivery year immediately prior to the procurement, to all retail customers in its service territory. Unpaid contractual volume for any delivery year shall be paid in any subsequent delivery year in which such payments can be made without exceeding the amount specified in this paragraph (2). The calculations required by this paragraph (2) shall be made only once for each procurement plan year. Once the determination as to the amount of zero emission credits to be paid is made based on the calculations set forth in this paragraph (2), no subsequent rate impact determinations shall be made and no adjustments to those contract amounts shall be allowed. All costs incurred under those contracts and in implementing this subsection (d-5) shall be recovered by the electric utility as provided in this Section.

No later than June 30, 2019, the Commission shall review the limitation on the amount of zero emission credits procured under this subsection (d-5) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the procurement of cost-effective zero emission credits.

(3) Six years after the execution of a contract under this subsection (d-5), the Agency shall determine whether the actual zero emission credit payments received by the supplier over the 6-year period exceed the Average ZEC Payment. In addition, at the end of the term of a contract executed under this subsection (d-5), or at the time, if any, a zero emission facility's contract is terminated under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5), then the Agency shall determine whether the actual zero emission credit payments received by the supplier over the term of the contract exceed the Average ZEC Payment, after taking into account any amounts previously credited back to the utility under this paragraph (3). If the Agency determines that the actual zero emission credit payments received by the supplier over the relevant period exceed the Average ZEC Payment, then the supplier shall credit the difference back to the utility. The amount of the credit shall be remitted to the applicable electric utility no later than 120 days after the Agency's determination, which the utility shall reflect as a credit on its retail customer bills as soon as practicable; however, the credit remitted to the utility shall not exceed the total amount of payments received by the facility under its contract.

For purposes of this Section, the Average ZEC Payment shall be calculated by multiplying the quantity of zero emission credits delivered under the contract times the average contract price. The average contract price shall be determined by subtracting the amount calculated under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (3) from the amount calculated under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3), as follows:

(A) The average of the Social Cost of Carbon, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5), during the term of the contract.

(B) The average of the market price indices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5), during the term of the contract, minus the baseline market price index, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5).

If the subtraction yields a negative number, then the Average ZEC Payment shall be zero.

(4) Cost-effective zero emission credits procured from zero emission facilities shall satisfy the applicable definitions set forth in Section 1-10 of this Act.

(5) The electric utility shall retire all zero emission credits used to comply with the requirements of this subsection (d-5).

(6) Electric utilities shall be entitled to recover all of the costs associated with the procurement of zero emission credits through an automatic adjustment clause tariff in accordance with subsection (k) and (m) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act, and the contracts executed under this subsection (d-5) shall provide that the utilities' payment obligations under such contracts shall be reduced if an adjustment is required under subsection (m) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(7) This subsection (d-5) shall become inoperative on January 1, 2028.

(e) The draft procurement plans are subject to public comment, as required by Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) The Agency shall submit the final procurement plan to the Commission. The Agency shall revise a procurement plan if the Commission determines that it does not meet the standards set forth in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) The Agency shall assess fees to each affected utility to recover the costs incurred in preparation of the annual procurement plan for the utility.

(h) The Agency shall assess fees to each bidder to recover the costs incurred in connection with a competitive procurement process.

(i) A renewable energy credit, carbon emission credit, or zero emission credit can only be used once to comply with a single portfolio or other standard as set forth in subsection (c), subsection (d), or subsection (d-5) of this Section, respectively. A renewable energy credit, carbon emission credit, or zero emission credit cannot be used to satisfy the requirements of more than one standard. If more than one type of credit is issued for the same megawatt hour of energy, only one credit can be used to satisfy the requirements of a single standard. After such use, the credit must be retired together with any other credits issued for the same megawatt hour of energy.

(Source: P.A. 99-536, eff. 7-8-16; 99-906, eff. 6-1-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 205. The Illinois Century Network Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3921/15)

Sec. 15. Management of the Illinois Century Network. (a) The Department of Innovation and Technology shall govern the staffing and contractual services necessary to support the activities of the Illinois Century Network.

(b) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 210. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act is amended by changing Section 9.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3930/9.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 9.1. Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Grants and other moneys obtained by the Authority from governmental entities (other than the federal government), private sources, and not-for-profit organizations for use in investigating criminal justice issues or undertaking other criminal justice information projects, or pursuant to the uses identified in Section 21.10 of the Illinois Lottery Law, shall be deposited into the Fund. Moneys in the Fund may be used by the Authority, subject to appropriation, for undertaking such projects and for the operating and other expenses of the Authority incidental to those projects. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-647, eff. 7-30-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 9.1. Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury. Grants and other moneys obtained by the Authority from governmental entities (other than the federal government), private sources, and not-for-profit organizations for use in investigating criminal justice issues or undertaking other criminal justice information projects, or pursuant to the uses identified in Section 21.10 of the Illinois Lottery Law, shall be deposited into the Fund. Moneys in the Fund may be used by the Authority, subject to appropriation, for undertaking such projects and for the operating and other expenses of the Authority incidental to those projects, and for the costs associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and Drug Disposal Fund. The moneys deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund under Sections 15-15 and 15-35 of the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act shall be appropriated to and administered by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for distribution to fund Department of State Police drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement Groups by dividing the funds equally by the total number of Department of State Police drug task forces and Illinois Metropolitan Enforcement Groups. Any interest earned on moneys in the Fund must be deposited into the Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-647, eff. 7-30-18; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 9-25-18.)

Section 215. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4.2, and 13 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care facilities" means and includes the following facilities, organizations, and related persons:

(1) An ambulatory surgical treatment center required to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(2) An institution, place, building, or agency required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing Act.

(3) Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act.

(A) If a demonstration project under the Nursing Home Care Act applies for a certificate of need to convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the licensure and certificate of need requirements in effect as of the date of application.

(B) Except as provided in item (A) of this subsection, this Act does not apply to facilities granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(3.5) Skilled and intermediate care facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act. No permit or exemption is required for a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act prior to the reduction of the number of beds at a facility. If there is a total reduction of beds at a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act, this is a discontinuation or closure of the facility. If a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act reduces the number of beds or discontinues the facility, that facility must notify the Board as provided in Section 14.1 of this Act.

(3.7) Facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(4) Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers maintained by the State or any department or agency thereof.

(5) Kidney disease treatment centers, including a free-standing hemodialysis unit required to meet the requirements of 42 CFR 494 in order to be certified for participation in Medicare and Medicaid under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act.

(A) This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility that provides only dialysis training, support, and related services to individuals with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis.

(B) This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit located in a licensed nursing home that offers or provides dialysis-related services to residents with end stage renal disease who have elected to receive home dialysis within the nursing home.

(C) The Board, however, may require dialysis facilities and licensed nursing homes under items (A) and (B) of this subsection to report statistical information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for proposed kidney disease treatment centers.

(6) An institution, place, building, or room used for the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an out-of-state facility.

(7) An institution, place, building, or room used for provision of a health care category of service, including, but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart surgery.

(8) An institution, place, building, or room housing major medical equipment used in the direct clinical diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.

"Health care facilities" does not include the following entities or facility transactions:

(1) Federally-owned facilities.

(2) Facilities used solely for healing by prayer or spiritual means.

(3) An existing facility located on any campus facility as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated facility is intended for use by a licensed residential facility.

(4) Facilities licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act.

(5) Facilities designated as supportive living facilities that are in good standing with the program established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(6) Facilities established and operating under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's community-based health care center alternative health care model demonstration program or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative health care model demonstration program.

(7) The closure of an entity or a portion of an entity licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exception of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elect to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act and with the exception of a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in connection with a proposal to close a facility and re-establish the facility in another location.

(8) Any change of ownership of a health care facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, with the exception of facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes. Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care Act.

(9) Any project the Department of Healthcare and Family Services certifies was approved by the Hospital Transformation Review Committee as a project subject to the hospital's transformation under subsection (d-5) of Section 14-12 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, provided the hospital shall submit the certification to the Board. Nothing in this paragraph excludes a health care facility from the requirements of this Act after the approved transformation project is complete. All other requirements under this Act continue to apply. Hospitals that are not subject to this Act under this paragraph shall notify the Health Facilities and Services Review Board within 30 days of the dates that bed changes or service changes occur.

With the exception of those health care facilities specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to physicians or other licensed health care professional's practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of a health care facility under contract with such health care facility by a physician or by other licensed health care professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or professional groups, unless the entity constructs, modifies, or establishes a health care facility as specifically defined in this Section. This Act shall apply to construction or modification and to establishment by such health care facility of such contracted portion which is subject to facility licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible for such action or attendant financial obligation.

"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any combination thereof.

"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity within the last 12 months has involved the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, (b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any activity which involves the providing, administering or financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person defined by item (a), (b), or (c).

"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

"Construction or modification" means the establishment, erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership, of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition by or through a health care facility of equipment or service for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the construction or modification of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under this Act.

"Establish" means the construction of a health care facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another site or the initiation of a category of service.

"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is used for the provision of medical and other health services and which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, except that such term does not include medical equipment acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section 1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition of such equipment shall be included.

"Capital expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital expenditure minimum.

For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement, expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or submitted as one project by the applicant, components of construction or modification undertaken by means of a single construction contract or financed through the issuance of a single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for less than fair market value shall be considered a capital expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject to review.

"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and $3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other capital expenditures.

"Financial commitment" means the commitment of at least 33% of total funds assigned to cover total project cost, which occurs by the actual expenditure of 33% or more of the total project cost or the commitment to expend 33% or more of the total project cost by signed contracts or other legal means.

"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops; news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life safety codes; educational facilities; student housing; patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas; administration and volunteer offices; modernization of structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings, window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does not include health and fitness centers.

"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health planning and for health service and having within it one or more local areas for health planning and health service. The term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".

"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion" may be used synonymously with the term "local".

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.

"Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Agency" or "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i) licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include an office or any part of an office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a change in the person who has ownership or control of a health care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale, transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other means of transferring control.

"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50% owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.

"Charity care" means care provided by a health care facility for which the provider does not expect to receive payment from the patient or a third-party payer.

"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

"Category of service" means a grouping by generic class of various types or levels of support functions, equipment, care, or treatment provided to patients or residents, including, but not limited to, classes such as medical-surgical, pediatrics, or cardiac catheterization. A category of service may include subcategories or levels of care that identify a particular degree or type of care within the category of service. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to include the practice of a physician or other licensed health care professional while functioning in an office providing for the care, diagnosis, or treatment of patients. A category of service that is subject to the Board's jurisdiction must be designated in rules adopted by the Board.

"State Board Staff Report" means the document that sets forth the review and findings of the State Board staff, as prescribed by the State Board, regarding applications subject to Board jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-527, eff. 1-1-17; 100-518, eff. 6-1-18; 100-581, eff. 3-12-18; 100-957, eff. 8-19-18; revised 12-13-18.)

(20 ILCS 3960/4.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 4.2. Ex parte communications.

(a) Except in the disposition of matters that agencies are authorized by law to entertain or dispose of on an ex parte basis including, but not limited to rulemaking rule making, the State Board, any State Board member, employee, or a hearing officer shall not engage in ex parte communication in connection with the substance of any formally filed application for a permit with any person or party or the representative of any party. This subsection (a) applies when the Board, member, employee, or hearing officer knows, or should know upon reasonable inquiry, that the application or exemption has been formally filed with the Board. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit staff members from providing technical assistance to applicants. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit staff from verifying or clarifying an applicant's information as it prepares the State Board Staff Report. Once an application for permit or exemption is filed and deemed complete, a written record of any communication between staff and an applicant shall be prepared by staff and made part of the public record, using a prescribed, standardized format, and shall be included in the application file.

(b) A State Board member or employee may communicate with other members or employees and any State Board member or hearing officer may have the aid and advice of one or more personal assistants.

(c) An ex parte communication received by the State Board, any State Board member, employee, or a hearing officer shall be made a part of the record of the matter, including all written communications, all written responses to the communications, and a memorandum stating the substance of all oral communications and all responses made and the identity of each person from whom the ex parte communication was received.

(d) "Ex parte communication" means a communication between a person who is not a State Board member or employee and a State Board member or employee that reflects on the substance of a pending or impending State Board proceeding and that takes place outside the record of the proceeding. Communications regarding matters of procedure and practice, such as the format of pleading, number of copies required, manner of service, and status of proceedings, are not considered ex parte communications. Technical assistance with respect to an application, not intended to influence any decision on the application, may be provided by employees to the applicant. Any assistance shall be documented in writing by the applicant and employees within 10 business days after the assistance is provided.

(e) For purposes of this Section, "employee" means a person the State Board or the Agency employs on a full-time, part-time, contract, or intern basis.

(f) The State Board, State Board member, or hearing examiner presiding over the proceeding, in the event of a violation of this Section, must take whatever action is necessary to ensure that the violation does not prejudice any party or adversely affect the fairness of the proceedings.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the State Board or any member of the State Board from consulting with the attorney for the State Board.

(Source: P.A. 100-518, eff. 6-1-18; 100-681, eff. 8-3-18; revised 12-13-18.)

(20 ILCS 3960/13) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1163)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 13. Investigation of applications for permits. The State Board shall make or cause to be made such investigations as it deems necessary in connection with an application for a permit, or in connection with a determination of whether or not construction or modification that has been commenced is in accord with the permit issued by the State Board, or whether construction or modification has been commenced without a permit having been obtained. The State Board may issue subpoenas duces tecum requiring the production of records and may administer oaths to such witnesses.

Any circuit court of this State, upon the application of the State Board or upon the application of any party to such proceedings, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of witnesses, the production of books, papers, records, or memoranda and the giving of testimony before the State Board, by a proceeding as for contempt, or otherwise, in the same manner as production of evidence may be compelled before the court.

The State Board shall require all health facilities operating in this State to provide such reasonable reports at such times and containing such information as is needed by it to carry out the purposes and provisions of this Act. Prior to collecting information from health facilities, the State Board shall make reasonable efforts through a public process to consult with health facilities and associations that represent them to determine whether data and information requests will result in useful information for health planning, whether sufficient information is available from other sources, and whether data requested is routinely collected by health facilities and is available without retrospective record review. Data and information requests shall not impose undue paperwork burdens on health care facilities and personnel. Health facilities not complying with this requirement shall be reported to licensing, accrediting, certifying, or payment agencies as being in violation of State law. Health care facilities and other parties at interest shall have reasonable access, under rules established by the State Board, to all planning information submitted in accord with this Act pertaining to their area.

Among the reports to be required by the State Board are facility questionnaires for health care facilities licensed under the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 and health care facilities that are required to meet the requirements of 42 CFR 494 in order to be certified for participation in Medicare and Medicaid under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social Security Act. These questionnaires shall be conducted on an annual basis and compiled by the State Board. For health care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, these reports shall include, but not be limited to, the identification of specialty services provided by the facility to patients, residents, and the community at large. Annual reports for facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act shall be different from the annual reports required of other health care facilities and shall be specific to those facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act or the MC/DD Act. The Health Facilities and Services Review Board shall consult with associations representing facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and associations representing facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act when developing the information requested in these annual reports. For health care facilities that contain long term care beds, the reports shall also include the number of staffed long term care beds, physical capacity for long term care beds at the facility, and long term care beds available for immediate occupancy. For purposes of this paragraph, "long term care beds" means beds (i) licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, (ii) licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, (iii) licensed under the MC/DD Act, (iv) licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, or (v) licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 and certified as skilled nursing or nursing facility beds under Medicaid or Medicare.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 100-681, eff. 8-3-18; 100-957, eff. 8-19-18; revised 12-13-18.)

Section 220. The Illinois Plain Language Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 4090/30)

Sec. 30. Plain language State government communications. Recognizing the importance of plain language in communication with the public:

(1) the General Assembly shall draft legislation and other public-facing documents using plain language when practicable; and

(2) the executive and judicial branches of State government are advised to make all efforts to draft executive orders, court documents, and other public-facing public facing documents using plain language.

(Source: P.A. 100-1108, eff. 8-27-18; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 225. The Illinois Route 66 Centennial Commission Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 5125/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 1, 2027)

Sec. 45. Dissolution of the Commission. No later than June 30, 2027, a final report on the Commission's activities shall be delivered to the Governor. The Commission shall be dissolved on June 30, 2027, and any assets remaining in the Illinois Route 66 Centennial Commission Trust Fund shall be deposited into in to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-649, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 230. The Illinois State Auditing Act is amended by changing Section 2-16 as follows:

(30 ILCS 5/2-16)

Sec. 2-16. Contract aspirational goals. The Auditor General shall establish aspirational goals for contract awards substantially in accordance with the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, unless otherwise governed by other law. The Auditor General shall not be subject to the jurisdiction of the Business Enterprise Council established under the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act with regard to steps taken to achieve aspirational goals. The Auditor General shall annually post the Office's utilization of businesses owned by minorities, women, and persons with disabilities during the preceding fiscal year on the Office's Internet websites.

(Source: P.A. 100-801, eff. 8-10-18; revised 9-27-18.)

Section 235. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.886 and 6z-105 and by changing Sections 6p-1, 8.16a, 9.03, 9.04, and 13.2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.886)

Sec. 5.886. The VW Settlement Environmental Mitigation Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.887)

Sec. 5.887 5.886. The High-Speed Rail Rolling Stock Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-773, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-12-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.888)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 5.888 5.886. The State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 9-12-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.889)

Sec. 5.889 5.886. The Homelessness Prevention Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-1068, eff. 8-24-18; revised 9-12-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.890)

Sec. 5.890 5.886. The Industrial Hemp Regulatory Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-1091, eff. 8-26-18; revised 9-12-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.892)

Sec. 5.892 5.886. The Firearm Dealer License Certification Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-1178, eff. 1-18-19; revised 1-26-19.)

(30 ILCS 105/6p-1) (from Ch. 127, par. 142p1)

Sec. 6p-1. The Technology Management Revolving Fund (formerly known as the Statistical Services Revolving Fund) shall be initially financed by a transfer of funds from the General Revenue Fund. Thereafter, all fees and other monies received by the Department of Innovation and Technology in payment for information technology and related services rendered pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 1-30 30 of the Department of Innovation and Technology Act shall be paid into the Technology Management Revolving Fund. On and after July 1, 2017, or after sufficient moneys have been received in the Communications Revolving Fund to pay all Fiscal Year 2017 obligations payable from the Fund, whichever is later, all fees and other moneys received by the Department of Central Management Services in payment for communications services rendered pursuant to the Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois or sale of surplus State communications equipment shall be paid into the Technology Management Revolving Fund. The money in this fund shall be used by the Department of Innovation and Technology as reimbursement for expenditures incurred in rendering information technology and related services and, beginning July 1, 2017, as reimbursement for expenditures incurred in relation to communications services.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-105)

Sec. 6z-105. The VW Settlement Environmental Mitigation Fund. The VW Settlement Environmental Mitigation Fund is created as a special fund in the State Treasury to receive moneys from the State Mitigation Trust established pursuant to the Environmental Mitigation Trust Agreement for State Beneficiaries ("Trust Agreement") pursuant to consent decrees in In re: Volkswagen "Clean Diesel" Marketing, Sales Practices, and Products Liability Litigation, MDL No. 2672 CRB (JSC) ("VW Settlement"). All funds received by the State from the State Mitigation Trust shall be deposited into the VW Settlement Environmental Mitigation Fund to be used, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly, by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency as designated lead agency for the State of Illinois, to pay for costs of eligible mitigation actions and related administrative expenditures as allowed under the VW Settlement, the Trust Agreement, and the State's Beneficiary Mitigation Plan.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-106)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 6z-106 6z-105. State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund known as the State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund. The Fund shall receive revenue under subsection (c) of Section 10-5 of the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act. The Fund may also receive revenue from grants, donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes or functions; however, the primary purpose shall be to finance State Police cadet classes in May and October of each year.

(c) Expenditures may be made from the Fund only as appropriated by the General Assembly by law.

(d) Investment income that is attributable to the investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund for the uses specified in this Section.

(e) The State Police Law Enforcement Administration Fund shall not be subject to administrative chargebacks.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-8-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.16a) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.16a)

Sec. 8.16a. Appropriations for the procurement, installation, retention, maintenance, and operation of electronic data processing and information technology devices and software used by State agencies subject to subsection (b) of Section 1-30 30 of the Department of Innovation and Technology Act, the purchase of necessary supplies and equipment and accessories thereto, and all other expenses incident to the operation and maintenance of those electronic data processing and information technology devices and software are payable from the Technology Management Revolving Fund. However, no contract shall be entered into or obligation incurred for any expenditure from the Technology Management Revolving Fund until after the purpose and amount has been approved in writing by the Secretary of Innovation and Technology. Until there are sufficient funds in the Technology Management Revolving Fund (formerly known as the Statistical Services Revolving Fund) to carry out the purposes of this amendatory Act of 1965, however, the State agencies subject to subsection (b) of Section 1-30 30 of the Department of Innovation and Technology Act shall, on written approval of the Secretary of Innovation and Technology, pay the cost of operating and maintaining electronic data processing systems from current appropriations as classified and standardized in the State Finance Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/9.03) (from Ch. 127, par. 145d)

Sec. 9.03. The certification on every State payroll voucher shall be as follows:

"I certify that the employees named, their respective indicated positions and service times, and appropriation to be charged, as shown on the accompanying payroll sheets are true, complete, correct and according to the provisions of law; that such employees are involved in decision making or have direct line responsibility to a person who has decision making authority concerning the objectives, functions, goals and policies of the organizational unit for which the appropriation was made; that the results of the work performed by these employees and that substantially all of their working time is directly related to the objectives, functions, goals, and policies of the organizational unit for which the appropriation is made; that all working time was expended in the service of the State; and that the employees named are entitled to payment in the amounts indicated. If applicable, the reporting requirements of Section 5.1 of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Act have been met.

............................ .............................. (Date) (Signature)"

For departments under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the foregoing certification shall be executed by the Chief Executive Officer of the department from whose appropriation the payment will be made or his designee, in addition to any other certifications or approvals which may be required by law.

The foregoing certification shall not be required for expenditures from amounts appropriated to the Comptroller for payment of the salaries of State officers.

For appropriations for the Office of the Governor enacted after July 31, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-655) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, (1) the foregoing certification shall be required for expenditures from amounts appropriated to the Office of the Governor for payment of salaries of Governor's Office employees and executed by the Governor, or his or her designee, in addition to any other certifications or approvals which may be required by law to be made; and (2) in no event shall salaries of employees of the Office of the Governor be paid from appropriations other than those established for that purpose.

(Source: P.A. 100-655, eff. 7-31-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/9.04) (from Ch. 127, par. 145e)

Sec. 9.04. The certification on behalf of the State agency on every State voucher for goods and services other than a payroll or travel voucher shall be as follows:

"I certify that the goods or services specified on this voucher were for the use of this agency and that the expenditure for such goods or services was authorized and lawfully incurred; that such goods or services meet all the required standards set forth in the purchase agreement or contract to which this voucher relates; and that the amount shown on this voucher is correct and is approved for payment. If applicable, the reporting requirements of Section 5.1 of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget Act have been met.

........................ ............................

(Date) (Signature)"

For departments under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the foregoing certification shall be executed by the Chief Executive Officer of the department from whose appropriation the payment will be made or his designee, in addition to any other certifications or approvals which may be required by law.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 105/13.2) (from Ch. 127, par. 149.2)

Sec. 13.2. Transfers among line item appropriations.

(a) Transfers among line item appropriations from the same treasury fund for the objects specified in this Section may be made in the manner provided in this Section when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made.

(a-1) No transfers may be made from one agency to another agency, nor may transfers be made from one institution of higher education to another institution of higher education except as provided by subsection (a-4).

(a-2) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, transfers may be made only among the objects of expenditure enumerated in this Section, except that no funds may be transferred from any appropriation for personal services, from any appropriation for State contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System, from any separate appropriation for employee retirement contributions paid by the employer, nor from any appropriation for State contribution for employee group insurance. During State fiscal year 2005, an agency may transfer amounts among its appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State Contributions to retirement systems; notwithstanding and in addition to the transfers authorized in subsection (c) of this Section, the fiscal year 2005 transfers authorized in this sentence may be made in an amount not to exceed 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to an agency within the same treasury fund. During State fiscal year 2007, the Departments of Children and Family Services, Corrections, Human Services, and Juvenile Justice may transfer amounts among their respective appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State contributions to retirement systems. During State fiscal year 2010, the Department of Transportation may transfer amounts among their respective appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State contributions to retirement systems. During State fiscal years 2010 and 2014 only, an agency may transfer amounts among its respective appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State contributions to retirement systems. Notwithstanding, and in addition to, the transfers authorized in subsection (c) of this Section, these transfers may be made in an amount not to exceed 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to an agency within the same treasury fund.

(a-2.5) During State fiscal year 2015 only, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor may transfer amounts among its respective appropriations contained in operational line items within the same treasury fund. Notwithstanding, and in addition to, the transfers authorized in subsection (c) of this Section, these transfers may be made in an amount not to exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor within the same treasury fund.

(a-3) Further, if an agency receives a separate appropriation for employee retirement contributions paid by the employer, any transfer by that agency into an appropriation for personal services must be accompanied by a corresponding transfer into the appropriation for employee retirement contributions paid by the employer, in an amount sufficient to meet the employer share of the employee contributions required to be remitted to the retirement system.

(a-4) Long-Term Care Rebalancing. The Governor may designate amounts set aside for institutional services appropriated from the General Revenue Fund or any other State fund that receives monies for long-term care services to be transferred to all State agencies responsible for the administration of community-based long-term care programs, including, but not limited to, community-based long-term care programs administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Department on Aging, provided that the Director of Healthcare and Family Services first certifies that the amounts being transferred are necessary for the purpose of assisting persons in or at risk of being in institutional care to transition to community-based settings, including the financial data needed to prove the need for the transfer of funds. The total amounts transferred shall not exceed 4% in total of the amounts appropriated from the General Revenue Fund or any other State fund that receives monies for long-term care services for each fiscal year. A notice of the fund transfer must be made to the General Assembly and posted at a minimum on the Department of Healthcare and Family Services website, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget website, and any other website the Governor sees fit. These postings shall serve as notice to the General Assembly of the amounts to be transferred. Notice shall be given at least 30 days prior to transfer.

(b) In addition to the general transfer authority provided under subsection (c), the following agencies have the specific transfer authority granted in this subsection:

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services is authorized to make transfers representing savings attributable to not increasing grants due to the births of additional children from line items for payments of cash grants to line items for payments for employment and social services for the purposes outlined in subsection (f) of Section 4-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

The Department of Children and Family Services is authorized to make transfers not exceeding 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it within the same treasury fund for the following line items among these same line items: Foster Home and Specialized Foster Care and Prevention, Institutions and Group Homes and Prevention, and Purchase of Adoption and Guardianship Services.

The Department on Aging is authorized to make transfers not exceeding 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it within the same treasury fund for the following Community Care Program line items among these same line items: purchase of services covered by the Community Care Program and Comprehensive Case Coordination.

The State Treasurer is authorized to make transfers among line item appropriations from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund, with respect to costs incurred in fiscal years 2002 and 2003 only, when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made, provided that no such transfer may be made unless the amount transferred is no longer required for the purpose for which that appropriation was made.

The State Board of Education is authorized to make transfers from line item appropriations within the same treasury fund for General State Aid, General State Aid - Hold Harmless, and Evidence-Based Funding, provided that no such transfer may be made unless the amount transferred is no longer required for the purpose for which that appropriation was made, to the line item appropriation for Transitional Assistance when the balance remaining in such line item appropriation is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made.

The State Board of Education is authorized to make transfers between the following line item appropriations within the same treasury fund: Disabled Student Services/Materials (Section 14-13.01 of the School Code), Disabled Student Transportation Reimbursement (Section 14-13.01 of the School Code), Disabled Student Tuition - Private Tuition (Section 14-7.02 of the School Code), Extraordinary Special Education (Section 14-7.02b of the School Code), Reimbursement for Free Lunch/Breakfast Program, Summer School Payments (Section 18-4.3 of the School Code), and Transportation - Regular/Vocational Reimbursement (Section 29-5 of the School Code). Such transfers shall be made only when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made and provided that no such transfer may be made unless the amount transferred is no longer required for the purpose for which that appropriation was made.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services is authorized to make transfers not exceeding 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it, within the same treasury fund, among the various line items appropriated for Medical Assistance.

(c) The sum of such transfers for an agency in a fiscal year shall not exceed 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it within the same treasury fund for the following objects: Personal Services; Extra Help; Student and Inmate Compensation; State Contributions to Retirement Systems; State Contributions to Social Security; State Contribution for Employee Group Insurance; Contractual Services; Travel; Commodities; Printing; Equipment; Electronic Data Processing; Operation of Automotive Equipment; Telecommunications Services; Travel and Allowance for Committed, Paroled and Discharged Prisoners; Library Books; Federal Matching Grants for Student Loans; Refunds; Workers' Compensation, Occupational Disease, and Tort Claims; Late Interest Penalties under the State Prompt Payment Act and Sections 368a and 370a of the Illinois Insurance Code; and, in appropriations to institutions of higher education, Awards and Grants. Notwithstanding the above, any amounts appropriated for payment of workers' compensation claims to an agency to which the authority to evaluate, administer and pay such claims has been delegated by the Department of Central Management Services may be transferred to any other expenditure object where such amounts exceed the amount necessary for the payment of such claims.

(c-1) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2003. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, for State fiscal year 2003 only, transfers among line item appropriations to an agency from the same treasury fund may be made provided that the sum of such transfers for an agency in State fiscal year 2003 shall not exceed 3% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for State fiscal year 2003 for the following objects: personal services, except that no transfer may be approved which reduces the aggregate appropriations for personal services within an agency; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; and, in appropriations to institutions of higher education, awards and grants.

(c-2) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2005. Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-2), and (c), for State fiscal year 2005 only, transfers may be made among any line item appropriations from the same or any other treasury fund for any objects or purposes, without limitation, when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made, provided that the sum of those transfers by a State agency shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for fiscal year 2005.

(c-3) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2015. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for State fiscal year 2015, transfers among line item appropriations to a State agency from the same State treasury fund may be made for operational or lump sum expenses only, provided that the sum of such transfers for a State agency in State fiscal year 2015 shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for operational or lump sum expenses for State fiscal year 2015. For the purpose of this subsection, "operational or lump sum expenses" includes the following objects: personal services; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; lump sum and other purposes; and lump sum operations. For the purpose of this subsection (c-3), "State agency" does not include the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, the Treasurer, or the legislative or judicial branches.

(c-4) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2018. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for State fiscal year 2018, transfers among line item appropriations to a State agency from the same State treasury fund may be made for operational or lump sum expenses only, provided that the sum of such transfers for a State agency in State fiscal year 2018 shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for operational or lump sum expenses for State fiscal year 2018. For the purpose of this subsection (c-4), "operational or lump sum expenses" includes the following objects: personal services; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; lump sum and other purposes; and lump sum operations. For the purpose of this subsection (c-4), "State agency" does not include the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, the Treasurer, or the legislative or judicial branches.

(c-5) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2019. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for State fiscal year 2019, transfers among line item appropriations to a State agency from the same State treasury fund may be made for operational or lump sum expenses only, provided that the sum of such transfers for a State agency in State fiscal year 2019 shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for operational or lump sum expenses for State fiscal year 2019. For the purpose of this subsection (c-5), "operational or lump sum expenses" includes the following objects: personal services; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; lump sum and other purposes; and lump sum operations. For the purpose of this subsection (c-5), "State agency" does not include the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, the Treasurer, or the legislative or judicial branches.

(d) Transfers among appropriations made to agencies of the Legislative and Judicial departments and to the constitutionally elected officers in the Executive branch require the approval of the officer authorized in Section 10 of this Act to approve and certify vouchers. Transfers among appropriations made to the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy and the Board of Higher Education require the approval of the Board of Higher Education and the Governor. Transfers among appropriations to all other agencies require the approval of the Governor.

The officer responsible for approval shall certify that the transfer is necessary to carry out the programs and purposes for which the appropriations were made by the General Assembly and shall transmit to the State Comptroller a certified copy of the approval which shall set forth the specific amounts transferred so that the Comptroller may change his records accordingly. The Comptroller shall furnish the Governor with information copies of all transfers approved for agencies of the Legislative and Judicial departments and transfers approved by the constitutionally elected officials of the Executive branch other than the Governor, showing the amounts transferred and indicating the dates such changes were entered on the Comptroller's records.

(e) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Comptroller, may transfer line item appropriations for General State Aid or Evidence-Based Funding between the Common School Fund and the Education Assistance Fund. With the advice and consent of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Comptroller, may transfer line item appropriations between the General Revenue Fund and the Education Assistance Fund for the following programs:

(1) Disabled Student Personnel Reimbursement (Section 14-13.01 of the School Code);

(2) Disabled Student Transportation Reimbursement (subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of the School Code);

(3) Disabled Student Tuition - Private Tuition (Section 14-7.02 of the School Code);

(4) Extraordinary Special Education (Section 14-7.02b of the School Code);

(5) Reimbursement for Free Lunch/Breakfast Programs;

(6) Summer School Payments (Section 18-4.3 of the School Code);

(7) Transportation - Regular/Vocational Reimbursement (Section 29-5 of the School Code);

(8) Regular Education Reimbursement (Section 18-3 of the School Code); and

(9) Special Education Reimbursement (Section 14-7.03 of the School Code).

(Source: P.A. 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1064, eff. 8-24-18; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 240. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Sections 9 and 11 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/9) (from Ch. 127, par. 659)

Sec. 9. Conditions for issuance and sale of Bonds; requirements for Bonds.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, subsection (h), and subsection (i), Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Bonds shall be in such form (either coupon, registered or book entry), in such denominations, payable within 25 years from their date, subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided however, that interest payable at fixed or variable rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, as now or hereafter amended. Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds, other than Bonds issued under Section 3 of this Act for the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology, (i) except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, 2011, 2017, 2018, or 2019 must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring within the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year and (ii) must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years, except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, or 2011 which must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 16 years. Bonds issued under Section 3 of this Act for the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring with the fiscal year in which the respective bonds are issued or with the next succeeding fiscal year, with the respective bonds issued maturing or subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 10 years. Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, the Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-43 shall be payable within 5 years from their date and must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with payment of principal or mandatory redemption beginning in the first fiscal year following the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, the Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497 shall be payable within 8 years from their date and shall be issued with payment of maturing principal or scheduled mandatory redemptions in accordance with the following schedule, except the following amounts shall be prorated if less than the total additional amount of Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497 are issued:

Fiscal Year After Issuance Amount

1-2 $0

3 $110,712,120

4 $332,136,360

5 $664,272,720

6-8 $996,409,080

Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, Income Tax Proceed Bonds issued under Section 7.6 shall be payable 12 years from the date of sale and shall be issued with payment of principal or mandatory redemption.

In the case of any series of Bonds bearing interest at a variable interest rate ("Variable Rate Bonds"), in lieu of determining the rate or rates at which such series of Variable Rate Bonds shall bear interest and the price or prices at which such Variable Rate Bonds shall be initially sold or remarketed (in the event of purchase and subsequent resale), the Bond Sale Order may provide that such interest rates and prices may vary from time to time depending on criteria established in such Bond Sale Order, which criteria may include, without limitation, references to indices or variations in interest rates as may, in the judgment of a remarketing agent, be necessary to cause Variable Rate Bonds of such series to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount, and may provide for appointment of a bank, trust company, investment bank, or other financial institution to serve as remarketing agent in that connection. The Bond Sale Order may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions for establishing alternative interest rates, different security or claim priorities, or different call or amortization provisions will apply during such times as Variable Rate Bonds of any series are held by a person providing credit or liquidity enhancement arrangements for such Bonds as authorized in subsection (b) of this Section. The Bond Sale Order may also provide for such variable interest rates to be established pursuant to a process generally known as an auction rate process and may provide for appointment of one or more financial institutions to serve as auction agents and broker-dealers in connection with the establishment of such interest rates and the sale and remarketing of such Bonds.

(b) In connection with the issuance of any series of Bonds, the State may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for such Bonds, including, without limitation, bond or interest rate insurance or letters of credit, lines of credit, bond purchase contracts, or other arrangements whereby funds are made available to retire or purchase Bonds, thereby assuring the ability of owners of the Bonds to sell or redeem their Bonds. The State may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, but only under circumstances where the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget certifies that he or she reasonably expects the total interest paid or to be paid on the Bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the Bonds to bear interest, calculated to their stated maturity, at a rate in excess of the rate that the Bonds would bear in the absence of such arrangements.

The State may, with respect to Bonds issued or anticipated to be issued, participate in and enter into arrangements with respect to interest rate protection or exchange agreements, guarantees, or financial futures contracts for the purpose of limiting, reducing, or managing interest rate exposure. The authority granted under this paragraph, however, shall not increase the principal amount of Bonds authorized to be issued by law. The arrangements may be executed and delivered by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget on behalf of the State. Net payments for such arrangements shall constitute interest on the Bonds and shall be paid from the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall at least annually certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller his or her estimate of the amounts of such net payments to be included in the calculation of interest required to be paid by the State.

(c) Prior to the issuance of any Variable Rate Bonds pursuant to subsection (a), the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall adopt an interest rate risk management policy providing that the amount of the State's variable rate exposure with respect to Bonds shall not exceed 20%. This policy shall remain in effect while any Bonds are outstanding and the issuance of Bonds shall be subject to the terms of such policy. The terms of this policy may be amended from time to time by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget but in no event shall any amendment cause the permitted level of the State's variable rate exposure with respect to Bonds to exceed 20%.

(d) "Build America Bonds" in this Section means Bonds authorized by Section 54AA of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended ("Internal Revenue Code"), and bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund "Build America Bonds".

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be in such form (either coupon, registered or book entry), in such denominations, payable within 25 years from their date, subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, and if the Qualified School Construction Bonds are issued with a supplemental coupon, bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Qualified School Construction Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; except that interest payable at fixed or variable rates, if any, shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, as now or hereafter amended. Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Qualified School Construction Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Qualified School Construction Bonds must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts or sinking fund payments into the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund (or subaccount therefor) in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued, mandatory redemption payment or sinking fund payment occurring within the fiscal year in which the Qualified School Construction Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year, with Qualified School Construction Bonds issued maturing or subject to mandatory redemption or with sinking fund payments thereof deposited each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years. Sinking fund payments set forth in this subsection shall be permitted only to the extent authorized in Section 54F of the Internal Revenue Code or as otherwise determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. "Qualified School Construction Bonds" in this subsection means Bonds authorized by Section 54F of the Internal Revenue Code and for bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund such "Qualified School Construction Bonds".

(f) Beginning with the next issuance by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget to the Procurement Policy Board of a request for quotation for the purpose of formulating a new pool of qualified underwriting banks list, all entities responding to such a request for quotation for inclusion on that list shall provide a written report to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the Illinois Comptroller. The written report submitted to the Comptroller shall (i) be published on the Comptroller's Internet website and (ii) be used by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget for the purposes of scoring such a request for quotation. The written report, at a minimum, shall:

(1) disclose whether, within the past 3 months, pursuant to its credit default swap market-making activities, the firm has entered into any State of Illinois credit default swaps ("CDS");

(2) include, in the event of State of Illinois CDS activity, disclosure of the firm's cumulative notional volume of State of Illinois CDS trades and the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of State of Illinois CDS, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(3) indicate, pursuant to the firm's proprietary trading activities, disclosure of whether the firm, within the past 3 months, has entered into any proprietary trades for its own account in State of Illinois CDS;

(4) include, in the event of State of Illinois proprietary trades, disclosure of the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of proprietary State of Illinois CDS and whether the net position is short or long credit protection, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(5) list all time periods during the past 3 months during which the firm held net long or net short State of Illinois CDS proprietary credit protection positions, the amount of such positions, and whether those positions were net long or net short credit protection positions; and

(6) indicate whether, within the previous 3 months, the firm released any publicly available research or marketing reports that reference State of Illinois CDS and include those research or marketing reports as attachments.

(g) All entities included on a Governor's Office of Management and Budget's pool of qualified underwriting banks list shall, as soon as possible after March 18, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1554), but not later than January 21, 2011, and on a quarterly fiscal basis thereafter, provide a written report to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the Illinois Comptroller. The written reports submitted to the Comptroller shall be published on the Comptroller's Internet website. The written reports, at a minimum, shall:

(1) disclose whether, within the past 3 months, pursuant to its credit default swap market-making activities, the firm has entered into any State of Illinois credit default swaps ("CDS");

(2) include, in the event of State of Illinois CDS activity, disclosure of the firm's cumulative notional volume of State of Illinois CDS trades and the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of State of Illinois CDS, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(3) indicate, pursuant to the firm's proprietary trading activities, disclosure of whether the firm, within the past 3 months, has entered into any proprietary trades for its own account in State of Illinois CDS;

(4) include, in the event of State of Illinois proprietary trades, disclosure of the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of proprietary State of Illinois CDS and whether the net position is short or long credit protection, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(5) list all time periods during the past 3 months during which the firm held net long or net short State of Illinois CDS proprietary credit protection positions, the amount of such positions, and whether those positions were net long or net short credit protection positions; and

(6) indicate whether, within the previous 3 months, the firm released any publicly available research or marketing reports that reference State of Illinois CDS and include those research or marketing reports as attachments.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for purposes of maximizing market efficiencies and cost savings, Income Tax Proceed Bonds may be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall be in such form, either coupon, registered, or book entry, in such denominations, shall bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Income Tax Proceed Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided, however, that interest payable at fixed or variable rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act. Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Income Tax Proceed Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for purposes of maximizing market efficiencies and cost savings, State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds may be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds shall be in such form, either coupon, registered, or book entry, in such denominations, shall bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided, however, that interest payable at fixed or variable rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act. State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order.

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, Article 25, Section 25-5, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, Article 60, Section 60-5, eff. 6-4-18; 100-587, Article 110, Section 110-15, eff. 6-4-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-17-18.)

(30 ILCS 330/11) (from Ch. 127, par. 661)

Sec. 11. Sale of Bonds. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, Bonds shall be sold from time to time pursuant to notice of sale and public bid or by negotiated sale in such amounts and at such times as is directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. At least 25%, based on total principal amount, of all Bonds issued each fiscal year shall be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid. At all times during each fiscal year, no more than 75%, based on total principal amount, of the Bonds issued each fiscal year, shall have been sold by negotiated sale. Failure to satisfy the requirements in the preceding 2 sentences shall not affect the validity of any previously issued Bonds; provided that all Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-43 and Public Act 96-1497 shall not be included in determining compliance for any fiscal year with the requirements of the preceding 2 sentences; and further provided that refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, 2011, 2017, 2018, or 2019 shall not be subject to the requirements in the preceding 2 sentences.

If any Bonds, including refunding Bonds, are to be sold by negotiated sale, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall comply with the competitive request for proposal process set forth in the Illinois Procurement Code and all other applicable requirements of that Code.

If Bonds are to be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may, from time to time, as Bonds are to be sold, advertise the sale of the Bonds in at least 2 daily newspapers, one of which is published in the City of Springfield and one in the City of Chicago. The sale of the Bonds shall also be advertised in the volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin that is published by the Department of Central Management Services, and shall be published once at least 10 days prior to the date fixed for the opening of the bids. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may reschedule the date of sale upon the giving of such additional notice as the Director deems adequate to inform prospective bidders of such change; provided, however, that all other conditions of the sale shall continue as originally advertised.

Executed Bonds shall, upon payment therefor, be delivered to the purchaser, and the proceeds of Bonds shall be paid into the State Treasury as directed by Section 12 of this Act.

All Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall comply with this Section. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, however, for purposes of complying with this Section, Income Tax Proceed Bonds, regardless of the number of series or issuances sold thereunder, shall be considered a single issue or series. Furthermore, for purposes of complying with the competitive bidding requirements of this Section, the words "at all times" shall not apply to any such sale of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the time and manner of any competitive sale of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds; however, that sale shall under no circumstances take place later than 60 days after the State closes the sale of 75% of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds by negotiated sale.

All State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds shall comply with this Section. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, however, for purposes of complying with this Section, State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds, regardless of the number of series or issuances sold thereunder, shall be considered a single issue or series. Furthermore, for purposes of complying with the competitive bidding requirements of this Section, the words "at all times" shall not apply to any such sale of the State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the time and manner of any competitive sale of the State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds; however, that sale shall under no circumstances take place later than 60 days after the State closes the sale of 75% of the State Pension Obligation Acceleration Bonds by negotiated sale.

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, Article 25, Section 25-5, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, Article 60, Section 60-5, eff. 6-4-18; 100-587, Article 110, Section 110-15, eff. 6-4-18; 100-863, eff. 8-4-18; revised 10-10-18.)

Section 245. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 1-10, 1-15.100, 20-60, 20-160, and 50-13 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/1-10)

Sec. 1-10. Application.

(a) This Code applies only to procurements for which bidders, offerors, potential contractors, or contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract, or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as described in Article 99, including but not limited to any covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this Code and its intent.

(b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:

(1) Contracts between the State and its political subdivisions or other governments, or between State governmental bodies, except as specifically provided in this Code.

(2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of Section 20-80.

(3) Purchase of care, except as provided in Section 5-30.6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and this Section.

(4) Hiring of an individual as employee and not as an independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment code or policy or by contract directly with that individual.

(5) Collective bargaining contracts.

(6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be published in the Procurement Bulletin within 10 calendar days after the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract, and the effective date of the contract.

(7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations, provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and provided that the chief legal counsel of any other procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor.

(8) (Blank).

(9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.

(10) (Blank).

(11) Public-private agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and design-build agreements entered into according to the procurement requirements of Section 25 of the Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.

(12) Contracts for legal, financial, and other professional and artistic services entered into on or before December 31, 2018 by the Illinois Finance Authority in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process authorized by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20, 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final approval by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority of the terms of the contract.

(13) Contracts for services, commodities, and equipment to support the delivery of timely forensic science services in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer as provided in subsection (d) of Section 5-4-3a of the Unified Code of Corrections, except for the requirements of Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code; however, the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50 of this Code. For any contracts for services which are currently provided by members of a collective bargaining agreement, the applicable terms of the collective bargaining agreement concerning subcontracting shall be followed.

On and after January 1, 2019, this paragraph (13), except for this sentence, is inoperative.

(14) Contracts for participation expenditures required by a domestic or international trade show or exhibition of an exhibitor, member, or sponsor.

(15) Contracts with a railroad or utility that requires the State to reimburse the railroad or utilities for the relocation of utilities for construction or other public purpose. Contracts included within this paragraph (15) shall include, but not be limited to, those associated with: relocations, crossings, installations, and maintenance. For the purposes of this paragraph (15), "railroad" means any form of non-highway ground transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways and "utility" means: (1) public utilities as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, (2) telecommunications carriers as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, (3) electric cooperatives as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, (4) telephone or telecommunications cooperatives as defined in Section 13-212 of the Public Utilities Act, (5) rural water or waste water systems with 10,000 connections or less, (6) a holder as defined in Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act, and (7) municipalities owning or operating utility systems consisting of public utilities as that term is defined in Section 11-117-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Public Health to provide the delivery of timely newborn screening services in accordance with the Newborn Metabolic Screening Act.

(17) (16) Procurement expenditures necessary for the Department of Agriculture, the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Department of Human Services, and the Department of Public Health to implement the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program and Opioid Alternative Pilot Program requirements and ensure access to medical cannabis for patients with debilitating medical conditions in accordance with the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for contracts entered into on or after October 1, 2017 under an exemption provided in any paragraph of this subsection (b), except paragraph (1), (2), or (5), each State agency shall post to the appropriate procurement bulletin the name of the contractor, a description of the supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract, the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code utilized. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement officer.

(c) This Code does not apply to the electric power procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code, and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the Illinois Lottery Law.

(e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of construction.

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and 11-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(i) Each chief procurement officer may access records necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client privilege.

(j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development Board Act.

(k) This Code does not apply to the process to procure contracts, or contracts entered into, by the State Board of Elections or the State Electoral Board for hearing officers appointed pursuant to the Election Code.

(l) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to procure supplies and services paid for from the private funds of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Fund. As used in this subsection (l), "private funds" means funds derived from deposits paid into the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund and the earnings thereon.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 100-580, eff. 3-12-18; 100-757, eff. 8-10-18; 100-1114, eff. 8-28-18; revised 10-18-18.)

(30 ILCS 500/1-15.100)

Sec. 1-15.100. State agency. "State agency" means and includes all boards, commissions, agencies, institutions, authorities, and bodies politic and corporate of the State, created by or in accordance with the constitution or statute, of the executive branch of State government and does include colleges, universities, and institutions under the jurisdiction of the governing boards of the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Illinois State University, Eastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, Chicago State University, Governors Governor State University, Northeastern Illinois University, and the Board of Higher Education. However, this term does not apply to public employee retirement systems or investment boards that are subject to fiduciary duties imposed by the Illinois Pension Code or to the University of Illinois Foundation. "State agency" does not include units of local government, school districts, community colleges under the Public Community College Act, and the Illinois Comprehensive Health Insurance Board.

(Source: P.A. 90-572, eff. 2-6-98; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 500/20-60)

Sec. 20-60. Duration of contracts.

(a) Maximum duration. A contract may be entered into for any period of time deemed to be in the best interests of the State but not exceeding 10 years inclusive, beginning January 1, 2010, of proposed contract renewals. Third parties may lease State-owned dark fiber networks for any period of time deemed to be in the best interest of the State, but not exceeding 20 years. The length of a lease for real property or capital improvements shall be in accordance with the provisions of Section 40-25. The length of energy conservation program contracts or energy savings contracts or leases shall be in accordance with the provisions of Section 25-45. A contract for bond or mortgage insurance awarded by the Illinois Housing Development Authority, however, may be entered into for any period of time less than or equal to the maximum period of time that the subject bond or mortgage may remain outstanding.

(b) Subject to appropriation. All contracts made or entered into shall recite that they are subject to termination and cancellation in any year for which the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation to make payments under the terms of the contract.

(c) The chief procurement officer shall file a proposed extension or renewal of a contract with the Procurement Policy Board prior to entering into any extension or renewal if the cost associated with the extension or renewal exceeds $249,999. The Procurement Policy Board may object to the proposed extension or renewal within 30 calendar days and require a hearing before the Board prior to entering into the extension or renewal. If the Procurement Policy Board does not object within 30 calendar days or takes affirmative action to recommend the extension or renewal, the chief procurement officer may enter into the extension or renewal of a contract. This subsection does not apply to any emergency procurement, any procurement under Article 40, or any procurement exempted by Section 1-10(b) of this Code. If any State agency contract is paid for in whole or in part with federal-aid funds, grants, or loans and the provisions of this subsection would result in the loss of those federal-aid funds, grants, or loans, then the contract is exempt from the provisions of this subsection in order to remain eligible for those federal-aid funds, grants, or loans, and the State agency shall file notice of this exemption with the Procurement Policy Board prior to entering into the proposed extension or renewal. Nothing in this subsection permits a chief procurement officer to enter into an extension or renewal in violation of subsection (a). By August 1 each year, the Procurement Policy Board shall file a report with the General Assembly identifying for the previous fiscal year (i) the proposed extensions or renewals that were filed with the Board and whether the Board objected and (ii) the contracts exempt from this subsection.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section, the Department of Innovation and Technology may enter into leases for dark fiber networks for any period of time deemed to be in the best interests of the State but not exceeding 20 years inclusive. The Department of Innovation and Technology may lease dark fiber networks from third parties only for the primary purpose of providing services to (i) to the offices of Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney General, Secretary of State, Comptroller, or Treasurer and State agencies, as defined under Section 5-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois or (ii) for anchor institutions, as defined in Section 7 of the Illinois Century Network Act. Dark fiber network lease contracts shall be subject to all other provisions of this Code and any applicable rules or requirements, including, but not limited to, publication of lease solicitations, use of standard State contracting terms and conditions, and approval of vendor certifications and financial disclosures.

(e) As used in this Section, "dark fiber network" means a network of fiber optic cables laid but currently unused by a third party that the third party is leasing for use as network infrastructure.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 500/20-160)

Sec. 20-160. Business entities; certification; registration with the State Board of Elections.

(a) For purposes of this Section, the terms "business entity", "contract", "State contract", "contract with a State agency", "State agency", "affiliated entity", and "affiliated person" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 50-37.

(b) Every bid and offer submitted to and every contract executed by the State on or after January 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-971) and every submission to a vendor portal shall contain (1) a certification by the bidder, offeror, vendor, or contractor that either (i) the bidder, offeror, vendor, or contractor is not required to register as a business entity with the State Board of Elections pursuant to this Section or (ii) the bidder, offeror, vendor, or contractor has registered as a business entity with the State Board of Elections and acknowledges a continuing duty to update the registration and (2) a statement that the contract is voidable under Section 50-60 for the bidder's, offeror's, vendor's, or contractor's failure to comply with this Section.

(c) Each business entity (i) whose aggregate bids and proposals on State contracts annually total more than $50,000, (ii) whose aggregate bids and proposals on State contracts combined with the business entity's aggregate annual total value of State contracts exceed $50,000, or (iii) whose contracts with State agencies, in the aggregate, annually total more than $50,000 shall register with the State Board of Elections in accordance with Section 9-35 of the Election Code. A business entity required to register under this subsection due to item (i) or (ii) has a continuing duty to ensure that the registration is accurate during the period beginning on the date of registration and ending on the day after the date the contract is awarded; any change in information must be reported to the State Board of Elections 5 business days following such change or no later than a day before the contract is awarded, whichever date is earlier. A business entity required to register under this subsection due to item (iii) has a continuing duty to ensure that the registration is accurate in accordance with subsection (e).

(d) Any business entity, not required under subsection (c) to register, whose aggregate bids and proposals on State contracts annually total more than $50,000, or whose aggregate bids and proposals on State contracts combined with the business entity's aggregate annual total value of State contracts exceed $50,000, shall register with the State Board of Elections in accordance with Section 9-35 of the Election Code prior to submitting to a State agency the bid or proposal whose value causes the business entity to fall within the monetary description of this subsection. A business entity required to register under this subsection has a continuing duty to ensure that the registration is accurate during the period beginning on the date of registration and ending on the day after the date the contract is awarded. Any change in information must be reported to the State Board of Elections within 5 business days following such change or no later than a day before the contract is awarded, whichever date is earlier.

(e) A business entity whose contracts with State agencies, in the aggregate, annually total more than $50,000 must maintain its registration under this Section and has a continuing duty to ensure that the registration is accurate for the duration of the term of office of the incumbent officeholder awarding the contracts or for a period of 2 years following the expiration or termination of the contracts, whichever is longer. A business entity, required to register under this subsection, has a continuing duty to report any changes on a quarterly basis to the State Board of Elections within 14 calendar days following the last day of January, April, July, and October of each year. Any update pursuant to this paragraph that is received beyond that date is presumed late and the civil penalty authorized by subsection (e) of Section 9-35 of the Election Code (10 ILCS 5/9-35) may be assessed.

Also, if a business entity required to register under this subsection has a pending bid or offer, any change in information shall be reported to the State Board of Elections within 7 calendar days following such change or no later than a day before the contract is awarded, whichever date is earlier.

(f) A business entity's continuing duty under this Section to ensure the accuracy of its registration includes the requirement that the business entity notify the State Board of Elections of any change in information, including, but not limited to, changes of affiliated entities or affiliated persons.

(g) For any bid or offer for a contract with a State agency by a business entity required to register under this Section, the chief procurement officer shall verify that the business entity is required to register under this Section and is in compliance with the registration requirements on the date the bid or offer is due. A chief procurement officer shall not accept a bid or offer if the business entity is not in compliance with the registration requirements as of the date bids or offers are due. Upon discovery of noncompliance with this Section, if the bidder or offeror made a good faith effort to comply with registration efforts prior to the date the bid or offer is due, a chief procurement officer may provide the bidder or offeror 5 business days to achieve compliance. A chief procurement officer may extend the time to prove compliance by as long as necessary in the event that there is a failure within the State Board of Elections' Election's registration system.

(h) A registration, and any changes to a registration, must include the business entity's verification of accuracy and subjects the business entity to the penalties of the laws of this State for perjury.

In addition to any penalty under Section 9-35 of the Election Code, intentional, willful, or material failure to disclose information required for registration shall render the contract, bid, offer, or other procurement relationship voidable by the chief procurement officer if he or she deems it to be in the best interest of the State of Illinois.

(i) This Section applies regardless of the method of source selection used in awarding the contract.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; revised 10-11-18.)

(30 ILCS 500/50-13)

Sec. 50-13. Conflicts of interest.

(a) Prohibition. It is unlawful for any person holding an elective office in this State, holding a seat in the General Assembly, or appointed to or employed in any of the offices or agencies of State government and who receives compensation for such employment in excess of 60% of the salary of the Governor of the State of Illinois, or who is an officer or employee of the Capital Development Board or the Illinois Toll Highway Authority, or who is the spouse or minor child of any such person to have or acquire any contract, or any direct pecuniary interest in any contract therein, whether for stationery, printing, paper, or any services, materials, or supplies, that will be wholly or partially satisfied by the payment of funds appropriated by the General Assembly of the State of Illinois or in any contract of the Capital Development Board or the Illinois Toll Highway Authority.

(b) Interests. It is unlawful for any firm, partnership, association, or corporation, in which any person listed in subsection (a) is entitled to receive (i) more than 7 1/2% of the total distributable income or (ii) an amount in excess of the salary of the Governor, to have or acquire any such contract or direct pecuniary interest therein.

(c) Combined interests. It is unlawful for any firm, partnership, association, or corporation, in which any person listed in subsection (a) together with his or her spouse or minor children is entitled to receive (i) more than 15%, in the aggregate, of the total distributable income or (ii) an amount in excess of 2 times the salary of the Governor, to have or acquire any such contract or direct pecuniary interest therein.

(c-5) Appointees and firms. In addition to any provisions of this Code, the interests of certain appointees and their firms are subject to Section 3A-35 of the Illinois Governmental Ethics Act.

(d) Securities. Nothing in this Section invalidates the provisions of any bond or other security previously offered or to be offered for sale or sold by or for the State of Illinois.

(e) Prior interests. This Section does not affect the validity of any contract made between the State and an officer or employee of the State or member of the General Assembly, his or her spouse, minor child, or other immediate family member living in his or her residence or any combination of those persons if that contract was in existence before his or her election or employment as an officer, member, or employee. The contract is voidable, however, if it cannot be completed within 365 calendar days after the officer, member, or employee takes office or is employed.

(f) Exceptions.

(1) Public aid payments. This Section does not apply to payments made for a public aid recipient.

(2) Teaching. This Section does not apply to a contract for personal services as a teacher or school administrator between a member of the General Assembly or his or her spouse, or a State officer or employee or his or her spouse, and any school district, public community college district, the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Illinois State University, Eastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, Chicago State University, Governors Governor State University, or Northeastern Illinois University.

(3) Ministerial duties. This Section does not apply to a contract for personal services of a wholly ministerial character, including but not limited to services as a laborer, clerk, typist, stenographer, page, bookkeeper, receptionist, or telephone switchboard operator, made by a spouse or minor child of an elective or appointive State officer or employee or of a member of the General Assembly.

(4) Child and family services. This Section does not apply to payments made to a member of the General Assembly, a State officer or employee, his or her spouse or minor child acting as a foster parent, homemaker, advocate, or volunteer for or in behalf of a child or family served by the Department of Children and Family Services.

(5) Licensed professionals. Contracts with licensed professionals, provided they are competitively bid or part of a reimbursement program for specific, customary goods and services through the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Public Health, or the Department on Aging.

(g) Penalty. A person convicted of a violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 98-1076, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 250. The State Prompt Payment Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(30 ILCS 540/8)

Sec. 8. Vendor Payment Program.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means any entity seeking to be designated as a qualified purchaser.

"Application period" means the time period when the Program is accepting applications as determined by the Department of Central Management Services.

"Assigned penalties" means penalties payable by the State in accordance with this Act that are assigned to the qualified purchaser of an assigned receivable.

"Assigned receivable" means the base invoice amount of a qualified account receivable and any associated assigned penalties due, currently and in the future, in accordance with this Act.

"Assignment agreement" means an agreement executed and delivered by a participating vendor and a qualified purchaser, in which the participating vendor will assign one or more qualified accounts receivable to the qualified purchaser and make certain representations and warranties in respect thereof.

"Base invoice amount" means the unpaid principal amount of the invoice associated with an assigned receivable.

"Department" means the Department of Central Management Services.

"Medical assistance program" means any program which provides medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code, including Medicaid.

"Participating vendor" means a vendor whose application for the sale of a qualified account receivable is accepted for purchase by a qualified purchaser under the Program terms.

"Program" means a Vendor Payment Program.

"Prompt payment penalties" means penalties payable by the State in accordance with this Act.

"Purchase price" means 100% of the base invoice amount associated with an assigned receivable minus: (1) any deductions against the assigned receivable arising from State offsets; and (2) if and to the extent exercised by a qualified purchaser, other deductions for amounts owed by the participating vendor to the qualified purchaser for State offsets applied against other accounts receivable assigned by the participating vendor to the qualified purchaser under the Program.

"Qualified account receivable" means an account receivable due and payable by the State that is outstanding for 90 days or more, is eligible to accrue prompt payment penalties under this Act and is verified by the relevant State agency. A qualified account receivable shall not include any account receivable related to medical assistance program (including Medicaid) payments or any other accounts receivable, the transfer or assignment of which is prohibited by, or otherwise prevented by, applicable law.

"Qualified purchaser" means any entity that, during any application period, is approved by the Department of Central Management Services to participate in the Program on the basis of certain qualifying criteria as determined by the Department.

"State offsets" means any amount deducted from payments made by the State in respect of any qualified account receivable due to the State's exercise of any offset or other contractual rights against a participating vendor. For the purpose of this Section, "State offsets" include statutorily required administrative fees imposed under the State Comptroller Act.

"Sub-participant" means any individual or entity that intends to purchase assigned receivables, directly or indirectly, by or through an applicant or qualified purchaser for the purposes of the Program.

"Sub-participant certification" means an instrument executed and delivered to the Department of Central Management Services by a sub-participant, in which the sub-participant certifies its agreement, among others, to be bound by the terms and conditions of the Program as a condition to its participation in the Program as a sub-participant.

(b) This Section reflects the provisions of Section 900.125 of Title 74 of the Illinois Administrative Code prior to January 1, 2018. The requirements of this Section establish the criteria for participation by participating vendors and qualified purchasers in a Vendor Payment Program. Information regarding the Vendor Payment Program may be found at the Internet website for the Department of Central Management Services.

(c) The State Comptroller and the Department of Central Management Services are authorized to establish and implement the Program under Section 3-3. This Section applies to all qualified accounts receivable not otherwise excluded from receiving prompt payment interest under Section 900.120 of Title 74 of the Illinois Administrative Code. This Section shall not apply to the purchase of any accounts receivable related to payments made under a medical assistance program, including Medicaid payments, or any other purchase of accounts receivable that is otherwise prohibited by law.

(d) Under the Program, qualified purchasers may purchase from participating vendors certain qualified accounts receivable owed by the State to the participating vendors. A participating vendor shall not simultaneously apply to sell the same qualified account receivable to more than one qualified purchaser. In consideration of the payment of the purchase price, a participating vendor shall assign to the qualified purchaser all of its rights to payment of the qualified account receivable, including all current and future prompt payment penalties due to that qualified account receivable in accordance with this Act.

(e) A vendor may apply to participate in the Program if:

(1) the vendor is owed an account receivable by the State for which prompt payment penalties have commenced accruing;

(2) the vendor's account receivable is eligible to accrue prompt payment penalty interest under this Act;

(3) the vendor's account receivable is not for payments under a medical assistance program; and

(4) the vendor's account receivable is not prohibited by, or otherwise prevented by, applicable law from being transferred or assigned under this Section.

(f) The Department shall review and approve or disapprove each applicant seeking a qualified purchaser designation. Factors to be considered by the Department in determining whether an applicant shall be designated as a qualified purchaser include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) the qualified purchaser's agreement to commit a minimum purchase amount as established from time to time by the Department based upon the current needs of the Program and the qualified purchaser's demonstrated ability to fund its commitment;

(2) the demonstrated ability of a qualified purchaser's sub-participants to fund their portions of a qualified purchaser's minimum purchase commitment;

(3) the ability of a qualified purchaser and its sub-participants to meet standards of responsibility substantially in accordance with the requirements of the Standards of Responsibility found in subsection (b) of Section 1.2046 of Title 44 of the Illinois Administrative Code concerning government contracts, procurement, and property management;

(4) the agreement of each qualified purchaser, at its sole cost and expense, to administer and facilitate the operation of the Program with respect to that qualified purchaser, including, without limitation, assisting potential participating vendors with the application and assignment process;

(5) the agreement of each qualified purchaser, at its sole cost and expense, to establish a website that is determined by the Department to be sufficient to administer the Program in accordance with the terms and conditions of the Program;

(6) the agreement of each qualified purchaser, at its sole cost and expense, to market the Program to potential participating vendors;

(7) the agreement of each qualified purchaser, at its sole cost and expense, to educate participating vendors about the benefits and risks associated with participation in the Program;

(8) the agreement of each qualified purchaser, at its sole cost and expense, to deposit funds into, release funds from, and otherwise maintain all required accounts in accordance with the terms and conditions of the Program. Subject to the Program terms, all required accounts shall be maintained and controlled by the qualified purchaser at the qualified purchaser's sole cost and at no cost, whether in the form of fees or otherwise, to the participating vendors;

(9) the agreement of each qualified purchaser, at its sole cost and expense, to submit a monthly written report, in an acceptable electronic format, to the State Comptroller or its designee and the Department or its designee, within 10 days after the end of each month, which, unless otherwise specified by the Department, at a minimum, shall contain:

(A) a listing of each assigned receivable purchased by that qualified purchaser during the month, specifying the base invoice amount and invoice date of that assigned receivable and the name of the participating vendor, State contract number, voucher number, and State agency associated with that assigned receivable;

(B) a listing of each assigned receivable with respect to which the qualified purchaser has received payment of the base invoice amount from the State during that month, including the amount of and date on which that payment was made and the name of the participating vendor, State contract number, voucher number, and State agency associated with the assigned receivable, and identifying the relevant application period for each assigned receivable;

(C) a listing of any payments of assigned penalties received from the State during the month, including the amount of and date on which the payment was made, the name of the participating vendor, the voucher number for the assigned penalty receivable, and the associated assigned receivable, including the State contract number, voucher number, and State agency associated with the assigned receivable, and identifying the relevant application period for each assigned receivable;

(D) the aggregate number and dollar value of assigned receivables purchased by the qualified purchaser from the date on which that qualified purchaser commenced participating in the Program through the last day of the month;

(E) the aggregate number and dollar value of assigned receivables purchased by the qualified purchaser for which no payment by the State of the base invoice amount has yet been received, from the date on which the qualified purchaser commenced participating in the Program through the last day of the month;

(F) the aggregate number and dollar value of invoices purchased by the qualified purchaser for which no voucher has been submitted; and

(G) any other data the State Comptroller and the Department may reasonably request from time to time;

(10) the agreement of each qualified purchaser to use its reasonable best efforts, and for any sub-participant to cause a qualified purchaser to use its reasonable best efforts, to diligently pursue receipt of assigned penalties associated with the assigned receivables, including, without limitation, by promptly notifying the relevant State agency that an assigned penalty is due and, if necessary, seeking payment of assigned penalties through the Illinois Court of Claims; and

(11) the agreement of each qualified purchaser and any sub-participant to use their reasonable best efforts to implement the Program terms and to perform their obligations under the Program in a timely fashion.

(g) Each qualified purchaser's performance and implementation of its obligations under subsection (f) shall be subject to review by the Department and the State Comptroller at any time to confirm that the qualified purchaser is undertaking those obligations in a manner consistent with the terms and conditions of the Program. A qualified purchaser's failure to so perform its obligations including, without limitation, its obligations to diligently pursue receipt of assigned penalties associated with assigned receivables, shall be grounds for the Department and the State Comptroller to terminate the qualified purchaser's participation in the Program under subsection (i). Any such termination shall be without prejudice to any rights a participating vendor may have against that qualified purchaser, in law or in equity, including, without limitation, the right to enforce the terms of the assignment agreement and of the Program against the qualified purchaser.

(h) In determining whether any applicant shall be designated as a qualified purchaser, the Department shall have the right to review or approve sub-participants that intend to purchase assigned receivables, directly or indirectly, by or through the applicant. The Department reserves the right to reject or terminate the designation of any applicant as a qualified purchaser or require an applicant to exclude a proposed sub-participant in order to become or remain a qualified purchaser on the basis of a review, whether prior to or after the designation. Each applicant and each qualified purchaser has an affirmative obligation to promptly notify the Department of any change or proposed change in the identity of the sub-participants that it disclosed to the Department no later than 3 business days after that change. Each sub-participant shall be required to execute a sub-participant certification that will be attached to the corresponding qualified purchaser designation. Sub-participants shall meet, at a minimum, the requirements of paragraphs (2), (3), (10), and (11) of subsection (f).

(i) The Program, as codified under this Section, shall continue until terminated or suspended as follows:

(1) The Program may be terminated or suspended: (A) by the State Comptroller, after consulting with the Department, by giving 10 days prior written notice to the Department and the qualified purchasers in the Program; or (B) by the Department, after consulting with the State Comptroller, by giving 10 days prior written notice to the State Comptroller and the qualified purchasers in the Program.

(2) In the event a qualified purchaser or sub-participant breaches or fails to meet any of the terms or conditions of the Program, that qualified purchaser or sub-participant may be terminated from the Program: (A) by the State Comptroller, after consulting with the Department. The termination shall be effective immediately upon the State Comptroller giving written notice to the Department and the qualified purchaser or sub-participant; or (B) by the Department, after consulting with the State Comptroller. The termination shall be effective immediately upon the Department giving written notice to the State Comptroller and the qualified purchaser or sub-participant.

(3) A qualified purchaser or sub-participant may terminate its participation in the Program, solely with respect to its own participation in the Program, in the event of any change to this Act from the form that existed on the date that the qualified purchaser or the sub-participant, as applicable, submitted the necessary documentation for admission into the Program if the change materially and adversely affects the qualified purchaser's or the sub-participant's ability to purchase and receive payment on receivables on the terms described in this Section.

If the Program, a qualified purchaser, or a sub-participant is terminated or suspended under paragraph paragraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (i), the Program, qualified purchaser, or sub-participant may be reinstated only by written agreement of the State Comptroller and the Department. No termination or suspension under paragraph paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection (i) shall alter or affect the qualified purchaser's or sub-participant's obligations with respect to assigned receivables purchased by or through the qualified purchaser prior to the termination.

(Source: P.A. 100-1089, eff. 8-24-18; revised 10-11-18.)

Section 255. The Grant Accountability and Transparency Act is amended by changing Sections 25 and 45 and by renumbering and changing Section 520 as follows:

(30 ILCS 708/25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 16, 2020)

Sec. 25. Supplemental rules. On or before July 1, 2017, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, with the advice and technical assistance of the Illinois Single Audit Commission, shall adopt supplemental rules pertaining to the following:

(1) Criteria to define mandatory formula-based grants and discretionary grants.

(2) The award of one-year grants for new applicants.

(3) The award of competitive grants in 3-year terms (one-year initial terms with the option to renew for up to 2 additional years) to coincide with the federal award.

(4) The issuance of grants, including:

(A) public notice of announcements of funding opportunities;

(B) the development of uniform grant applications;

(C) State agency review of merit of proposals and risk posed by applicants;

(D) specific conditions for individual recipients (including the use of a fiscal agent and additional corrective conditions);

(E) certifications and representations;

(F) pre-award costs;

(G) performance measures and statewide prioritized goals under Section 50-25 of the State Budget Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, commonly referred to as "Budgeting for Results"; and

(H) for mandatory formula grants, the merit of the proposal and the risk posed should result in additional reporting, monitoring, or measures such as reimbursement-basis only.

(5) The development of uniform budget requirements, which shall include:

(A) mandatory submission of budgets as part of the grant application process;

(B) mandatory requirements regarding contents of the budget including, at a minimum, common detail line items specified under guidelines issued by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget;

(C) a requirement that the budget allow flexibility to add lines describing costs that are common for the services provided as outlined in the grant application;

(D) a requirement that the budget include information necessary for analyzing cost and performance for use in Budgeting for Results; and

(E) caps on the amount of salaries that may be charged to grants based on the limitations imposed by federal agencies.

(6) The development of pre-qualification requirements for applicants, including the fiscal condition of the organization and the provision of the following information:

(A) organization name;

(B) Federal Employee Identification Number;

(C) Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number;

(D) fiscal condition;

(E) whether the applicant is in good standing with the Secretary of State;

(F) past performance in administering grants;

(G) whether the applicant is on the Debarred and Suspended List maintained by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget;

(H) whether the applicant is on the federal Excluded Parties List; and

(I) whether the applicant is on the Sanctioned Party List maintained by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Nothing in this Act affects the provisions of the Fiscal Control and Internal Auditing Act nor the requirement that the management of each State agency is responsible for maintaining effective internal controls under that Act.

For public institutions of higher education, the provisions of this Section apply only to awards funded by State appropriations and federal pass-through awards from a State agency to public institutions of higher education.

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-676, eff. 1-1-19; 100-997, eff. 8-20-18; revised 10-9-18.)

(30 ILCS 708/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 16, 2020)

Sec. 45. Applicability.

(a) The requirements established under this Act apply to State grant-making agencies that make State and federal pass-through awards to non-federal entities. These requirements apply to all costs related to State and federal pass-through awards. The requirements established under this Act do not apply to private awards.

(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the use of State funds for purposes of federal match or maintenance of effort.

(b) The terms and conditions of State, federal, and pass-through awards apply to subawards and subrecipients unless a particular Section of this Act or the terms and conditions of the State or federal award specifically indicate otherwise. Non-federal entities shall comply with requirements of this Act regardless of whether the non-federal entity is a recipient or subrecipient of a State or federal pass-through award. Pass-through entities shall comply with the requirements set forth under the rules adopted under subsection (a) of Section 20 of this Act, but not to any requirements in this Act directed towards State or federal awarding agencies, unless the requirements of the State or federal awards indicate otherwise.

When a non-federal entity is awarded a cost-reimbursement contract, only 2 CFR 200.330 through 200.332 are incorporated by reference into the contract. However, when the Cost Accounting Standards are applicable to the contract, they take precedence over the requirements of this Act unless they are in conflict with Subpart F of 2 CFR 200. In addition, costs that are made unallowable under 10 U.S.C. 2324(e) and 41 U.S.C. 4304(a), as described in the Federal Acquisition Regulations, subpart 31.2 and subpart 31.603, are always unallowable. For requirements other than those covered in Subpart D of 2 CFR 200.330 through 200.332, the terms of the contract and the Federal Acquisition Regulations apply.

With the exception of Subpart F of 2 CFR 200, which is required by the Single Audit Act, in any circumstances where the provisions of federal statutes or regulations differ from the provisions of this Act, the provision of the federal statutes or regulations govern. This includes, for agreements with Indian tribes, the provisions of the Indian Self-Determination and Education and Assistance Act, as amended, 25 U.S.C. 450-458ddd-2.

(c) State grant-making agencies may apply subparts A through E of 2 CFR 200 to for-profit entities, foreign public entities, or foreign organizations, except where the awarding agency determines that the application of these subparts would be inconsistent with the international obligations of the United States or the statute or regulations of a foreign government.

(d) 2 CFR 200.101 specifies how 2 CFR 200 is applicable to different types of awards. The same applicability applies to this Act.

(e) (Blank). for

(f) For public institutions of higher education, the provisions of this Act apply only to awards funded by State appropriations and federal pass-through awards from a State agency to public institutions of higher education.

(g) Each grant-making agency shall enhance its processes to monitor and address noncompliance with reporting requirements and with program performance standards. Where applicable, the process may include a corrective action plan. The monitoring process shall include a plan for tracking and documenting performance-based contracting decisions.

(Source: P.A. 100-676, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-5-18.)

(30 ILCS 708/97) (was 30 ILCS 708/520)

Sec. 97 520. Separate accounts for State grant funds. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, all grants made and any grant agreement entered into, renewed, or extended on or after August 20, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-997) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, between a State grant-making agency and a nonprofit organization, shall require the nonprofit organization receiving grant funds to maintain those funds in an account which is separate and distinct from any account holding non-grant funds. Except as otherwise provided in an agreement between a State grant-making agency and a nonprofit organization, the grant funds held in a separate account by a nonprofit organization shall not be used for non-grant-related activities, and any unused grant funds shall be returned to the State grant-making agency.

(Source: P.A. 100-997, eff. 8-20-18; revised 10-15-18.)

Section 260. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Sections 8.41 and 8.42 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.41)

Sec. 8.41. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 100-23, 100-239, 100-281, 100-455, or 100-544, 100-621, 100-700, or 100-743 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-239, eff. 8-18-17; 100-281, eff. 8-24-17; 100-455, eff. 8-25-17; 100-544, eff. 11-8-17; 100-621, eff. 7-20-18; 100-700, eff. 8-3-18; 100-743, eff. 8-10-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(30 ILCS 805/8.42)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1171)

Sec. 8.42. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 100-587 or 100-1144 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1144, eff. 11-28-18; revised 1-8-19.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1171)

Sec. 8.42. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 100-587, 100-1144, or 100-1171 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1144, eff. 11-28-18; 100-1171, eff. 6-1-19; revised 1-8-19.)

Section 265. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 203, 220, 221, 226, and 901 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 227 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/203) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-203)

Sec. 203. Base income defined.

(a) Individuals.

(1) In general. In the case of an individual, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The adjusted gross income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income, except stock dividends of qualified public utilities described in Section 305(e) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income for the taxable year;

(C) An amount equal to the amount received during the taxable year as a recovery or refund of real property taxes paid with respect to the taxpayer's principal residence under the Revenue Act of 1939 and for which a deduction was previously taken under subparagraph (L) of this paragraph (2) prior to July 1, 1991, the retrospective application date of Article 4 of Public Act 87-17. In the case of multi-unit or multi-use structures and farm dwellings, the taxes on the taxpayer's principal residence shall be that portion of the total taxes for the entire property which is attributable to such principal residence;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of adjusted gross income;

(D-5) An amount, to the extent not included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of money withdrawn by the taxpayer in the taxable year from a medical care savings account and the interest earned on the account in the taxable year of a withdrawal pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act or subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000;

(D-10) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the individual deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the individual claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(D-15) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-16) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (Z) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (Z), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-17) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-18) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-19) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) or Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) of this Act.

(D-20) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2006, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code, other than (i) a distribution from a College Savings Pool created under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, (ii) a distribution from the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, or (iii) a distribution from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that (I) adopts and determines that its offering materials comply with the College Savings Plans Network's disclosure principles and (II) has made reasonable efforts to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs by informing Illinois residents directly and, where applicable, to inform financial intermediaries distributing the program to inform in-state residents of the existence of in-state qualified tuition programs at least annually, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(B).

For the purposes of this subparagraph (D-20), a qualified tuition program has made reasonable efforts if it makes disclosures (which may use the term "in-state program" or "in-state plan" and need not specifically refer to Illinois or its qualified programs by name) (i) directly to prospective participants in its offering materials or makes a public disclosure, such as a website posting; and (ii) where applicable, to intermediaries selling the out-of-state program in the same manner that the out-of-state program distributes its offering materials;

(D-20.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of a distribution from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code, other than a distribution from a qualified ABLE program created under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, an amount equal to the amount excluded from gross income under Section 529A(c)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-21) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2007, in the case of transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by the State to an out-of-state program, an amount equal to the amount of moneys previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section;

(D-21.5) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, in the case of the transfer of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 or a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code that is administered by this State to an ABLE account established under an out-of-state ABLE account program, an amount equal to the contribution component of the transferred amount that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) or subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-22) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to January 1, 2018, in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified expenses at an eligible education institution, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(y) of this Section, provided that the withdrawal or refund did not result from the beneficiary's death or disability. For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018: (1) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund, as defined under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, of moneys from a qualified tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(Y) of this Section, and (2) in the case of a nonqualified withdrawal or refund from a qualified ABLE program under Section 529A of the Internal Revenue Code administered by the State that is not used for qualified disability expenses, an amount equal to the contribution component of the nonqualified withdrawal or refund that was previously deducted from base income under subsection (a)(2)(HH) of this Section;

(D-23) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-24) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(E) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being on active duty in the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 1971 or thereafter for annual training performed pursuant to Sections 502 and 503, Title 32, United States Code as a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2001, any amount included in such total in respect of any compensation (including but not limited to any compensation paid or accrued to a serviceman while a prisoner of war or missing in action) paid to a resident by reason of being a member of any component of the Armed Forces of the United States and in respect of any compensation paid or accrued to a resident who as a governmental employee was a prisoner of war or missing in action, and in respect of any compensation paid to a resident in 2001 or thereafter by reason of being a member of the Illinois National Guard or, beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2007, the National Guard of any other state. The provisions of this subparagraph (E) are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(F) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a), and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(G) The valuation limitation amount;

(H) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(J) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (J) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (J) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (K);

(L) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1983, an amount equal to all social security benefits and railroad retirement benefits included in such total pursuant to Sections 72(r) and 86 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(M) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (N), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2), and 265(a)(2) 265(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(O) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code or of any itemized deduction taken from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year;

(Q) An amount equal to any amounts included in such total, received by the taxpayer as an acceleration in the payment of life, endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable as an indemnity for a terminal illness;

(R) An amount equal to the amount of any federal or State bonus paid to veterans of the Persian Gulf War;

(S) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of a contribution made in the taxable year on behalf of the taxpayer to a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 to the extent the contribution is accepted by the account administrator as provided in that Act;

(T) An amount, to the extent included in adjusted gross income, equal to the amount of interest earned in the taxable year on a medical care savings account established under the Medical Care Savings Account Act or the Medical Care Savings Account Act of 2000 on behalf of the taxpayer, other than interest added pursuant to item (D-5) of this paragraph (2);

(U) For one taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, an amount equal to the total amount of tax imposed and paid under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act on grant amounts received by the taxpayer under the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Act during the taxpayer's taxable years 1992 and 1993;

(V) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with tax years ending on or before December 31, 2004, an amount equal to the amount paid by a taxpayer who is a self-employed taxpayer, a partner of a partnership, or a shareholder in a Subchapter S corporation for health insurance or long-term care insurance for that taxpayer or that taxpayer's spouse or dependents, to the extent that the amount paid for that health insurance or long-term care insurance may be deducted under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, has not been deducted on the federal income tax return of the taxpayer, and does not exceed the taxable income attributable to that taxpayer's income, self-employment income, or Subchapter S corporation income; except that no deduction shall be allowed under this item (V) if the taxpayer is eligible to participate in any health insurance or long-term care insurance plan of an employer of the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse. The amount of the health insurance and long-term care insurance subtracted under this item (V) shall be determined by multiplying total health insurance and long-term care insurance premiums paid by the taxpayer times a number that represents the fractional percentage of eligible medical expenses under Section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 not actually deducted on the taxpayer's federal income tax return;

(W) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1998, all amounts included in the taxpayer's federal gross income in the taxable year from amounts converted from a regular IRA to a Roth IRA. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2002 and ending on or before December 31, 2004, moneys contributed in the taxable year to a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2005, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to (i) a College Savings Pool account under Section 16.5 of the State Treasurer Act or (ii) the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (Y). For purposes of this subparagraph, contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee. This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Z) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(AA) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-15), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (AA) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(BB) Any amount included in adjusted gross income, other than salary, received by a driver in a ridesharing arrangement using a motor vehicle;

(CC) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification, and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (CC) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(DD) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (DD) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(EE) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (EE) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(FF) An amount equal to any amount awarded to the taxpayer during the taxable year by the Court of Claims under subsection (c) of Section 8 of the Court of Claims Act for time unjustly served in a State prison. This subparagraph (FF) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(GG) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (GG), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (GG). This subparagraph (GG) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(HH) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018 and prior to January 1, 2023, a maximum of $10,000 contributed in the taxable year to a qualified ABLE account under Section 16.6 of the State Treasurer Act, except that amounts excluded from gross income under Section 529(c)(3)(C)(i) or Section 529A(c)(1)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be considered moneys contributed under this subparagraph (HH). For purposes of this subparagraph (HH), contributions made by an employer on behalf of an employee, or matching contributions made by an employee, shall be treated as made by the employee.

(b) Corporations.

(1) In general. In the case of a corporation, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest and all distributions received from regulated investment companies during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(C) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the excess of (i) the net long-term capital gain for the taxable year, over (ii) the amount of the capital gain dividends designated as such in accordance with Section 852(b)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code and any amount designated under Section 852(b)(3)(D) of the Internal Revenue Code, attributable to the taxable year (this amendatory Act of 1995 (Public Act 89-89) is declarative of existing law and is not a new enactment);

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such earlier taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(E-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the corporation deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the corporation claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(E-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(E-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (T) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (T), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(E-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(E-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) or Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) of this Act;

(E-15) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2008, any deduction for dividends paid by a captive real estate investment trust that is allowed to a real estate investment trust under Section 857(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code for dividends paid;

(E-16) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(E-17) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to any amount included in such total under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(H) In the case of a regulated investment company, an amount equal to the amount of exempt interest dividends as defined in subsection (b)(5) of Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, paid to shareholders for the taxable year;

(I) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (J), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2), and 265(a)(2) and amounts disallowed as interest expense by Section 291(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, 291(a)(3), and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, amounts disallowed as deductions by Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code and the policyholders' share of tax-exempt interest of a life insurance company under Section 807(a)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company with gross income from a decrease in reserves for the tax year) or Section 807(b)(1)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code (in the case of a life insurance company allowed a deduction for an increase in reserves for the tax year); the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph 2 of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (L);

(M) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(f) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(f) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in the River Edge Redevelopment Zone. The subtraction modification available to the taxpayer in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M-1) For any taxpayer that is a financial organization within the meaning of Section 304(c) of this Act, an amount included in such total as interest income from a loan or loans made by such taxpayer to a borrower, to the extent that such a loan is secured by property which is eligible for the High Impact Business Investment Credit. To determine the portion of a loan or loans that is secured by property eligible for a Section 201(h) investment credit to the borrower, the entire principal amount of the loan or loans between the taxpayer and the borrower should be divided into the basis of the Section 201(h) investment credit property which secures the loan or loans, using for this purpose the original basis of such property on the date that it was placed in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone located in Illinois. No taxpayer that is eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M-1). The subtraction modification available to taxpayers in any year under this subsection shall be that portion of the total interest paid by the borrower with respect to such loan attributable to the eligible property as calculated under the previous sentence;

(N) Two times any contribution made during the taxable year to a designated zone organization to the extent that the contribution (i) qualifies as a charitable contribution under subsection (c) of Section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) must, by its terms, be used for a project approved by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Section 11 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act or under Section 10-10 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act. This subparagraph (N) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(O) An amount equal to: (i) 85% for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 1992, or, a percentage equal to the percentage allowable under Section 243(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 for taxable years ending after December 31, 1992, of the amount by which dividends included in taxable income and received from a corporation that is not created or organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 965 of the Internal Revenue Code, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends, and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust; plus (ii) 100% of the amount by which dividends, included in taxable income and received, including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1988, dividends received or deemed received or paid or deemed paid under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and including, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, dividends received from a captive real estate investment trust, from any such corporation specified in clause (i) that would but for the provisions of Section 1504(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code be treated as a member of the affiliated group which includes the dividend recipient, exceed the amount of the modification provided under subparagraph (G) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) which is related to such dividends. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act;

(P) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(Q) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(R) On and after July 20, 1999, in the case of an attorney-in-fact with respect to whom an interinsurer or a reciprocal insurer has made the election under Section 835 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 835, an amount equal to the excess, if any, of the amounts paid or incurred by that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer in the taxable year to the attorney-in-fact over the deduction allowed to that interinsurer or reciprocal insurer with respect to the attorney-in-fact under Section 835(b) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1997, in the case of a Subchapter S corporation, an amount equal to all amounts of income allocable to a shareholder subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, including amounts allocable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (E-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) The amount of: (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification, and (iii) any insurance premium income (net of deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-19), Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), or Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), but not to exceed the amount of that addition modification. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(X) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(b)(2)(E-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(b)(2)(E-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(Z) The difference between the nondeductible controlled foreign corporation dividends under Section 965(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code over the taxable income of the taxpayer, computed without regard to Section 965(e)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, and without regard to any net operating loss deduction. This subparagraph (Z) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (2)(A), "gross income" in the case of a life insurance company, for tax years ending on and after December 31, 1994, and prior to December 31, 2011, shall mean the gross investment income for the taxable year and, for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall mean all amounts included in life insurance gross income under Section 803(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) Trusts and estates.

(1) In general. In the case of a trust or estate, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), the taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) In the case of (i) an estate, $600; (ii) a trust which, under its governing instrument, is required to distribute all of its income currently, $300; and (iii) any other trust, $100, but in each such case, only to the extent such amount was deducted in the computation of taxable income;

(C) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income for the taxable year;

(D) The amount of any net operating loss deduction taken in arriving at taxable income, other than a net operating loss carried forward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986;

(E) For taxable years in which a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from a taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 is an element of taxable income under paragraph (1) of subsection (e) or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (e), the amount by which addition modifications other than those provided by this subparagraph (E) exceeded subtraction modifications in such taxable year, with the following limitations applied in the order that they are listed:

(i) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall be reduced by the amount of addition modification under this subparagraph (E) which related to that net operating loss and which was taken into account in calculating the base income of an earlier taxable year, and

(ii) the addition modification relating to the net operating loss carried back or forward to the taxable year from any taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986 shall not exceed the amount of such carryback or carryforward;

For taxable years in which there is a net operating loss carryback or carryforward from more than one other taxable year ending prior to December 31, 1986, the addition modification provided in this subparagraph (E) shall be the sum of the amounts computed independently under the preceding provisions of this subparagraph (E) for each such taxable year;

(F) For taxable years ending on or after January 1, 1989, an amount equal to the tax deducted pursuant to Section 164 of the Internal Revenue Code if the trust or estate is claiming the same tax for purposes of the Illinois foreign tax credit under Section 601 of this Act;

(G) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(G-5) For taxable years ending after December 31, 1997, an amount equal to any eligible remediation costs that the trust or estate deducted in computing adjusted gross income and for which the trust or estate claims a credit under subsection (l) of Section 201;

(G-10) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code; and

(G-11) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (R) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (R), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(G-12) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-13) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes: (1) expenses, losses, and costs for or related to the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(G-14) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) or Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) of this Act;

(G-15) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(G-16) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the sum of the following amounts:

(H) An amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Sections 402(a), 402(c), 403(a), 403(b), 406(a), 407(a) and 408 of the Internal Revenue Code or included in such total as distributions under the provisions of any retirement or disability plan for employees of any governmental agency or unit, or retirement payments to retired partners, which payments are excluded in computing net earnings from self employment by Section 1402 of the Internal Revenue Code and regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(I) The valuation limitation amount;

(J) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(K) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(L) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (K), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2) and 265(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (M) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(N) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(O) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (M) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (O);

(P) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(Q) For taxable year 1999 and thereafter, an amount equal to the amount of any (i) distributions, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, made to the taxpayer because of his or her status as a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim and (ii) items of income, to the extent includible in gross income for federal income tax purposes, attributable to, derived from or in any way related to assets stolen from, hidden from, or otherwise lost to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime immediately prior to, during, and immediately after World War II, including, but not limited to, interest on the proceeds receivable as insurance under policies issued to a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime by European insurance companies immediately prior to and during World War II; provided, however, this subtraction from federal adjusted gross income does not apply to assets acquired with such assets or with the proceeds from the sale of such assets; provided, further, this paragraph shall only apply to a taxpayer who was the first recipient of such assets after their recovery and who is a victim of persecution for racial or religious reasons by Nazi Germany or any other Axis regime or as an heir of the victim. The amount of and the eligibility for any public assistance, benefit, or similar entitlement is not affected by the inclusion of items (i) and (ii) of this paragraph in gross income for federal income tax purposes. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(R) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(S) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (G-10), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (S) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(T) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(U) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-12) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (U) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(V) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(c)(2)(G-13) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same foreign person. This subparagraph (V) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(W) in the case of an estate, an amount equal to all amounts included in such total pursuant to the provisions of Section 111 of the Internal Revenue Code as a recovery of items previously deducted by the decedent from adjusted gross income in the computation of taxable income. This subparagraph (W) is exempt from Section 250;

(X) an amount equal to the refund included in such total of any tax deducted for federal income tax purposes, to the extent that deduction was added back under subparagraph (F). This subparagraph (X) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250; and

(Y) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(c)(2)(G-14), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (Y), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (Y). This subparagraph (Y) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(3) Limitation. The amount of any modification otherwise required under this subsection shall, under regulations prescribed by the Department, be adjusted by any amounts included therein which were properly paid, credited, or required to be distributed, or permanently set aside for charitable purposes pursuant to Internal Revenue Code Section 642(c) during the taxable year.

(d) Partnerships.

(1) In general. In the case of a partnership, base income means an amount equal to the taxpayer's taxable income for the taxable year as modified by paragraph (2).

(2) Modifications. The taxable income referred to in paragraph (1) shall be modified by adding thereto the sum of the following amounts:

(A) An amount equal to all amounts paid or accrued to the taxpayer as interest or dividends during the taxable year to the extent excluded from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(B) An amount equal to the amount of tax imposed by this Act to the extent deducted from gross income for the taxable year;

(C) The amount of deductions allowed to the partnership pursuant to Section 707 (c) of the Internal Revenue Code in calculating its taxable income;

(D) An amount equal to the amount of the capital gain deduction allowable under the Internal Revenue Code, to the extent deducted from gross income in the computation of taxable income;

(D-5) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, an amount equal to the bonus depreciation deduction taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(D-6) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to the aggregate amount of the deductions taken in all taxable years under subparagraph (O) with respect to that property.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was allowed in any taxable year to make a subtraction modification under subparagraph (O), then an amount equal to that subtraction modification.

The taxpayer is required to make the addition modification under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property;

(D-7) An amount equal to the amount otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of the foreign person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the interest was paid, accrued, or incurred.

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such interest; or

(ii) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person, during the same taxable year, paid, accrued, or incurred, the interest to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the interest expense between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects an arm's-length interest rate and terms; or

(iii) the taxpayer can establish, based on clear and convincing evidence, that the interest paid, accrued, or incurred relates to a contract or agreement entered into at arm's-length rates and terms and the principal purpose for the payment is not federal or Illinois tax avoidance; or

(iv) an item of interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f).

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act; and

(D-8) An amount equal to the amount of intangible expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, (i) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2004, to a foreign person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income pursuant to Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the intangible expenses and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred or accrued. The preceding sentence shall not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) of this Act. As used in this subparagraph, the term "intangible expenses and costs" includes (1) expenses, losses, and costs for, or related to, the direct or indirect acquisition, use, maintenance or management, ownership, sale, exchange, or any other disposition of intangible property; (2) losses incurred, directly or indirectly, from factoring transactions or discounting transactions; (3) royalty, patent, technical, and copyright fees; (4) licensing fees; and (5) other similar expenses and costs. For purposes of this subparagraph, "intangible property" includes patents, patent applications, trade names, trademarks, service marks, copyrights, mask works, trade secrets, and similar types of intangible assets;

This paragraph shall not apply to the following:

(i) any item of intangible expenses or costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person who is subject in a foreign country or state, other than a state which requires mandatory unitary reporting, to a tax on or measured by net income with respect to such item; or

(ii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, if the taxpayer can establish, based on a preponderance of the evidence, both of the following:

(a) the person during the same taxable year paid, accrued, or incurred, the intangible expense or cost to a person that is not a related member, and

(b) the transaction giving rise to the intangible expense or cost between the taxpayer and the person did not have as a principal purpose the avoidance of Illinois income tax, and is paid pursuant to a contract or agreement that reflects arm's-length terms; or

(iii) any item of intangible expense or cost paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, from a transaction with a person if the taxpayer establishes by clear and convincing evidence, that the adjustments are unreasonable; or if the taxpayer and the Director agree in writing to the application or use of an alternative method of apportionment under Section 304(f);

Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Director from making any other adjustment otherwise allowed under Section 404 of this Act for any tax year beginning after the effective date of this amendment provided such adjustment is made pursuant to regulation adopted by the Department and such regulations provide methods and standards by which the Department will utilize its authority under Section 404 of this Act;

(D-9) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, an amount equal to the amount of insurance premium expenses and costs otherwise allowed as a deduction in computing base income, and that were paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304. The addition modification required by this subparagraph shall be reduced to the extent that dividends were included in base income of the unitary group for the same taxable year and received by the taxpayer or by a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group (including amounts included in gross income under Sections 951 through 964 of the Internal Revenue Code and amounts included in gross income under Section 78 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the stock of the same person to whom the premiums and costs were directly or indirectly paid, incurred, or accrued. The preceding sentence does not apply to the extent that the same dividends caused a reduction to the addition modification required under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) or Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) of this Act;

(D-10) An amount equal to the credit allowable to the taxpayer under Section 218(a) of this Act, determined without regard to Section 218(c) of this Act;

(D-11) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2017, an amount equal to the deduction allowed under Section 199 of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year;

and by deducting from the total so obtained the following amounts:

(E) The valuation limitation amount;

(F) An amount equal to the amount of any tax imposed by this Act which was refunded to the taxpayer and included in such total for the taxable year;

(G) An amount equal to all amounts included in taxable income as modified by subparagraphs (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are exempt from taxation by this State either by reason of its statutes or Constitution or by reason of the Constitution, treaties or statutes of the United States; provided that, in the case of any statute of this State that exempts income derived from bonds or other obligations from the tax imposed under this Act, the amount exempted shall be the interest net of bond premium amortization;

(H) Any income of the partnership which constitutes personal service income as defined in Section 1348(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code (as in effect December 31, 1981) or a reasonable allowance for compensation paid or accrued for services rendered by partners to the partnership, whichever is greater; this subparagraph (H) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(I) An amount equal to all amounts of income distributable to an entity subject to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act including amounts distributable to organizations exempt from federal income tax by reason of Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code; this subparagraph (I) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(J) With the exception of any amounts subtracted under subparagraph (G), an amount equal to the sum of all amounts disallowed as deductions by (i) Sections 171(a)(2), and 265(a)(2) 265(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and all amounts of expenses allocable to interest and disallowed as deductions by Section 265(a)(1) 265(1) of the Internal Revenue Code; and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after August 13, 1999, Sections 171(a)(2), 265, 280C, and 832(b)(5)(B)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code, plus, (iii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, Section 45G(e)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, any amount included in gross income under Section 87 of the Internal Revenue Code; the provisions of this subparagraph are exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(K) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total which were paid by a corporation which conducts business operations in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones created under the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act and conducts substantially all of its operations from a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or zones. This subparagraph (K) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(L) An amount equal to any contribution made to a job training project established pursuant to the Real Property Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act;

(M) An amount equal to those dividends included in such total that were paid by a corporation that conducts business operations in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone and that is designated a High Impact Business located in Illinois; provided that dividends eligible for the deduction provided in subparagraph (K) of paragraph (2) of this subsection shall not be eligible for the deduction provided under this subparagraph (M);

(N) An amount equal to the amount of the deduction used to compute the federal income tax credit for restoration of substantial amounts held under claim of right for the taxable year pursuant to Section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(O) For taxable years 2001 and thereafter, for the taxable year in which the bonus depreciation deduction is taken on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and for each applicable taxable year thereafter, an amount equal to "x", where:

(1) "y" equals the amount of the depreciation deduction taken for the taxable year on the taxpayer's federal income tax return on property for which the bonus depreciation deduction was taken in any year under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, but not including the bonus depreciation deduction;

(2) for taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2005, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(3) for taxable years ending after December 31, 2005:

(i) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 30% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 30 and then divided by 70 (or "y" multiplied by 0.429); and

(ii) for property on which a bonus depreciation deduction of 50% of the adjusted basis was taken, "x" equals "y" multiplied by 1.0.

The aggregate amount deducted under this subparagraph in all taxable years for any one piece of property may not exceed the amount of the bonus depreciation deduction taken on that property on the taxpayer's federal income tax return under subsection (k) of Section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code. This subparagraph (O) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(P) If the taxpayer sells, transfers, abandons, or otherwise disposes of property for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

If the taxpayer continues to own property through the last day of the last tax year for which the taxpayer may claim a depreciation deduction for federal income tax purposes and for which the taxpayer was required in any taxable year to make an addition modification under subparagraph (D-5), then an amount equal to that addition modification.

The taxpayer is allowed to take the deduction under this subparagraph only once with respect to any one piece of property.

This subparagraph (P) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250;

(Q) The amount of (i) any interest income (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-17), 203(b)(2)(E-12), 203(c)(2)(G-12), or 203(d)(2)(D-7), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification and (ii) any income from intangible property (net of the deductions allocable thereto) taken into account for the taxable year with respect to a transaction with a taxpayer that is required to make an addition modification with respect to such transaction under Section 203(a)(2)(D-18), 203(b)(2)(E-13), 203(c)(2)(G-13), or 203(d)(2)(D-8), but not to exceed the amount of such addition modification. This subparagraph (Q) is exempt from Section 250;

(R) An amount equal to the interest income taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-7) for interest paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (R) is exempt from Section 250;

(S) An amount equal to the income from intangible property taken into account for the taxable year (net of the deductions allocable thereto) with respect to transactions with (i) a foreign person who would be a member of the taxpayer's unitary business group but for the fact that the foreign person's business activity outside the United States is 80% or more of that person's total business activity and (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2008, to a person who would be a member of the same unitary business group but for the fact that the person is prohibited under Section 1501(a)(27) from being included in the unitary business group because he or she is ordinarily required to apportion business income under different subsections of Section 304, but not to exceed the addition modification required to be made for the same taxable year under Section 203(d)(2)(D-8) for intangible expenses and costs paid, accrued, or incurred, directly or indirectly, to the same person. This subparagraph (S) is exempt from Section 250; and

(T) For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2011, in the case of a taxpayer who was required to add back any insurance premiums under Section 203(d)(2)(D-9), such taxpayer may elect to subtract that part of a reimbursement received from the insurance company equal to the amount of the expense or loss (including expenses incurred by the insurance company) that would have been taken into account as a deduction for federal income tax purposes if the expense or loss had been uninsured. If a taxpayer makes the election provided for by this subparagraph (T), the insurer to which the premiums were paid must add back to income the amount subtracted by the taxpayer pursuant to this subparagraph (T). This subparagraph (T) is exempt from the provisions of Section 250.

(e) Gross income; adjusted gross income; taxable income.

(1) In general. Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) and subsection (b)(3), for purposes of this Section and Section 803(e), a taxpayer's gross income, adjusted gross income, or taxable income for the taxable year shall mean the amount of gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. Taxable income may be less than zero. However, for taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1986, net operating loss carryforwards from taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, may not exceed the sum of federal taxable income for the taxable year before net operating loss deduction, plus the excess of addition modifications over subtraction modifications for the taxable year. For taxable years ending prior to December 31, 1986, taxable income may never be an amount in excess of the net operating loss for the taxable year as defined in subsections (c) and (d) of Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that when taxable income of a corporation (other than a Subchapter S corporation), trust, or estate is less than zero and addition modifications, other than those provided by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) for corporations or subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of subsection (c) for trusts and estates, exceed subtraction modifications, an addition modification must be made under those subparagraphs for any other taxable year to which the taxable income less than zero (net operating loss) is applied under Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code or under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (e) applied in conjunction with Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) Special rule. For purposes of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the taxable income properly reportable for federal income tax purposes shall mean:

(A) Certain life insurance companies. In the case of a life insurance company subject to the tax imposed by Section 801 of the Internal Revenue Code, life insurance company taxable income, plus the amount of distribution from pre-1984 policyholder surplus accounts as calculated under Section 815a of the Internal Revenue Code;

(B) Certain other insurance companies. In the case of mutual insurance companies subject to the tax imposed by Section 831 of the Internal Revenue Code, insurance company taxable income;

(C) Regulated investment companies. In the case of a regulated investment company subject to the tax imposed by Section 852 of the Internal Revenue Code, investment company taxable income;

(D) Real estate investment trusts. In the case of a real estate investment trust subject to the tax imposed by Section 857 of the Internal Revenue Code, real estate investment trust taxable income;

(E) Consolidated corporations. In the case of a corporation which is a member of an affiliated group of corporations filing a consolidated income tax return for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, taxable income determined as if such corporation had filed a separate return for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year and each preceding taxable year for which it was a member of an affiliated group. For purposes of this subparagraph, the taxpayer's separate taxable income shall be determined as if the election provided by Section 243(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code had been in effect for all such years;

(F) Cooperatives. In the case of a cooperative corporation or association, the taxable income of such organization determined in accordance with the provisions of Section 1381 through 1388 of the Internal Revenue Code, but without regard to the prohibition against offsetting losses from patronage activities against income from nonpatronage activities; except that a cooperative corporation or association may make an election to follow its federal income tax treatment of patronage losses and nonpatronage losses. In the event such election is made, such losses shall be computed and carried over in a manner consistent with subsection (a) of Section 207 of this Act and apportioned by the apportionment factor reported by the cooperative on its Illinois income tax return filed for the taxable year in which the losses are incurred. The election shall be effective for all taxable years with original returns due on or after the date of the election. In addition, the cooperative may file an amended return or returns, as allowed under this Act, to provide that the election shall be effective for losses incurred or carried forward for taxable years occurring prior to the date of the election. Once made, the election may only be revoked upon approval of the Director. The Department shall adopt rules setting forth requirements for documenting the elections and any resulting Illinois net loss and the standards to be used by the Director in evaluating requests to revoke elections. Public Act 96-932 is declaratory of existing law;

(G) Subchapter S corporations. In the case of: (i) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect an election for the taxable year under Section 1362 of the Internal Revenue Code, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with Section 1363(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 1363(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code to be separately stated; and (ii) a Subchapter S corporation for which there is in effect a federal election to opt out of the provisions of the Subchapter S Revision Act of 1982 and have applied instead the prior federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982, the taxable income of such corporation determined in accordance with the federal Subchapter S rules as in effect on July 1, 1982; and

(H) Partnerships. In the case of a partnership, taxable income determined in accordance with Section 703 of the Internal Revenue Code, except that taxable income shall take into account those items which are required by Section 703(a)(1) to be separately stated but which would be taken into account by an individual in calculating his taxable income.

(3) Recapture of business expenses on disposition of asset or business. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if in prior years income from an asset or business has been classified as business income and in a later year is demonstrated to be non-business income, then all expenses, without limitation, deducted in such later year and in the 2 immediately preceding taxable years related to that asset or business that generated the non-business income shall be added back and recaptured as business income in the year of the disposition of the asset or business. Such amount shall be apportioned to Illinois using the greater of the apportionment fraction computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year or the average of the apportionment fractions computed for the business under Section 304 of this Act for the taxable year and for the 2 immediately preceding taxable years.

(f) Valuation limitation amount.

(1) In general. The valuation limitation amount referred to in subsections (a)(2)(G), (c)(2)(I) and (d)(2)(E) is an amount equal to:

(A) The sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of gain reportable under the provisions of Section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for the taxable year; plus

(B) The lesser of (i) the sum of the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amounts (to the extent consisting of capital gain) for all property in respect of which such gain was reported for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or (ii) the net capital gain for the taxable year, reduced in either case by any amount of such gain included in the amount determined under subsection (a)(2)(F) or (c)(2)(H).

(2) Pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount.

(A) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is the lesser of (i) the excess of such fair market value over the taxpayer's basis (for determining gain) for such property on that date (determined under the Internal Revenue Code as in effect on that date), or (ii) the total gain realized and reportable for federal income tax purposes in respect of the sale, exchange or other disposition of such property.

(B) If the fair market value of property referred to in paragraph (1) was not readily ascertainable on August 1, 1969, the pre-August 1, 1969 appreciation amount for such property is that amount which bears the same ratio to the total gain reported in respect of the property for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, as the number of full calendar months in that part of the taxpayer's holding period for the property ending July 31, 1969 bears to the number of full calendar months in the taxpayer's entire holding period for the property.

(C) The Department shall prescribe such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.

(g) Double deductions. Unless specifically provided otherwise, nothing in this Section shall permit the same item to be deducted more than once.

(h) Legislative intention. Except as expressly provided by this Section there shall be no modifications or limitations on the amounts of income, gain, loss or deduction taken into account in determining gross income, adjusted gross income or taxable income for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, or in the amount of such items entering into the computation of base income and net income under this Act for such taxable year, whether in respect of property values as of August 1, 1969 or otherwise.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-905, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-29-18.)

(35 ILCS 5/220)

Sec. 220. Angel investment credit.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or a natural person that makes an investment in a qualified new business venture. The term "applicant" does not include (i) a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or a natural person who has a direct or indirect ownership interest of at least 51% in the profits, capital, or value of the qualified new business venture receiving the investment or (ii) a related member.

"Claimant" means an applicant certified by the Department who files a claim for a credit under this Section.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Investment" means money (or its equivalent) given to a qualified new business venture, at a risk of loss, in consideration for an equity interest of the qualified new business venture. The Department may adopt rules to permit certain forms of contingent equity investments to be considered eligible for a tax credit under this Section.

"Qualified new business venture" means a business that is registered with the Department under this Section.

"Related member" means a person that, with respect to the applicant, is any one of the following:

(1) An individual, if the individual and the members of the individual's family (as defined in Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code) own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the value of the outstanding profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the qualified new business venture that is the recipient of the applicant's investment.

(2) A partnership, estate, or trust and any partner or beneficiary, if the partnership, estate, or trust and its partners or beneficiaries own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the qualified new business venture that is the recipient of the applicant's investment.

(3) A corporation, and any party related to the corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the applicant and any other related member own, in the aggregate, directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, at least 50% of the value of the outstanding stock of the qualified new business venture that is the recipient of the applicant's investment.

(4) A corporation and any party related to that corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation to the party or from the party to the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the corporation and all such related parties own, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the qualified new business venture that is the recipient of the applicant's investment.

(5) A person to or from whom there is attribution of ownership of stock in the qualified new business venture that is the recipient of the applicant's investment in accordance with Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that for purposes of determining whether a person is a related member under this paragraph, "20%" shall be substituted for "5%" whenever "5%" appears in Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2010, and ending on or before December 31, 2021, subject to the limitations provided in this Section, a claimant may claim, as a credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, an amount equal to 25% of the claimant's investment made directly in a qualified new business venture. In order for an investment in a qualified new business venture to be eligible for tax credits, the business must have applied for and received certification under subsection (e) for the taxable year in which the investment was made prior to the date on which the investment was made. The credit under this Section may not exceed the taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for the taxable year. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one tax year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. In the case of a partnership or Subchapter S Corporation, the credit is allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) The minimum amount an applicant must invest in any single qualified new business venture in order to be eligible for a credit under this Section is $10,000. The maximum amount of an applicant's total investment made in any single qualified new business venture that may be used as the basis for a credit under this Section is $2,000,000.

(d) The Department shall implement a program to certify an applicant for an angel investment credit. Upon satisfactory review, the Department shall issue a tax credit certificate stating the amount of the tax credit to which the applicant is entitled. The Department shall annually certify that: (i) each qualified new business venture that receives an angel investment under this Section has maintained a minimum employment threshold, as defined by rule, in the State (and continues to maintain a minimum employment threshold in the State for a period of no less than 3 years from the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to such business pursuant to this Section); and (ii) the claimant's investment has been made and remains, except in the event of a qualifying liquidity event, in the qualified new business venture for no less than 3 years.

If an investment for which a claimant is allowed a credit under subsection (b) is held by the claimant for less than 3 years, other than as a result of a permitted sale of the investment to person who is not a related member, the claimant shall pay to the Department of Revenue, in the manner prescribed by the Department of Revenue, the aggregate amount of the disqualified credits that the claimant received related to the subject investment.

If the Department determines that a qualified new business venture failed to maintain a minimum employment threshold in the State through the date which is 3 years from the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to the subject business pursuant to this Section, the claimant or claimants shall pay to the Department of Revenue, in the manner prescribed by the Department of Revenue, the aggregate amount of the disqualified credits that claimant or claimants received related to investments in that business.

(e) The Department shall implement a program to register qualified new business ventures for purposes of this Section. A business desiring registration under this Section shall be required to submit a full and complete application to the Department. A submitted application shall be effective only for the taxable year in which it is submitted, and a business desiring registration under this Section shall be required to submit a separate application in and for each taxable year for which the business desires registration. Further, if at any time prior to the acceptance of an application for registration under this Section by the Department one or more events occurs which makes the information provided in that application materially false or incomplete (in whole or in part), the business shall promptly notify the Department of the same. Any failure of a business to promptly provide the foregoing information to the Department may, at the discretion of the Department, result in a revocation of a previously approved application for that business, or disqualification of the business from future registration under this Section, or both. The Department may register the business only if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) it has its principal place of business in this State;

(2) at least 51% of the employees employed by the business are employed in this State;

(3) the business has the potential for increasing jobs in this State, increasing capital investment in this State, or both, as determined by the Department, and either of the following apply:

(A) it is principally engaged in innovation in any of the following: manufacturing; biotechnology; nanotechnology; communications; agricultural sciences; clean energy creation or storage technology; processing or assembling products, including medical devices, pharmaceuticals, computer software, computer hardware, semiconductors, other innovative technology products, or other products that are produced using manufacturing methods that are enabled by applying proprietary technology; or providing services that are enabled by applying proprietary technology; or

(B) it is undertaking pre-commercialization activity related to proprietary technology that includes conducting research, developing a new product or business process, or developing a service that is principally reliant on applying proprietary technology;

(4) it is not principally engaged in real estate development, insurance, banking, lending, lobbying, political consulting, professional services provided by attorneys, accountants, business consultants, physicians, or health care consultants, wholesale or retail trade, leisure, hospitality, transportation, or construction, except construction of power production plants that derive energy from a renewable energy resource, as defined in Section 1 of the Illinois Power Agency Act;

(5) at the time it is first certified:

(A) it has fewer than 100 employees;

(B) it has been in operation in Illinois for not more than 10 consecutive years prior to the year of certification; and

(C) it has received not more than $10,000,000 in aggregate investments;

(5.1) it agrees to maintain a minimum employment threshold in the State of Illinois prior to the date which is 3 years from the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to that business pursuant to this Section;

(6) (blank); and

(7) it has received not more than $4,000,000 in investments that qualified for tax credits under this Section.

(f) The Department, in consultation with the Department of Revenue, shall adopt rules to administer this Section. The aggregate amount of the tax credits that may be claimed under this Section for investments made in qualified new business ventures shall be limited at $10,000,000 per calendar year, of which $500,000 shall be reserved for investments made in qualified new business ventures which are minority-owned businesses, women-owned female-owned businesses, or businesses owned by a person with a disability (as those terms are used and defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act), and an additional $500,000 shall be reserved for investments made in qualified new business ventures with their principal place of business in counties with a population of not more than 250,000. The foregoing annual allowable amounts shall be allocated by the Department, on a per calendar quarter basis and prior to the commencement of each calendar year, in such proportion as determined by the Department, provided that: (i) the amount initially allocated by the Department for any one calendar quarter shall not exceed 35% of the total allowable amount; (ii) any portion of the allocated allowable amount remaining unused as of the end of any of the first 3 calendar quarters of a given calendar year shall be rolled into, and added to, the total allocated amount for the next available calendar quarter; and (iii) the reservation of tax credits for investments in minority-owned businesses, women-owned businesses, businesses owned by a person with a disability, and in businesses in counties with a population of not more than 250,000 is limited to the first 3 calendar quarters of a given calendar year, after which they may be claimed by investors in any qualified new business venture.

(g) A claimant may not sell or otherwise transfer a credit awarded under this Section to another person.

(h) On or before March 1 of each year, the Department shall report to the Governor and to the General Assembly on the tax credit certificates awarded under this Section for the prior calendar year.

(1) This report must include, for each tax credit certificate awarded:

(A) the name of the claimant and the amount of credit awarded or allocated to that claimant;

(B) the name and address (including the county) of the qualified new business venture that received the investment giving rise to the credit, the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code applicable to that qualified new business venture, and the number of employees of the qualified new business venture; and

(C) the date of approval by the Department of each claimant's tax credit certificate.

(2) The report must also include:

(A) the total number of applicants and the total number of claimants, including the amount of each tax credit certificate awarded to a claimant under this Section in the prior calendar year;

(B) the total number of applications from businesses seeking registration under this Section, the total number of new qualified business ventures registered by the Department, and the aggregate amount of investment upon which tax credit certificates were issued in the prior calendar year; and

(C) the total amount of tax credit certificates sought by applicants, the amount of each tax credit certificate issued to a claimant, the aggregate amount of all tax credit certificates issued in the prior calendar year and the aggregate amount of tax credit certificates issued as authorized under this Section for all calendar years.

(i) For each business seeking registration under this Section after December 31, 2016, the Department shall require the business to include in its application the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code applicable to the business and the number of employees of the business at the time of application. Each business registered by the Department as a qualified new business venture that receives an investment giving rise to the issuance of a tax credit certificate pursuant to this Section shall, for each of the 3 years following the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to such business pursuant to this Section, report to the Department the following:

(1) the number of employees and the location at which those employees are employed, both as of the end of each year;

(2) the amount of additional new capital investment raised as of the end of each year, if any; and

(3) the terms of any liquidity event occurring during such year; for the purposes of this Section, a "liquidity event" means any event that would be considered an exit for an illiquid investment, including any event that allows the equity holders of the business (or any material portion thereof) to cash out some or all of their respective equity interests.

(Source: P.A. 100-328, eff. 1-1-18; 100-686, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-5-18.)

(35 ILCS 5/221)

Sec. 221. Rehabilitation costs; qualified historic properties; River Edge Redevelopment Zone.

(a) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, 2012 and begin prior to January 1, 2018, there shall be allowed a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act in an amount equal to 25% of qualified expenditures incurred by a qualified taxpayer during the taxable year in the restoration and preservation of a qualified historic structure located in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone pursuant to a qualified rehabilitation plan, provided that the total amount of such expenditures (i) must equal $5,000 or more and (ii) must exceed 50% of the purchase price of the property.

(a-1) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, 2018 and end prior to January 1, 2022, there shall be allowed a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act in an aggregate amount equal to 25% of qualified expenditures incurred by a qualified taxpayer in the restoration and preservation of a qualified historic structure located in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone pursuant to a qualified rehabilitation plan, provided that the total amount of such expenditures must (i) equal $5,000 or more and (ii) exceed the adjusted basis of the qualified historic structure on the first day the qualified rehabilitation plan begins. For any rehabilitation project, regardless of duration or number of phases, the project's compliance with the foregoing provisions (i) and (ii) shall be determined based on the aggregate amount of qualified expenditures for the entire project and may include expenditures incurred under subsection (a), this subsection, or both subsection (a) and this subsection. If the qualified rehabilitation plan spans multiple years, the aggregate credit for the entire project shall be allowed in the last taxable year, except for phased rehabilitation projects, which may receive credits upon completion of each phase. Before obtaining the first phased credit: (A) the total amount of such expenditures must meet the requirements of provisions (i) and (ii) of this subsection; (B) the rehabilitated portion of the qualified historic structure must be placed in service; and (C) the requirements of subsection (b) must be met.

(b) To obtain a tax credit pursuant to this Section, the taxpayer must apply with the Department of Natural Resources. The Department of Natural Resources shall determine the amount of eligible rehabilitation costs and expenses within 45 days of receipt of a complete application. The taxpayer must submit a certification of costs prepared by an independent certified public accountant that certifies (i) the project expenses, (ii) whether those expenses are qualified expenditures, and (iii) that the qualified expenditures exceed the adjusted basis of the qualified historic structure on the first day the qualified rehabilitation plan commenced. The Department of Natural Resources is authorized, but not required, to accept this certification of costs to determine the amount of qualified expenditures and the amount of the credit. The Department of Natural Resources shall provide guidance as to the minimum standards to be followed in the preparation of such certification. The Department of Natural Resources and the National Park Service shall determine whether the rehabilitation is consistent with the United States Secretary of the Interior's Standards for Rehabilitation.

(b-1) Upon completion of the project and approval of the complete application, the Department of Natural Resources shall issue a single certificate in the amount of the eligible credits equal to 25% of qualified expenditures incurred during the eligible taxable years, as defined in subsections (a) and (a-1), excepting any credits awarded under subsection (a) prior to January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-629) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and any phased credits issued prior to the eligible taxable year under subsection (a-1). At the time the certificate is issued, an issuance fee up to the maximum amount of 2% of the amount of the credits issued by the certificate may be collected from the applicant to administer the provisions of this Section. If collected, this issuance fee shall be deposited into the Historic Property Administrative Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury. Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Historic Property Administrative Fund shall be provided to the Department of Natural Resources as reimbursement Department of Natural Resources for the costs associated with administering this Section.

(c) The taxpayer must attach the certificate to the tax return on which the credits are to be claimed. The tax credit under this Section may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess credit may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year.

(c-1) Subject to appropriation, moneys in the Historic Property Administrative Fund shall be used, on a biennial basis beginning at the end of the second fiscal year after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-629) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, to hire a qualified third party to prepare a biennial report to assess the overall economic impact to the State from the qualified rehabilitation projects under this Section completed in that year and in previous years. The overall economic impact shall include at least: (1) the direct and indirect or induced economic impacts of completed projects; (2) temporary, permanent, and construction jobs created; (3) sales, income, and property tax generation before, during construction, and after completion; and (4) indirect neighborhood impact after completion. The report shall be submitted to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(c-2) The Department of Natural Resources may adopt rules to implement this Section in addition to the rules expressly authorized in this Section.

(d) As used in this Section, the following terms have the following meanings.

"Phased rehabilitation" means a project that is completed in phases, as defined under Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code and pursuant to National Park Service regulations at 36 C.F.R. 67.

"Placed in service" means the date when the property is placed in a condition or state of readiness and availability for a specifically assigned function as defined under Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code and federal Treasury Regulation Sections 1.46 and 1.48.

"Qualified expenditure" means all the costs and expenses defined as qualified rehabilitation expenditures under Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code that were incurred in connection with a qualified historic structure.

"Qualified historic structure" means a certified historic structure as defined under Section 47(c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code.

"Qualified rehabilitation plan" means a project that is approved by the Department of Natural Resources and the National Park Service as being consistent with the United States Secretary of the Interior's Standards for Rehabilitation.

"Qualified taxpayer" means the owner of the qualified historic structure or any other person who qualifies for the federal rehabilitation credit allowed by Section 47 of the federal Internal Revenue Code with respect to that qualified historic structure. Partners, shareholders of subchapter S corporations, and owners of limited liability companies (if the limited liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of federal and State income taxation) are entitled to a credit under this Section to be determined in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 703 and subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code, provided that credits granted to a partnership, a limited liability company taxed as a partnership, or other multiple owners of property shall be passed through to the partners, members, or owners respectively on a pro rata basis or pursuant to an executed agreement among the partners, members, or owners documenting any alternate distribution method.

(Source: P.A. 99-914, eff. 12-20-16; 100-236, eff. 8-18-17; 100-629, eff. 1-1-19; 100-695, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-18-18.)

(35 ILCS 5/226)

Sec. 226. Natural disaster credit.

(a) For taxable years that begin on or after January 1, 2017 and begin prior to January 1, 2019, each taxpayer who owns qualified real property located in a county in Illinois that was declared a State disaster area by the Governor due to flooding in 2017 or 2018 is entitled to a credit against the taxes imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act in an amount equal to the lesser of $750 or the deduction allowed (whether or not the taxpayer determines taxable income under subsection (b) of Section 63 of the Internal Revenue Code) with respect to the qualified property under Section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code, determined without regard to the limitations imposed under subsection (h) of that Section. The township assessor or, if the township assessor is unable, the chief county assessment officer of the county in which the property is located, shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer identifying the taxpayer's property as damaged as a result of the natural disaster. The certificate shall include the name and address of the property owner, as well as the property index number or permanent index number (PIN) of the damaged property. The taxpayer shall attach a copy of such certificate to the taxpayer's return for the taxable year for which the credit is allowed.

(b) In no event shall a credit under this Section reduce a taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability for the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The tax credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits for more than one year that are available to offset liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(c) If the taxpayer is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation, the credit shall be allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) A taxpayer is not entitled to the credit under this Section if the taxpayer receives a Natural Disaster Homestead Exemption under Section 15-173 of the Property Tax Code with respect to the qualified real property as a result of the natural disaster.

(e) The township assessor or, if the township assessor is unable to certify, the chief county assessment officer of the county in which the property is located, shall certify to the Department a listing of the properties located within the county that have been damaged as a result of the natural disaster (including the name and address of the property owner and the property index number or permanent index number (PIN) of each damage property).

(f) As used in this Section:

(1) "Qualified real property" means real property that is: (i) the taxpayer's principal residence or owned by a small business; (ii) damaged during the taxable year as a result of a disaster; and (iii) not used in a rental or leasing business.

(2) "Small business" has the meaning given to that term in Section 1-75 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(g) Nothing in this Act prohibits the disclosure of information by officials of a county or municipality involving reports of damaged property or the owners of damaged property if that disclosure is made to a township or county assessment official in connection with a credit obtained or sought under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-555, eff. 11-16-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-731, eff. 1-1-19; revised 8-30-18.)

(35 ILCS 5/227)

Sec. 227. Adoption credit.

(a) Beginning with tax years ending on or after December 31, 2018, in the case of an individual taxpayer there shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 in an amount equal to the amount of the federal adoption tax credit received pursuant to Section 23 of the Internal Revenue Code with respect to the adoption of a qualifying dependent child, subject to the limitations set forth in this subsection and subsection (b). The aggregate amount of qualified adoption expenses which may be taken into account under this Section for all taxable years with respect to the adoption of a qualifying dependent child by the taxpayer shall not exceed $2,000 ($1,000 in the case of a married individual filing a separate return). The credit under this Section shall be allowed: (i) in the case of any expense paid or incurred before the taxable year in which such adoption becomes final, for the taxable year following the taxable year during which such expense is paid or incurred, and (ii) in the case of an expense paid or incurred during or after the taxable year in which such adoption becomes final, for the taxable year in which such expense is paid or incurred. No credit shall be allowed under this Section for any expense to the extent that funds for such expense are received under any federal, State, or local program. For purposes of this Section, spouses filing a joint return shall be considered one taxpayer.

For a non-resident or part-year resident, the amount of the credit under this Section shall be in proportion to the amount of income attributable to this State.

(b) Increased credit amount for resident children. With respect to the adoption of an eligible child who is at least one year old and resides in Illinois at the time the expenses are paid or incurred, subsection (a) shall be applied by substituting $5,000 ($2,500 in the case of a married individual filing a separate return) for $2,000.

(c) In no event shall a credit under this Section reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the income tax liability for the applicable tax year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first.

(d) The term "qualified adoption expenses" shall have the same meaning as under Section 23(d) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18.)

(35 ILCS 5/228)

Sec. 228 227. Historic preservation credit. For tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2019 and ending on or before December 31, 2023, a taxpayer who qualifies for a credit under the Historic Preservation Tax Credit Act is entitled to a credit against the taxes imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act as provided in that Act. If the taxpayer is a partnership or Subchapter S corporation, the credit shall be allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. If the amount of any tax credit awarded under this Section exceeds the qualified taxpayer's income tax liability for the year in which the qualified rehabilitation plan was placed in service, the excess amount may be carried forward as provided in the Historic Preservation Tax Credit Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-629, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

(35 ILCS 5/901) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-901)

Sec. 901. Collection authority.

(a) In general. The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act. The Department shall collect certified past due child support amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (e), (f), (g), and (h) of this Section, money collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Local Government Distributive Fund. Beginning August 1, 1969, and continuing through June 30, 1994, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State treasury, to be known as the "Local Government Distributive Fund", an amount equal to 1/12 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1994, and continuing through June 30, 1995, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to 1/11 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1995 and continuing through January 31, 2011, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the net of (i) 1/10 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act during the preceding month (ii) minus, beginning July 1, 2003 and ending June 30, 2004, $6,666,666, and beginning July 1, 2004, zero. Beginning February 1, 2011, and continuing through January 31, 2015, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 6% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 5% individual income tax rate after 2010) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 6.86% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after 2010) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Beginning February 1, 2015 and continuing through July 31, 2017, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 8% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 3.75% individual income tax rate after 2014) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 9.14% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 5.25% corporate income tax rate after 2014) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Beginning August 1, 2017, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 6.06% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 4.95% individual income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 6.85% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Net revenue realized for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Education Assistance Fund, the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund, the Fund for the Advancement of Education, and the Commitment to Human Services Fund during the month minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23), those amounts required under this subsection (b) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Local Government Distributive Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Local Government Distributive Fund as the revenue is realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

For State fiscal year 2018 only, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues realized during State fiscal year 2018 shall be reduced by 10%.

For State fiscal year 2019 only, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues realized during State fiscal year 2019 shall be reduced by 5%.

(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 6% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999 through 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.1%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 8%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 11.7%. Upon the effective date of Public Act 93-839 (July 30, 2004), the Annual Percentage shall be 10% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.75%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 10%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.8%. For fiscal year 2019, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.7%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 18% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999, 2000, and 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 19%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 27%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 32%. Upon the effective date of Public Act 93-839 (July 30, 2004), the Annual Percentage shall be 24% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 20%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 13.4%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2019, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000 in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and (iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.

(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act and for making transfers pursuant to this subsection (d).

(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year 1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year; excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c) less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit.

(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund for the purpose of paying refunds upon the order of the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund. On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.

(f) Deposits into the Fund for the Advancement of Education. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Fund for the Advancement of Education:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (f) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(g) Deposits into the Commitment to Human Services Fund. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Commitment to Human Services Fund:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (g) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(h) Deposits into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. Beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department from the tax imposed by subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, net of deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund made from those cash receipts.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-621, eff. 7-20-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-8-19.)

Section 270. The Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 5-20 as follows:

(35 ILCS 10/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Application for a project to create and retain new jobs.

(a) Any Taxpayer proposing a project located or planned to be located in Illinois may request consideration for designation of its project, by formal written letter of request or by formal application to the Department, in which the Applicant states its intent to make at least a specified level of investment and intends to hire or retain a specified number of full-time employees at a designated location in Illinois. As circumstances require, the Department may require a formal application from an Applicant and a formal letter of request for assistance.

(b) In order to qualify for Credits under this Act, an Applicant's project must:

(1) if the Applicant has more than 100 employees, involve an investment of at least $2,500,000 in capital improvements to be placed in service within the State as a direct result of the project; if the Applicant has 100 or fewer employees, then there is no capital investment requirement;

(1.5) if the Applicant has more than 100 employees, employ a number of new employees in the State equal to the lesser of (A) 10% of the number of full-time employees employed by the applicant world-wide on the date the application is filed with the Department or (B) 50 New Employees; and, if the Applicant has 100 or fewer employees, employ a number of new employees in the State equal to the lesser of (A) 5% of the number of full-time employees employed by the applicant world-wide on the date the application is filed with the Department or (B) 50 New Employees; and

(2) (blank);

(3) (blank); and

(4) include an annual sexual harassment policy report as provided under Section 5-58.

(c) After receipt of an application, the Department may enter into an Agreement with the Applicant if the application is accepted in accordance with Section 5-25.

(Source: P.A. 100-511, eff. 9-18-17; 100-698, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-1-18.)

Section 275. The Film Production Services Tax Credit Act of 2008 is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(35 ILCS 16/45)

Sec. 45. Evaluation of tax credit program; reports to the General Assembly.

(a) The Department shall evaluate the tax credit program. The evaluation must include an assessment of the effectiveness of the program in creating and retaining new jobs in Illinois and of the revenue impact of the program, and may include a review of the practices and experiences of other states or nations with similar programs. Upon completion of this evaluation, the Department shall determine the overall success of the program, and may make a recommendation to extend, modify, or not extend the program based on this evaluation.

(b) At the end of each fiscal quarter, the Department must submit to the General Assembly a report that includes, without limitation, the following information:

(1) the economic impact of the tax credit program, including the number of jobs created and retained, including whether the job positions are entry level, management, talent-related, vendor-related, or production-related;

(2) the amount of film production spending brought to Illinois, including the amount of spending and type of Illinois vendors hired in connection with an accredited production; and

(3) an overall picture of whether the human infrastructure of the motion picture industry in Illinois reflects the geographical, racial and ethnic, gender, and income-level diversity of the State of Illinois.

(c) At the end of each fiscal year, the Department must submit to the General Assembly a report that includes the following information:

(1) an identification of each vendor that provided goods or services that were included in an accredited production's Illinois production spending, provided that the accredited production's Illinois production spending attributable to that vendor exceeds, in the aggregate, $10,000 or 10% of the accredited production's Illinois production spending, whichever is less;

(2) the amount paid to each identified vendor by the accredited production;

(3) for each identified vendor, a statement as to whether the vendor is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, as defined under Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, based on the best efforts of an accredited production; and

(4) a description of any steps taken by the Department to encourage accredited productions to use vendors who are a minority-owned business or a women-owned business.

(Source: P.A. 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; 100-603, eff. 7-13-18; revised 7-31-18.)

Section 280. The Historic Preservation Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 31/10)

Sec. 10. Allowable credit.

(a) To the extent authorized by this Act, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2019 and ending on or before December 31, 2023, there shall be allowed a tax credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act in an aggregate amount equal to 25% of qualified expenditures incurred by a qualified taxpayer undertaking a qualified rehabilitation plan of a qualified historic structure, provided that the total amount of such expenditures must (i) equal $5,000 or more or (ii) exceed the adjusted basis of the qualified historic structure on the first day the qualified rehabilitation plan commenced. If the qualified rehabilitation plan spans multiple years, the aggregate credit for the entire project shall be allowed in the last taxable year.

(b) To obtain a tax credit pursuant to this Section, the taxpayer must apply with the Division. The Division shall determine the amount of eligible rehabilitation expenditures within 45 days after receipt of a complete application. The taxpayer must provide to the Division a third-party cost certification conducted by a certified public accountant verifying (i) the qualified and non-qualified rehabilitation expenses and (ii) that the qualified expenditures exceed the adjusted basis of the qualified historic structure on the first day the qualified rehabilitation plan commenced. The accountant shall provide appropriate review and testing of invoices. The Division is authorized, but not required, to accept this third-party cost certification to determine the amount of qualified expenditures. The Division and the National Park Service shall determine whether the rehabilitation is consistent with the Standards of the Secretary of the United States Department of the Interior.

(c) If the amount of any tax credit awarded under this Act exceeds the qualified taxpayer's income tax liability for the year in which the qualified rehabilitation plan was placed in service, the excess amount may be carried forward for deduction from the taxpayer's income tax liability in the next succeeding year or years until the total amount of the credit has been used, except that a credit may not be carried forward for deduction after the tenth taxable year after the taxable year in which the qualified rehabilitation plan was placed in service. Upon completion and review of the project, the Division shall issue a single certificate in the amount of the eligible credits equal to 25% of the qualified expenditures incurred during the eligible taxable years. At the time the certificate is issued, an issuance fee up to the maximum amount of 2% of the amount of the credits issued by the certificate may be collected from the applicant to administer the Act. If collected, this issuance fee shall be directed to the Division Historic Property Administrative Fund or other such fund as appropriate for use of the Division in the administration of the Historic Preservation Tax Credit Program. The taxpayer must attach the certificate or legal documentation of her or his proportional share of the certificate to the tax return on which the credits are to be claimed. The tax credit under this Section may not reduce the taxpayer's liability to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess credit may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 10 taxable years following the excess credit year.

(d) If the taxpayer is (i) a corporation having an election in effect under Subchapter S of the federal Internal Revenue Code, (ii) a partnership, or (iii) a limited liability company, the credit provided under this Act may be claimed by the shareholders of the corporation, the partners of the partnership, or the members of the limited liability company in the same manner as those shareholders, partners, or members account for their proportionate shares of the income or losses of the corporation, partnership, or limited liability company, or as provided in the bylaws or other executed agreement of the corporation, partnership, or limited liability company. Credits granted to a partnership, a limited liability company taxed as a partnership, or other multiple owners of property shall be passed through to the partners, members, or owners respectively on a pro rata basis or pursuant to an executed agreement among the partners, members, or owners documenting any alternate distribution method.

(e) If a recapture event occurs during the recapture period with respect to a qualified historic structure, then for any taxable year in which the credits are allowed as specified in this Act, the tax under the applicable Section of this Act shall be increased by applying the recapture percentage set forth below to the tax decrease resulting from the application of credits allowed under this Act to the taxable year in question.

For the purposes of this subsection, the recapture percentage shall be determined as follows:

(1) if the recapture event occurs within the first year after commencement of the recapture period, then the recapture percentage is 100%;

(2) if the recapture event occurs within the second year after commencement of the recapture period, then the recapture percentage is 80%;

(3) if the recapture event occurs within the third year after commencement of the recapture period, then the recapture percentage is 60%;

(4) if the recapture event occurs within the fourth year after commencement of the recapture period, then the recapture percentage is 40%; and

(5) if the recapture event occurs within the fifth year after commencement of the recapture period, then the recapture percentage is 20%.

In the case of any recapture event, the carryforwards under this Act shall be adjusted by reason of such event.

(f) (d) The Division may adopt rules to implement this Section in addition to the rules expressly authorized herein.

(Source: P.A. 100-629, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-1-18.)

Section 285. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (18).

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Until July 1, 2023, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (6) of this Section.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227), personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(37) Beginning January 1, 2017, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(38) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(39) Tangible personal property purchased by a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-855, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-437, eff. 1-1-18; 100-594, eff. 6-29-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-8-19.)

Section 290. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2023, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item (14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly.

(15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property transferred incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(28) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2017, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(30) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-855, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-594, eff. 6-29-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-8-19.)

Section 295. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 3-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under Section 2 of this Act.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(12) Until July 1, 2023, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item (15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(24) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(25) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(28) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the transfer of qualifying tangible personal property incident to the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (29) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2017, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(31) Tangible personal property transferred to a purchaser who is exempt from tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-855, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-594, eff. 6-29-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-8-19.)

Section 300. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2-5 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (14).

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35), however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) (Blank).

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (14) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (4) of this Section.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Tangible personal property sold to a purchaser if the purchaser is exempt from use tax by operation of federal law. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Until July 1, 2023, coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(42) Beginning January 1, 2017, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(43) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-855, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-321, eff. 8-24-17; 100-437, eff. 1-1-18; 100-594, eff. 6-29-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-8-19.)

Section 305. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 10-745, 21-245, and 21-385 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/10-745)

Sec. 10-745. Real estate taxes. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 9-175 of this Code, the owner of the commercial solar energy system shall be liable for the real estate taxes for the land and real property improvements of a ground installed commercial solar energy system. Notwithstanding the foregoing forgoing, the owner of the land upon which a commercial solar energy system is installed may pay any unpaid tax of the commercial solar energy system parcel prior to the initiation of any tax sale proceedings.

(Source: P.A. 100-781, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-245)

Sec. 21-245. Automation fee. In all counties, each person purchasing any property at a sale under this Code, shall pay to the county collector, prior to the issuance of any tax certificate, an automation fee set by the county collector of not more than $10 for each item purchased. A like sum shall be paid for each year that all or a portion of the subsequent taxes are paid by a tax purchaser and posted to the tax judgment, sale, redemption and forfeiture record where the underlying certificate is recorded. In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants:

(a) The fee shall be paid at the time of the purchase if the record keeping system used for processing the delinquent property tax sales is automated or has been approved for automation by the county board. The fee shall be collected in the same manner as other fees or costs.

(b) Fees collected under this Section shall be retained by the county treasurer in a fund designated as the Tax Sale Automation Fund. The fund shall be audited by the county auditor. The county board, with the approval of the county treasurer, shall make expenditures from the fund (1) to pay any costs related to the automation of property tax collections and delinquent property tax sales, including the cost of hardware, software, research and development, and personnel and (2) to defray the cost of providing electronic access to property tax collection records and delinquent tax sale records.

(Source: P.A. 100-1070, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-385)

Sec. 21-385. Extension of period of redemption. The purchaser or his or her assignee of property sold for nonpayment of general taxes or special assessments may extend the period of redemption at any time before the expiration of the original period of redemption, or thereafter prior to the expiration of any extended period of redemption, for a period which will expire not later than 3 years from the date of sale, by filing with the county clerk of the county in which the property is located a written notice to that effect describing the property, stating the date of the sale and specifying the extended period of redemption. Upon receiving the notice, the county clerk shall stamp the date of receipt upon the notice. If the notice is submitted as an electronic record, the county clerk shall acknowledge receipt of the record and shall provide confirmation in the same manner to the certificate holder. The confirmation from the county clerk shall include the date of receipt and shall serve as proof that the notice was filed with the county clerk. The county clerk shall not be required to extend the period of redemption unless the purchaser or his or her assignee obtains this acknowledgement of delivery. If prior to the expiration of the period of redemption or extended period of redemption a petition for tax deed has been filed under Section 22-30, upon application of the petitioner, the court shall allow the purchaser or his or her assignee to extend the period of redemption after expiration of the original period or any extended period of redemption, provided that any extension allowed will expire not later than 3 years from the date of sale, unless the certificate has been assigned to the county collector by order of the court which ordered the property sold, in which case the period of redemption shall be extended for such period as may be designated by the holder of the certificate, such period not to exceed 36 months from the date of the assignment to the collector. If the period of redemption is extended, the purchaser or his or her assignee must give the notices provided for in Section 22-10 at the specified times prior to the expiration of the extended period of redemption by causing a sheriff (or if he or she is disqualified, a coroner) of the county in which the property, or any part thereof, is located to serve the notices as provided in Sections 22-15 and 22-20. The notices may also be served as provided in Sections 22-15 and 22-20 by a special process server appointed by the court under Section 22-15.

(Source: P.A. 100-890, eff. 1-1-19; 100-975, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-2-18.)

Section 310. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 1-162, 14-152.1, 15-107, 15-155, 15-198, 16-158, and 16-203 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/1-162)

Sec. 1-162. Optional benefits for certain Tier 2 members of pension funds under Articles 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, and 17.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Affected pension fund" means a pension fund established under Article 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, or 17 that the governing body of the unit of local government has designated as an affected pension fund by adoption of a resolution or ordinance.

"Resolution or ordinance date" means the date on which the governing body of the unit of local government designates a pension fund under Article 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, or 17 as an affected pension fund by adoption of a resolution or ordinance or July 1, 2018, whichever is later.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the provisions of this Section apply to a person who first becomes a member or a participant in an affected pension fund on or after 6 months after the resolution or ordinance date and who does not make the election under subsection (c).

(c) In lieu of the benefits provided under this Section, a member or participant may irrevocably elect the benefits under Section 1-160 and the benefits otherwise applicable to that member or participant. The election must be made within 30 days after becoming a member or participant. Each affected pension fund shall establish procedures for making this election.

(d) "Final average salary" means the average monthly (or annual) salary obtained by dividing the total salary or earnings calculated under the Article applicable to the member or participant during the last 120 months (or 10 years) of service in which the total salary or earnings calculated under the applicable Article was the highest by the number of months (or years) of service in that period. For the purposes of a person who first becomes a member or participant of an affected pension fund on or after 6 months after the ordinance or resolution date, in this Code, "final average salary" shall be substituted for the following:

(1) In Articles 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12, "highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal".

(2) In Article 17, "average salary".

(e) Beginning 6 months after the resolution or ordinance date, for all purposes under this Code (including without limitation the calculation of benefits and employee contributions), the annual earnings, salary, or wages (based on the plan year) of a member or participant to whom this Section applies shall not at any time exceed the federal Social Security Wage Base then in effect.

(f) A member or participant is entitled to a retirement annuity upon written application if he or she has attained the normal retirement age determined by the Social Security Administration for that member or participant's year of birth, but no earlier than 67 years of age, and has at least 10 years of service credit and is otherwise eligible under the requirements of the applicable Article.

(g) The amount of the retirement annuity to which a member or participant is entitled shall be computed by multiplying 1.25% for each year of service credit by his or her final average salary.

(h) Any retirement annuity or supplemental annuity shall be subject to annual increases on the first anniversary of the annuity start date. Each annual increase shall be one-half the annual unadjusted percentage increase (but not less than zero) in the consumer price index-w for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 of the originally granted retirement annuity. If the annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price index-w for the 12 months ending with the September preceding each November 1 is zero or there is a decrease, then the annuity shall not be increased.

For the purposes of this Section, "consumer price index-w" means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor that measures the average change in prices of goods and services purchased by Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 = 100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance and made available to the boards of the retirement systems and pension funds by November 1 of each year.

(i) The initial survivor's or widow's annuity of an otherwise eligible survivor or widow of a retired member or participant who first became a member or participant on or after 6 months after the resolution or ordinance date shall be in the amount of 66 2/3% of the retired member's or participant's retirement annuity at the date of death. In the case of the death of a member or participant who has not retired and who first became a member or participant on or after 6 months after the resolution or ordinance date, eligibility for a survivor's or widow's annuity shall be determined by the applicable Article of this Code. The benefit shall be 66 2/3% of the earned annuity without a reduction due to age. A child's annuity of an otherwise eligible child shall be in the amount prescribed under each Article if applicable.

(j) In lieu of any other employee contributions, except for the contribution to the defined contribution plan under subsection (k) of this Section, each employee shall contribute 6.2% of his or her or salary to the affected pension fund. However, the employee contribution under this subsection shall not exceed the amount of the normal cost of the benefits under this Section (except for the defined contribution plan under subsection (k) of this Section), expressed as a percentage of payroll and determined on or before November 1 of each year by the board of trustees of the affected pension fund. If the board of trustees of the affected pension fund determines that the 6.2% employee contribution rate exceeds the normal cost of the benefits under this Section (except for the defined contribution plan under subsection (k) of this Section), then on or before December 1 of that year, the board of trustees shall certify the amount of the normal cost of the benefits under this Section (except for the defined contribution plan under subsection (k) of this Section), expressed as a percentage of payroll, to the State Actuary and the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability, and the employee contribution under this subsection shall be reduced to that amount beginning January 1 of the following year. Thereafter, if the normal cost of the benefits under this Section (except for the defined contribution plan under subsection (k) of this Section), expressed as a percentage of payroll and determined on or before November 1 of each year by the board of trustees of the affected pension fund, exceeds 6.2% of salary, then on or before December 1 of that year, the board of trustees shall certify the normal cost to the State Actuary and the Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability, and the employee contributions shall revert back to 6.2% of salary beginning January 1 of the following year.

(k) No later than 5 months after the resolution or ordinance date, an affected pension fund shall prepare and implement a defined contribution plan for members or participants who are subject to this Section. The defined contribution plan developed under this subsection shall be a plan that aggregates employer and employee contributions in individual participant accounts which, after meeting any other requirements, are used for payouts after retirement in accordance with this subsection and any other applicable laws.

(1) Each member or participant shall contribute a minimum of 4% of his or her salary to the defined contribution plan.

(2) For each participant in the defined contribution plan who has been employed with the same employer for at least one year, employer contributions shall be paid into that participant's accounts at a rate expressed as a percentage of salary. This rate may be set for individual employees, but shall be no higher than 6% of salary and shall be no lower than 2% of salary.

(3) Employer contributions shall vest when those contributions are paid into a member's or participant's account.

(4) The defined contribution plan shall provide a variety of options for investments. These options shall include investments handled by the Illinois State Board of Investment as well as private sector investment options.

(5) The defined contribution plan shall provide a variety of options for payouts to retirees and their survivors.

(6) To the extent authorized under federal law and as authorized by the affected pension fund, the defined contribution plan shall allow former participants in the plan to transfer or roll over employee and employer contributions, and the earnings thereon, into other qualified retirement plans.

(7) Each affected pension fund shall reduce the employee contributions credited to the member's defined contribution plan account by an amount determined by that affected pension fund to cover the cost of offering the benefits under this subsection and any applicable administrative fees.

(8) No person shall begin participating in the defined contribution plan until it has attained qualified plan status and received all necessary approvals from the U.S. Internal Revenue Service.

(l) In the case of a conflict between the provisions of this Section and any other provision of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall control.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 9-27-18.)

(40 ILCS 5/14-152.1)

Sec. 14-152.1. Application and expiration of new benefit increases.

(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment to this Code that takes effect after June 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-4). "New benefit increase", however, does not include any benefit increase resulting from the changes made to Article 1 or this Article by Public Act 96-37, Public Act 100-23, Public Act 100-587, or Public Act 100-611 or this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be granted only in conformance with and contingent upon compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must identify and provide for payment to the System of additional funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual increase in cost to the System as it accrues.

Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General Assembly providing the additional funding required under this subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. A new benefit increase created by a Public Act that does not include the additional funding required under this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension Division determines that the additional funding provided for a new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.

(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase by law.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any other person, including without limitation a person who continues in service after the expiration date and did not apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-611, eff. 7-20-18; revised 7-25-18.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-107) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-107)

Sec. 15-107. Employee.

(a) "Employee" means any member of the educational, administrative, secretarial, clerical, mechanical, labor or other staff of an employer whose employment is permanent and continuous or who is employed in a position in which services are expected to be rendered on a continuous basis for at least 4 months or one academic term, whichever is less, who (A) receives payment for personal services on a warrant issued pursuant to a payroll voucher certified by an employer and drawn by the State Comptroller upon the State Treasurer or by an employer upon trust, federal or other funds, or (B) is on a leave of absence without pay. Employment which is irregular, intermittent or temporary shall not be considered continuous for purposes of this paragraph.

However, a person is not an "employee" if he or she:

(1) is a student enrolled in and regularly attending classes in a college or university which is an employer, and is employed on a temporary basis at less than full time;

(2) is currently receiving a retirement annuity or a disability retirement annuity under Section 15-153.2 from this System;

(3) is on a military leave of absence;

(4) is eligible to participate in the Federal Civil Service Retirement System and is currently making contributions to that system based upon earnings paid by an employer;

(5) is on leave of absence without pay for more than 60 days immediately following termination of disability benefits under this Article;

(6) is hired after June 30, 1979 as a public service employment program participant under the Federal Comprehensive Employment and Training Act and receives earnings in whole or in part from funds provided under that Act; or

(7) is employed on or after July 1, 1991 to perform services that are excluded by subdivision (a)(7)(f) or (a)(19) of Section 210 of the federal Social Security Act from the definition of employment given in that Section (42 U.S.C. 410).

(b) Any employer may, by filing a written notice with the board, exclude from the definition of "employee" all persons employed pursuant to a federally funded contract entered into after July 1, 1982 with a federal military department in a program providing training in military courses to federal military personnel on a military site owned by the United States Government, if this exclusion is not prohibited by the federally funded contract or federal laws or rules governing the administration of the contract.

(c) Any person appointed by the Governor under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois the State is an employee, if he or she is a participant in this system on the effective date of the appointment.

(d) A participant on lay-off status under civil service rules is considered an employee for not more than 120 days from the date of the lay-off.

(e) A participant is considered an employee during (1) the first 60 days of disability leave, (2) the period, not to exceed one year, in which his or her eligibility for disability benefits is being considered by the board or reviewed by the courts, and (3) the period he or she receives disability benefits under the provisions of Section 15-152, workers' compensation or occupational disease benefits, or disability income under an insurance contract financed wholly or partially by the employer.

(f) Absences without pay, other than formal leaves of absence, of less than 30 calendar days, are not considered as an interruption of a person's status as an employee. If such absences during any period of 12 months exceed 30 work days, the employee status of the person is considered as interrupted as of the 31st work day.

(g) A staff member whose employment contract requires services during an academic term is to be considered an employee during the summer and other vacation periods, unless he or she declines an employment contract for the succeeding academic term or his or her employment status is otherwise terminated, and he or she receives no earnings during these periods.

(h) An individual who was a participating employee employed in the fire department of the University of Illinois's Champaign-Urbana campus immediately prior to the elimination of that fire department and who immediately after the elimination of that fire department became employed by the fire department of the City of Urbana or the City of Champaign shall continue to be considered as an employee for purposes of this Article for so long as the individual remains employed as a firefighter by the City of Urbana or the City of Champaign. The individual shall cease to be considered an employee under this subsection (h) upon the first termination of the individual's employment as a firefighter by the City of Urbana or the City of Champaign.

(i) An individual who is employed on a full-time basis as an officer or employee of a statewide teacher organization that serves System participants or an officer of a national teacher organization that serves System participants may participate in the System and shall be deemed an employee, provided that (1) the individual has previously earned creditable service under this Article, (2) the individual files with the System an irrevocable election to become a participant before January 5, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-651) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, (3) the individual does not receive credit for that employment under any other Article of this Code, and (4) the individual first became a full-time employee of the teacher organization and becomes a participant before January 5, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-651) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly. An employee under this subsection (i) is responsible for paying to the System both (A) employee contributions based on the actual compensation received for service with the teacher organization and (B) employer contributions equal to the normal costs (as defined in Section 15-155) resulting from that service; all or any part of these contributions may be paid on the employee's behalf or picked up for tax purposes (if authorized under federal law) by the teacher organization.

A person who is an employee as defined in this subsection (i) may establish service credit for similar employment prior to becoming an employee under this subsection by paying to the System for that employment the contributions specified in this subsection, plus interest at the effective rate from the date of service to the date of payment. However, credit shall not be granted under this subsection for any such prior employment for which the applicant received credit under any other provision of this Code, or during which the applicant was on a leave of absence under Section 15-113.2.

(j) A person employed by the State Board of Higher Education in a position with the Illinois Century Network as of June 30, 2004 shall be considered to be an employee for so long as he or she remains continuously employed after that date by the Department of Central Management Services in a position with the Illinois Century Network, the Bureau of Communication and Computer Services, or, if applicable, any successor bureau and meets the requirements of subsection (a).

(k) The Board shall promulgate rules with respect to determining whether any person is an employee within the meaning of this Section. In the case of doubt as to whether any person is an employee within the meaning of this Section or any rule adopted by the Board, the decision of the Board shall be final.

(Source: P.A. 99-830, eff. 1-1-17; 99-897, eff. 1-1-17; revised 9-27-18.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-155) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 15-155)

Sec. 15-155. Employer contributions.

(a) The State of Illinois shall make contributions by appropriations of amounts which, together with the other employer contributions from trust, federal, and other funds, employee contributions, income from investments, and other income of this System, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (a-1).

(a-1) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For each of State fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the State shall make an additional contribution to the System equal to 2% of the total payroll of each employee who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (c) of Section 1-161.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applies in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter shall be implemented in equal annual amounts over a 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applies to the required State contribution.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applied to the State contribution in fiscal year 2014, 2015, 2016, or 2017 shall be implemented:

(i) as already applied in State fiscal years before 2018; and

(ii) in the portion of the 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applied that occurs in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter, by calculating the change in equal annual amounts over that 5-year period and then implementing it at the resulting annual rate in each of the remaining fiscal years in that 5-year period.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $166,641,900.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $252,064,100.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $702,514,000 and shall be made from the State Pensions Fund and proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2010, (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to Section 15-165 and shall be made from the State Pensions Fund and proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the General Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under Section 15-165, shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(a-2) Beginning in fiscal year 2018, each employer under this Article shall pay to the System a required contribution determined as a percentage of projected payroll and sufficient to produce an annual amount equal to:

(i) for each of fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (c) of Section 1-161; for fiscal year 2021 and each fiscal year thereafter, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, plus 2%, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (c) of Section 1-161; plus

(ii) the amount required for that fiscal year to amortize any unfunded actuarial accrued liability associated with the present value of liabilities attributable to the employer's account under Section 15-155.2, determined as a level percentage of payroll over a 30-year rolling amortization period.

In determining contributions required under item (i) of this subsection, the System shall determine an aggregate rate for all employers, expressed as a percentage of projected payroll.

In determining the contributions required under item (ii) of this subsection, the amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation.

The contributions required under this subsection (a-2) shall be paid by an employer concurrently with that employer's payroll payment period. The State, as the actual employer of an employee, shall make the required contributions under this subsection.

As used in this subsection, "academic year" means the 12-month period beginning September 1.

(b) If an employee is paid from trust or federal funds, the employer shall pay to the Board contributions from those funds which are sufficient to cover the accruing normal costs on behalf of the employee. However, universities having employees who are compensated out of local auxiliary funds, income funds, or service enterprise funds are not required to pay such contributions on behalf of those employees. The local auxiliary funds, income funds, and service enterprise funds of universities shall not be considered trust funds for the purpose of this Article, but funds of alumni associations, foundations, and athletic associations which are affiliated with the universities included as employers under this Article and other employers which do not receive State appropriations are considered to be trust funds for the purpose of this Article.

(b-1) The City of Urbana and the City of Champaign shall each make employer contributions to this System for their respective firefighter employees who participate in this System pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 15-107. The rate of contributions to be made by those municipalities shall be determined annually by the Board on the basis of the actuarial assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, and shall be expressed as a percentage of salary for each such employee. The Board shall certify the rate to the affected municipalities as soon as may be practical. The employer contributions required under this subsection shall be remitted by the municipality to the System at the same time and in the same manner as employee contributions.

(c) Through State fiscal year 1995: The total employer contribution shall be apportioned among the various funds of the State and other employers, whether trust, federal, or other funds, in accordance with actuarial procedures approved by the Board. State of Illinois contributions for employers receiving State appropriations for personal services shall be payable from appropriations made to the employers or to the System. The contributions for Class I community colleges covering earnings other than those paid from trust and federal funds, shall be payable solely from appropriations to the Illinois Community College Board or the System for employer contributions.

(d) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, the required State contributions to the System shall be appropriated directly to the System and shall be payable through vouchers issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 15-165, except as provided in subsection (g).

(e) The State Comptroller shall draw warrants payable to the System upon proper certification by the System or by the employer in accordance with the appropriation laws and this Code.

(f) Normal costs under this Section means liability for pensions and other benefits which accrues to the System because of the credits earned for service rendered by the participants during the fiscal year and expenses of administering the System, but shall not include the principal of or any redemption premium or interest on any bonds issued by the Board or any expenses incurred or deposits required in connection therewith.

(g) For academic years beginning on or after June 1, 2005 and before July 1, 2018 and for earnings paid to a participant under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed before June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, if the amount of a participant's earnings for any academic year used to determine the final rate of earnings, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, exceeds the amount of his or her earnings with the same employer for the previous academic year, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, by more than 6%, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in earnings that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (g), the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (h) or (i) of this Section or that subsection (g-1) applies, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of that subsection. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (g) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

When assessing payment for any amount due under this subsection (g), the System shall include earnings, to the extent not established by a participant under Section 15-113.11 or 15-113.12, that would have been paid to the participant had the participant not taken (i) periods of voluntary or involuntary furlough occurring on or after July 1, 2015 and on or before June 30, 2017 or (ii) periods of voluntary pay reduction in lieu of furlough occurring on or after July 1, 2015 and on or before June 30, 2017. Determining earnings that would have been paid to a participant had the participant not taken periods of voluntary or involuntary furlough or periods of voluntary pay reduction shall be the responsibility of the employer, and shall be reported in a manner prescribed by the System.

This subsection (g) does not apply to (1) Tier 2 hybrid plan members and (2) Tier 2 defined benefit members who first participate under this Article on or after the implementation date of the Optional Hybrid Plan.

(g-1) For academic years beginning on or after July 1, 2018 and for earnings paid to a participant under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, if the amount of a participant's earnings for any academic year used to determine the final rate of earnings, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, exceeds the amount of his or her earnings with the same employer for the previous academic year, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, by more than 3%, then the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in earnings that is in excess of 3%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (g-1), the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that subsection (g) of this Section applies, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of subsection (g). Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (g-1) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest shall be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

This subsection (g-1) does not apply to (1) Tier 2 hybrid plan members and (2) Tier 2 defined benefit members who first participate under this Article on or after the implementation date of the Optional Hybrid Plan.

(h) This subsection (h) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to participants under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases paid to a participant at a time when the participant is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 15-135.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude earnings increases resulting from overload work, including a contract for summer teaching, or overtime when the employer has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that: (i) in the case of overloads (A) the overload work is for the sole purpose of academic instruction in excess of the standard number of instruction hours for a full-time employee occurring during the academic year that the overload is paid and (B) the earnings increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for academic instruction computed using the participant's current salary rate and work schedule; and (ii) in the case of overtime, the overtime was necessary for the educational mission.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any earnings increase resulting from (i) a promotion for which the employee moves from one classification to a higher classification under the State Universities Civil Service System, (ii) a promotion in academic rank for a tenured or tenure-track faculty position, or (iii) a promotion that the Illinois Community College Board has recommended in accordance with subsection (k) of this Section. These earnings increases shall be excluded only if the promotion is to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the earnings increase as a result of the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the average salary paid for other similar positions.

(i) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (h) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (g) of this Section.

(j) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(j-5) For State fiscal years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, if the amount of a participant's earnings for any State fiscal year exceeds the amount of the salary set by law for the Governor that is in effect on July 1 of that fiscal year, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, an amount determined by the System to be equal to the employer normal cost, as established by the System and expressed as a total percentage of payroll, multiplied by the amount of earnings in excess of the amount of the salary set by law for the Governor. This amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculation used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after issuance of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after issuance of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after issuance of the bill. All payments must be received within 3 years after issuance of the bill. If the employer fails to make complete payment, including applicable interest, within 3 years, then the System may, after giving notice to the employer, certify the delinquent amount to the State Comptroller, and the Comptroller shall thereupon deduct the certified delinquent amount from State funds payable to the employer and pay them instead to the System.

This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a participant's earnings to the extent an employer pays the employer normal cost of such earnings.

The changes made to this subsection (j-5) by Public Act 100-624 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly are intended to apply retroactively to July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23).

(k) The Illinois Community College Board shall adopt rules for recommending lists of promotional positions submitted to the Board by community colleges and for reviewing the promotional lists on an annual basis. When recommending promotional lists, the Board shall consider the similarity of the positions submitted to those positions recognized for State universities by the State Universities Civil Service System. The Illinois Community College Board shall file a copy of its findings with the System. The System shall consider the findings of the Illinois Community College Board when making determinations under this Section. The System shall not exclude any earnings increases resulting from a promotion when the promotion was not submitted by a community college. Nothing in this subsection (k) shall require any community college to submit any information to the Community College Board.

(l) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(m) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 99-897, eff. 1-1-17; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-624, eff. 7-20-18; revised 7-30-18.)

(40 ILCS 5/15-198)

Sec. 15-198. Application and expiration of new benefit increases.

(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment to this Code that takes effect after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly. "New benefit increase", however, does not include any benefit increase resulting from the changes made to Article 1 or this Article by Public Act 100-23, Public Act 100-587, or Public Act 100-769 or this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be granted only in conformance with and contingent upon compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must identify and provide for payment to the System of additional funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual increase in cost to the System as it accrues.

Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General Assembly providing the additional funding required under this subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. A new benefit increase created by a Public Act that does not include the additional funding required under this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension Division determines that the additional funding provided for a new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.

(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase by law.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any other person, including without limitation a person who continues in service after the expiration date and did not apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-769, eff. 8-10-18; revised 9-26-18.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-158) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-158)

Sec. 16-158. Contributions by State and other employing units.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by means of appropriations from the Common School Fund and other State funds of amounts which, together with other employer contributions, employee contributions, investment income, and other income, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (b-3).

(a-1) Annually, on or before November 15 until November 15, 2011, the Board shall certify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution for the coming fiscal year. The certification under this subsection (a-1) shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based and shall specifically identify the System's projected State normal cost for that fiscal year.

On or before May 1, 2004, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2005, taking into account the amounts appropriated to and received by the System under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

On or before July 1, 2005, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 94-4.

On or before April 1, 2011, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2011, applying the changes made by Public Act 96-889 to the System's assets and liabilities as of June 30, 2009 as though Public Act 96-889 was approved on that date.

(a-5) On or before November 1 of each year, beginning November 1, 2012, the Board shall submit to the State Actuary, the Governor, and the General Assembly a proposed certification of the amount of the required State contribution to the System for the next fiscal year, along with all of the actuarial assumptions, calculations, and data upon which that proposed certification is based. On or before January 1 of each year, beginning January 1, 2013, the State Actuary shall issue a preliminary report concerning the proposed certification and identifying, if necessary, recommended changes in actuarial assumptions that the Board must consider before finalizing its certification of the required State contributions. On or before January 15, 2013 and each January 15 thereafter, the Board shall certify to the Governor and the General Assembly the amount of the required State contribution for the next fiscal year. The Board's certification must note any deviations from the State Actuary's recommended changes, the reason or reasons for not following the State Actuary's recommended changes, and the fiscal impact of not following the State Actuary's recommended changes on the required State contribution.

(a-10) By November 1, 2017, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the State Actuary, the Governor, and the General Assembly the amount of the State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2018, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 100-23. The State Actuary shall review the assumptions and valuations underlying the Board's revised certification and issue a preliminary report concerning the proposed recertification and identifying, if necessary, recommended changes in actuarial assumptions that the Board must consider before finalizing its certification of the required State contributions. The Board's final certification must note any deviations from the State Actuary's recommended changes, the reason or reasons for not following the State Actuary's recommended changes, and the fiscal impact of not following the State Actuary's recommended changes on the required State contribution.

(a-15) On or after June 15, 2019, but no later than June 30, 2019, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor and the General Assembly the amount of the State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2019, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 100-587 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. The recalculation shall be made using assumptions adopted by the Board for the original fiscal year 2019 certification. The monthly voucher for the 12th month of fiscal year 2019 shall be paid by the Comptroller after the recertification required pursuant to this subsection is submitted to the Governor, Comptroller, and General Assembly. The recertification submitted to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(b) Through State fiscal year 1995, the State contributions shall be paid to the System in accordance with Section 18-7 of the School Code.

(b-1) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, on the 15th day of each month, or as soon thereafter as may be practicable, the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the required annual State contribution certified under subsection (a-1). From March 5, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-665) through June 30, 2004, the Board shall not submit vouchers for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 in excess of the fiscal year 2004 certified contribution amount determined under this Section after taking into consideration the transfer to the System under subsection (a) of Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. These vouchers shall be paid by the State Comptroller and Treasurer by warrants drawn on the funds appropriated to the System for that fiscal year.

If in any month the amount remaining unexpended from all other appropriations to the System for the applicable fiscal year (including the appropriations to the System under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act) is less than the amount lawfully vouchered under this subsection, the difference shall be paid from the Common School Fund under the continuing appropriation authority provided in Section 1.1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act.

(b-2) Allocations from the Common School Fund apportioned to school districts not coming under this System shall not be diminished or affected by the provisions of this Article.

(b-3) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For each of State fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the State shall make an additional contribution to the System equal to 2% of the total payroll of each employee who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (c) of Section 1-161.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applies in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter shall be implemented in equal annual amounts over a 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applies to the required State contribution.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applied to the State contribution in fiscal year 2014, 2015, 2016, or 2017 shall be implemented:

(i) as already applied in State fiscal years before 2018; and

(ii) in the portion of the 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applied that occurs in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter, by calculating the change in equal annual amounts over that 5-year period and then implementing it at the resulting annual rate in each of the remaining fiscal years in that 5-year period.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section; except that in the following specified State fiscal years, the State contribution to the System shall not be less than the following indicated percentages of the applicable employee payroll, even if the indicated percentage will produce a State contribution in excess of the amount otherwise required under this subsection and subsection (a), and notwithstanding any contrary certification made under subsection (a-1) before May 27, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-582): 10.02% in FY 1999; 10.77% in FY 2000; 11.47% in FY 2001; 12.16% in FY 2002; 12.86% in FY 2003; and 13.56% in FY 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $534,627,700.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $738,014,500.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $2,089,268,000 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable. This amount shall include, in addition to the amount certified by the System, an amount necessary to meet employer contributions required by the State as an employer under paragraph (e) of this Section, which may also be used by the System for contributions required by paragraph (a) of Section 16-127.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under subsection (a-1), shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(b-4) Beginning in fiscal year 2018, each employer under this Article shall pay to the System a required contribution determined as a percentage of projected payroll and sufficient to produce an annual amount equal to:

(i) for each of fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (b) of Section 1-161; for fiscal year 2021 and each fiscal year thereafter, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, plus 2%, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (b) of Section 1-161; plus

(ii) the amount required for that fiscal year to amortize any unfunded actuarial accrued liability associated with the present value of liabilities attributable to the employer's account under Section 16-158.3, determined as a level percentage of payroll over a 30-year rolling amortization period.

In determining contributions required under item (i) of this subsection, the System shall determine an aggregate rate for all employers, expressed as a percentage of projected payroll.

In determining the contributions required under item (ii) of this subsection, the amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation.

The contributions required under this subsection (b-4) shall be paid by an employer concurrently with that employer's payroll payment period. The State, as the actual employer of an employee, shall make the required contributions under this subsection.

(c) Payment of the required State contributions and of all pensions, retirement annuities, death benefits, refunds, and other benefits granted under or assumed by this System, and all expenses in connection with the administration and operation thereof, are obligations of the State.

If members are paid from special trust or federal funds which are administered by the employing unit, whether school district or other unit, the employing unit shall pay to the System from such funds the full accruing retirement costs based upon that service, which, beginning July 1, 2017, shall be at a rate, expressed as a percentage of salary, equal to the total employer's normal cost, expressed as a percentage of payroll, as determined by the System. Employer contributions, based on salary paid to members from federal funds, may be forwarded by the distributing agency of the State of Illinois to the System prior to allocation, in an amount determined in accordance with guidelines established by such agency and the System. Any contribution for fiscal year 2015 collected as a result of the change made by Public Act 98-674 shall be considered a State contribution under subsection (b-3) of this Section.

(d) Effective July 1, 1986, any employer of a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 shall pay the employer's normal cost of benefits based upon the teacher's service, in addition to employee contributions, as determined by the System. Such employer contributions shall be forwarded monthly in accordance with guidelines established by the System.

However, with respect to benefits granted under Section 16-133.4 or 16-133.5 to a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106, the employer's contribution shall be 12% (rather than 20%) of the member's highest annual salary rate for each year of creditable service granted, and the employer shall also pay the required employee contribution on behalf of the teacher. For the purposes of Sections 16-133.4 and 16-133.5, a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 who is serving in that capacity while on leave of absence from another employer under this Article shall not be considered an employee of the employer from which the teacher is on leave.

(e) Beginning July 1, 1998, every employer of a teacher shall pay to the System an employer contribution computed as follows:

(1) Beginning July 1, 1998 through June 30, 1999, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.3% of each teacher's salary.

(2) Beginning July 1, 1999 and thereafter, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.58% of each teacher's salary.

The school district or other employing unit may pay these employer contributions out of any source of funding available for that purpose and shall forward the contributions to the System on the schedule established for the payment of member contributions.

These employer contributions are intended to offset a portion of the cost to the System of the increases in retirement benefits resulting from Public Act 90-582.

Each employer of teachers is entitled to a credit against the contributions required under this subsection (e) with respect to salaries paid to teachers for the period January 1, 2002 through June 30, 2003, equal to the amount paid by that employer under subsection (a-5) of Section 6.6 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 with respect to salaries paid to teachers for that period.

The additional 1% employee contribution required under Section 16-152 by Public Act 90-582 is the responsibility of the teacher and not the teacher's employer, unless the employer agrees, through collective bargaining or otherwise, to make the contribution on behalf of the teacher.

If an employer is required by a contract in effect on May 1, 1998 between the employer and an employee organization to pay, on behalf of all its full-time employees covered by this Article, all mandatory employee contributions required under this Article, then the employer shall be excused from paying the employer contribution required under this subsection (e) for the balance of the term of that contract. The employer and the employee organization shall jointly certify to the System the existence of the contractual requirement, in such form as the System may prescribe. This exclusion shall cease upon the termination, extension, or renewal of the contract at any time after May 1, 1998.

(f) For school years beginning on or after June 1, 2005 and before July 1, 2018 and for salary paid to a teacher under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed before June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, if the amount of a teacher's salary for any school year used to determine final average salary exceeds the member's annual full-time salary rate with the same employer for the previous school year by more than 6%, the teacher's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in salary that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. If a teacher's salary for the 2005-2006 school year is used to determine final average salary under this subsection (f), then the changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1057 shall apply in calculating whether the increase in his or her salary is in excess of 6%. For the purposes of this Section, change in employment under Section 10-21.12 of the School Code on or after June 1, 2005 shall constitute a change in employer. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation. The changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1111 apply without regard to whether the teacher was in service on or after its effective date.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (g) or (h) of this Section or that subsection (f-1) of this Section applies, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of that subsection. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(f-1) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2018 and for salary paid to a teacher under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, if the amount of a teacher's salary for any school year used to determine final average salary exceeds the member's annual full-time salary rate with the same employer for the previous school year by more than 3%, then the teacher's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in salary that is in excess of 3%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (f-1), the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it shall, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that subsection (f) of this Section applies, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of subsection (f). Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f-1) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest shall be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(g) This subsection (g) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to teachers under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to a teacher at a time when the teacher is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 16-132 or 16-133.2.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from overload work, including summer school, when the school district has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that (i) the overload work is for the sole purpose of classroom instruction in excess of the standard number of classes for a full-time teacher in a school district during a school year and (ii) the salary increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for classroom instruction computed on the teacher's current salary and work schedule.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude a salary increase resulting from a promotion (i) for which the employee is required to hold a certificate or supervisory endorsement issued by the State Teacher Certification Board that is a different certification or supervisory endorsement than is required for the teacher's previous position and (ii) to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the salary increase from the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the lesser of the average salary paid for other similar positions in the district requiring the same certification or the amount stipulated in the collective bargaining agreement for a similar position requiring the same certification.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any payment to the teacher from the State of Illinois or the State Board of Education over which the employer does not have discretion, notwithstanding that the payment is included in the computation of final average salary.

(h) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (g) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f) of this Section.

(i) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(i-5) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, if the amount of a participant's salary for any school year exceeds the amount of the salary set for the Governor, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, an amount determined by the System to be equal to the employer normal cost, as established by the System and expressed as a total percentage of payroll, multiplied by the amount of salary in excess of the amount of the salary set for the Governor. This amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(j) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(k) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-340, eff. 8-25-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-624, eff. 7-20-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-4-18.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-203)

Sec. 16-203. Application and expiration of new benefit increases.

(a) As used in this Section, "new benefit increase" means an increase in the amount of any benefit provided under this Article, or an expansion of the conditions of eligibility for any benefit under this Article, that results from an amendment to this Code that takes effect after June 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 94-4). "New benefit increase", however, does not include any benefit increase resulting from the changes made to Article 1 or this Article by Public Act 95-910, Public Act 100-23, Public Act 100-587, Public Act 100-743, or Public Act 100-769 or by this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or any subsequent amendment to this Code, every new benefit increase is subject to this Section and shall be deemed to be granted only in conformance with and contingent upon compliance with the provisions of this Section.

(c) The Public Act enacting a new benefit increase must identify and provide for payment to the System of additional funding at least sufficient to fund the resulting annual increase in cost to the System as it accrues.

Every new benefit increase is contingent upon the General Assembly providing the additional funding required under this subsection. The Commission on Government Forecasting and Accountability shall analyze whether adequate additional funding has been provided for the new benefit increase and shall report its analysis to the Public Pension Division of the Department of Insurance. A new benefit increase created by a Public Act that does not include the additional funding required under this subsection is null and void. If the Public Pension Division determines that the additional funding provided for a new benefit increase under this subsection is or has become inadequate, it may so certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller and, in the absence of corrective action by the General Assembly, the new benefit increase shall expire at the end of the fiscal year in which the certification is made.

(d) Every new benefit increase shall expire 5 years after its effective date or on such earlier date as may be specified in the language enacting the new benefit increase or provided under subsection (c). This does not prevent the General Assembly from extending or re-creating a new benefit increase by law.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the language creating the new benefit increase, a new benefit increase that expires under this Section continues to apply to persons who applied and qualified for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect and to the affected beneficiaries and alternate payees of such persons, but does not apply to any other person, including without limitation a person who continues in service after the expiration date and did not apply and qualify for the affected benefit while the new benefit increase was in effect.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-743, eff. 8-10-18; 100-769, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-15-18.)

Section 315. The Property Assessed Clean Energy Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 30 as follows:

(50 ILCS 50/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Alternative energy improvement" means the installation or upgrade of electrical wiring, outlets, or charging stations to charge a motor vehicle that is fully or partially powered by electricity.

"Assessment contract" means a voluntary written contract between the local unit of government (or a permitted assignee) and record owner governing the terms and conditions of financing and assessment under a program.

"Authority" means the Illinois Finance Authority.

"PACE area" means an area within the jurisdictional boundaries of a local unit of government created by an ordinance or resolution of the local unit of government to provide financing for energy projects under a property assessed clean energy program. A local unit of government may create more than one PACE area under the program, and PACE areas may be separate, overlapping, or coterminous.

"Energy efficiency improvement" means equipment, devices, or materials intended to decrease energy consumption or promote a more efficient use of electricity, natural gas, propane, or other forms of energy on property, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(1) insulation in walls, roofs, floors, foundations, or heating and cooling distribution systems;

(2) storm windows and doors, multi-glazed windows and doors, heat-absorbing or heat-reflective glazed and coated window and door systems, and additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and other window and door system modifications that reduce energy consumption;

(3) automated energy control systems;

(4) high efficiency heating, ventilating, or air-conditioning and distribution system modifications or replacements;

(5) caulking, weather-stripping, and air sealing;

(6) replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to reduce the energy use of the lighting system;

(7) energy controls or recovery systems;

(8) day lighting systems;

(8.1) any energy efficiency project, as defined in Section 825-65 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act; and

(9) any other installation or modification of equipment, devices, or materials approved as a utility cost-savings measure by the governing body.

"Energy project" means the installation or modification of an alternative energy improvement, energy efficiency improvement, or water use improvement, or the acquisition, installation, or improvement of a renewable energy system that is affixed to a stabilized existing property (including new construction).

"Governing body" means the county board or board of county commissioners of a county, the city council of a city, or the board of trustees of a village.

"Local unit of government" means a county, city, or village.

"Permitted assignee" means (i) any body politic and corporate, (ii) any bond trustee, or (iii) any warehouse lender, or any other assignee of a local unit of government designated in an assessment contract.

"Person" means an individual, firm, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, unincorporated joint venture, trust, or any other type of entity that is recognized by law and has the title to or interest in property. "Person" does not include a local unit of government or a homeowner's or condominium association, but does include other governmental entities that are not local units of government.

"Program administrator" means a for-profit entity or not-for-profit not-for profit entity that will administer a program on behalf of or at the discretion of the local unit of government. It or its affiliates, consultants, or advisors shall have done business as a program administrator or capital provider for a minimum of 18 months and shall be responsible for arranging capital for the acquisition of bonds issued by the local unit of government or the Authority to finance energy projects.

"Property" means privately-owned commercial, industrial, non-residential agricultural, or multi-family (of 5 or more units) real property located within the local unit of government, but does not include property owned by a local unit of government or a homeowner's or condominium association.

"Property assessed clean energy program" or "program" means a program as described in Section 10.

"Record owner" means the person who is the titleholder or owner of the beneficial interest in property.

"Renewable energy resource" includes energy and its associated renewable energy credit or renewable energy credits from wind energy, solar thermal energy, photovoltaic cells and panels, biodiesel, anaerobic digestion, and hydropower that does not involve new construction or significant expansion of hydropower dams. For purposes of this Act, landfill gas produced in the State is considered a renewable energy resource. The term "renewable energy resources" does not include the incineration or burning of any solid material.

"Renewable energy system" means a fixture, product, device, or interacting group of fixtures, products, or devices on the customer's side of the meter that use one or more renewable energy resources to generate electricity, and specifically includes any renewable energy project, as defined in Section 825-65 of the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

"Warehouse fund" means any fund established by a local unit of government, body politic and corporate, or warehouse lender.

"Warehouse lender" means any financial institution participating in a PACE area that finances an energy project from lawfully available funds in anticipation of issuing bonds as described in Section 35.

"Water use improvement" means any fixture, product, system, device, or interacting group thereof for or serving any property that has the effect of conserving water resources through improved water management or efficiency.

(Source: P.A. 100-77, eff. 8-11-17; 100-980, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

(50 ILCS 50/30)

Sec. 30. Assessments constitute a lien; billing.

(a) An assessment imposed under a property assessed clean energy program pursuant to an assessment contract, including any interest on the assessment and any penalty, shall, upon recording of the assessment contract in the county in which the PACE area is located, constitute a lien against the property on which the assessment is imposed until the assessment, including any interest or penalty, is paid in full. The lien of the assessment contract shall run with the property until the assessment is paid in full and a satisfaction or release for the same has been recorded with the local unit of government and shall have the same priority and status as other property tax and assessment liens. The local unit of government (or any permitted assignee) shall have all rights and remedies in the case of default or delinquency in the payment of an assessment as it does with respect to delinquent property taxes. When the assessment, including any interest and penalty, is paid, the lien shall be removed from the property.

(a-5) The assessment shall be imposed by the local unit of government against each lot, block, tract, track and parcel of land within the PACE area to be assessed in accordance with an assessment roll setting forth: (i) a description of the method of spreading the assessment; (ii) a list of lots, blocks, tracts and parcels of land in the PACE area; and (iii) the amount assessed on each parcel. The assessment roll shall be filed with the county clerk of the county in which the PACE area is located for use in establishing the lien and collecting the assessment.

(b) Installments of assessments due under a program may be included in each tax bill issued under the Property Tax Code and may be collected at the same time and in the same manner as taxes collected under the Property Tax Code. Alternatively, installments may be billed and collected as provided in a special assessment ordinance of general applicability adopted by the local unit of government pursuant to State law or local charter. In no event will partial payment of an assessment be allowed.

(Source: P.A. 100-77, eff. 8-11-17; 100-980, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 320. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 10.22 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are age sensitive and are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by police officers. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, mental health awareness and response, and cultural competency.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates and use of force training which shall include scenario based training, or similar training approved by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; 100-121, eff. 1-1-18; 100-247, eff. 1-1-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-910, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-19.)

(50 ILCS 705/10.22)

Sec. 10.22. School resource officers.

(a) The Board shall develop or approve a course for school resource officers as defined in Section 10-20.68 10-20.67 of the School Code.

(b) The school resource officer course shall be developed within one year after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-984) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and shall be created in consultation with organizations demonstrating expertise and or experience in the areas of youth and adolescent developmental issues, educational administrative issues, prevention of child abuse and exploitation, youth mental health treatment, and juvenile advocacy.

(c) The Board shall develop a process allowing law enforcement agencies to request a waiver of this training requirement for any specific individual assigned as a school resource officer. Applications for these waivers may be submitted by a local law enforcement agency chief administrator for any officer whose prior training and experience may qualify for a waiver of the training requirement of this subsection (c). The Board may issue a waiver at its discretion, based solely on the prior training and experience of an officer.

(d) Upon completion, the employing agency shall be issued a certificate attesting to a specific officer's completion of the school resource officer training. Additionally, a letter of approval shall be issued to the employing agency for any officer who is approved for a training waiver under this subsection (d).

(Source: P.A. 100-984, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 325. The Missing Persons Identification Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 20 as follows:

(50 ILCS 722/10)

Sec. 10. Law enforcement analysis and reporting of missing person information.

(a) Prompt determination of high-risk missing person.

(1) Definition. "High-risk missing person" means a person whose whereabouts are not currently known and whose circumstances indicate that the person may be at risk of injury or death. The circumstances that indicate that a person is a high-risk missing person include, but are not limited to, any of the following:

(A) the person is missing as a result of a stranger abduction;

(B) the person is missing under suspicious circumstances;

(C) the person is missing under unknown circumstances;

(D) the person is missing under known dangerous circumstances;

(E) the person is missing more than 30 days;

(F) the person has already been designated as a high-risk missing person by another law enforcement agency;

(G) there is evidence that the person is at risk because:

(i) the person is in need of medical attention, including but not limited to persons with dementia-like symptoms, or prescription medication;

(ii) the person does not have a pattern of running away or disappearing;

(iii) the person may have been abducted by a non-custodial parent;

(iv) the person is mentally impaired, including, but not limited to, a person having a developmental disability, as defined in Section 1-106 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or a person having an intellectual disability, as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(v) the person is under the age of 21;

(vi) the person has been the subject of past threats or acts of violence;

(vii) the person has eloped from a nursing home;

(G-5) the person is a veteran or active duty member of the United States Armed Forces, the National Guard, or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces who is believed to have a physical or mental health condition that is related to his or her service; or

(H) any other factor that may, in the judgment of the law enforcement official, indicate that the missing person may be at risk.

(2) Law enforcement risk assessment.

(A) Upon initial receipt of a missing person report, the law enforcement agency shall immediately determine whether there is a basis to determine that the missing person is a high-risk missing person.

(B) If a law enforcement agency has previously determined that a missing person is not a high-risk missing person, but obtains new information, it shall immediately determine whether the information indicates that the missing person is a high-risk missing person.

(C) Law enforcement agencies are encouraged to establish written protocols for the handling of missing person cases to accomplish the purposes of this Act.

(3) Law enforcement agency reports.

(A) The responding local law enforcement agency shall immediately enter all collected information relating to the missing person case in the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) databases. The information shall be provided in accordance with applicable guidelines relating to the databases. The information shall be entered as follows:

(i) All appropriate DNA profiles, as determined by the Department of State Police, shall be uploaded into the missing person databases of the State DNA Index System (SDIS) and National DNA Index System (NDIS) after completion of the DNA analysis and other procedures required for database entry.

(ii) Information relevant to the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Violent Criminal Apprehension Program shall be entered as soon as possible.

(iii) The Department of State Police shall ensure that persons entering data relating to medical or dental records in State or federal databases are specifically trained to understand and correctly enter the information sought by these databases. The Department of State Police shall either use a person with specific expertise in medical or dental records for this purpose or consult with a chief medical examiner, forensic anthropologist, or odontologist to ensure the accuracy and completeness of information entered into the State and federal databases.

(B) The Department of State Police shall immediately notify all law enforcement agencies within this State and the surrounding region of the information that will aid in the prompt location and safe return of the high-risk missing person.

(C) The local law enforcement agencies that receive the notification from the Department of State Police shall notify officers to be on the lookout for the missing person or a suspected abductor.

(D) Pursuant to any applicable State criteria, local law enforcement agencies shall also provide for the prompt use of an Amber Alert in cases involving abducted children; or use of the Endangered Missing Person Advisory in appropriate high risk cases.

(Source: P.A. 100-631, eff. 1-1-19; 100-662, eff. 1-1-19; 100-835, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

(50 ILCS 722/20)

Sec. 20. Unidentified persons or human remains identification responsibilities.

(a) In this Section, "assisting law enforcement agency" means a law enforcement agency with jurisdiction acting under the request and direction of the medical examiner or coroner to assist with human remains identification.

(a-5) If the official with custody of the human remains is not a coroner or medical examiner, the official shall immediately notify the coroner or medical examiner of the county in which the remains were found. The coroner or medical examiner shall go to the scene and take charge of the remains.

(b) Notwithstanding any other action deemed appropriate for the handling of the human remains, the assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall make reasonable attempts to promptly identify human remains. This does not include historic or prehistoric skeletal remains. These actions shall include, but are not limited to, obtaining the following when possible:

(1) photographs of the human remains (prior to an autopsy);

(2) dental and skeletal X-rays;

(3) photographs of items found on or with the human remains;

(4) fingerprints from the remains;

(5) tissue samples suitable for DNA analysis;

(6) (blank); and

(7) any other information that may support identification efforts.

(c) No medical examiner or coroner or any other person shall dispose of, or engage in actions that will materially affect the unidentified human remains before the assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner obtains items essential for human identification efforts listed in subsection (b) of this Section.

(d) Cremation of unidentified human remains is prohibited.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall seek support from appropriate State and federal agencies, including National Missing and Unidentified Persons System resources to facilitate prompt identification of human remains. This support may include, but is not limited to, fingerprint comparison; forensic odontology; nuclear or mitochondrial DNA analysis, or both; and forensic anthropology.

(f-5) Fingerprints from the unidentified remains, including partial prints, shall be submitted to the Department of State Police or other resource for the purpose of attempting to identify the deceased. The coroner or medical examiner shall cause a dental examination to be performed by a forensic odontologist for the purpose of dental charting, comparison to missing person records, or both. Tissue samples collected for DNA analysis shall be submitted within 30 days of the recovery of the remains to a National Missing and Unidentified Persons System partner laboratory or other resource where DNA profiles are entered into the National DNA Index System upon completion of testing. Forensic anthropological analysis of the remains shall also be considered.

(g) (Blank).

(g-2) The medical examiner or coroner shall report the unidentified human remains and the location where the remains were found to the Department of State Police within 24 hours of discovery as mandated by Section 15 of this Act. The assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall contact the Department of State Police to request the creation of a an National Crime Information Center Unidentified Person record within 5 days of the discovery of the remains. The assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall provide the Department of State Police all information required for National Crime Information Center entry. Upon notification, the Department of State Police shall create the Unidentified Person record without unnecessary delay.

(g-5) The assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall obtain a National Crime Information Center number from the Department of State Police to verify entry and maintain this number within the unidentified human remains case file. A National Crime Information Center Unidentified Person record shall remain on file indefinitely or until action is taken by the originating agency to clear or cancel the record. The assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall notify the Department of State Police of necessary record modifications or cancellation if identification is made.

(h) (Blank).

(h-5) The assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, or coroner shall create an unidentified person record in the National Missing and Unidentified Persons System prior to the submission of samples or within 30 days of the discovery of the remains, if no identification has been made. The entry shall include all available case information including fingerprint data and dental charts. Samples shall be submitted to a National Missing and Unidentified Persons System partner laboratory for DNA analysis within 30 Days. A notation of DNA submission shall be made within the National Missing and Unidentified Persons System Unidentified Person record.

(i) Nothing in this Act shall be interpreted to preclude any assisting law enforcement agency, medical examiner, coroner, or the Department of State Police from pursuing other efforts to identify human remains including efforts to publicize information, descriptions, or photographs related to the investigation.

(j) For historic or prehistoric human skeletal remains determined by an anthropologist to be older than 100 years, jurisdiction shall be transferred to the Department of Natural Resources for further investigation under the Archaeological and Paleontological Resources Protection Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-901, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 330. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 5-1006, 5-1006.5, 5-1007, 5-1069.3, and 5-30004 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1006)

Sec. 5-1006. Home Rule County Retailers' Occupation Tax Law. Any county that is a home rule unit may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than an item of tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from such sales made in the course of their business. If imposed, this tax shall only be imposed in 1/4% increments. On and after September 1, 1991, this additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a home rule county pursuant to this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this Section without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

No tax may be imposed by a home rule county pursuant to this Section unless the county also imposes a tax at the same rate pursuant to Section 5-1007.

Persons subject to any tax imposed pursuant to the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating such tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the home rule county retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named counties, the counties to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such county, and not including any amount which the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the counties, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the counties and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in March of each year to each county that received more than $500,000 in disbursements under the preceding paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The allocation shall be in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution made to each such county under the preceding paragraph during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of highest receipts). The distribution made in March of each year subsequent to the year in which an allocation was made pursuant to this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. Beginning April 1, 1998, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease such amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

This Section shall be known and may be cited as the Home Rule County Retailers' Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1006.5)

Sec. 5-1006.5. Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, Mental Health, Substance Abuse, or Transportation.

(a) The county board of any county may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the county on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business to provide revenue to be used exclusively for public safety, public facility, mental health, substance abuse, or transportation purposes in that county, if a proposition for the tax has been submitted to the electors of that county and approved by a majority of those voting on the question. If imposed, this tax shall be imposed only in one-quarter percent increments. By resolution, the county board may order the proposition to be submitted at any election. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for public highways or as authorized under the Illinois Highway Code, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range highway transportation plan as required or described in Section 5-301 of the Illinois Highway Code and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax. If the tax is imposed for transportation purposes for expenditures for passenger rail transportation, the county board must publish notice of the existence of its long-range passenger rail transportation plan and must make the plan publicly available prior to approval of the ordinance or resolution imposing the tax.

If a tax is imposed for public facilities purposes, then the name of the project may be included in the proposition at the discretion of the county board as determined in the enabling resolution. For example, the "XXX Nursing Home" or the "YYY Museum".

The county clerk shall certify the question to the proper election authority, who shall submit the proposition at an election in accordance with the general election law.

(1) The proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public safety purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public safety purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of the paragraph, "public safety purposes" means crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services.

Votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

Beginning on the January 1 or July 1, whichever is first, that occurs not less than 30 days after May 31, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-4), Adams County may impose a public safety retailers' occupation tax and service occupation tax at the rate of 0.25%, as provided in the referendum approved by the voters on April 7, 2015, notwithstanding the omission of the additional information that is otherwise required to be printed on the ballot below the question pursuant to this item (1).

(2) The proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for improvements to roads and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for transportation purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for road improvements and other transportation purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For the purposes of this paragraph, transportation purposes means construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(3) The proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for public facilities purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

For purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" means the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(4) The proposition for mental health purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for mental health purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for mental health purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

(5) The proposition for substance abuse purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for substance abuse purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail."

The county board may also opt to establish a sunset provision at which time the additional sales tax would cease being collected, if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board. If the county board votes to include a sunset provision, the proposition for public facilities purposes shall be in substantially the following form:

"To pay for substance abuse purposes, shall (name of county) be authorized to impose an increase on its share of local sales taxes by (insert rate) for a period not to exceed (insert number of years)?"

As additional information on the ballot below the question shall appear the following:

"This would mean that a consumer would pay an additional (insert amount) in sales tax for every $100 of tangible personal property bought at retail. If imposed, the additional tax would cease being collected at the end of (insert number of years), if not terminated earlier by a vote of the county board."

The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".

If a majority of the electors voting on the proposition vote in favor of it, the county may impose the tax. A county may not submit more than one proposition authorized by this Section to the electors at any one time.

This additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a county under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue and deposited into a special fund created for that purpose. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this Section, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this Section, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-70 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except provisions relating to transaction returns and quarter monthly payments), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their sellers' tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracketed schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety, Public Facilities, Mental Health, Substance Abuse, or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a service occupation tax shall also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the county, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the county as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the county), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the county), Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the County Public Safety, Public Facilities, Mental Health, Substance Abuse, or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Fund.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(c) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the County Public Safety, Public Facilities, Mental Health, Substance Abuse, or Transportation Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside of the State treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the counties from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county, and deposited by the county into its special fund created for the purposes of this Section, shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including (i) an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the county, (ii) any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the county, (iii) any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, and (iv) 1.5% of the remainder, which shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the counties, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the counties and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in March of each year to each county that received more than $500,000 in disbursements under the preceding paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The allocation shall be in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution made to each such county under the preceding paragraph during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of highest receipts). The distribution made in March of each year subsequent to the year in which an allocation was made pursuant to this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

A county may direct, by ordinance, that all or a portion of the taxes and penalties collected under the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, Mental Health, Substance Abuse, or Transportation be deposited into the Transportation Development Partnership Trust Fund.

(d) For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(e-5) If a county imposes a tax under this Section, the county board may, by ordinance, discontinue or lower the rate of the tax. If the county board lowers the tax rate or discontinues the tax, a referendum must be held in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section in order to increase the rate of the tax or to reimpose the discontinued tax.

(f) Beginning April 1, 1998 and through December 31, 2013, the results of any election authorizing a proposition to impose a tax under this Section or effecting a change in the rate of tax, or any ordinance lowering the rate or discontinuing the tax, shall be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the filing.

Beginning January 1, 2014, the results of any election authorizing a proposition to impose a tax under this Section or effecting an increase in the rate of tax, along with the ordinance adopted to impose the tax or increase the rate of the tax, or any ordinance adopted to lower the rate or discontinue the tax, shall be certified by the county clerk and filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of May, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

(g) When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a county under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any miscalculation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a miscalculation is discovered.

(h) This Section may be cited as the "Special County Occupation Tax For Public Safety, Public Facilities, Mental Health, Substance Abuse, or Transportation Law".

(i) For purposes of this Section, "public safety" includes, but is not limited to, crime prevention, detention, fire fighting, police, medical, ambulance, or other emergency services. The county may share tax proceeds received under this Section for public safety purposes, including proceeds received before August 4, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-124), with any fire protection district located in the county. For the purposes of this Section, "transportation" includes, but is not limited to, the construction, maintenance, operation, and improvement of public highways, any other purpose for which a county may expend funds under the Illinois Highway Code, and passenger rail transportation. For the purposes of this Section, "public facilities purposes" includes, but is not limited to, the acquisition, development, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, financing, architectural planning, and installation of capital facilities consisting of buildings, structures, and durable equipment and for the acquisition and improvement of real property and interest in real property required, or expected to be required, in connection with the public facilities, for use by the county for the furnishing of governmental services to its citizens, including but not limited to museums and nursing homes.

(j) The Department may promulgate rules to implement Public Act 95-1002 only to the extent necessary to apply the existing rules for the Special County Retailers' Occupation Tax for Public Safety to this new purpose for public facilities.

(Source: P.A. 99-4, eff. 5-31-15; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1167, eff. 1-4-19; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1007) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1007)

Sec. 5-1007. Home Rule County Service Occupation Tax Law. The corporate authorities of a home rule county may impose a tax upon all persons engaged, in such county, in the business of making sales of service at the same rate of tax imposed pursuant to Section 5-1006 of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred by such servicemen either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. If imposed, such tax shall only be imposed in 1/4% increments. On and after September 1, 1991, this additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a home rule county pursuant to this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration which is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit such registrant to engage in a business which is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this Section without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the taxing county), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the taxing county), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this county tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the taxing county), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

No tax may be imposed by a home rule county pursuant to this Section unless such county also imposes a tax at the same rate pursuant to Section 5-1006.

Persons subject to any tax imposed pursuant to the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating such tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. Such refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the home rule county retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio ex-officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named counties, the counties to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each county shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such county, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the counties, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the counties and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in such certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in each year to each county which received more than $500,000 in disbursements under the preceding paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The allocation shall be in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution made to each such county under the preceding paragraph during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of highest receipts). The distribution made in March of each year subsequent to the year in which an allocation was made pursuant to this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a county to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. Beginning April 1, 1998, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

This Section shall be known and may be cited as the Home Rule County Service Occupation Tax Law.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, and 356z.26, and 356z.29, and 356z.32 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1024, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-30004) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-30004)

Sec. 5-30004. Authority to protect and preserve landmarks and preservation districts. The county board of each county shall have the following authority:

(1) to establish and appoint by ordinance a preservation study committee and to take any reasonable temporary actions to protect potential landmarks and preservation districts during the term of an appointed preservation study committee;

(2) to establish and appoint by ordinance a preservation commission upon recommendation of a preservation study committee;

(3) to conduct an ongoing survey of the county to identify buildings, structures, areas, sites and landscapes that are of historic, archaeological, architectural, or scenic significance, and therefore potential landmarks or preservation districts;

(4) to designate by ordinance landmarks and preservation districts upon the recommendation of a preservation commission and to establish a system of markers, plaques or certificates for designated landmarks and preservation districts;

(5) to prepare maps showing the location of landmarks and preservation districts, publish educational information, and prepare educational programs concerning landmarks and preservation districts and their designation and protection;

(6) to exercise any of the powers and authority in relation to regional planning and zoning granted counties by Divisions 5-12 and 5-14, for the purpose of protecting, preserving, and continuing the use of landmarks and preservation districts;

(7) to nominate landmarks and historic districts to any state or federal registers of historic places;

(8) to appropriate and expend funds to carry out the purposes of this Division;

(9) to review applications for construction, alteration, removal or demolition affecting landmarks or property within preservation districts;

(10) to acquire by negotiated purchase any interest including conservation rights in landmarks or in property within preservation districts, or property immediately adjacent to or surrounding landmarks or preservation districts;

(11) to apply for and accept any gift, grant or bequest from any private or public source, including agencies of the federal or State government, for any purpose authorized by this Division;

(12) to establish a system for the transfer of development rights including, as appropriate, a mechanism for the deposit of development rights in a development rights bank, and for the transfer of development rights from that development rights bank in the same manner as authorized for municipalities by Section 11-48.2-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code. All receipts arising from the transfer shall be deposited in a special county account to be applied against expenditures necessitated by the county program for the designation and protection of landmarks and preservation districts. Any development rights acquired, sold or transferred from a development rights bank, shall not be a "security" as that term is defined in Section 2.1 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953, and shall be exempt from all requirements for the registration of securities.

(13) to establish a loan or grant program from any source of funds for designated landmarks and preservation districts and to issue interest bearing revenue bonds or general obligation bonds pursuant to ordinance enacted by the county board, after compliance with requirements for referendum, payable from the revenues to be derived from the operation of any landmark or of any property within a preservation district;

(14) to abate real property taxes on any landmark or property within a preservation district to encourage its preservation and continued use or to provide relief for owners unduly burdened by designation;

(15) to advise and assist owners of landmarks and property within preservation districts on physical and financial aspects of preservation, renovation, rehabilitation, and reuse;

(16) to advise cities, villages, or incorporated towns, upon request of the appropriate official of the municipality, concerning enactment of ordinances to protect landmarks or preservation districts;

(17) to exercise within the boundaries of any city, village, or incorporated town any of the powers and authority granted counties by this Division so long as the corporate authorities by ordinance or by intergovernmental agreement pursuant to the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act, or pursuant to Article VII 7, Section 10 of the Constitution of the State of Illinois have authorized the county preservation commission established by authority of this Division to designate landmarks or preservation districts within its corporate boundaries, and such county preservation commission shall have only those powers, duties, and legal authority provided in this Division;

(18) to exercise any of the above powers to preserve and protect property owned by any unit of local government including counties, or to review alteration, construction, demolition, or removal undertaken by any unit of local government including counties that affect landmarks and preservation districts.

(19) to exercise any other power or authority necessary or appropriate to carrying out the purposes of this Division, including those powers and authorities listed in Sections 5-30010 and 5-30011.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 335. The Children's Advocacy Center Act is amended by changing Section 2.5 as follows:

(55 ILCS 80/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Accreditation" means the process in which certification of competency, authority, or credibility is presented by standards set by the National Children's Alliance to ensure effective, efficient and consistent delivery of services by a CAC.

"Child maltreatment" includes any act or occurrence, as defined in Section 5 of the Criminal Code of 2012, under the Children and Family Services Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 involving either a child victim or child witness.

"Children's Advocacy Center" or "CAC" is a child-focused, trauma-informed, facility-based program in which representatives from law enforcement, child protection, prosecution, mental health, forensic interviewing, medical, and victim advocacy disciplines collaborate to interview children, meet with a child's parent or parents, caregivers, and family members, and make team decisions about the investigation, prosecution, safety, treatment, and support services for child maltreatment cases.

"Children's Advocacy Centers of Illinois" or "CACI" is a state chapter of the National Children's Alliance ("NCA") and organizing entity for Children's Advocacy Centers in the State of Illinois. It defines membership and engages member CACs in the NCA accreditation process and collecting and sharing of data, and provides training, leadership, and technical assistance to existing and emerging CACs in the State.

"Forensic interview" means an interview between a trained forensic interviewer, as defined by NCA standards, and a child in which the interviewer obtains information from children in an unbiased and fact finding manner that is developmentally appropriate and culturally sensitive to support accurate and fair decision making by the multidisciplinary team in the criminal justice and child protection systems. Whenever practical, all parties involved in investigating reports of child maltreatment shall observe the interview, which shall be digitally recorded.

"Multidisciplinary team" or "MDT" means a group of professionals working collaboratively under a written protocol, who represent various disciplines from the point of a report of child maltreatment to assure the most effective coordinated response possible for every child. Employees from each participating entity shall be included on the MDT. A CAC's MDT must include professionals involved in the coordination, investigation, and prosecution of child abuse cases, including the CAC's staff, participating law enforcement agencies, the county state's attorney, and the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services, and must include professionals involved in the delivery of services to victims of child maltreatment and non-offending parent or parents, caregiver, and their families.

"National Children's Alliance" or "NCA" means the professional membership organization dedicated to helping local communities respond to allegations of child abuse in an effective and efficient manner. NCA provides training, support, technical assistance and leadership on a national level to state and local CACs and communities responding to reports of child maltreatment. NCA is the national organization that provides the standards for CAC accreditation.

"Protocol" means a written methodology defining the responsibilities of each of the MDT members in the investigation and prosecution of child maltreatment within a defined jurisdiction. Written protocols are signed documents and are reviewed and/or updated annually, at a minimum, by a CAC's Advisory Board.

(Source: P.A. 98-809, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 340. The Township Code is amended by renumbering Section 7-27 as follows:

(60 ILCS 1/70-27)

Sec. 70-27 7-27. Attestation to funds endorsed by the supervisor. If a township supervisor issues a payout of funds from the township treasury, the township clerk shall attest to such payment.

(Source: P.A. 100-983, eff. 1-1-19; revised 1-15-19.)

Section 345. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 8-11-1, 8-11-1.3, 8-11-1.4, 8-11-1.6, 8-11-1.7, 8-11-5, 10-2.1-4, 10-3-12, and 10-4-2.3 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-1)

Sec. 8-11-1. Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The corporate authorities of a home rule municipality may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than an item of tangible personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the municipality on the gross receipts from these sales made in the course of such business. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in 1/4% increments. On and after September 1, 1991, this additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a home rule municipality under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this Section without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

No tax may be imposed by a home rule municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-5 of this Act.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the home rule municipal retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph and in order to mitigate delays caused by distribution procedures, an allocation shall, if requested, be made within 10 days after January 14, 1991, and in November of 1991 and each year thereafter, to each municipality that received more than $500,000 during the preceding fiscal year, (July 1 through June 30) whether collected by the municipality or disbursed by the Department as required by this Section. Within 10 days after January 14, 1991, participating municipalities shall notify the Department in writing of their intent to participate. In addition, for the initial distribution, participating municipalities shall certify to the Department the amounts collected by the municipality for each month under its home rule occupation and service occupation tax during the period July 1, 1989 through June 30, 1990. The allocation within 10 days after January 14, 1991, shall be in an amount equal to the monthly average of these amounts, excluding the 2 months of highest receipts. The monthly average for the period of July 1, 1990 through June 30, 1991 will be determined as follows: the amounts collected by the municipality under its home rule occupation and service occupation tax during the period of July 1, 1990 through September 30, 1990, plus amounts collected by the Department and paid to such municipality through June 30, 1991, excluding the 2 months of highest receipts. The monthly average for each subsequent period of July 1 through June 30 shall be an amount equal to the monthly distribution made to each such municipality under the preceding paragraph during this period, excluding the 2 months of highest receipts. The distribution made in November 1991 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding period of July 1 through June 30. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following the adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing. However, a municipality located in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 that elected to become a home rule unit at the general primary election in 1994 may adopt an ordinance or resolution imposing the tax under this Section and file a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution with the Department on or before July 1, 1994. The Department shall then proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of October 1, 1994. Beginning April 1, 1998, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

Any unobligated balance remaining in the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund on December 31, 1989, which fund was abolished by Public Act 85-1135, and all receipts of municipal tax as a result of audits of liability periods prior to January 1, 1990, shall be paid into the Local Government Tax Fund for distribution as provided by this Section prior to the enactment of Public Act 85-1135. All receipts of municipal tax as a result of an assessment not arising from an audit, for liability periods prior to January 1, 1990, shall be paid into the Local Government Tax Fund for distribution before July 1, 1990, as provided by this Section prior to the enactment of Public Act 85-1135; and on and after July 1, 1990, all such receipts shall be distributed as provided in Section 6z-18 of the State Finance Act.

As used in this Section, "municipal" and "municipality" means a city, village or incorporated town, including an incorporated town that has superseded a civil township.

This Section shall be known and may be cited as the Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.3) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-1.3)

Sec. 8-11-1.3. Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality may impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than on an item of tangible personal property which is titled and registered by an agency of this State's Government, at retail in the municipality for expenditure on public infrastructure or for property tax relief or both as defined in Section 8-11-1.2 if approved by referendum as provided in Section 8-11-1.1, of the gross receipts from such sales made in the course of such business. If the tax is approved by referendum on or after July 14, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1057), the corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality may, until December 31, 2020, use the proceeds of the tax for expenditure on municipal operations, in addition to or in lieu of any expenditure on public infrastructure or for property tax relief. The tax imposed may not be more than 1% and may be imposed only in 1/4% increments. The tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a municipality pursuant to this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration which is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit such retailer to engage in a business which is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this Section without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda, arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

No municipality may impose a tax under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.4 of this Code.

Persons subject to any tax imposed pursuant to the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating such tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. Such refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the non-home rule municipal retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amount which the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in such certification.

For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale, by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease such amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

The Department of Revenue shall implement Public Act 91-649 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly so as to collect the tax on and after January 1, 2002.

As used in this Section, "municipal" and "municipality" means a city, village or incorporated town, including an incorporated town which has superseded a civil township.

This Section shall be known and may be cited as the "Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Act".

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.4) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-1.4)

Sec. 8-11-1.4. Non-Home Rule Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality may impose a tax upon all persons engaged, in such municipality, in the business of making sales of service for expenditure on public infrastructure or for property tax relief or both as defined in Section 8-11-1.2 if approved by referendum as provided in Section 8-11-1.1, of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred by such servicemen either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. If the tax is approved by referendum on or after July 14, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1057), the corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality may, until December 31, 2020, use the proceeds of the tax for expenditure on municipal operations, in addition to or in lieu of any expenditure on public infrastructure or for property tax relief. The tax imposed may not be more than 1% and may be imposed only in 1/4% increments. The tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a municipality pursuant to this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration which is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit such registrant to engage in a business which is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this Section without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the taxing municipality), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the taxing municipality), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this municipal tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the taxing municipality), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

No municipality may impose a tax under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.3 of this Code.

Persons subject to any tax imposed pursuant to the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating such tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. Such refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the municipal retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the municipalities, the General Revenue Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in such certification.

The Department of Revenue shall implement Public Act 91-649 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly so as to collect the tax on and after January 1, 2002.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

As used in this Section, "municipal" or "municipality" means or refers to a city, village or incorporated town, including an incorporated town which has superseded a civil township.

This Section shall be known and may be cited as the "Non-Home Rule Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act".

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.6)

Sec. 8-11-1.6. Non-home rule municipal retailers' occupation tax; municipalities between 20,000 and 25,000. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 that has, prior to January 1, 1987, established a Redevelopment Project Area that has been certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary and has issued bonds or otherwise incurred indebtedness to pay for costs in excess of $5,000,000, which is secured in part by a tax increment allocation fund, in accordance with the provisions of Division 11-74.4 of this Code may, by passage of an ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than on an item of tangible personal property that is titled and registered by an agency of this State's Government, at retail in the municipality. This tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in .25% increments of the gross receipts from such sales made in the course of business. Any tax imposed by a municipality under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. An ordinance imposing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted under this Section without registering separately with the Department under the ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda, arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

A tax may not be imposed by a municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.7 of this Act.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant, instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which is hereby created.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

As used in this Section, "municipal" and "municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town, including an incorporated town that has superseded a civil township.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.7)

Sec. 8-11-1.7. Non-home rule municipal service occupation tax; municipalities between 20,000 and 25,000. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 as determined by the last preceding decennial census that has, prior to January 1, 1987, established a Redevelopment Project Area that has been certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary and has issued bonds or otherwise incurred indebtedness to pay for costs in excess of $5,000,000, which is secured in part by a tax increment allocation fund, in accordance with the provisions of Division 11-74.4 of this Code may, by passage of an ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the municipality in the business of making sales of service. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in .25% increments of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred by such servicemen either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a municipality under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. An ordinance imposing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted under this Section without registering separately with the Department under the ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in a manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the taxing municipality), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the taxing municipality), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this municipal tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12, (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the taxing municipality), the first paragraph of Sections 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

A tax may not be imposed by a municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.6 of this Act.

Person subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their servicemen's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities, the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, and the General Revenue Fund, provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-5) (from Ch. 24, par. 8-11-5)

Sec. 8-11-5. Home Rule Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act. The corporate authorities of a home rule municipality may impose a tax upon all persons engaged, in such municipality, in the business of making sales of service at the same rate of tax imposed pursuant to Section 8-11-1, of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred by such servicemen either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. If imposed, such tax shall only be imposed in 1/4% increments. On and after September 1, 1991, this additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by a home rule municipality pursuant to this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration which is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit such registrant to engage in a business which is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted pursuant to this Section without registering separately with the Department under such ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this Section the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the taxing municipality), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the taxing municipality), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this municipal tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the taxing municipality), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17 (except that credit memoranda issued hereunder may not be used to discharge any State tax liability), 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

No tax may be imposed by a home rule municipality pursuant to this Section unless such municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate pursuant to Section 8-11-1 of this Act.

Persons subject to any tax imposed pursuant to the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating such tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. Such refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the home rule municipal retailers' occupation tax fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio ex-officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt, by the Comptroller, of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in such certification.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph and in order to mitigate delays caused by distribution procedures, an allocation shall, if requested, be made within 10 days after January 14, 1991, and in November of 1991 and each year thereafter, to each municipality that received more than $500,000 during the preceding fiscal year, (July 1 through June 30) whether collected by the municipality or disbursed by the Department as required by this Section. Within 10 days after January 14, 1991, participating municipalities shall notify the Department in writing of their intent to participate. In addition, for the initial distribution, participating municipalities shall certify to the Department the amounts collected by the municipality for each month under its home rule occupation and service occupation tax during the period July 1, 1989 through June 30, 1990. The allocation within 10 days after January 14, 1991, shall be in an amount equal to the monthly average of these amounts, excluding the 2 months of highest receipts. Monthly average for the period of July 1, 1990 through June 30, 1991 will be determined as follows: the amounts collected by the municipality under its home rule occupation and service occupation tax during the period of July 1, 1990 through September 30, 1990, plus amounts collected by the Department and paid to such municipality through June 30, 1991, excluding the 2 months of highest receipts. The monthly average for each subsequent period of July 1 through June 30 shall be an amount equal to the monthly distribution made to each such municipality under the preceding paragraph during this period, excluding the 2 months of highest receipts. The distribution made in November 1991 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding period of July 1 through June 30. The Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

An ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of June, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of September next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. However, a municipality located in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 that elected to become a home rule unit at the general primary election in 1994 may adopt an ordinance or resolution imposing the tax under this Section and file a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution with the Department on or before July 1, 1994. The Department shall then proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of October 1, 1994. Beginning April 1, 1998, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall either (i) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of July next following the adoption and filing; or (ii) be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following the adoption and filing.

Any unobligated balance remaining in the Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund on December 31, 1989, which fund was abolished by Public Act 85-1135, and all receipts of municipal tax as a result of audits of liability periods prior to January 1, 1990, shall be paid into the Local Government Tax Fund, for distribution as provided by this Section prior to the enactment of Public Act 85-1135. All receipts of municipal tax as a result of an assessment not arising from an audit, for liability periods prior to January 1, 1990, shall be paid into the Local Government Tax Fund for distribution before July 1, 1990, as provided by this Section prior to the enactment of Public Act 85-1135, and on and after July 1, 1990, all such receipts shall be distributed as provided in Section 6z-18 of the State Finance Act.

As used in this Section, "municipal" and "municipality" means a city, village or incorporated town, including an incorporated town which has superseded a civil township.

This Section shall be known and may be cited as the Home Rule Municipal Service Occupation Tax Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-9-19.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-4) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-4)

Sec. 10-2.1-4. Fire and police departments; appointment of members; certificates of appointments. The board of fire and police commissioners shall appoint all officers and members of the fire and police departments of the municipality, including the chief of police and the chief of the fire department, unless the council or board of trustees shall by ordinance as to them otherwise provide; except as otherwise provided in this Section, and except that in any municipality which adopts or has adopted this Division 2.1 and also adopts or has adopted Article 5 of this Code, the chief of police and the chief of the fire department shall be appointed by the municipal manager, if it is provided by ordinance in such municipality that such chiefs, or either of them, shall not be appointed by the board of fire and police commissioners.

If the chief of the fire department or the chief of the police department or both of them are appointed in the manner provided by ordinance, they may be removed or discharged by the appointing authority. In such case the appointing authority shall file with the corporate authorities the reasons for such removal or discharge, which removal or discharge shall not become effective unless confirmed by a majority vote of the corporate authorities.

After January 1, 2019 August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1126 100-425) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, a person shall not be appointed as the chief, the acting chief, the department head, or a position, by whatever title, that is responsible for day-to-day operations of a fire department for greater than 180 days unless he or she possesses the following qualifications and certifications:

(1) Office of the State Fire Marshal Basic Operations Firefighter Certification or Office of the State Fire Marshal Firefighter II Certification; Office of the State Fire Marshal Advanced Fire Officer Certification or Office of the State Fire Marshal Fire Officer II Certification; and an associate degree in fire science or a bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college;

(2) a current certification from the International Fire Service Accreditation Congress or Pro Board Fire Service Professional Qualifications System that meets the National Fire Protection Association standard NFPA 1001, Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications, Level I job performance requirements; a current certification from the International Fire Service Accreditation Congress or Pro Board Fire Service Professional Qualifications System that meets the National Fire Protection Association standard NFPA 1021, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, Fire Officer II job performance requirements; and an associate degree in fire science or a bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college;

(3) qualifications that meet the National Fire Protection Association standard NFPA 1001, Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications, Level I job performance requirements; qualifications that meet the National Fire Protection Association standard NFPA 1021, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, Fire Officer II job performance requirements; and an associate degree in fire science or a bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college; or

(4) a minimum of 10 years' experience as a firefighter at the fire department in the jurisdiction making the appointment. This paragraph applies to fire departments that employ firefighters hired under the provisions of this Division. On and after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1126) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, a home rule municipality may not appoint a fire chief, an acting chief, a department head, or a position, by whatever title, that is responsible for day-to-day operations of a fire department for greater than 180 days in a manner inconsistent with this paragraph. This paragraph is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

If a member of the department is appointed chief of police or chief of the fire department prior to being eligible to retire on pension, he shall be considered as on furlough from the rank he held immediately prior to his appointment as chief. If he resigns as chief or is discharged as chief prior to attaining eligibility to retire on pension, he shall revert to and be established in whatever rank he currently holds, except for previously appointed positions, and thereafter be entitled to all the benefits and emoluments of that rank, without regard as to whether a vacancy then exists in that rank.

All appointments to each department other than that of the lowest rank, however, shall be from the rank next below that to which the appointment is made except as otherwise provided in this Section, and except that the chief of police and the chief of the fire department may be appointed from among members of the police and fire departments, respectively, regardless of rank, unless the council or board of trustees shall have by ordinance as to them otherwise provided. A chief of police or the chief of the fire department, having been appointed from among members of the police or fire department, respectively, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as chief of police or chief of the fire department.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners and all certificates of appointments issued to any officer or member of the fire or police department of a municipality shall be signed by the chairman and secretary respectively of the board of fire and police commissioners of such municipality, upon appointment of such officer or member of the fire and police department of such municipality by action of the board of fire and police commissioners. After being selected from the register of eligibles to fill a vacancy in the affected department, each appointee shall be presented with his or her certificate of appointment on the day on which he or she is sworn in as a classified member of the affected department. Firefighters who were not issued a certificate of appointment when originally appointed shall be provided with a certificate within 10 days after making a written request to the chairperson of the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners. In any municipal fire department that employs full-time firefighters and is subject to a collective bargaining agreement, a person who has not qualified for regular appointment under the provisions of this Division 2.1 shall not be used as a temporary or permanent substitute for classified members of a municipality's fire department or for regular appointment as a classified member of a municipality's fire department unless mutually agreed to by the employee's certified bargaining agent. Such agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. Municipal fire departments covered by the changes made by Public Act 95-490 that are using non-certificated employees as substitutes immediately prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-490) may, by mutual agreement with the certified bargaining agent, continue the existing practice or a modified practice and that agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. A home rule unit may not regulate the hiring of temporary or substitute members of the municipality's fire department in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

The term "policemen" as used in this Division does not include auxiliary police officers except as provided for in Section 10-2.1-6.

Any full-time member of a regular fire or police department of any municipality which comes under the provisions of this Division or adopts this Division 2.1 or which has adopted any of the prior Acts pertaining to fire and police commissioners, is a city officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Chief of Police of a department in a non-home rule municipality of more than 130,000 inhabitants may, without the advice or consent of the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners, appoint up to 6 officers who shall be known as deputy chiefs or assistant deputy chiefs, and whose rank shall be immediately below that of Chief. The deputy or assistant deputy chiefs may be appointed from any rank of sworn officers of that municipality, but no person who is not such a sworn officer may be so appointed. Such deputy chief or assistant deputy chief shall have the authority to direct and issue orders to all employees of the Department holding the rank of captain or any lower rank. A deputy chief of police or assistant deputy chief of police, having been appointed from any rank of sworn officers of that municipality, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as deputy chief of police or assistant deputy chief of police.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a non-home rule municipality of 130,000 or fewer inhabitants, through its council or board of trustees, may, by ordinance, provide for a position of deputy chief to be appointed by the chief of the police department. The ordinance shall provide for no more than one deputy chief position if the police department has fewer than 25 full-time police officers and for no more than 2 deputy chief positions if the police department has 25 or more full-time police officers. The deputy chief position shall be an exempt rank immediately below that of Chief. The deputy chief may be appointed from any rank of sworn, full-time officers of the municipality's police department, but must have at least 5 years of full-time service as a police officer in that department. A deputy chief shall serve at the discretion of the Chief and, if removed from the position, shall revert to the rank currently held, without regard as to whether a vacancy exists in that rank. A deputy chief of police, having been appointed from any rank of sworn full-time officers of that municipality's police department, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as deputy chief of police.

No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in Public Act 86-990 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-2.1-6.3 or 10-2.1-6.4, then Section 10-2.1-6.3 or 10-2.1-6.4 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 100-252, eff. 8-22-17; 100-425, eff. 8-25-17; 100-863, eff, 8-14-18; 100-1126, eff. 1-1-19; revised 12-19-18.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-3-12) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-3-12)

Sec. 10-3-12. (a) A fireman who is an elected state officer of a statewide labor organization that is a representative of municipal firemen in Illinois shall be granted leave by the municipality, without loss of pay or benefits and without being required to make up for lost time, for work hours devoted to performing the fireman's responsibilities as an elected state officer of the statewide labor organization; provided that the elected officer has arranged for a fireman from the same municipality who is qualified to perform the absent fireman's duties to work for those hours. This Section shall not apply to any municipality with a population of 1,000,000 or more.

(b) The statewide labor organization shall, by May 1 of each year:

(1) designate 4 elected state officers, whose right to leave while carrying out their duties for the organization shall be limited to 20 shifts per officer per year (for years beginning May 1 and ending April 30); and

(2) notify each municipality that is the employer of an elected state officer to whom this Section applies, identifying the elected state officer, and indicating whether the officer is one of those limited to 20 shifts per year.

(c) The regulation of leave for a fireman who is employed by a municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 and who is an elected state officer of a statewide labor organization in Illinois, while he is performing the duties of that office, is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality with a population of less than 1,000,000 may not regulate the leave of a fireman for work hours devoted to the fireman's responsibilities as an elected state officer of a statewide labor organization. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers.

(d) For the purposes of this Section:

"Statewide labor organization" means an organization representing firefighters employed by at least 85 municipalities in this State, that is affiliated with the Illinois State Federation of Labor.

"Elected state officer" means a full-time firefighter who is one of the 9 top elected officers of the statewide labor organization.

(Source: P.A. 86-1395; revised 9-28-18.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, and 356z.26, and 356z.29, and 356z.32 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1024, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 350. The Airport Authorities Act is amended by changing Section 8.08 as follows:

(70 ILCS 5/8.08) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 68.8-08)

Sec. 8.08. To borrow money and to issue bonds, notes, certificates, or other evidences of indebtedness for the purpose of accomplishing any of said corporate purposes, which obligations may be payable from taxes or other sources as provided in this Act; and to refund or advance refund any of the foregoing with bonds, notes, certificates, or other evidences of indebtedness, which refunding or advance advanced refunding obligations may be payable from taxes or from any other source; subject, however, to a compliance with any condition or limitation set forth in this Act or otherwise provided by the constitution of the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 83-1403; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 355. The Metro-East Park and Recreation District Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(70 ILCS 1605/30)

Sec. 30. Taxes.

(a) The board shall impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than personal property titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at retail in the District on the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of business. This tax shall be imposed only at the rate of one-tenth of one per cent.

This additional tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed by the Board under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident of the tax shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable without registering separately with the Department under an ordinance or resolution under this Section. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this Section, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this Section, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of a tax or penalty under this Section. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 1k, 1m, 1n, 2, 2-5, 2-5.5, 2-10 (in respect to all provisions contained in those Sections other than the State rate of tax), 2-12, 2-15 through 2-70, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except provisions relating to transaction returns and quarter monthly payments), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as if those provisions were set forth in this Section.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their sellers' tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracketed schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the State Metro-East Park and Recreation District Fund.

(b) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (a), a service occupation tax shall also be imposed at the same rate upon all persons engaged, in the District, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making those sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the District as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the Department of Revenue. The Department has full power to administer and enforce this subsection; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall (i) have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, (ii) be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and (iii) employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the District), 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the District), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the District), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the District), Sections 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the State Metro-East Park and Recreation District Fund.

Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the board to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(c) The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this Section to be deposited into the State Metro-East Park and Recreation District Fund, which shall be an unappropriated trust fund held outside of the State treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district. The Department shall make this certification only if the Metro East Park and Recreation District imposes a tax on real property as provided in the definition of "local sales taxes" under the Innovation Development and Economy Act.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money pursuant to Section 35 of this Act to the District from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to the District shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including (i) an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the District, (ii) any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the District, (iii) any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, and (iv) 1.5% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the District, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the District and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with directions contained in the certification.

(d) For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or another mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or another mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the United States Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the board to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(f) An ordinance imposing a tax under this Section or an ordinance extending the imposition of a tax to an additional county or counties shall be certified by the board and filed with the Department of Revenue either (i) on or before the first day of April, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of July next following the filing; or (ii) on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce the tax as of the first day of January next following the filing.

(g) When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to the District under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amounts by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-11-19.)

Section 360. The Sanitary District Act of 1917 is amended by changing Section 22a.41 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2405/22a.41) (from Ch. 42, par. 317d.42)

Sec. 22a.41. Manner and time of letting of contracts.

Except as otherwise provided in Section 9-2-113 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as now or hereafter amended, within 6 months after judgment of confirmation of any special assessment or special tax levied in pursuance pursuant of this Act has been entered, if there is no appeal perfected, or other stay of proceedings by a court having jurisdiction, or in case the judgment for the condemnation of any property for any such improvement, or the judgment of confirmation as to any property is appealed from, then, if the petitioner files in the cause a written election to proceed with the work, notwithstanding the appeal, or other stay, steps shall be taken to let the contract for the work in the manner provided in this Act. If the judgment of condemnation or of confirmation of the special tax or special assessment levied for the work is appealed from, or stayed by a supersedeas or other order of a court having jurisdiction, and the petitioner files no such election, then the steps provided in this Act for the letting of the contract for the work shall be taken within 6 months after the final determination of the appeal or the determination of the stay unless the proceeding is abandoned as provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 85-1137; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 365. The Sanitary District Act of 1936 is amended by changing Section 79 as follows:

(70 ILCS 2805/79) (from Ch. 42, par. 447.43)

Sec. 79. Manner and time of letting of contracts. Except as otherwise provided in Section 9-2-113 of the Illinois Municipal Code, as now or hereafter amended, within 6 months after judgment of confirmation of any special assessment or special tax levied in pursuance pursuant of this Act has been entered, if there is no appeal perfected, or other stay of proceedings by a court having jurisdiction, or in case the judgment for the condemnation of any property for any such improvement, or the judgment of confirmation as to any property is appealed from, then, if the petitioner files in the cause a written election to proceed with the work, notwithstanding the appeal, or other stay, steps shall be taken to let the contract for the work in the manner provided in this Act. If the judgment of condemnation or of confirmation of the special tax or special assessment levied for the work is appealed from, or stayed by a supersedeas or other order of a court having jurisdiction, and the petitioner files no such election, then the steps provided in this Act for the letting of the contract for the work shall be taken within 6 months after the final determination of the appeal or the determination of the stay unless the proceeding is abandoned as provided in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 85-1137; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 370. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Section 3.5 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/3.5) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 353.5)

Sec. 3.5. If the district acquires a mass transit facility, all of the employees in such mass transit facility shall be transferred to and appointed as employees of the district, subject to all rights and benefits of this Act, and these employees shall be given seniority credit in accordance with the records and labor agreements of the mass transit facility. Employees who left the employ of such a mass transit facility to enter the military service of the United States shall have the same rights as to the district, under the provisions of the Service Member Employment and Reemployment Rights, Act, as they would have had thereunder as to such mass transit facility. After such acquisition, the district shall be required to extend to such former employees of such mass transit facility only the rights and benefits as to pensions and retirement as are accorded other employees of the district.

(Source: P.A. 100-1101, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 375. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Section 4.03 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/4.03) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 704.03)

Sec. 4.03. Taxes.

(a) In order to carry out any of the powers or purposes of the Authority, the Board may by ordinance adopted with the concurrence of 12 of the then Directors, impose throughout the metropolitan region any or all of the taxes provided in this Section. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes. Nothing in Public Act 95-708 is intended to invalidate any taxes currently imposed by the Authority. The increased vote requirements to impose a tax shall only apply to actions taken after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-708).

(b) The Board may impose a public transportation tax upon all persons engaged in the metropolitan region in the business of selling at retail motor fuel for operation of motor vehicles upon public highways. The tax shall be at a rate not to exceed 5% of the gross receipts from the sales of motor fuel in the course of the business. As used in this Act, the term "motor fuel" shall have the same meaning as in the Motor Fuel Tax Law. The Board may provide for details of the tax. The provisions of any tax shall conform, as closely as may be practicable, to the provisions of the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act, including without limitation, conformity to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed, except that reference in the Act to any municipality shall refer to the Authority and the tax shall be imposed only with regard to receipts from sales of motor fuel in the metropolitan region, at rates as limited by this Section.

(c) In connection with the tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section the Board may impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region motor fuel for the operation of a motor vehicle upon public highways, the tax to be at a rate not in excess of the rate of tax imposed under paragraph (b) of this Section. The Board may provide for details of the tax.

(d) The Board may impose a motor vehicle parking tax upon the privilege of parking motor vehicles at off-street parking facilities in the metropolitan region at which a fee is charged, and may provide for reasonable classifications in and exemptions to the tax, for administration and enforcement thereof and for civil penalties and refunds thereunder and may provide criminal penalties thereunder, the maximum penalties not to exceed the maximum criminal penalties provided in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. The Authority may collect and enforce the tax itself or by contract with any unit of local government. The State Department of Revenue shall have no responsibility for the collection and enforcement unless the Department agrees with the Authority to undertake the collection and enforcement. As used in this paragraph, the term "parking facility" means a parking area or structure having parking spaces for more than 2 vehicles at which motor vehicles are permitted to park in return for an hourly, daily, or other periodic fee, whether publicly or privately owned, but does not include parking spaces on a public street, the use of which is regulated by parking meters.

(e) The Board may impose a Regional Transportation Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the metropolitan region. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be 1.25% of the gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and 1% of the gross receipts from other taxable sales made in the course of that business. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will counties Counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the gross receipts from all taxable sales made in the course of that business. The tax imposed under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section; to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (e), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this Section is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois, is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the Regional Transportation Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(f) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a Regional Transportation Authority Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the metropolitan region in the business of making sales of service, who as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the metropolitan region, either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be: (1) 1.25% of the serviceman's cost price of food prepared for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of service subject to the service occupation tax by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act that is located in the metropolitan region; (2) 1.25% of the selling price of tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act; and (3) 1% of the selling price from other taxable sales of tangible personal property transferred. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties, Counties the rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred.

The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the Authority), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the Authority), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the Authority), the first paragraph of Section 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, that charge may be stated in combination in a single amount with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under any bracket schedules the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(g) If a tax has been imposed under paragraph (e), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan region, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the metropolitan region at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government. In Cook County, the tax rate shall be 1% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. In DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry and Will counties, the tax rate shall be 0.75% of the selling price of the tangible personal property, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan region. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Regional Transportation Authority. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties, and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties, and interest collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty, or interest hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21 and 22 of the Use Tax Act, and are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Regional Transportation Authority tax fund established under paragraph (n) of this Section.

(h) The Authority may impose a replacement vehicle tax of $50 on any passenger car as defined in Section 1-157 of the Illinois Vehicle Code purchased within the metropolitan region by or on behalf of an insurance company to replace a passenger car of an insured person in settlement of a total loss claim. The tax imposed may not become effective before the first day of the month following the passage of the ordinance imposing the tax and receipt of a certified copy of the ordinance by the Department of Revenue. The Department of Revenue shall collect the tax for the Authority in accordance with Sections 3-2002 and 3-2003 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

The Department shall immediately pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to the Authority. The amount to be paid to the Authority shall be the amount collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the Authority provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for that amount in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

(i) The Board may not impose any other taxes except as it may from time to time be authorized by law to impose.

(j) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under paragraphs (b), (e), (f) or (g) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section.

(k) The provisions of any tax imposed under paragraph (c) of this Section shall conform as closely as may be practicable to the provisions of the Use Tax Act, including without limitation conformity as to penalties with respect to the tax imposed and as to the powers of the State Department of Revenue to promulgate and enforce rules and regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of the tax imposed. The taxes shall be imposed only on use within the metropolitan region and at rates as provided in the paragraph.

(l) The Board in imposing any tax as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section, shall, after seeking the advice of the State Department of Revenue, provide means for retailers, users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which the taxes may be imposed as provided in those paragraphs to receive refunds of taxes improperly paid, which provisions may be at variance with the refund provisions as applicable under the Municipal Retailers Occupation Tax Act. The State Department of Revenue may provide for certificates of registration for users or purchasers of motor fuel for purposes other than those with regard to which taxes may be imposed as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Section to facilitate the reporting and nontaxability of the exempt sales or uses.

(m) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the Regional Transportation Authority as of September 1 next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing, increasing, decreasing, or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of the first month to occur not less than 60 days following such adoption and filing. Any ordinance or resolution of the Authority imposing a tax under this Section and in effect on August 1, 2007 shall remain in full force and effect and shall be administered by the Department of Revenue under the terms and conditions and rates of tax established by such ordinance or resolution until the Department begins administering and enforcing an increased tax under this Section as authorized by Public Act 95-708. The tax rates authorized by Public Act 95-708 are effective only if imposed by ordinance of the Authority.

(n) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (n), the State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois and to the Authority (i) the amount of taxes collected in each county County other than Cook County in the metropolitan region, (ii) the amount of taxes collected within the City of Chicago, and (iii) the amount collected in that portion of Cook County outside of Chicago, each amount less the amount necessary for the payment of refunds to taxpayers located in those areas described in items (i), (ii), and (iii), and less 1.5% of the remainder, which shall be transferred from the trust fund into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the Authority, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amounts, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the transfer of the amount certified into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and the payment of two-thirds of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the Authority and one-third of the amounts certified in item (i) of this subsection to the respective counties other than Cook County and the amount certified in items (ii) and (iii) of this subsection to the Authority.

In addition to the disbursement required by the preceding paragraph, an allocation shall be made in July 1991 and each year thereafter to the Regional Transportation Authority. The allocation shall be made in an amount equal to the average monthly distribution during the preceding calendar year (excluding the 2 months of lowest receipts) and the allocation shall include the amount of average monthly distribution from the Regional Transportation Authority Occupation and Use Tax Replacement Fund. The distribution made in July 1992 and each year thereafter under this paragraph and the preceding paragraph shall be reduced by the amount allocated and disbursed under this paragraph in the preceding calendar year. The Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller for disbursement the allocations made in accordance with this paragraph.

(o) Failure to adopt a budget ordinance or otherwise to comply with Section 4.01 of this Act or to adopt a Five-year Capital Program or otherwise to comply with paragraph (b) of Section 2.01 of this Act shall not affect the validity of any tax imposed by the Authority otherwise in conformity with law.

(p) At no time shall a public transportation tax or motor vehicle parking tax authorized under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this Section be in effect at the same time as any retailers' occupation, use or service occupation tax authorized under paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) of this Section is in effect.

Any taxes imposed under the authority provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) shall remain in effect only until the time as any tax authorized by paragraph paragraphs (e), (f), or (g) of this Section are imposed and becomes effective. Once any tax authorized by paragraph paragraphs (e), (f), or (g) is imposed the Board may not reimpose taxes as authorized in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of the Section unless any tax authorized by paragraph paragraphs (e), (f), or (g) of this Section becomes ineffective by means other than an ordinance of the Board.

(q) Any existing rights, remedies and obligations (including enforcement by the Regional Transportation Authority) arising under any tax imposed under paragraph paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this Section shall not be affected by the imposition of a tax under paragraph paragraphs (e), (f), or (g) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-11-19.)

Section 380. The Water Commission Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3720/4) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 254)

Sec. 4. Taxes.

(a) The board of commissioners of any county water commission may, by ordinance, impose throughout the territory of the commission any or all of the taxes provided in this Section for its corporate purposes. However, no county water commission may impose any such tax unless the commission certifies the proposition of imposing the tax to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters residing in the territory at an election in accordance with the general election law, and the proposition has been approved by a majority of those voting on the proposition.

The proposition shall be in the form provided in Section 5 or shall be substantially in the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the (insert corporate name of county water commission) YES impose (state type of tax or ------------------------

taxes to be imposed) at the NO rate of 1/4%?

-------------------------------------------------------------

Taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes.

(b) The board of commissioners may impose a County Water Commission Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the territory of the commission at a rate of 1/4% of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of such business within the territory. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax except that tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act and under subsection (e) of Section 4.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under subsection (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this paragraph is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize a county water commission to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a County Water Commission Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the territory of the commission, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the territory. The tax rate shall be 1/4% of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the territory. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the territory of the commission), 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax except that tangible personal property taxed at the 1% rate under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the territory of the commission), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the commission), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the territory of the commission), the first paragraph of Section 15, 15.5, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, and any tax for which servicemen may be liable under subsection (f) of Section 4.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under subsection (g) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize a county water commission to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(d) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using, in the territory of the commission, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the territory at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at a rate of 1/4% of the selling price of the tangible personal property within the territory, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the territory. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for a county water commission. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties, and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties, and interest so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty, or interest hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21, and 22 of the Use Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act that are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under subsection (g) of this Section.

(e) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under subsection (c) of this Section.

(f) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the county water commission as of September 1 next following the adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing.

(g) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the commission. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois the amount to be paid to the commission, which shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including any amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the commission, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the commission, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 1.5% of the remainder, which shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the commission, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amount to be paid to the commission and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment for the amount in accordance with the direction in the certification.

(h) Beginning June 1, 2016, any tax imposed pursuant to this Section may no longer be imposed or collected, unless a continuation of the tax is approved by the voters at a referendum as set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1171, eff. 1-4-19; revised 1-11-19.)

Section 385. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.25g, 3-15.12a, 10-17a, 10-22.3f, 10-22.6, 10-29, 21B-20, 21B-25, 21B-30, 21B-40, 22-30, 22-80, 24-5, 24-12, 26-2a, 26-12, 27-8.1, 27-22.05, and 27A-5, by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 2-3.173 and 10-20.67, and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 27-23.11 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25g) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25g)

Sec. 2-3.25g. Waiver or modification of mandates within the School Code and administrative rules and regulations.

(a) In this Section:

"Board" means a school board or the governing board or administrative district, as the case may be, for a joint agreement.

"Eligible applicant" means a school district, joint agreement made up of school districts, or regional superintendent of schools on behalf of schools and programs operated by the regional office of education.

"Implementation date" has the meaning set forth in Section 24A-2.5 of this Code.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this School Code or any other law of this State to the contrary, eligible applicants may petition the State Board of Education for the waiver or modification of the mandates of this School Code or of the administrative rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education. Waivers or modifications of administrative rules and regulations and modifications of mandates of this School Code may be requested when an eligible applicant demonstrates that it can address the intent of the rule or mandate in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or when necessary to stimulate innovation or improve student performance. Waivers of mandates of the School Code may be requested when the waivers are necessary to stimulate innovation or improve student performance or when the applicant demonstrates that it can address the intent of the mandate of the School Code in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner. Waivers may not be requested from laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to special education, teacher educator licensure, teacher tenure and seniority, or Section 5-2.1 of this Code or from compliance with the Every Student Succeeds Act (Public Law 114-95). Eligible applicants may not seek a waiver or seek a modification of a mandate regarding the requirements for (i) student performance data to be a significant factor in teacher or principal evaluations or (ii) teachers and principals to be rated using the 4 categories of "excellent", "proficient", "needs improvement", or "unsatisfactory". On September 1, 2014, any previously authorized waiver or modification from such requirements shall terminate.

(c) Eligible applicants, as a matter of inherent managerial policy, and any Independent Authority established under Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code may submit an application for a waiver or modification authorized under this Section. Each application must include a written request by the eligible applicant or Independent Authority and must demonstrate that the intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or be based upon a specific plan for improved student performance and school improvement. Any eligible applicant requesting a waiver or modification for the reason that intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more economical manner shall include in the application a fiscal analysis showing current expenditures on the mandate and projected savings resulting from the waiver or modification. Applications and plans developed by eligible applicants must be approved by the board or regional superintendent of schools applying on behalf of schools or programs operated by the regional office of education following a public hearing on the application and plan and the opportunity for the board or regional superintendent to hear testimony from staff directly involved in its implementation, parents, and students. The time period for such testimony shall be separate from the time period established by the eligible applicant for public comment on other matters.

(c-5) If the applicant is a school district, then the district shall post information that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the public hearing on its Internet website at least 14 days prior to the hearing. If the district is requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education authorized pursuant to Section 27-24.2 of this Code, the website information shall include the proposed amount of the fee the district will request. All school districts must publish a notice of the public hearing at least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the school district that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the hearing. Districts requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education shall include in the published notice the proposed amount of the fee the district will request. If the applicant is a joint agreement or regional superintendent, then the joint agreement or regional superintendent shall post information that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the public hearing on its Internet website at least 14 days prior to the hearing. If the joint agreement or regional superintendent is requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education authorized pursuant to Section 27-24.2 of this Code, the website information shall include the proposed amount of the fee the applicant will request. All joint agreements and regional superintendents must publish a notice of the public hearing at least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation in each school district that is a member of the joint agreement or that is served by the educational service region that sets forth the time, date, place, and general subject matter of the hearing, provided that a notice appearing in a newspaper generally circulated in more than one school district shall be deemed to fulfill this requirement with respect to all of the affected districts. Joint agreements or regional superintendents requesting to increase the fee charged for driver education shall include in the published notice the proposed amount of the fee the applicant will request. The eligible applicant must notify either electronically or in writing the affected exclusive collective bargaining agent and those State legislators representing the eligible applicant's territory of its intent to seek approval of a waiver or modification and of the hearing to be held to take testimony from staff. The affected exclusive collective bargaining agents shall be notified of such public hearing at least 7 days prior to the date of the hearing and shall be allowed to attend such public hearing. The eligible applicant shall attest to compliance with all of the notification and procedural requirements set forth in this Section.

(d) A request for a waiver or modification of administrative rules and regulations or for a modification of mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to the State Board of Education within 15 days after approval by the board or regional superintendent of schools. The application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall include a description of the public hearing. Following receipt of the waiver or modification request, the State Board shall have 45 days to review the application and request. If the State Board fails to disapprove the application within that 45-day 45 day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted. The State Board may disapprove any request if it is not based upon sound educational practices, endangers the health or safety of students or staff, compromises equal opportunities for learning, or fails to demonstrate that the intent of the rule or mandate can be addressed in a more effective, efficient, or economical manner or have improved student performance as a primary goal. Any request disapproved by the State Board may be appealed to the General Assembly by the eligible applicant as outlined in this Section.

A request for a waiver from mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to the State Board within 15 days after approval by the board or regional superintendent of schools. The application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall include a description of the public hearing. The description shall include, but need not be limited to, the means of notice, the number of people in attendance, the number of people who spoke as proponents or opponents of the waiver, a brief description of their comments, and whether there were any written statements submitted. The State Board shall review the applications and requests for completeness and shall compile the requests in reports to be filed with the General Assembly. The State Board shall file reports outlining the waivers requested by eligible applicants and appeals by eligible applicants of requests disapproved by the State Board with the Senate and the House of Representatives before each March 1 and October 1.

The report shall be reviewed by a panel of 4 members consisting of:

(1) the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

(2) the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives;

(3) the President of the Senate; and

(4) the Minority Leader of the Senate. The State Board of Education may provide the panel recommendations on waiver requests. The members of the panel shall review the report submitted by the State Board of Education and submit to the State Board of Education any notice of further consideration to any waiver request within 14 days after the member receives the report. If 3 or more of the panel members submit a notice of further consideration to any waiver request contained within the report, the State Board of Education shall submit the waiver request to the General Assembly for consideration. If less than 3 panel members submit a notice of further consideration to a waiver request, the waiver may be approved, denied, or modified by the State Board. If the State Board does not act on a waiver request within 10 days, then the waiver request is approved. If the waiver request is denied by the State Board, it shall submit the waiver request to the General Assembly for consideration.

The General Assembly may disapprove any waiver request submitted to the General Assembly pursuant to this subsection (d) in whole or in part within 60 calendar days after each house of the General Assembly next convenes after the waiver request is submitted by adoption of a resolution by a record vote of the majority of members elected in each house. If the General Assembly fails to disapprove any waiver request or appealed request within such 60-day 60 day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted. Any resolution adopted by the General Assembly disapproving a report of the State Board in whole or in part shall be binding on the State Board.

(e) An approved waiver or modification may remain in effect for a period not to exceed 5 school years and may be renewed upon application by the eligible applicant. However, such waiver or modification may be changed within that 5-year period by a board or regional superintendent of schools applying on behalf of schools or programs operated by the regional office of education following the procedure as set forth in this Section for the initial waiver or modification request. If neither the State Board of Education nor the General Assembly disapproves, the change is deemed granted.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-782, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.173)

Sec. 2-3.173. Substitute teachers; recruiting firms.

(a) In this Section, "recruiting firm" means a company with expertise in finding qualified applicants for positions and screening those potential workers for an employer.

(b) By January 1, 2019, the State Board of Education shall implement a program and adopt rules to allow school districts to supplement their substitute teacher recruitment for elementary and secondary schools with the use of recruiting firms, subject to the other provisions of this Section. To qualify for the program, a school district shall demonstrate to the State Board that, because of the severity of its substitute teacher shortage, it is unable to find an adequate amount of substitute or retired teachers and has exhausted all other efforts. Substitute teachers provided by a recruiting firm must adhere to all mandated State laws, rules, and screening requirements for substitute teachers not provided by a recruiting firm and must be paid on the same wage scale as substitute teachers not provided by a recruiting firm. This Section shall not be construed to require school districts to use recruiting firms for substitute teachers. A school district may not use a recruiting firm under this Section to circumvent any collective bargaining agreements or State laws, rules, or screening requirements for teachers. A school district may not reduce the number of full-time staff members of a department as a result of hiring a substitute teacher recruiting firm. In the event of a teacher's strike, a school district may not use a recruiting firm to hire a substitute teacher.

(c) A school district organized under Article 34 of this Code may contract with a substitute teacher recruiting firm under this Section only if the district meets the following requirements:

(1) certifies to the State Board of Education that it has adequate funds to fill and pay for all substitute teacher positions;

(2) prioritizes existing substitute teachers over substitute teachers from recruiting firms;

(3) files copies of all substitute teacher contracts with the State Board of Education; and

(4) requires that the substitute teacher recruiting firm file an annual report with the school district that would include the number of substitute teachers that were placed in the district, the total cost of the contract to the district, and the percentage of substitute teacher openings that were filled.

(d) A substitute teacher recruiting firm may enter into an agreement with a labor organization that has a collective bargaining agreement with a school district.

(Source: P.A. 100-813, eff. 8-13-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.174)

Sec. 2-3.174 2-3.173. Supporting Future Teachers Program.

(a) In this Section:

"English learner" means a child included in the definition of "English learners" under Section 14C-2 of this Code.

"Low-income student" means a student that would be included in an Organizational Unit's Low-Income Count, as calculated under Section 18-8.15 of this Code.

"Program" means the Supporting Future Teachers Program established under this Section.

"Qualified participant" means a high school graduate who: (i) can demonstrate proficiency in a language other than English or is a recipient of a State Seal of Biliteracy or, at any one time during pre-kindergarten through grade 12, was identified as a low-income student; and (ii) is a member of the community in which the participating school district is located. A "qualified participant" must be enrolled in an educator preparation program approved by the State Board of Education at a regionally accredited institution of higher education in this State.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

(b) Beginning with the 2019-2020 school year, the State Board shall establish and maintain the Supporting Future Teachers Program to assist qualified participants in acquiring a Professional Educator License.

(c) Each participating school district shall partner with an educator preparation program approved by the State Board at a regionally accredited institution of higher education in this State. Each qualified participant enrolled in the Program through the school district must be enrolled at least part-time each semester at that institution of higher education in its educator preparation program and be working toward a Professional Educator License.

(d) A qualified participant shall no longer qualify for the Program if at any time the participating school district or the institution of higher education determines that the qualified participant is no longer making substantial progress toward a degree in an approved educator preparation program.

(e) Throughout each semester of participation in the Program, the qualified participant must be employed by the participating school district and working under the supervision of a school district employee. Duties of the qualified participant may include, but are not limited to (i) working in cooperation with his or her supervisor under this subsection (e) to create classroom curriculum and lesson plans and (ii) working with and mentoring English learners or low-income students on a one-on-one basis.

Each participating school district may use appropriate State, federal, or local revenue to employ the qualified participant.

(f) At the end of each school year of the Program, each participating school district shall submit data to the State Board detailing all of the following:

(1) The number of qualified participants enrolled in the Program.

(2) The costs associated with the Program.

(3) The duties assigned to each qualified participant by his or her supervisor.

(4) The current status of each qualified participant in his or her educator preparation program.

(5) The qualified participant's Illinois Educator Identification Number, if available.

(6) Any other information requested by the State Board.

(g) Prior to the 2023-2024 school year, the State Board shall electronically submit a report to the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate detailing the first 4 years of the program, including, but not limited to, the following information:

(1) The participating school districts in the Program.

(2) The number of qualified participants enrolled in the Program.

(3) The costs associated with the Program per school district.

(4) A summary of the duties assigned to qualified participants by school district supervisors.

(5) Any other information as determined by the State Board.

(h) The State Board may establish and adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require a school district to participate in the Program.

(Source: P.A. 100-982, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-16-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.175)

Sec. 2-3.175 2-3.173. Registered apprenticeship program.

(a) In this Section, "registered apprenticeship program" means an industry-based occupational training program of study with standards reviewed and approved by the United States Department of Labor that meets each of the following characteristics:

(1) Apprentices in the program are at all times employed by a company participating in the program.

(2) The program features a structured combination of on-the-job learning supported by related technical classroom instruction, met either by a high school or a public community college.

(3) Apprentices in the program are paid a training wage of not less than the State minimum wage, which escalates throughout the life of the apprenticeship, and employment is continued with the company following conclusion of the apprenticeship for a period of not less than 2 years.

(4) Apprentices in the program earn an industry-related occupational skills certificate and a high school diploma.

(5) Apprentices in the program may earn postsecondary credit toward a certificate or degree, as applicable. "Registered apprenticeship program" does not include an apprenticeship program related to construction, as defined under the Employee Classification Act.

(b) No later than 6 months after August 20, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-992) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the State Board of Education shall initiate a rulemaking proceeding to adopt rules as may be necessary to allow students of any high school in this State who are 16 years of age or older to participate in registered apprenticeship programs. The rules shall include the waiver of all non-academic requirements mandated for graduation from a high school under this Code that would otherwise prohibit or prevent a student from participating in a registered apprenticeship program.

(Source: P.A. 100-992, eff. 8-20-18; revised 10-16-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/3-15.12a)

Sec. 3-15.12a. Alternate route to high school diploma for adult learners.

(a) The purpose of Public Act 100-514 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly is to provide eligible applicants that have been or are unable to establish agreements with a secondary or unit school district in the area in which the applicant is located with a process for attaining the authority to award high school diplomas to adult learners.

(a-5) In this Section:

"Adult learner" means a person ineligible for reenrollment under subsection (b) of Section 26-2 of this Code and 34 CFR 300.102.

"Board" means the Illinois Community College Board.

"Eligible applicant" means a community college established and operating under the authority of the Public Community College Act; a non-profit entity in partnership with a regional superintendent of schools; the chief administrator of an intermediate service center that has the authority, under rules adopted by the State Board of Education, to issue a high school diploma; or a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. In order to be an eligible applicant, an entity under this definition, other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code, must provide evidence or other documentation that it is or has been unable to establish an agreement with a secondary or unit school district in which the eligible applicant is located to provide a program in which students who successfully complete the program can receive a high school diploma from their school district of residence.

"Executive Director" means the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board.

"High school diploma program for adult learners" means a program approved to operate under this Section that provides a program of alternative alterative study to adult learners leading to the issuance of a high school diploma.

(b) An eligible applicant is authorized to design a high school diploma program for adult learners, to be approved by the Board prior to implementation. A non-profit eligible applicant shall operate this program only within the jurisdictional authority of the regional superintendent of schools, the chief administrator of an intermediate service center, or a school district organized Article 34 of this Code with whom the non-profit eligible applicant has entered into a partnership. An approved program shall include, without limitation, all of the following:

(1) An administrative structure, program activities, program staff, a budget, and a specific curriculum that is consistent with Illinois Learning Standards, as well as Illinois content standards for adults, but may be different from a regular school program in terms of location, length of school day, program sequence, multidisciplinary courses, pace, instructional activities, or any combination of these.

(2) Issuance of a high school diploma only if an adult learner meets all minimum requirements under this Code and its implementing rules for receipt of a high school diploma.

(3) Specific academic, behavioral, and emotional support services to be offered to adult learners enrolled in the program.

(4) Career and technical education courses that lead to industry certifications in high growth and in-demand industry sectors or dual credit courses from a regionally accredited post-secondary educational institution consistent with the Dual Credit Quality Act. The program may include partnering with a community college district to provide career and technical education courses that lead to industry certifications.

(5) Specific program outcomes and goals and metrics to be used by the program to determine success.

(6) The requirement that all instructional staff must hold an educator license valid for the high school grades issued under Article 21B of this Code.

(7) Any other requirements adopted by rule by the Board.

(c) Eligible applicants shall apply for approval of a high school diploma program for adult learners to the Board on forms prescribed by the Board.

(1) Initial approval shall be for a period not to exceed 2 school years.

(2) Renewal of approval shall be for a period not to exceed 4 school years and shall be contingent upon at least specific documented outcomes of student progression, graduation rates, and earning of industry-recognized credentials.

(3) Program approval may be given only if the Executive Director determines that the eligible applicant has provided assurance through evidence of other documentation that it will meet the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section and any rules adopted by the Board. The Board shall make public any evaluation criteria it uses in making a determination of program approval or denial.

(4) Notwithstanding anything in this Code to the contrary, a non-profit eligible applicant shall provide the following to the Board:

(A) documentation that the non-profit entity will fulfill the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section;

(B) evidence that the non-profit entity has the capacity to fulfill the requirements of this Section;

(C) a description of the coordination and oversight that the eligible entity will provide in the administration of the program by the non-profit entity;

(D) evidence that the non-profit entity has a history of providing services to adults 18 years of age or older whose educational and training opportunities have been limited by educational disadvantages, disabilities, and challenges.

(5) If an eligible applicant that has been approved fails to meet any of the requirements of subsection (b) of this Section and any rules adopted by the Board, the Executive Director shall immediately initiate a process to revoke the eligible applicant's approval to provide the program, pursuant to rules adopted by the Board.

(d) The Board may adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-514, eff. 9-22-17; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-448)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and percentage of all students who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education or advanced academic program and, of those students: (i) the racial and ethnic breakdown, (ii) the percentage who are classified as low-income, and (iii) the number and percentage of students who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement and, of those students, the percentage who are classified as low-income; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, and the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district;

(I) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(K) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount; and

(L) a school district's administrative costs; and .

(M) (L) whether or not the school has participated in the Illinois Youth Survey. In this paragraph (M) (L), "Illinois Youth Survey" means a self-report survey, administered in school settings every 2 years, designed to gather information about health and social indicators, including substance abuse patterns and the attitudes of students in grades 8, 10, and 12.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection (2):

"Administrative costs" means costs associated with executive, administrative, or managerial functions within the school district that involve planning, organizing, managing, or directing the school district.

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study to which students are assigned based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-227, eff. 8-18-17; 100-364, eff. 1-1-18; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-807, eff. 8-10-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1121, eff. 1-1-19; revised 12-19-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-448)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and percentage of all students who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education or advanced academic program and, of those students: (i) the racial and ethnic breakdown, (ii) the percentage who are classified as low-income, and (iii) the number and percentage of students who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement and, of those students, the percentage who are classified as low-income; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; average daily attendance; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, and the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district;

(I) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount;

(K) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount; and

(L) a school district's administrative costs; and .

(M) (L) whether or not the school has participated in the Illinois Youth Survey. In this paragraph (M) (L), "Illinois Youth Survey" means a self-report survey, administered in school settings every 2 years, designed to gather information about health and social indicators, including substance abuse patterns and the attitudes of students in grades 8, 10, and 12.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection (2):

"Administrative costs" means costs associated with executive, administrative, or managerial functions within the school district that involve planning, organizing, managing, or directing the school district.

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study to which students are assigned based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

For the purposes of paragraph (A) of this subsection (2), "average daily attendance" means the average of the actual number of attendance days during the previous school year for any enrolled student who is subject to compulsory attendance by Section 26-1 of this Code at each school and charter school.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section. The school district report card shall include the average daily attendance, as that term is defined in subsection (2) of this Section, of students who have individualized education programs and students who have 504 plans that provide for special education services within the school district.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-227, eff. 8-18-17; 100-364, eff. 1-1-18; 100-448, eff. 7-1-19; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-807, eff. 8-10-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1121, eff. 1-1-19; revised 12-19-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.67)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2023)

Sec. 10-20.67. Short-term substitute teacher training.

(a) Each school board shall, in collaboration with its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers, jointly develop a short-term substitute teacher training program that provides individuals who hold a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License under Section 21B-20 of this Code with information on curriculum, classroom management techniques, school safety, and district and building operations. The State Board of Education may develop a model short-term substitute teacher training program for use by a school board under this subsection (a) if the school board and its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers agree to use the State Board's model. A school board with a substitute teacher training program in place before July 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-596) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly may utilize that program to satisfy the requirements of this subsection (a).

(b) Nothing in this Section prohibits a school board from offering substitute training to substitute teachers licensed under paragraph (3) of Section 21B-20 of this Code or to substitute teachers holding a Professional Educator License.

(c) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 100-596, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.68)

Sec. 10-20.68 10-20.67. School resource officer.

(a) In this Section, "school resource officer" means a law enforcement officer who has been primarily assigned to a school or school district under an agreement with a local law enforcement agency.

(b) Beginning January 1, 2021, any law enforcement agency that provides a school resource officer under this Section shall provide to the school district a certificate of completion, or approved waiver, issued by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board under Section 10.22 of the Illinois Police Training Act indicating that the subject officer has completed the requisite course of instruction in the applicable subject areas within one year of assignment, or has prior experience and training which satisfies this requirement.

(c) In an effort to defray the related costs, any law enforcement agency that provides a school resource officer should apply for grant funding through the federal Community Oriented Policing Services grant program.

(Source: P.A. 100-984, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, 356z.25, and 356z.26, and 356z.29, and 356z.32 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The Department of Insurance shall enforce the requirements of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1024, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to expel a pupil, the written expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why removing the pupil from the learning environment is in the best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons.

Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of a pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian, the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the suspension. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions and consequences available to school officials, school exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is recommended that school officials consider forms of non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school suspensions or expulsions.

(b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies by which school administrators are required to suspend or expel students for particular behaviors.

(b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be used only if the student's continuing presence in school would pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.

(b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used only if other appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community" and "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) of this Section, it shall be documented whether other interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that there were no other appropriate and available interventions.

(b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer than 4 school days shall be provided appropriate and available support services during the period of their suspension. For purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available support services" shall be determined by school authorities. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no such appropriate and available services.

A school district may refer students who are expelled to appropriate and available support services.

A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting.

(b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which suspended pupils, including those pupils suspended from the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a pupil's parent or guardian to notify school officials that a pupil suspended from the school bus does not have alternate transportation to school.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall be invited to send a representative to consult with the board at such meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause for expulsion or suspension.

(c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to provide ongoing professional development to teachers, administrators, school board members, school resource officers, and staff on the adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, the appropriate and available supportive services for the promotion of student attendance and engagement, and developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote positive and healthy school climates.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the federal Federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(h) School officials shall not advise or encourage students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic difficulties.

(i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

(j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, special charter districts, and school districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(k) The expulsion of children enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.

(l) Beginning with the 2018-2019 school year, an in-school suspension program provided by a school district for any students in kindergarten through grade 12 may focus on promoting non-violent conflict resolution and positive interaction with other students and school personnel. A school district may employ a school social worker or a licensed mental health professional to oversee an in-school suspension program in kindergarten through grade 12.

(Source: P.A. 99-456, eff. 9-15-16; 100-105, eff. 1-1-18; 100-810, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1035, eff. 8-22-18; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-29)

Sec. 10-29. Remote educational programs.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "remote educational program" means an educational program delivered to students in the home or other location outside of a school building that meets all of the following criteria:

(1) A student may participate in the program only after the school district, pursuant to adopted school board policy, and a person authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code determine that a remote educational program will best serve the student's individual learning needs. The adopted school board policy shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(A) Criteria for determining that a remote educational program will best serve a student's individual learning needs. The criteria must include consideration of, at a minimum, a student's prior attendance, disciplinary record, and academic history.

(B) Any limitations on the number of students or grade levels that may participate in a remote educational program.

(C) A description of the process that the school district will use to approve participation in the remote educational program. The process must include without limitation a requirement that, for any student who qualifies to receive services pursuant to the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004, the student's participation in a remote educational program receive prior approval from the student's individualized education program team.

(D) A description of the process the school district will use to develop and approve a written remote educational plan that meets the requirements of subdivision (5) of this subsection (a).

(E) A description of the system the school district will establish to determine student participation in instruction in accordance with the remote educational program.

(F) A description of the process for renewing a remote educational program at the expiration of its term.

(G) Such other terms and provisions as the school district deems necessary to provide for the establishment and delivery of a remote educational program.

(2) The school district has determined that the remote educational program's curriculum is aligned to State learning standards and that the program offers instruction and educational experiences consistent with those given to students at the same grade level in the district.

(3) The remote educational program is delivered by instructors that meet the following qualifications:

(A) they are certificated under Article 21 of this Code;

(B) (blank); and

(C) they have responsibility for all of the following elements of the program: planning instruction, diagnosing learning needs, prescribing content delivery through class activities, assessing learning, reporting outcomes to administrators and parents and guardians, and evaluating the effects of instruction.

(4) During the period of time from and including the opening date to the closing date of the regular school term of the school district established pursuant to Section 10-19 of this Code, participation in a remote educational program may be claimed for evidence-based funding purposes under Section 18-8.15 of this Code on any calendar day, notwithstanding whether the day is a day of pupil attendance or institute day on the school district's calendar or any other provision of law restricting instruction on that day. If the district holds year-round classes in some buildings, the district shall classify each student's participation in a remote educational program as either on a year-round or a non-year-round schedule for purposes of claiming evidence-based funding. Outside of the regular school term of the district, the remote educational program may be offered as part of any summer school program authorized by this Code.

(5) Each student participating in a remote educational program must have a written remote educational plan that has been approved by the school district and a person authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code. The school district and a person authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code must approve any amendment to a remote educational plan. The remote educational plan must include, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Specific achievement goals for the student aligned to State learning standards.

(B) A description of all assessments that will be used to measure student progress, which description shall indicate the assessments that will be administered at an attendance center within the school district.

(C) A description of the progress reports that will be provided to the school district and the person or persons authorized to enroll the student under Section 10-20.12b of this Code.

(D) Expectations, processes, and schedules for interaction between a teacher and student.

(E) A description of the specific responsibilities of the student's family and the school district with respect to equipment, materials, phone and Internet service, and any other requirements applicable to the home or other location outside of a school building necessary for the delivery of the remote educational program.

(F) If applicable, a description of how the remote educational program will be delivered in a manner consistent with the student's individualized education program required by Section 614(d) of the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 or plan to ensure compliance with Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

(G) A description of the procedures and opportunities for participation in academic and extracurricular extra-curricular activities and programs within the school district.

(H) The identification of a parent, guardian, or other responsible adult who will provide direct supervision of the program. The plan must include an acknowledgment by the parent, guardian, or other responsible adult that he or she may engage only in non-teaching duties not requiring instructional judgment or the evaluation of a student. The plan shall designate the parent, guardian, or other responsible adult as non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel under subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 of this Code.

(I) The identification of a school district administrator who will oversee the remote educational program on behalf of the school district and who may be contacted by the student's parents with respect to any issues or concerns with the program.

(J) The term of the student's participation in the remote educational program, which may not extend for longer than 12 months, unless the term is renewed by the district in accordance with subdivision (7) of this subsection (a).

(K) A description of the specific location or locations in which the program will be delivered. If the remote educational program is to be delivered to a student in any location other than the student's home, the plan must include a written determination by the school district that the location will provide a learning environment appropriate for the delivery of the program. The location or locations in which the program will be delivered shall be deemed a long distance teaching reception area under subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 of this Code.

(L) Certification by the school district that the plan meets all other requirements of this Section.

(6) Students participating in a remote educational program must be enrolled in a school district attendance center pursuant to the school district's enrollment policy or policies. A student participating in a remote educational program must be tested as part of all assessments administered by the school district pursuant to Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code at the attendance center in which the student is enrolled and in accordance with the attendance center's assessment policies and schedule. The student must be included within all accountability determinations for the school district and attendance center under State and federal law.

(7) The term of a student's participation in a remote educational program may not extend for longer than 12 months, unless the term is renewed by the school district. The district may only renew a student's participation in a remote educational program following an evaluation of the student's progress in the program, a determination that the student's continuation in the program will best serve the student's individual learning needs, and an amendment to the student's written remote educational plan addressing any changes for the upcoming term of the program.

For purposes of this Section, a remote educational program does not include instruction delivered to students through an e-learning program approved under Section 10-20.56 of this Code.

(b) A school district may, by resolution of its school board, establish a remote educational program.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The impact of remote educational programs on wages, hours, and terms and conditions of employment of educational employees within the school district shall be subject to local collective bargaining agreements.

(e) The use of a home or other location outside of a school building for a remote educational program shall not cause the home or other location to be deemed a public school facility.

(f) A remote educational program may be used, but is not required, for instruction delivered to a student in the home or other location outside of a school building that is not claimed for evidence-based funding purposes under Section 18-8.15 of this Code.

(g) School districts that, pursuant to this Section, adopt a policy for a remote educational program must submit to the State Board of Education a copy of the policy and any amendments thereto, as well as data on student participation in a format specified by the State Board of Education. The State Board of Education may perform or contract with an outside entity to perform an evaluation of remote educational programs in this State.

(h) The State Board of Education may adopt any rules necessary to ensure compliance by remote educational programs with the requirements of this Section and other applicable legal requirements.

(Source: P.A. 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-194, eff. 7-30-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-1046, eff. 8-23-18; revised 10-4-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-20)

Sec. 21B-20. Types of licenses. The State Board of Education shall implement a system of educator licensure, whereby individuals employed in school districts who are required to be licensed must have one of the following licenses: (i) a professional educator license; (ii) an educator license with stipulations; (iii) a substitute teaching license; or (iv) until June 30, 2023, a short-term substitute teaching license. References in law regarding individuals certified or certificated or required to be certified or certificated under Article 21 of this Code shall also include individuals licensed or required to be licensed under this Article. The first year of all licenses ends on June 30 following one full year of the license being issued.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to govern the requirements for licenses and endorsements under this Section.

(1) Professional Educator License. Persons who (i) have successfully completed an approved educator preparation program and are recommended for licensure by the Illinois institution offering the educator preparation program, (ii) have successfully completed the required testing under Section 21B-30 of this Code, (iii) have successfully completed coursework on the psychology of, the identification of, and the methods of instruction for the exceptional child, including without limitation children with learning disabilities, (iv) have successfully completed coursework in methods of reading and reading in the content area, and (v) have met all other criteria established by rule of the State Board of Education shall be issued a Professional Educator License. All Professional Educator Licenses are valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the license being issued. The Professional Educator License shall be endorsed with specific areas and grade levels in which the individual is eligible to practice.

Individuals can receive subsequent endorsements on the Professional Educator License. Subsequent endorsements shall require a minimum of 24 semester hours of coursework in the endorsement area and passage of the applicable content area test, unless otherwise specified by rule.

(2) Educator License with Stipulations. An Educator License with Stipulations shall be issued an endorsement that limits the license holder to one particular position or does not require completion of an approved educator program or both.

An individual with an Educator License with Stipulations must not be employed by a school district or any other entity to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

An Educator License with Stipulations may be issued with the following endorsements:

(A) (Blank). A A provisional educator endorsement for a service member or a spouse of a service member is valid until June 30 immediately following 3 years of the license being issued, provided that any remaining testing and coursework deficiencies are met under this Section. In this Section, "spouse of a service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is the spouse of an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.

Except as otherwise provided under this subparagraph, a

(B) Alternative provisional educator. An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Successfully completed the first phase of the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers, as described in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The alternative provisional educator endorsement is valid for 2 years of teaching and may be renewed for a third year by an individual meeting the requirements set forth in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(C) Alternative provisional superintendent. An alternative provisional superintendent endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations entitles the holder to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent in a school district's central office. This endorsement may only be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a master's degree in a management field other than education.

(ii) Been employed for a period of at least 5 years in a management level position in a field other than education.

(iii) Successfully completed the first phase of an alternative route to superintendent endorsement program, as provided in Section 21B-55 of this Code.

(iv) Passed a test of basic skills and content area tests required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The endorsement is valid for 2 fiscal years in order to complete one full year of serving as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(D) (Blank).

(E) Career and technical educator. A career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 60 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or an accredited trade and technical institution and has a minimum of 2,000 hours of experience outside of education in each area to be taught.

The career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed. For individuals who were issued the career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations on or after January 1, 2015, the license may be renewed if the individual passes a test of basic skills or test of work proficiency, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

An individual who holds a valid career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations but does not hold a bachelor's degree may substitute teach in career and technical education classrooms.

(F) Part-time provisional career and technical educator or provisional career and technical educator. A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement or a provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 8,000 hours of work experience in the skill for which the applicant is seeking the endorsement. It is the responsibility of each employing school board and regional office of education to provide verification, in writing, to the State Superintendent of Education at the time the application is submitted that no qualified teacher holding a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations with a career and technical educator endorsement is available and that actual circumstances require such issuance.

The provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed for 5 years. For individuals who were issued the provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations on or after January 1, 2015, the license may be renewed if the individual passes a test of basic skills or test of work proficiency, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for teaching no more than 2 courses of study for grades 6 through 12. The part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed for 5 years if the individual makes application for renewal.

An individual who holds a provisional or part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations but does not hold a bachelor's degree may substitute teach in career and technical education classrooms.

(G) Transitional bilingual educator. A transitional bilingual educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for the purpose of providing instruction in accordance with Article 14C of this Code to an applicant who provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Possesses adequate speaking, reading, and writing ability in the language other than English in which transitional bilingual education is offered.

(ii) Has the ability to successfully communicate in English.

(iii) Either possessed, within 5 years previous to his or her applying for a transitional bilingual educator endorsement, a valid and comparable teaching certificate or comparable authorization issued by a foreign country or holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

A transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall be valid for prekindergarten through grade 12, is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued, and shall not be renewed.

Persons holding a transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall not be employed to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

(H) Language endorsement. In an effort to alleviate the shortage of teachers speaking a language other than English in the public schools, an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations may also apply for a language endorsement, provided that the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds a transitional bilingual endorsement.

(ii) Has demonstrated proficiency in the language for which the endorsement is to be issued by passing the applicable language content test required by the State Board of Education.

(iii) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

(iv) Has passed a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A language endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for prekindergarten through grade 12 for the same validity period as the individual's transitional bilingual educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations and shall not be renewed.

(I) Visiting international educator. A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an individual who is being recruited by a particular school district that conducts formal recruitment programs outside of the United States to secure the services of qualified teachers and who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States.

(ii) Has been prepared as a teacher at the grade level for which he or she will be employed.

(iii) Has adequate content knowledge in the subject to be taught.

(iv) Has an adequate command of the English language.

A holder of a visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall be permitted to teach in bilingual education programs in the language that was the medium of instruction in his or her teacher preparation program, provided that he or she passes the English Language Proficiency Examination or another test of writing skills in English identified by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 3 years and shall not be renewed.

(J) Paraprofessional educator. A paraprofessional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds a high school diploma or its recognized equivalent and either holds an associate's degree or a minimum of 60 semester hours of credit from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or has passed a test of basic skills required under Section 21B-30 of this Code. The paraprofessional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed through application and payment of the appropriate fee, as required under Section 21B-40 of this Code. An individual who holds only a paraprofessional educator endorsement is not subject to additional requirements in order to renew the endorsement.

(K) Chief school business official. A chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who qualifies by having a master's degree or higher, 2 years of full-time administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 24 semester hours of graduate credit in a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of school business administrators and by passage of the applicable State tests, including a test of basic skills and applicable content area test.

The chief school business official endorsement may also be affixed to the Educator License with Stipulations of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree in business administration, finance, accounting, or public administration and who completes an additional 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and passes the applicable State tests, including a test of basic skills and applicable content area test. This endorsement shall be required for any individual employed as a chief school business official.

The chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed if the license holder completes renewal requirements as required for individuals who hold a Professional Educator License endorsed for chief school business official under Section 21B-45 of this Code and such rules as may be adopted by the State Board of Education.

The State Board of Education shall adopt any rules necessary to implement Public Act 100-288.

(L) Provisional in-state educator. A provisional in-state educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to a candidate who has completed an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education and who has not successfully completed an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness but who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds at least a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Has completed an approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution.

(iii) Has passed a test of basic skills and applicable content area test, as required by Section 21B-30 of this Code.

(iv) Has attempted an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness and received a minimum score on that assessment, as established by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A provisional in-state educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for one full fiscal year after the date of issuance and may not be renewed.

(M) School support personnel intern. A school support personnel intern endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued as specified by rule.

(N) Special education area. A special education area endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued as defined and specified by rule.

(3) Substitute Teaching License. A Substitute Teaching License may be issued to qualified applicants for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Substitute Teaching License must hold a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for 5 years.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Substitute Teaching License.

A substitute teacher may only teach in the place of a licensed teacher who is under contract with the employing board. If, however, there is no licensed teacher under contract because of an emergency situation, then a district may employ a substitute teacher for no longer than 30 calendar days per each vacant position in the district if the district notifies the appropriate regional office of education within 5 business days after the employment of the substitute teacher in the emergency situation. An emergency situation is one in which an unforeseen vacancy has occurred and (i) a teacher is unable to fulfill his or her contractual duties or (ii) teacher capacity needs of the district exceed previous indications, and the district is actively engaged in advertising to hire a fully licensed teacher for the vacant position.

There is no limit on the number of days that a substitute teacher may teach in a single school district, provided that no substitute teacher may teach for longer than 90 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. A substitute teacher who holds a Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations shall not teach for more than 120 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. The limitations in this paragraph (3) on the number of days a substitute teacher may be employed do not apply to any school district operating under Article 34 of this Code.

A school district may not require an individual who holds a valid Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations to seek or hold a Substitute Teaching License to teach as a substitute teacher.

(4) Short-Term Substitute Teaching License. Beginning on July 1, 2018 and until June 30, 2023, the State Board of Education may issue a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License. A Short-Term Substitute Teaching License may be issued to a qualified applicant for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Short-Term Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License must hold an associate's degree or have completed at least 60 credit hours from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

Short-Term Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License.

The provisions of Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code apply to short-term substitute teachers.

An individual holding a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License may teach no more than 5 consecutive days per licensed teacher who is under contract. For teacher absences lasting 6 or more days per licensed teacher who is under contract, a school district may not hire an individual holding a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License. An individual holding a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License must complete the training program under Section 10-20.67 or 34-18.60 of this Code to be eligible to teach at a public school. This paragraph (4) is inoperative on and after July 1, 2023.

(Source: P.A. 99-35, eff. 1-1-16; 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-8, eff. 7-1-17; 100-13, eff. 7-1-17; 100-288, eff. 8-24-17; 100-596, eff. 7-1-18; 100-821, eff. 9-3-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-25)

Sec. 21B-25. Endorsement on licenses. All licenses issued under paragraph (1) of Section 21B-20 of this Code shall be specifically endorsed by the State Board of Education for each content area, school support area, and administrative area for which the holder of the license is qualified. Recognized institutions approved to offer educator preparation programs shall be trained to add endorsements to licenses issued to applicants who meet all of the requirements for the endorsement or endorsements, including passing any required tests. The State Superintendent of Education shall randomly audit institutions to ensure that all rules and standards are being followed for entitlement or when endorsements are being recommended.

(1) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall establish, by rule, the grade level and subject area endorsements to be added to the Professional Educator License. These rules shall outline the requirements for obtaining each endorsement.

(2) In addition to any and all grade level and content area endorsements developed by rule, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall develop the requirements for the following endorsements:

(A) (Blank).

(B) Principal endorsement. A principal endorsement shall be affixed to a Professional Educator License of any holder who qualifies by having all of the following:

(i) Successful completion of a principal preparation program approved in accordance with Section 21B-60 of this Code and any applicable rules.

(ii) At least 4 total years of teaching or 4 total years of working in the capacity of school support personnel in an Illinois public school or nonpublic school recognized by the State Board of Education, in a school under the supervision of the Department of Corrections, or in an out-of-state public school or out-of-state nonpublic school meeting out-of-state recognition standards comparable to those approved by the State Superintendent of Education; however, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall allow, by rules, for fewer than 4 years of experience based on meeting standards set forth in such rules, including without limitation a review of performance evaluations or other evidence of demonstrated qualifications.

(iii) A master's degree or higher from a regionally accredited college or university.

(C) Chief school business official endorsement. A chief school business official endorsement shall be affixed to the Professional Educator License of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree or higher, 2 years of full-time administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 24 semester hours of graduate credit in a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of school business administrators and by passage of the applicable State tests. The chief school business official endorsement may also be affixed to the Professional Educator License of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree in business administration, finance, accounting, or public administration and who completes an additional 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and passes the applicable State tests. This endorsement shall be required for any individual employed as a chief school business official.

(D) Superintendent endorsement. A superintendent endorsement shall be affixed to the Professional Educator License of any holder who has completed a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of superintendents of schools, has had at least 2 years of experience employed full-time in a general administrative position or as a full-time principal, director of special education, or chief school business official in the public schools or in a State-recognized nonpublic school in which the chief administrator is required to have the licensure necessary to be a principal in a public school in this State and where a majority of the teachers are required to have the licensure necessary to be instructors in a public school in this State, and has passed the required State tests; or of any holder who has completed a program that is not an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education and that has recognition standards comparable to those approved by the State Superintendent of Education and holds the general administrative, principal, or chief school business official endorsement and who has had 2 years of experience as a principal, director of special education, or chief school business official while holding a valid educator license or certificate comparable in validity and educational and experience requirements and has passed the appropriate State tests, as provided in Section 21B-30 of this Code. The superintendent endorsement shall allow individuals to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(E) Teacher leader endorsement. It shall be the policy of this State to improve the quality of instructional leaders by providing a career pathway for teachers interested in serving in leadership roles, but not as principals. The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may issue a teacher leader endorsement under this subdivision (E). Persons who meet and successfully complete the requirements of the endorsement shall be issued a teacher leader endorsement on the Professional Educator License for serving in schools in this State. Teacher leaders may qualify to serve in such positions as department chairs, coaches, mentors, curriculum and instruction leaders, or other leadership positions as defined by the district. The endorsement shall be available to those teachers who (i) hold a Professional Educator License, (ii) hold a master's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution, (iii) have completed a program of study that has been approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and (iv) have successfully demonstrated competencies as defined by rule.

A teacher who meets the requirements set forth in this Section and holds a teacher leader endorsement may evaluate teachers pursuant to Section 24A-5 of this Code, provided that the individual has completed the evaluation component required by Section 24A-3 of this Code and a teacher leader is allowed to evaluate personnel under the respective school district's collective bargaining agreement.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish and implement the teacher leader endorsement program and to specify the positions for which this endorsement shall be required.

(F) Special education endorsement. A special education endorsement in one or more areas shall be affixed to a Professional Educator License for any individual that meets those requirements established by the State Board of Education in rules. Special education endorsement areas shall include without limitation the following:

(i) Learning Behavior Specialist I;

(ii) Learning Behavior Specialist II;

(iii) Speech Language Pathologist;

(iv) Blind or Visually Impaired;

(v) Deaf-Hard of Hearing;

(vi) Early Childhood Special Education; and

(vii) Director of Special Education.

Notwithstanding anything in this Code to the contrary, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may add additional areas of special education by rule.

(G) School support personnel endorsement. School support personnel endorsement areas shall include, but are not limited to, school counselor, marriage and family therapist, school psychologist, school speech and language pathologist, school nurse, and school social worker. This endorsement is for individuals who are not teachers or administrators, but still require licensure to work in an instructional support position in a public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control or a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law. The school support personnel endorsement shall be affixed to the Professional Educator License and shall meet all of the requirements established in any rules adopted to implement this subdivision (G). The holder of such an endorsement is entitled to all of the rights and privileges granted holders of any other Professional Educator License, including teacher benefits, compensation, and working conditions.

(Source: P.A. 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-623, eff. 7-22-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-13, eff. 7-1-17; 100-267, eff. 8-22-17; 100-288, eff. 8-24-17; 100-596, eff. 7-1-18; 100-780, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-30)

Sec. 21B-30. Educator testing.

(a) This Section applies beginning on July 1, 2012.

(b) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall design and implement a system of examinations, which shall be required prior to the issuance of educator licenses. These examinations and indicators must be based on national and State professional teaching standards, as determined by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The State Board of Education may adopt such rules as may be necessary to implement and administer this Section.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, applicants seeking a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations shall be required to pass a test of basic skills before the license is issued, unless the endorsement the individual is seeking does not require passage of the test. All applicants completing Illinois-approved, teacher education or school service personnel preparation programs shall be required to pass the State Board of Education's recognized test of basic skills prior to starting their student teaching or starting the final semester of their internship. An institution of higher learning, as defined in the Higher Education Student Assistance Act, may not require an applicant to complete the State Board's recognized test of basic skills prior to the semester before student teaching or prior to the semester before starting the final semester of an internship. An individual who passes a test of basic skills does not need to do so again for subsequent endorsements or other educator licenses.

(d) All applicants seeking a State license shall be required to pass a test of content area knowledge for each area of endorsement for which there is an applicable test. There shall be no exception to this requirement. No candidate shall be allowed to student teach or serve as the teacher of record until he or she has passed the applicable content area test.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, beginning on September 1, 2015, all candidates completing teacher preparation programs in this State and all candidates subject to Section 21B-35 of this Code are required to pass a teacher performance assessment approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

(g) Tests of basic skills and content area knowledge and the teacher performance assessment shall be the tests that from time to time are designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and may be tests prepared by an educational testing organization or tests designed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The areas to be covered by a test of basic skills shall include reading, language arts, and mathematics. The test of content area knowledge shall assess content knowledge in a specific subject field. The tests must be designed to be racially neutral to ensure that no person taking the tests is discriminated against on the basis of race, color, national origin, or other factors unrelated to the person's ability to perform as a licensed employee. The score required to pass the tests shall be fixed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The tests shall be administered not fewer than 3 times a year at such time and place as may be designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

The State Board shall implement a test or tests to assess the speaking, reading, writing, and grammar skills of applicants for an endorsement or a license issued under subdivision (G) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-20 of this Code in the English language and in the language of the transitional bilingual education program requested by the applicant.

(h) Except as provided in Section 34-6 of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall apply equally in any school district subject to Article 34 of this Code.

(i) The rules developed to implement and enforce the testing requirements under this Section shall include without limitation provisions governing test selection, test validation and determination of a passing score, administration of the tests, frequency of administration, applicant fees, frequency of applicants taking the tests, the years for which a score is valid, and appropriate special accommodations. The State Board of Education shall develop such rules as may be needed to ensure uniformity from year to year in the level of difficulty for each form of an assessment.

(Source: P.A. 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-657, eff. 7-28-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-596, eff. 7-1-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-932, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-40)

Sec. 21B-40. Fees.

(a) Beginning with the start of the new licensure system established pursuant to this Article, the following fees shall be charged to applicants:

(1) A $100 application fee for a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations. Beginning on July 1, 2018, the license renewal fee for an Educator License with Stipulations with a paraprofessional educator endorsement shall be $25.

(1.5) A $50 application fee for a Substitute Teaching License. If the application for a Substitute Teaching License is made and granted after July 1, 2017, the licensee may apply for a refund of the application fee within 18 months of issuance of the new license and shall be issued that refund by the State Board of Education if the licensee provides evidence to the State Board of Education that the licensee has taught pursuant to the Substitute Teaching License at least 10 full school days within one year of issuance.

(1.7) A $25 application fee for a Short-Term Substitute Teaching License. The Short-Term Substitute Teaching License must be registered in at least one region in this State, but does not require a registration fee. The licensee may apply for a refund of the application fee within 18 months of issuance of the new license and shall be issued that refund by the State Board of Education if the licensee provides evidence to the State Board of Education that the licensee has taught pursuant to the Short-Term Substitute Teaching License at least 10 full school days within one year of issuance.

(2) A $150 application fee for individuals who have not been entitled by an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education and are seeking any of the licenses set forth in subdivision (1) of this subsection (a).

(3) A $50 application fee for each endorsement or approval.

(4) A $10 per year registration fee for the course of the validity cycle to register the license, which shall be paid to the regional office of education having supervision and control over the school in which the individual holding the license is to be employed. If the individual holding the license is not yet employed, then the license may be registered in any county in this State. The registration fee must be paid in its entirety the first time the individual registers the license for a particular validity period in a single region. No additional fee may be charged for that validity period should the individual subsequently register the license in additional regions. An individual must register the license (i) immediately after initial issuance of the license and (ii) at the beginning of each renewal cycle if the individual has satisfied the renewal requirements required under this Code.

Beginning on July 1, 2017, at the beginning of each renewal cycle, individuals who hold a Substitute Teaching License may apply for a reimbursement of the registration fee within 18 months of renewal and shall be issued that reimbursement by the State Board of Education from funds appropriated for that purpose if the licensee provides evidence to the State Board of Education that the licensee has taught pursuant to the Substitute Teaching License at least 10 full school days within one year of renewal.

(b) All application fees paid pursuant to subdivisions (1) through (3) of subsection (a) of this Section shall be deposited into the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund and shall be used, subject to appropriation, by the State Board of Education to provide the technology and human resources necessary for the timely and efficient processing of applications and for the renewal of licenses. Funds available from the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund may also be used by the State Board of Education to support the recruitment and retention of educators, to support educator preparation programs as they seek national accreditation, and to provide professional development aligned with the requirements set forth in Section 21B-45 of this Code. A majority of the funds in the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund must be dedicated to the timely and efficient processing of applications and for the renewal of licenses. The Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund is not subject to administrative charge transfers, authorized under Section 8h of the State Finance Act, from the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund into any other fund of this State, and moneys in the Teacher Certificate Fee Revolving Fund shall not revert back to the General Revenue Fund at any time.

The regional superintendent of schools shall deposit the registration fees paid pursuant to subdivision (4) of subsection (a) of this Section into the institute fund established pursuant to Section 3-11 of this Code.

(c) The State Board of Education and each regional office of education are authorized to charge a service or convenience fee for the use of credit cards for the payment of license fees. This service or convenience fee shall not exceed the amount required by the credit card processing company or vendor that has entered into a contract with the State Board or regional office of education for this purpose, and the fee must be paid to that company or vendor.

(d) If, at the time a certificate issued under Article 21 of this Code is exchanged for a license issued under this Article, a person has paid registration fees for any years of the validity period of the certificate and these years have not expired when the certificate is exchanged, then those fees must be applied to the registration of the new license.

(Source: P.A. 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-550, eff. 11-8-17; 100-596, eff. 7-1-18; 100-772, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; administration of undesignated asthma medication; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Epinephrine injector" includes an auto-injector approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the administration of epinephrine and a pre-filled syringe approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration and used for the administration of epinephrine that contains a pre-measured dose of epinephrine that is equivalent to the dosages used in an auto-injector.

"Asthma medication" means quick-relief asthma medication, including albuterol or other short-acting bronchodilators, that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of respiratory distress. "Asthma medication" includes medication delivered through a device, including a metered dose inhaler with a reusable or disposable spacer or a nebulizer with a mouthpiece or mask.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Respiratory distress" means the perceived or actual presence of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, breathing difficulty, or any other symptoms consistent with asthma. Respiratory distress may be categorized as "mild-to-moderate" or "severe".

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, an opioid overdose, or respiratory distress.

"Undesignated asthma medication" means asthma medication prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

"Undesignated epinephrine injector" means an epinephrine injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public, charter, or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of an epinephrine injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose; (v) provide undesignated asthma medication to a student for self-administration only or to any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan to administer to the student that meets the student's prescription on file; (vi) administer undesignated asthma medication that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan or asthma action plan, plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, or individualized education program plan that authorizes the use of asthma medication; and (vii) administer undesignated asthma medication to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel believes in good faith is having respiratory distress.

(c) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for school epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, or administers undesignated asthma medication to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having respiratory distress, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol and a prescription for undesignated epinephrine injectors, an opioid antagonist, or undesignated asthma medication, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine injector, the use of an opioid antagonist, or the use of undesignated asthma medication, regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-15) If the requirements of this Section are met, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer undesignated asthma medication to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be experiencing respiratory distress (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, including before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated asthma medication on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine injectors in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of asthma medication in any secure location that is accessible before, during, or after school where a person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, a classroom or the nurse's office. A physician, a physician assistant who has prescriptive authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has prescriptive authority under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated asthma medication in the name of the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of undesignated asthma medication must be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated epinephrine injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of undesignated asthma medication, a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must notify the student's parent or guardian or emergency contact, if known, and the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol and a prescription for the undesignated asthma medication of its use. The district or school must follow up with the school nurse, if available, and may, with the consent of the child's parent or guardian, notify the child's health care provider of record, as determined under this Section, of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of undesignated asthma medication, trained personnel must submit to the school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, which must meet the requirements of subsection (h-10) of this Section. Training must be completed annually, and the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures, including the importance of calling 9-1-1 911 or, if 9-1-1 911 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; and

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Substance Use Disorder Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 9-1-1 911 or, if 9-1-1 911 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(h-10) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to respiratory distress, including the administration of undesignated asthma medication, may be conducted online or in person. The training must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of respiratory distress and how to distinguish respiratory distress from anaphylaxis;

(2) how to respond to an emergency involving respiratory distress;

(3) asthma medication dosage and administration;

(4) the importance of calling 9-1-1 911 or, if 9-1-1 911 is not available, other local emergency medical services;

(5) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize respiratory distress and administer asthma medication; and

(6) other criteria as determined in rules adopted under this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors, then the school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, charter school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(i-10) Within 3 days after the administration of undesignated asthma medication by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the State Board of Education, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the asthma medication (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of asthma for the person;

(3) the trigger that precipitated respiratory distress, if identifiable;

(4) the location of where the symptoms developed;

(5) the number of doses administered;

(6) the type of person administering the asthma medication (school nurse, trained personnel, or student);

(7) the outcome of the asthma medication administration; and

(8) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of undesignated epinephrine and undesignated asthma medication administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, charter schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils shall complete an in-person or online training program on the management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma and emergency response in the school setting.

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; 99-843, eff. 8-19-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-726, eff. 1-1-19; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-799, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-80)

Sec. 22-80. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death is are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(4) Student athletes who have sustained a concussion may need informal or formal accommodations, modifications of curriculum, and monitoring by medical or academic staff until the student is fully recovered. To that end, all schools are encouraged to establish a return-to-learn protocol that is based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and conduct baseline testing for student athletes.

(b) In this Section:

"Athletic trainer" means an athletic trainer licensed under the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act who is working under the supervision of a physician.

"Coach" means any volunteer or employee of a school who is responsible for organizing and supervising students to teach them or train them in the fundamental skills of an interscholastic athletic activity. "Coach" refers to both head coaches and assistant coaches.

"Concussion" means a complex pathophysiological process affecting the brain caused by a traumatic physical force or impact to the head or body, which may include temporary or prolonged altered brain function resulting in physical, cognitive, or emotional symptoms or altered sleep patterns and which may or may not involve a loss of consciousness.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Game official" means a person who officiates at an interscholastic athletic activity, such as a referee or umpire, including, but not limited to, persons enrolled as game officials by the Illinois High School Association or Illinois Elementary School Association.

"Interscholastic athletic activity" means any organized school-sponsored or school-sanctioned activity for students, generally outside of school instructional hours, under the direction of a coach, athletic director, or band leader, including, but not limited to, baseball, basketball, cheerleading, cross country track, fencing, field hockey, football, golf, gymnastics, ice hockey, lacrosse, marching band, rugby, soccer, skating, softball, swimming and diving, tennis, track (indoor and outdoor), ultimate Frisbee, volleyball, water polo, and wrestling. All interscholastic athletics are deemed to be interscholastic activities.

"Licensed healthcare professional" means a person who has experience with concussion management and who is a nurse, a psychologist who holds a license under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act and specializes in the practice of neuropsychology, a physical therapist licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, an occupational therapist licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, a physician assistant, or an athletic trainer.

"Nurse" means a person who is employed by or volunteers at a school and is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as a registered nurse, practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, including a charter school.

"Student" means an adolescent or child enrolled in a school.

(c) This Section applies to any interscholastic athletic activity, including practice and competition, sponsored or sanctioned by a school, the Illinois Elementary School Association, or the Illinois High School Association. This Section applies beginning with the 2016-2017 school year.

(d) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall appoint or approve a concussion oversight team. Each concussion oversight team shall establish a return-to-play protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to interscholastic athletics practice or competition following a force or impact believed to have caused a concussion. Each concussion oversight team shall also establish a return-to-learn protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to the classroom after that student is believed to have experienced a concussion, whether or not the concussion took place while the student was participating in an interscholastic athletic activity.

Each concussion oversight team must include to the extent practicable at least one physician. If a school employs an athletic trainer, the athletic trainer must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. If a school employs a nurse, the nurse must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. At a minimum, a school shall appoint a person who is responsible for implementing and complying with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols adopted by the concussion oversight team. At a minimum, a concussion oversight team may be composed of only one person and this person need not be a licensed healthcare professional, but it may not be a coach. A school may appoint other licensed healthcare professionals to serve on the concussion oversight team.

(e) A student may not participate in an interscholastic athletic activity for a school year until the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student have signed a form for that school year that acknowledges receiving and reading written information that explains concussion prevention, symptoms, treatment, and oversight and that includes guidelines for safely resuming participation in an athletic activity following a concussion. The form must be approved by the Illinois High School Association.

(f) A student must be removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition immediately if one of the following persons believes the student might have sustained a concussion during the practice or competition:

(1) a coach;

(2) a physician;

(3) a game official;

(4) an athletic trainer;

(5) the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student;

(6) the student; or

(7) any other person deemed appropriate under the school's return-to-play protocol.

(g) A student removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition under this Section may not be permitted to practice or compete again following the force or impact believed to have caused the concussion until:

(1) the student has been evaluated, using established medical protocols based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, by a treating physician (chosen by the student or the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student), an athletic trainer, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;

(2) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-play protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to play;

(3) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-learn protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to learn;

(4) the treating physician, the athletic trainer, or the physician assistant has provided a written statement indicating that, in the physician's professional judgment, it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn or the treating advanced practice registered nurse has provided a written statement indicating that it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn; and

(5) the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student:

(A) have acknowledged that the student has completed the requirements of the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols necessary for the student to return to play;

(B) have provided the treating physician's, athletic trainer's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) to the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols under this subsection (g) and the person who has supervisory responsibilities under this subsection (g); and

(C) have signed a consent form indicating that the person signing:

(i) has been informed concerning and consents to the student participating in returning to play in accordance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols;

(ii) understands the risks associated with the student returning to play and returning to learn and will comply with any ongoing requirements in the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols; and

(iii) consents to the disclosure to appropriate persons, consistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191), of the treating physician's, athletic trainer's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice registered nurse's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) and, if any, the return-to-play and return-to-learn recommendations of the treating physician, the athletic trainer, the physician assistant, or the advanced practice registered nurse, as the case may be.

A coach of an interscholastic athletics team may not authorize a student's return to play or return to learn.

The district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school shall supervise an athletic trainer or other person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play protocol and shall supervise the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-learn protocol. The person who has supervisory responsibilities under this paragraph may not be a coach of an interscholastic athletics team.

(h)(1) The Illinois High School Association shall approve, for coaches, game officials, and non-licensed healthcare professionals, training courses that provide for not less than 2 hours of training in the subject matter of concussions, including evaluation, prevention, symptoms, risks, and long-term effects. The Association shall maintain an updated list of individuals and organizations authorized by the Association to provide the training.

(2) The following persons must take a training course in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) from an authorized training provider at least once every 2 years:

(A) a coach of an interscholastic athletic activity;

(B) a nurse, licensed healthcare professional, or non-licensed healthcare professional who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team either on a volunteer basis or in his or her capacity as an employee, representative, or agent of a school; and

(C) a game official of an interscholastic athletic activity.

(3) A physician who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team shall, to the greatest extent practicable, periodically take an appropriate continuing medical education course in the subject matter of concussions.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (h):

(A) a coach, game official, or non-licensed healthcare professional, as the case may be, must take a course described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h);

(B) an athletic trainer must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an athletic trainer continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(C) a nurse must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a nurse continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(D) a physical therapist must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a physical therapist continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(E) a psychologist must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a psychologist continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(F) an occupational therapist must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an occupational therapist continuing education sponsor approved by the Department; and

(G) a physician assistant must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a physician assistant continuing education sponsor approved by the Department.

(5) Each person described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (h) must submit proof of timely completion of an approved course in compliance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) to the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school.

(6) A physician, licensed healthcare professional, or non-licensed healthcare professional who is not in compliance with the training requirements under this subsection (h) may not serve on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(7) A person required under this subsection (h) to take a training course in the subject of concussions must complete the training prior to serving on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(i) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall develop a school-specific emergency action plan for interscholastic athletic activities to address the serious injuries and acute medical conditions in which the condition of the student may deteriorate rapidly. The plan shall include a delineation of roles, methods of communication, available emergency equipment, and access to and a plan for emergency transport. This emergency action plan must be:

(1) in writing;

(2) reviewed by the concussion oversight team;

(3) approved by the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school;

(4) distributed to all appropriate personnel;

(5) posted conspicuously at all venues utilized by the school; and

(6) reviewed annually by all athletic trainers, first responders, coaches, school nurses, athletic directors, and volunteers for interscholastic athletic activities.

(j) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules as necessary to administer this Section, including, but not limited to, rules governing the informal or formal accommodation of a student who may have sustained a concussion during an interscholastic athletic activity.

(Source: P.A. 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-486, eff. 11-20-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-309, eff. 9-1-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-747, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 9-28-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)

Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.

(a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor that provides services to students or in schools, or any other individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or 34-18.5 of this Code.

(b) This subsection (b) does not apply to substitute teacher employees. School boards shall require of new employees evidence of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant not more than 90 days preceding time of presentation to the board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the employee. A new or existing employee may be subject to additional health examinations, including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a local public health official. The board may from time to time require an examination of any employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant and shall pay the expenses thereof from school funds.

(b-5) School boards may require of new substitute teacher employees evidence of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and shall require of new substitute teacher employees evidence of freedom from communicable disease. Evidence may consist of a physical examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant not more than 90 days preceding time of presentation to the board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the substitute teacher employee. A new or existing substitute teacher employee may be subject to additional health examinations, including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a local public health official. The board may from time to time require an examination of any substitute teacher employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant and shall pay the expenses thereof from school funds.

(c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to furnish from time to time evidence of continued professional growth.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-855, eff. 8-14-18; revised 9-28-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-12)

Sec. 24-12. Removal or dismissal of teachers in contractual continued service.

(a) This subsection (a) applies only to honorable dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is provided on or before the end of the 2010-2011 school term. If a teacher in contractual continued service is removed or dismissed as a result of a decision of the board to decrease the number of teachers employed by the board or to discontinue some particular type of teaching service, written notice shall be mailed to the teacher and also given the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested or personal delivery with receipt at least 60 days before the end of the school term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the reason therefor, and in all such cases the board shall first remove or dismiss all teachers who have not entered upon contractual continued service before removing or dismissing any teacher who has entered upon contractual continued service and who is legally qualified to hold a position currently held by a teacher who has not entered upon contractual continued service.

As between teachers who have entered upon contractual continued service, the teacher or teachers with the shorter length of continuing service with the district shall be dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization and except that this provision shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action program in the district, regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the board. Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or discontinuance shall be paid all earned compensation on or before the third business day following the last day of pupil attendance in the regular school term.

If the board has any vacancies for the following school term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby becoming available shall be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed so far as they are legally qualified to hold such positions; provided, however, that if the number of honorable dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number of full-time full time equivalent positions filled by certified employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel) during the preceding school year, then if the board has any vacancies for the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the beginning of the following school term, the positions so becoming available shall be tendered to the teachers who were so notified and removed or dismissed whenever they are legally qualified to hold such positions. Each board shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, each year establish a list, categorized by positions, showing the length of continuing service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this Section, in which case a list shall be made in accordance with the alternative method. Copies of the list shall be distributed to the exclusive employee representative on or before February 1 of each year. Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic necessity exceeds 5, or 150% of the average number of teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years, whichever is more, then the board also shall hold a public hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the hearing and board review, the action to approve any such reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.

(b) This subsection (b) applies only to honorable dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is provided during the 2011-2012 school term or a subsequent school term. If any teacher, whether or not in contractual continued service, is removed or dismissed as a result of a decision of a school board to decrease the number of teachers employed by the board, a decision of a school board to discontinue some particular type of teaching service, or a reduction in the number of programs or positions in a special education joint agreement, then written notice must be mailed to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery with receipt at least 45 days before the end of the school term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the reason therefor, and in all such cases the sequence of dismissal shall occur in accordance with this subsection (b); except that this subsection (b) shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action program in the school district, regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the board.

Each teacher must be categorized into one or more positions for which the teacher is qualified to hold, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the school year during which the sequence of dismissal is determined. Within each position and subject to agreements made by the joint committee on honorable dismissals that are authorized by subsection (c) of this Section, the school district or joint agreement must establish 4 groupings of teachers qualified to hold the position as follows:

(1) Grouping one shall consist of each teacher who is not in contractual continued service and who (i) has not received a performance evaluation rating, (ii) is employed for one school term or less to replace a teacher on leave, or (iii) is employed on a part-time basis. "Part-time basis" for the purposes of this subsection (b) means a teacher who is employed to teach less than a full-day, teacher workload or less than 5 days of the normal student attendance week, unless otherwise provided for in a collective bargaining agreement between the district and the exclusive representative of the district's teachers. For the purposes of this Section, a teacher (A) who is employed as a full-time teacher but who actually teaches or is otherwise present and participating in the district's educational program for less than a school term or (B) who, in the immediately previous school term, was employed on a full-time basis and actually taught or was otherwise present and participated in the district's educational program for 120 days or more is not considered employed on a part-time basis.

(2) Grouping 2 shall consist of each teacher with a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings.

(3) Grouping 3 shall consist of each teacher with a performance evaluation rating of at least Satisfactory or Proficient on both of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or on the teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one rating is available, unless the teacher qualifies for placement into grouping 4.

(4) Grouping 4 shall consist of each teacher whose last 2 performance evaluation ratings are Excellent and each teacher with 2 Excellent performance evaluation ratings out of the teacher's last 3 performance evaluation ratings with a third rating of Satisfactory or Proficient.

Among teachers qualified to hold a position, teachers must be dismissed in the order of their groupings, with teachers in grouping one dismissed first and teachers in grouping 4 dismissed last.

Within grouping one, the sequence of dismissal must be at the discretion of the school district or joint agreement. Within grouping 2, the sequence of dismissal must be based upon average performance evaluation ratings, with the teacher or teachers with the lowest average performance evaluation rating dismissed first. A teacher's average performance evaluation rating must be calculated using the average of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or the teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one rating is available, using the following numerical values: 4 for Excellent; 3 for Proficient or Satisfactory; 2 for Needs Improvement; and 1 for Unsatisfactory. As between or among teachers in grouping 2 with the same average performance evaluation rating and within each of groupings 3 and 4, the teacher or teachers with the shorter length of continuing service with the school district or joint agreement must be dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization.

Each board, including the governing board of a joint agreement, shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, each year establish a sequence of honorable dismissal list categorized by positions and the groupings defined in this subsection (b). Copies of the list showing each teacher by name and categorized by positions and the groupings defined in this subsection (b) must be distributed to the exclusive bargaining representative at least 75 days before the end of the school term, provided that the school district or joint agreement may, with notice to any exclusive employee representatives, move teachers from grouping one into another grouping during the period of time from 75 days until 45 days before the end of the school term. Each year, each board shall also establish, in consultation with any exclusive employee representatives, a list showing the length of continuing service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this Section, in which case a list must be made in accordance with the alternative method. Copies of the list must be distributed to the exclusive employee representative at least 75 days before the end of the school term.

Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or discontinuance must be paid all earned compensation on or before the third business day following the last day of pupil attendance in the regular school term.

If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies for the following school term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in groupings 3 or 4 of the sequence of dismissal and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming available, provided that if the number of honorable dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number of full-time equivalent positions filled by certified employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel) during the preceding school year, then the recall period is for the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the beginning of the following school term. If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies within the period from the beginning of the following school term through February 1 of the following school term (unless a date later than February 1, but no later than 6 months from the beginning of the following school term, is established in a collective bargaining agreement), the positions thereby becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in grouping 2 of the sequence of dismissal due to one "needs improvement" rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings, provided that, if 2 ratings are available, the other performance evaluation rating used for grouping purposes is "satisfactory", "proficient", or "excellent", and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications established in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming available. On and after July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the preceding sentence shall apply to teachers removed or dismissed by honorable dismissal, even if notice of honorable dismissal occurred during the 2013-2014 school year. Among teachers eligible for recall pursuant to the preceding sentence, the order of recall must be in inverse order of dismissal, unless an alternative order of recall is established in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization. Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic necessity exceeds 5 notices or 150% of the average number of teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years, whichever is more, then the school board or governing board of a joint agreement, as applicable, shall also hold a public hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the hearing and board review, the action to approve any such reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.

For purposes of this subsection (b), subject to agreement on an alternative definition reached by the joint committee described in subsection (c) of this Section, a teacher's performance evaluation rating means the overall performance evaluation rating resulting from an annual or biennial performance evaluation conducted pursuant to Article 24A of this Code by the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal, not including any performance evaluation conducted during or at the end of a remediation period. No more than one evaluation rating each school term shall be one of the evaluation ratings used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection for any performance evaluations conducted during or at the end of a remediation period, if multiple performance evaluations are conducted in a school term, only the rating from the last evaluation conducted prior to establishing the sequence of honorable dismissal list in such school term shall be the one evaluation rating from that school term used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. Averaging ratings from multiple evaluations is not permitted unless otherwise agreed to in a collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a professional faculty members' organization. The preceding 3 sentences are not a legislative declaration that existing law does or does not already require that only one performance evaluation each school term shall be used for the purpose of determining the sequence of dismissal. For performance evaluation ratings determined prior to September 1, 2012, any school district or joint agreement with a performance evaluation rating system that does not use either of the rating category systems specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for all teachers must establish a basis for assigning each teacher a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for all of the performance evaluation ratings that are to be used to determine the sequence of dismissal. A teacher's grouping and ranking on a sequence of honorable dismissal shall be deemed a part of the teacher's performance evaluation, and that information shall be disclosed to the exclusive bargaining representative as part of a sequence of honorable dismissal list, notwithstanding any laws prohibiting disclosure of such information. A performance evaluation rating may be used to determine the sequence of dismissal, notwithstanding the pendency of any grievance resolution or arbitration procedures relating to the performance evaluation. If a teacher has received at least one performance evaluation rating conducted by the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal and a subsequent performance evaluation is not conducted in any school year in which such evaluation is required to be conducted under Section 24A-5 of this Code, the teacher's performance evaluation rating for that school year for purposes of determining the sequence of dismissal is deemed Proficient. If a performance evaluation rating is nullified as the result of an arbitration, administrative agency, or court determination, then the school district or joint agreement is deemed to have conducted a performance evaluation for that school year, but the performance evaluation rating may not be used in determining the sequence of dismissal.

Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed as limiting the right of a school board or governing board of a joint agreement to dismiss a teacher not in contractual continued service in accordance with Section 24-11 of this Code.

Any provisions regarding the sequence of honorable dismissals and recall of honorably dismissed teachers in a collective bargaining agreement entered into on or before January 1, 2011 and in effect on June 13, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-8) this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that may conflict with Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall remain in effect through the expiration of such agreement or June 30, 2013, whichever is earlier.

(c) Each school district and special education joint agreement must use a joint committee composed of equal representation selected by the school board and its teachers or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of its teachers, to address the matters described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this subsection (c) pertaining to honorable dismissals under subsection (b) of this Section.

(1) The joint committee must consider and may agree to criteria for excluding from grouping 2 and placing into grouping 3 a teacher whose last 2 performance evaluations include a Needs Improvement and either a Proficient or Excellent.

(2) The joint committee must consider and may agree to an alternative definition for grouping 4, which definition must take into account prior performance evaluation ratings and may take into account other factors that relate to the school district's or program's educational objectives. An alternative definition for grouping 4 may not permit the inclusion of a teacher in the grouping with a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance evaluation ratings.

(3) The joint committee may agree to including within the definition of a performance evaluation rating a performance evaluation rating administered by a school district or joint agreement other than the school district or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal.

(4) For each school district or joint agreement that administers performance evaluation ratings that are inconsistent with either of the rating category systems specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code, the school district or joint agreement must consult with the joint committee on the basis for assigning a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code to each performance evaluation rating that will be used in a sequence of dismissal.

(5) Upon request by a joint committee member submitted to the employing board by no later than 10 days after the distribution of the sequence of honorable dismissal list, a representative of the employing board shall, within 5 days after the request, provide to members of the joint committee a list showing the most recent and prior performance evaluation ratings of each teacher identified only by length of continuing service in the district or joint agreement and not by name. If, after review of this list, a member of the joint committee has a good faith belief that a disproportionate number of teachers with greater length of continuing service with the district or joint agreement have received a recent performance evaluation rating lower than the prior rating, the member may request that the joint committee review the list to assess whether such a trend may exist. Following the joint committee's review, but by no later than the end of the applicable school term, the joint committee or any member or members of the joint committee may submit a report of the review to the employing board and exclusive bargaining representative, if any. Nothing in this paragraph (5) shall impact the order of honorable dismissal or a school district's or joint agreement's authority to carry out a dismissal in accordance with subsection (b) of this Section.

Agreement by the joint committee as to a matter requires the majority vote of all committee members, and if the joint committee does not reach agreement on a matter, then the otherwise applicable requirements of subsection (b) of this Section shall apply. Except as explicitly set forth in this subsection (c), a joint committee has no authority to agree to any further modifications to the requirements for honorable dismissals set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. The joint committee must be established, and the first meeting of the joint committee each school year must occur on or before December 1.

The joint committee must reach agreement on a matter on or before February 1 of a school year in order for the agreement of the joint committee to apply to the sequence of dismissal determined during that school year. Subject to the February 1 deadline for agreements, the agreement of a joint committee on a matter shall apply to the sequence of dismissal until the agreement is amended or terminated by the joint committee.

The provisions of the Open Meetings Act shall not apply to meetings of a joint committee created under this subsection (c).

(d) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this subsection (d), the requirements and dismissal procedures of Section 24-16.5 of this Code shall apply to any dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code.

(1) If a dismissal of a teacher in contractual continued service is sought for any reason or cause other than an honorable dismissal under subsections (a) or (b) of this Section or a dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code, including those under Section 10-22.4, the board must first approve a motion containing specific charges by a majority vote of all its members. Written notice of such charges, including a bill of particulars and the teacher's right to request a hearing, must be mailed to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery with receipt within 5 days of the adoption of the motion. Any written notice sent on or after July 1, 2012 shall inform the teacher of the right to request a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer split equally between the teacher and the board, or a hearing before a board-selected hearing officer, with the cost of the hearing officer paid by the board.

Before setting a hearing on charges stemming from causes that are considered remediable, a board must give the teacher reasonable warning in writing, stating specifically the causes that, if not removed, may result in charges; however, no such written warning is required if the causes have been the subject of a remediation plan pursuant to Article 24A of this Code.

If, in the opinion of the board, the interests of the school require it, the board may suspend the teacher without pay, pending the hearing, but if the board's dismissal or removal is not sustained, the teacher shall not suffer the loss of any salary or benefits by reason of the suspension.

(2) No hearing upon the charges is required unless the teacher within 17 days after receiving notice requests in writing of the board that a hearing be scheduled before a mutually selected hearing officer or a hearing officer selected by the board. The secretary of the school board shall forward a copy of the notice to the State Board of Education.

(3) Within 5 business days after receiving a notice of hearing in which either notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, the State Board of Education shall provide a list of 5 prospective, impartial hearing officers from the master list of qualified, impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education. Each person on the master list must (i) be accredited by a national arbitration organization and have had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to labor and employment relations matters between employers and employees or their exclusive bargaining representatives and (ii) beginning September 1, 2012, have participated in training provided or approved by the State Board of Education for teacher dismissal hearing officers so that he or she is familiar with issues generally involved in evaluative and non-evaluative dismissals.

If notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected hearing officer, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives within 3 business days shall alternately strike one name from the list provided by the State Board of Education until only one name remains. Unless waived by the teacher, the teacher shall have the right to proceed first with the striking. Within 3 business days of receipt of the list provided by the State Board of Education, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall each have the right to reject all prospective hearing officers named on the list and notify the State Board of Education of such rejection. Within 3 business days after receiving this notification, the State Board of Education shall appoint a qualified person from the master list who did not appear on the list sent to the parties to serve as the hearing officer, unless the parties notify it that they have chosen to alternatively select a hearing officer under paragraph (4) of this subsection (d).

If the teacher has requested a hearing before a hearing officer selected by the board, the board shall select one name from the master list of qualified impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education within 3 business days after receipt and shall notify the State Board of Education of its selection.

A hearing officer mutually selected by the parties, selected by the board, or selected through an alternative selection process under paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) (A) must not be a resident of the school district, (B) must be available to commence the hearing within 75 days and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected as the hearing officer, and (C) must issue a decision as to whether the teacher must be dismissed and give a copy of that decision to both the teacher and the board within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record, whichever is later.

(4) In the alternative to selecting a hearing officer from the list received from the State Board of Education or accepting the appointment of a hearing officer by the State Board of Education or if the State Board of Education cannot provide a list or appoint a hearing officer that meets the foregoing requirements, the board and the teacher or their legal representatives may mutually agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on the master list either by direct appointment by the parties or by using procedures for the appointment of an arbitrator established by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or the American Arbitration Association. The parties shall notify the State Board of Education of their intent to select a hearing officer using an alternative procedure within 3 business days of receipt of a list of prospective hearing officers provided by the State Board of Education, notice of appointment of a hearing officer by the State Board of Education, or receipt of notice from the State Board of Education that it cannot provide a list that meets the foregoing requirements, whichever is later.

(5) If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher before July 1, 2012, the fees and costs for the hearing officer must be paid by the State Board of Education. If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher on or after July 1, 2012, the hearing officer's fees and costs must be paid as follows in this paragraph (5). The fees and permissible costs for the hearing officer must be determined by the State Board of Education. If the board and the teacher or their legal representatives mutually agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on a list received from the State Board of Education, they may agree to supplement the fees determined by the State Board to the hearing officer, at a rate consistent with the hearing officer's published professional fees. If the hearing officer is mutually selected by the parties, then the board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall each pay 50% of the fees and costs and any supplemental allowance to which they agree. If the hearing officer is selected by the board, then the board shall pay 100% of the hearing officer's fees and costs. The fees and costs must be paid to the hearing officer within 14 days after the board and the teacher or their legal representatives receive the hearing officer's decision set forth in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d).

(6) The teacher is required to answer the bill of particulars and aver affirmative matters in his or her defense, and the time for initially doing so and the time for updating such answer and defenses after pre-hearing discovery must be set by the hearing officer. The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules so that each party has a fair opportunity to present its case and to ensure that the dismissal process proceeds in a fair and expeditious manner. These rules shall address, without limitation, discovery and hearing scheduling conferences; the teacher's initial answer and affirmative defenses to the bill of particulars and the updating of that information after pre-hearing discovery; provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents; the requirement that each party initially disclose to the other party and then update the disclosure no later than 10 calendar days prior to the commencement of the hearing, the names and addresses of persons who may be called as witnesses at the hearing, a summary of the facts or opinions each witness will testify to, and all other documents and materials, including information maintained electronically, relevant to its own as well as the other party's case (the hearing officer may exclude witnesses and exhibits not identified and shared, except those offered in rebuttal for which the party could not reasonably have anticipated prior to the hearing); pre-hearing discovery and preparation, including provision for written interrogatories and requests for production of documents, provided that discovery depositions are prohibited; the conduct of the hearing; the right of each party to be represented by counsel, the offer of evidence and witnesses and the cross-examination of witnesses; the authority of the hearing officer to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, provided that the hearing officer may limit the number of witnesses to be subpoenaed on behalf of each party to no more than 7; the length of post-hearing briefs; and the form, length, and content of hearing officers' decisions. The hearing officer shall hold a hearing and render a final decision for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or shall report to the school board findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher must be dismissed for conduct. The hearing officer shall commence the hearing within 75 days and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected as the hearing officer, provided that the hearing officer may modify these timelines upon the showing of good cause or mutual agreement of the parties. Good cause for the purpose of this subsection (d) shall mean the illness or otherwise unavoidable emergency of the teacher, district representative, their legal representatives, the hearing officer, or an essential witness as indicated in each party's pre-hearing submission. In a dismissal hearing pursuant to Article 24A of this Code, the hearing officer shall consider and give weight to all of the teacher's evaluations written pursuant to Article 24A that are relevant to the issues in the hearing.

Each party shall have no more than 3 days to present its case, unless extended by the hearing officer to enable a party to present adequate evidence and testimony, including due to the other party's cross-examination of the party's witnesses, for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties. The State Board of Education shall define in rules the meaning of "day" for such purposes. All testimony at the hearing shall be taken under oath administered by the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall cause a record of the proceedings to be kept and shall employ a competent reporter to take stenographic or stenotype notes of all the testimony. The costs of the reporter's attendance and services at the hearing shall be paid by the party or parties who are responsible for paying the fees and costs of the hearing officer. Either party desiring a transcript of the hearing shall pay for the cost thereof. Any post-hearing briefs must be submitted by the parties by no later than 21 days after a party's receipt of the transcript of the hearing, unless extended by the hearing officer for good cause or by mutual agreement of the parties.

(7) The hearing officer shall, within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record, whichever is later, make a decision as to whether or not the teacher shall be dismissed pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or report to the school board findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher shall be dismissed for cause and shall give a copy of the decision or findings of fact and recommendation to both the teacher and the school board. If a hearing officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in writing to both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record is closed, whichever is later, the parties may mutually agree to select a hearing officer pursuant to the alternative procedure, as provided in this Section, to rehear the charges heard by the hearing officer who failed to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation or to review the record and render a decision. If any hearing officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in writing to both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record is closed, whichever is later, the hearing officer shall be removed from the master list of hearing officers maintained by the State Board of Education for not more than 24 months. The parties and the State Board of Education may also take such other actions as it deems appropriate, including recovering, reducing, or withholding any fees paid or to be paid to the hearing officer. If any hearing officer repeats such failure, he or she must be permanently removed from the master list maintained by the State Board of Education and may not be selected by parties through the alternative selection process under this paragraph (7) or paragraph (4) of this subsection (d). The board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge a teacher if the hearing officer fails to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation within the time specified in this Section. If the decision of the hearing officer for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board for dismissal for cause is in favor of the teacher, then the hearing officer or school board shall order reinstatement to the same or substantially equivalent position and shall determine the amount for which the school board is liable, including, but not limited to, loss of income and benefits.

(8) The school board, within 45 days after receipt of the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation as to whether (i) the conduct at issue occurred, (ii) the conduct that did occur was remediable, and (iii) the proposed dismissal should be sustained, shall issue a written order as to whether the teacher must be retained or dismissed for cause from its employ. The school board's written order shall incorporate the hearing officer's findings of fact, except that the school board may modify or supplement the findings of fact if, in its opinion, the findings of fact are against the manifest weight of the evidence.

If the school board dismisses the teacher notwithstanding the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation, the school board shall make a conclusion in its written order, giving its reasons therefor, and such conclusion and reasons must be included in its written order. The failure of the school board to strictly adhere to the timelines contained in this Section shall not render it without jurisdiction to dismiss the teacher. The school board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge the teacher for cause if the hearing officer fails to render a recommendation within the time specified in this Section. The decision of the school board is final, unless reviewed as provided in paragraph (9) of this subsection (d).

If the school board retains the teacher, the school board shall enter a written order stating the amount of back pay and lost benefits, less mitigation, to be paid to the teacher, within 45 days after its retention order. Should the teacher object to the amount of the back pay and lost benefits or amount mitigated, the teacher shall give written objections to the amount within 21 days. If the parties fail to reach resolution within 7 days, the dispute shall be referred to the hearing officer, who shall consider the school board's written order and teacher's written objection and determine the amount to which the school board is liable. The costs of the hearing officer's review and determination must be paid by the board.

(9) The decision of the hearing officer pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board's decision to dismiss for cause is final unless reviewed as provided in Section 24-16 of this Code Act. If the school board's decision to dismiss for cause is contrary to the hearing officer's recommendation, the court on review shall give consideration to the school board's decision and its supplemental findings of fact, if applicable, and the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation in making its decision. In the event such review is instituted, the school board shall be responsible for preparing and filing the record of proceedings, and such costs associated therewith must be divided equally between the parties.

(10) If a decision of the hearing officer for dismissal pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board for dismissal for cause is adjudicated upon review or appeal in favor of the teacher, then the trial court shall order reinstatement and shall remand the matter to the school board with direction for entry of an order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less mitigation. The teacher may challenge the school board's order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less mitigation, through an expedited arbitration procedure, with the costs of the arbitrator borne by the school board.

Any teacher who is reinstated by any hearing or adjudication brought under this Section shall be assigned by the board to a position substantially similar to the one which that teacher held prior to that teacher's suspension or dismissal.

(11) Subject to any later effective date referenced in this Section for a specific aspect of the dismissal process, the changes made by Public Act 97-8 shall apply to dismissals instituted on or after September 1, 2011. Any dismissal instituted prior to September 1, 2011 must be carried out in accordance with the requirements of this Section prior to amendment by Public Act 97-8.

(e) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-768, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-2a) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-2a)

Sec. 26-2a. A "truant" is defined as a child who is subject to compulsory school attendance and who is absent without valid cause, as defined under this Section, from such attendance for more than 1% but less than 5% of the past 180 school days.

"Valid cause" for absence shall be illness, observance of a religious holiday, death in the immediate family, family emergency, and shall include such other situations beyond the control of the student as determined by the board of education in each district, or such other circumstances which cause reasonable concern to the parent for the mental, emotional, or physical health or safety of the student.

"Chronic or habitual truant" shall be defined as a child who is subject to compulsory school attendance and who is absent without valid cause from such attendance for 5% or more of the previous 180 regular attendance days.

"Truant minor" is defined as a chronic truant to whom supportive services, including prevention, diagnostic, intervention and remedial services, alternative programs and other school and community resources have been provided and have failed to result in the cessation of chronic truancy, or have been offered and refused.

A "dropout" is defined as any child enrolled in grades 9 through 12 whose name has been removed from the district enrollment roster for any reason other than the student's death, extended illness, removal for medical non-compliance, expulsion, aging out, graduation, or completion of a program of studies and who has not transferred to another public or private school and is not known to be home-schooled by his or her parents or guardians or continuing school in another country.

"Religion" for the purposes of this Article, includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief.

(Source: P.A. 100-810, eff. 1-1-19; 100-918, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-4-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-12)

Sec. 26-12. Punitive action.

(a) No punitive action, including out-of-school out of school suspensions, expulsions, or court action, shall be taken against truant minors for such truancy unless appropriate and available supportive services and other school resources have been provided to the student. Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 10-22.6 of this Code, a truant minor may not be expelled for nonattendance unless he or she has accrued 15 consecutive days of absences without valid cause and the student cannot be located by the school district or the school district has located the student but cannot, after exhausting all available supportive support services, compel the student to return to school.

(b) A school district may not refer a truant, chronic truant, or truant minor to any other local public entity, as defined under Section 1-206 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, for that local public entity to issue the child a fine or a fee as punishment for his or her truancy.

(c) A school district may refer any person having custody or control of a truant, chronic truant, or truant minor to any other local public entity, as defined under Section 1-206 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, for that local public entity to issue the person a fine or fee for the child's truancy only if the school district's truant officer, regional office of education, or intermediate service center has been notified of the truant behavior and the school district, regional office of education, or intermediate service center has offered all appropriate and available supportive services and other school resources to the child. Before a school district may refer a person having custody or control of a child to a municipality, as defined under Section 1-1-2 of the Illinois Municipal Code, the school district must provide the following appropriate and available services:

(1) For any child who is a homeless child, as defined under Section 1-5 of the Education for Homeless Children Act, a meeting between the child, the person having custody or control of the child, relevant school personnel, and a homeless liaison to discuss any barriers to the child's attendance due to the child's transitional living situation and to construct a plan that removes these barriers.

(2) For any child with a documented disability, a meeting between the child, the person having custody or control of the child, and relevant school personnel to review the child's current needs and address the appropriateness of the child's placement and services. For any child subject to Article 14 of this Code, this meeting shall be an individualized education program meeting and shall include relevant members of the individualized education program team. For any child with a disability under Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), this meeting shall be a Section 504 plan review and include relevant members of the Section 504 plan team.

(3) For any child currently being evaluated by a school district for a disability or for whom the school has a basis of knowledge that the child is a child with a disability under 20 U.S.C. 1415(k)(5), the completion of the evaluation and determination of the child's eligibility for special education services.

(d) Before a school district may refer a person having custody or control of a child to a local public entity under this Section, the school district must document any appropriate and available supportive services offered to the child. In the event a meeting under this Section does not occur, a school district must have documentation that it made reasonable efforts to convene the meeting at a mutually convenient time and date for the school district and the person having custody or control of the child and, but for the conduct of that person, the meeting would have occurred.

(Source: P.A. 100-810, eff. 1-1-19; 100-825, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-5-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second, sixth, and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second, sixth, or ninth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-671) and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-671) shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include an age-appropriate developmental screening, an age-appropriate social and emotional screening, and the collection of data relating to asthma and obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. With respect to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening, the Department of Public Health must, no later than January 1, 2019, develop rules and appropriate revisions to the Child Health Examination form in conjunction with a statewide organization representing school boards; a statewide organization representing pediatricians; statewide organizations representing individuals holding Illinois educator licenses with school support personnel endorsements, including school social workers, school psychologists, and school nurses; a statewide organization representing children's mental health experts; a statewide organization representing school principals; the Director of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; and representatives of other appropriate State agencies and, at a minimum, must recommend the use of validated screening tools appropriate to the child's age or grade, and, with regard to the social and emotional screening, require recording only whether or not the screening was completed. The rules shall take into consideration the screening recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics and must be consistent with the State Board of Education's social and emotional learning standards. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, or licensed physician assistants shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months.".

(2.5) With respect to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening portion of the health examination, each child may present proof of having been screened in accordance with this Section and the rules adopted under this Section before October 15th of the school year. With regard to the social and emotional screening only, the examining health care provider shall only record whether or not the screening was completed. If the child fails to present proof of the developmental screening or the social and emotional screening portions of the health examination by October 15th of the school year, qualified school support personnel may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, offer the developmental screening or the social and emotional screening to the child. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of the developmental screening and social and emotional screening requirements to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with the rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain a developmental screening or a social and emotional screening for the child. Once a developmental screening or a social and emotional screening is completed and proof has been presented to the school, the school may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, make available appropriate school personnel to work with the parent or guardian, the child, and the provider who signed the screening form to obtain any appropriate evaluations and services as indicated on the form and in other information and documentation provided by the parents, guardians, or provider.

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to asthma and obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to asthma or obesity. The duty to summarize on the report form does not apply to social and emotional screenings. The confidentiality of the information and records relating to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening shall be determined by the statutes, rules, and professional ethics governing the type of provider conducting the screening. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations, eye examinations, and the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening portions of the health examination. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 or 18-8.15 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious belief that conflicts with the examination, test, immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining health care provider responsible for the performance of the child's health examination confirming that the provider provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student and to the community of the communicable diseases for which immunization is required in this State. However, the health care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that education was provided and does not allow a health care provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that are required to be disseminated by the federal National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare provider may consider including without limitation the nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the information outlined in the relevant vaccine information statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the Department of Public Health and shall be made available and used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed by the tenets of an established religious organization. However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. The local school authority is responsible for determining if the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption constitutes a valid religious objection. The local school authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, at the time the objection is presented.

If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form.

Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(8.5) The school board of a school district shall include informational materials regarding influenza and influenza vaccinations and meningococcal disease and meningococcal vaccinations developed, provided, or approved by the Department of Public Health under Section 2310-700 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois when the board provides information on immunizations, infectious diseases, medications, or other school health issues to the parents or guardians of students.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-927, eff. 6-1-17; 100-238, eff. 1-1-18; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-829, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-977, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1011, eff. 8-21-18; revised 10-5-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-22.05)

Sec. 27-22.05. Required course substitute. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article or this Code, a school board that maintains any of grades 9 through 12 is authorized to adopt a policy under which a student who is enrolled in any of those grades may satisfy one or more high school course or graduation requirements, including, but not limited to, any requirements under Sections 27-6 and 27-22, by successfully completing a registered apprenticeship program under rules adopted by the State Board of Education under Section 2-3.175 2-3.173 of this Code, or by substituting for and successfully completing in place of the high school course or graduation requirement a related vocational or technical education course. A vocational or technical education course shall not qualify as a related vocational or technical education course within the meaning of this Section unless it contains at least 50% of the content of the required course or graduation requirement for which it is substituted, as determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with standards that it shall adopt and uniformly apply for purposes of this Section. No vocational or technical education course may be substituted for a required course or graduation requirement under any policy adopted by a school board as authorized in this Section unless the pupil's parent or guardian first requests the substitution and approves it in writing on forms that the school district makes available for purposes of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-992, eff. 8-20-18; revised 10-16-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.11)

Sec. 27-23.11. Traffic injury prevention; policy. The school board of a school district that maintains any of grades kindergarten through 8 shall adopt a policy on educating students on the effective methods of preventing and avoiding traffic injuries related to walking and bicycling, which education must be made available to students in grades kindergarten through 8.

(Source: P.A. 100-1056, eff. 8-24-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-23.12)

Sec. 27-23.12 27-23.11. Emotional Intelligence and Social and Emotional Learning Task Force. The Emotional Intelligence and Social and Emotional Learning Task Force is created to develop curriculum and assessment guidelines and best practices on emotional intelligence and social and emotional learning. The Task Force shall consist of the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee and all of the following members, appointed by the State Superintendent:

(1) A representative of a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(2) A representative of a statewide organization representing school boards.

(3) A representative of a statewide organization representing individuals holding professional educator licenses with school support personnel endorsements under Article 21B of this Code, including school social workers, school psychologists, and school nurses.

(4) A representative of a statewide organization representing children's mental health experts.

(5) A representative of a statewide organization representing school principals.

(6) An employee of a school under Article 13A of this Code.

(7) A school psychologist employed by a school district in Cook County.

(8) Representatives of other appropriate State agencies, as determined by the State Superintendent.

Members appointed by the State Superintendent shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the State Board of Education for that purpose, including travel, subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board. The Task Force shall meet at the call of the State Superintendent. The State Board of Education shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

The Task Force shall develop age-appropriate, emotional intelligence and social and emotional learning curriculum and assessment guidelines and best practices for elementary schools and high schools. The guidelines shall, at a minimum, include teaching how to recognize, direct, and positively express emotions. The Task Force shall complete the guidelines on or before January 1, 2019. Upon completion of the guidelines the Task Force is dissolved.

(Source: P.A. 100-1139, eff. 11-28-18; revised 12-19-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

On or before March 1, 2014, the Commission shall submit to the General Assembly a report on the effect of virtual-schooling, including without limitation the effect on student performance, the costs associated with virtual-schooling, and issues with oversight. The report shall include policy recommendations for virtual-schooling.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code;

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code;

(13) Sections 10-20.63 and 34-18.56 of this Code; and

(14) Section 26-18 of this Code; and

(15) Section 22-30 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission, then the Commission charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-325, eff. 8-10-15; 99-456, eff. 9-15-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-927, eff. 6-1-17; 100-29, eff. 1-1-18; 100-156, eff. 1-1-18; 100-163, eff. 1-1-18; 100-413, eff. 1-1-18; 100-468, eff. 6-1-18; 100-726, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-5-18.)

Section 390. The Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy Law is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(105 ILCS 305/4) (from Ch. 122, par. 1503-4)

Sec. 4. Powers of the Board. The board is hereby authorized to:

(a) Accept donations, bequests, or other forms of financial assistance for educational purposes from any public or private person or agency and comply with rules and regulations governing grants from the federal government or from any other person or agency, which are not in contravention of the Illinois Constitution or the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) Purchase equipment and make improvements to facilities necessary for the use of the school, in accordance with applicable law.

(c) Adopt, amend, or repeal rules, regulations, and policies necessary or proper for the conduct of the business of the board.

(d) Award certificates and issue diplomas for successful completion of programs of study requirements.

(e) Select a Director who shall be the chief administrative officer of the Academy and who shall administer the rules, regulations, and policies adopted by the Board pursuant hereto. The Director shall also be the chief administrative officer of the Board and shall be responsible for all the administrative functions, duties, and needs of the Board.

(f) Determine faculty and staff positions necessary for the efficient operation of the school and select personnel for such positions.

(g) Prepare and adopt an annual budget necessary for the continued operation of the school.

(h) Enter into contracts and agreements which have been recommended by the Director, in accordance with applicable law, and to the extent that funds are specifically appropriated therefor, with other public agencies with respect to cooperative enterprises and undertaking related to or associated with an educational purpose or program affecting education in the school. This shall not preclude the Board from entering into other such contracts and agreements that it may deem necessary to carry out its duties and functions.

(i) Perform such other functions as are necessary to the supervision and control of those phases of education under its supervision and control.

(j) The Board shall delegate to the Director such of its administrative powers and duties as it deems appropriate to aid the Director in the efficient administration of his responsibility for the implementation of the policies of the Board.

(k) The Academy shall be empowered to lease or purchase real and personal property on commercially reasonable terms for the use of the Academy. After July 1, 1988, any leases or purchases of real or personal property and any disposition thereof by the Academy must be in compliance with the provisions of The Civil Administrative Code of Illinois and the State Property Control Act. Personal property acquired for the use of the Academy shall be inventoried and disposed of in accordance with the State Property Control Act.

In addition to the authorities granted herein and any powers, duties, and responsibilities vested by any other applicable laws, the Board shall:

(1) Adopt rules, regulations, and policies necessary for the efficient operation of the school.

(2) Establish criteria to be used in determining eligibility of applicants for enrollment. Such criteria shall ensure adequate geographic representation of this State and adequate sexual and ethnic representation.

(3) Determine subjects and extracurricular activities to be offered.

(4) Pay salaries and expenses, including but not necessarily restricted to facilities, equipment, and supplies of the faculty and staff of the Academy out of funds appropriated or otherwise made available for the operating and administrative expenses of the Board and the Academy.

(5) Exercise budgetary responsibility and allocate for expenditure by the Academy and programs under its jurisdiction, all monies appropriated or otherwise made available for purposes of the Board and of such Academy and programs.

(6) Prescribe and select for use in the school free school books and other materials of instruction for children enrolled in the school and programs under its jurisdiction for which the General Assembly provides funds. However, free school books and other materials of instruction need not be provided to students who are not Illinois residents, and a fee may be charged to such students for books and materials.

(7) Prepare and adopt or approve programs of study and rules, bylaws, and regulations for the conduct of students and for the government of the school and programs under its jurisdiction.

(8) Employ such personnel as may be needed, establish policies governing their employment and dismissal, and fix the amount of their compensation. In the employment, establishment of policies and fixing of compensation the board may make no discrimination on account of sex, race, creed, color or national origin.

The Academy, its board of trustees, and its employees shall be represented and indemnified in certain civil law suits in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act "An Act to provide for representation and indemnification in certain civil law suits", approved December 3, 1977, as amended.

Neither the Academy, nor its officers, employees or board members shall participate in the creation of any corporation, joint venture, partnership, association, or other organizational entity which exercises, expands, or enhances the powers, duties, or responsibilities of the Academy unless specifically authorized by the General Assembly by law.

This Section does not restrict the Academy from creating any organization entity which is within or a part of the Academy.

(Source: P.A. 100-937, eff. 1-1-19; revised 9-28-18.)

Section 395. The Behavioral Health Workforce Education Center Task Force Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 165/5)

Sec. 5. Behavioral Health Workforce Education Center Task Force.

(a) The Behavioral Health Education Center Task Force is created.

(b) The Task Force shall be composed of the following members:

(1) the Executive Director of the Board of Higher Education, or his or her designee;

(2) a representative of Southern Illinois University at Carbondale, appointed by the chancellor of Southern Illinois University at Carbondale;

(3) a representative of Southern Illinois University at Edwardsville, appointed by the chancellor of Southern Illinois University at Edwardsville;

(4) a representative of Southern Illinois University School of Medicine, appointed by the President of Southern Illinois University;

(5) a representative of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign, appointed by the chancellor of the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign; :

(6) a representative of the University of Illinois at Chicago, appointed by the chancellor of the University of Illinois at Chicago;

(7) a representative of the University of Illinois at Springfield, appointed by the chancellor of the University of Illinois at Springfield;

(8) a representative of the University of Illinois School of Medicine, appointed by the President of the University of Illinois;

(9) a representative of the University of Illinois at Chicago Hospital & Health Sciences System (UI Health), appointed by the Vice Chancellor for Health Affairs of the University of Illinois at Chicago;

(10) a representative of the Division of Mental Health of the Department of Human Services, appointed by the Secretary of Human Services;

(11) 2 representatives of a statewide organization representing community behavioral healthcare, appointed by the President of Southern Illinois University from nominations made by the statewide organization; and

(12) one representative from a hospital located in a municipality with more than 1,000,000 inhabitants that principally provides services to children.

(c) The Task Force shall meet to organize and select a chairperson from the non-governmental members of the Task Force upon appointment of a majority of the members. The chairperson shall be elected by a majority vote of the members of the Task Force.

(d) The Task Force may consult with any persons or entities it deems necessary to carry out its purposes.

(e) The members of the Task Force shall receive no compensation for serving as members of the Task Force.

(f) The Task Force shall study the concepts presented in House Bill 5111, as introduced, of the 100th General Assembly. Additionally, the Task Force shall consider the fiscal means by which the General Assembly might most effectively fund implementation of the concepts presented in House Bill 5111, as introduced, of the 100th General Assembly.

(g) The Task Force shall submit its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly on or before September 28th, 2018. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(h) The Board of Higher Education shall provide technical support and administrative assistance and support to the Task Force and shall be responsible for administering its operations and ensuring that the requirements of this Act are met.

(Source: P.A. 100-767, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 400. The Board of Higher Education Act is amended by changing Section 7 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 9.37 as follows:

(110 ILCS 205/7) (from Ch. 144, par. 187)

Sec. 7. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois, the Board of Trustees of Southern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Chicago State University, the Board of Trustees of Eastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Governors State University, the Board of Trustees of Illinois State University, the Board of Trustees of Northeastern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois University, the Board of Trustees of Western Illinois University, the Illinois Community College Board and the campuses under their governance or supervision shall not hereafter undertake the establishment of any new unit of instruction, research, or public service without the approval of the Board. The term "new unit of instruction, research, or public service" includes the establishment of a college, school, division, institute, department, or other unit in any field of instruction, research, or public service not theretofore included in the program of the institution, and includes the establishment of any new branch or campus. The term does not include reasonable and moderate extensions of existing curricula, research, or public service programs which have a direct relationship to existing programs; and the Board may, under its rulemaking rule making power, define the character of such reasonable and moderate extensions.

Such governing boards shall submit to the Board all proposals for a new unit of instruction, research, or public service. The Board may approve or disapprove the proposal in whole or in part or approve modifications thereof whenever in its judgment such action is consistent with the objectives of an existing or proposed master plan of higher education.

The Board of Higher Education is authorized to review periodically all existing programs of instruction, research, and public service at the State universities and colleges and to advise the appropriate board of control if the contribution of each program is not educationally and economically justified. Each State university shall report annually to the Board on programs of instruction, research, or public service that have been terminated, dissolved, reduced, or consolidated by the university. Each State university shall also report to the Board all programs of instruction, research, and public service that exhibit a trend of low performance in enrollments, degree completions, and high expense per degree. The Board shall compile an annual report that shall contain information on new programs created, existing programs that have been closed or consolidated, and programs that exhibit low performance or productivity. The report must be submitted to the General Assembly. The Board shall have the authority to define relevant terms and timelines by rule with respect to this reporting.

(Source: P.A. 97-610, eff. 1-1-12; revised 10-9-18.)

(110 ILCS 205/9.37)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2019)

Sec. 9.37. The College and Career Interest Task Force.

(a) The College and Career Interest Task Force is created to determine the process by which Illinois public high school student college or career interest data may be collected and shared amongst public institutions of higher education. The Task Force shall consist of all of the following members:

(1) One member from each of the following public institutions of higher education, appointed by the board of trustees of the institution:

(A) Chicago State University;

(B) Eastern Illinois University;

(C) Governors State University;

(D) Illinois State University;

(E) Northeastern Illinois University;

(F) Northern Illinois University;

(G) Southern Illinois University at Carbondale;

(H) Southern Illinois University at Edwardsville;

(I) University of Illinois at Chicago;

(J) University of Illinois at Springfield;

(K) University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign; and

(L) Western Illinois University.

(2) One member from the Board, appointed by the Board.

(3) One member from the Illinois Community College Board, appointed by the Illinois Community College Board.

(4) One member from the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, appointed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(5) The State Superintendent of Education, or his or her designee.

(6) One member representing regional offices of education, recommended by a statewide organization that represents regional superintendents of schools.

(7) One member representing school boards, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school boards.

(8) One member representing school principals, recommended by a statewide organization that represents principals.

(9) One member representing school administrators, recommended by a statewide organization that represents school administrators.

(10) One member representing teachers, recommended by a statewide organization that represents teachers.

(11) One member representing teachers, recommended by a different statewide organization that represents teachers.

(12) One member representing teachers, recommended by an organization representing teachers of a school district.

(13) One member representing Chicago Public Schools.

(14) One member representing large unit school districts.

(15) One member representing suburban school districts.

(16) One member representing south suburban school districts.

(17) One member representing a statewide organization focused on research-based education policy to support a school system that prepares all students for college, a career, and democratic citizenship.

(18) One member representing an education advocacy organization that works with parents or guardians.

(19) One member representing a high school district organization in this State.

(b) Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation but may be reimbursed for their reasonable and necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the Board for that purpose, including travel, subject to the rules of the appropriate travel control board. The Board shall provide administrative and other support to the Task Force.

(c) The Task Force shall meet at the call of the Board and shall study the feasible methods by which the college or career interest data of a high school student in this State may be collected and shared amongst public institutions of higher education. The Task Force shall submit the findings of the study to the General Assembly on or before January 30, 2019, at which time the Task Force is dissolved. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(d) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2019.

(Source: P.A. 100-1007, eff. 8-21-18.)

(110 ILCS 205/9.38)

Sec. 9.38 9.37. Tuition waiver. The Board may not limit the amount of tuition revenue that a public university may waive.

(Source: P.A. 100-824, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 405. The University of Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 7b as follows:

(110 ILCS 305/7b) (from Ch. 144, par. 28b)

Sec. 7b. The Board of Trustees of the University of Illinois shall have the power to acquire, own, construct, enlarge, improve, and equip, and to operate, control and manage, directly or through others, central heating, steam and other energy generating and processing plants and distribution facilities to serve University buildings, facilities and activities. The Board of Trustees may contract for periods not to exceed 10 years for delivery of coal, fuel oil and natural gas, with payments to be made from appropriations for the year in which the coal, fuel oil or natural gas is delivered; provided that all such contracts for the delivery of fuel shall recite that they are subject to termination and cancellation in any year for which the General Assembly fails to make an appropriation to make payments under the terms of such contract. To the extent any such plant produces or processes energy in excess of the University's requirements, the Board of Trustees may at its discretion sell, transport and deliver to others all or a part of said excess energy at such fees, rates and charges as the Board of Trustees may determine from time to time. No sale or other disposition of energy by the Board of Trustees pursuant to this Section shall be deemed to constitute the University of Illinois a public utility, nor shall the University be otherwise deemed a public utility, that is subject to the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 88-494; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 410. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Sections 2-11, 2-12, and 3-25.1 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/2-11) (from Ch. 122, par. 102-11)

Sec. 2-11. The State Board in cooperation with the four-year colleges is empowered to develop articulation procedures that maximize freedom of transfer among and between community colleges and baccalaureate-granting baccalaureate granting institutions, consistent with minimum admission policies established by the Board of Higher Education.

(Source: P.A. 100-884, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

(110 ILCS 805/2-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 102-12)

Sec. 2-12. The State Board shall have the power and it shall be its duty:

(a) To provide statewide planning for community colleges as institutions of higher education and to coordinate the programs, services and activities of all community colleges in the State so as to encourage and establish a system of locally initiated and administered comprehensive community colleges.

(b) To organize and conduct feasibility surveys for new community colleges or for the inclusion of existing institutions as community colleges and the locating of new institutions.

(c) (Blank).

(c-5) In collaboration with the community colleges, to furnish information for State and federal accountability purposes, promote student and institutional improvement, and meet research needs.

(d) To cooperate with the community colleges in collecting and maintaining student characteristics, enrollment and completion data, faculty and staff characteristics, financial data, admission standards, qualification and certification of facilities, and any other issues facing community colleges.

(e) To enter into contracts with other governmental agencies and eligible providers, such as local educational agencies, community-based organizations of demonstrated effectiveness, volunteer literacy organizations of demonstrated effectiveness, institutions of higher education, public and private nonprofit agencies, libraries, and public housing authorities; to accept federal funds and to plan with other State agencies when appropriate for the allocation of such federal funds for instructional programs and student services including such funds for adult education and literacy, vocational and career and technical education, and retraining as may be allocated by state and federal agencies for the aid of community colleges. To receive, receipt for, hold in trust, expend and administer, for all purposes of this Act, funds and other aid made available by the federal government or by other agencies public or private, subject to appropriation by the General Assembly. The changes to this subdivision (e) made by Public Act 91-830 this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly apply on and after July 1, 2001.

(f) To determine efficient and adequate standards for community colleges for the physical plant, heating, lighting, ventilation, sanitation, safety, equipment and supplies, instruction and teaching, curriculum, library, operation, maintenance, administration and supervision, and to grant recognition certificates to community colleges meeting such standards.

(g) To determine the standards for establishment of community colleges and the proper location of the site in relation to existing institutions of higher education offering academic, occupational and technical training curricula, possible enrollment, assessed valuation, industrial, business, agricultural, and other conditions reflecting educational needs in the area to be served; however, no community college may be considered as being recognized nor may the establishment of any community college be authorized in any district which shall be deemed inadequate for the maintenance, in accordance with the desirable standards thus determined, of a community college offering the basic subjects of general education and suitable vocational and semiprofessional and technical curricula.

(h) To approve or disapprove new units of instruction, research or public service as defined in Section 3-25.1 of this Act submitted by the boards of trustees of the respective community college districts of this State. The State Board may discontinue programs which fail to reflect the educational needs of the area being served. The community college district shall be granted 60 days following the State Board staff recommendation and prior to the State Board's action to respond to concerns regarding the program in question. If the State Board acts to abolish a community college program, the community college district has a right to appeal the decision in accordance with administrative rules promulgated by the State Board under the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(i) To review and approve or disapprove any contract or agreement that community colleges enter into with any organization, association, educational institution, or government agency to provide educational services for academic credit. The State Board is authorized to monitor performance under any contract or agreement that is approved by the State Board. If the State Board does not approve a particular contract or agreement, the community college district has a right to appeal the decision in accordance with administrative rules promulgated by the State Board under the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Nothing in this subdivision subsection (i) shall be interpreted as applying to collective bargaining agreements with any labor organization.

(j) To establish guidelines regarding sabbatical leaves.

(k) To establish guidelines for the admission into special, appropriate programs conducted or created by community colleges for elementary and secondary school dropouts who have received truant status from the school districts of this State in compliance with Section 26-14 of the The School Code.

(l) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) To create and participate in the conduct and operation of any corporation, joint venture, partnership, association, or other organizational entity that has the power: (i) to acquire land, buildings, and other capital equipment for the use and benefit of the community colleges or their students; (ii) to accept gifts and make grants for the use and benefit of the community colleges or their students; (iii) to aid in the instruction and education of students of community colleges; and (iv) to promote activities to acquaint members of the community with the facilities of the various community colleges.

(o) On and after July 1, 2001, to ensure the effective teaching of adults and to prepare them for success in employment and lifelong learning by administering a network of providers, programs, and services to provide adult basic education, adult secondary and high school equivalency testing education, English as a second language, and any other instruction designed to prepare adult students to function successfully in society and to experience success in postsecondary education and employment.

(p) On and after July 1, 2001, to supervise the administration of adult education and literacy programs, to establish the standards for such courses of instruction and supervise the administration thereof, to contract with other State and local agencies and eligible providers of demonstrated effectiveness, such as local educational agencies, community-based organizations, volunteer literacy organizations, institutions of higher education, public and private nonprofit agencies, libraries, public housing authorities, and nonprofit non-profit institutions for the purpose of promoting and establishing classes for instruction under these programs, to contract with other State and local agencies to accept and expend appropriations for educational purposes to reimburse local eligible providers for the cost of these programs, and to establish an advisory council consisting of all categories of eligible providers; agency partners, such as the State Board of Education, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Employment Security, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Secretary of State literacy program; and other stakeholders to identify, deliberate, and make recommendations to the State Board on adult education policy and priorities. The State Board shall support statewide geographic distribution; diversity of eligible providers; and the adequacy, stability, and predictability of funding so as not to disrupt or diminish, but rather to enhance, adult education and literacy services.

(Source: P.A. 99-655, eff. 7-28-16; 100-884, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

(110 ILCS 805/3-25.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 103-25.1)

Sec. 3-25.1. To authorize application to the State Board for the approval of new units of instruction, research, or public service as defined in this Section and to establish such new units following approval in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the Board of Higher Education Act.

The term "new unit of instruction, research, or public service" includes the establishment of a college, school, division, institute, department, or other unit including majors and curricula in any field of instruction, research, or public service not theretofore included in the program of the community college, and includes the establishment of any new branch or campus of the institution. The term shall not include reasonable and moderate extensions of existing curricula, research, or public service programs which have a direct relationship to existing programs; and the State Board may, under its rulemaking rule making power, define the character of reasonable and moderate extensions.

(Source: P.A. 100-884, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 415. The Higher Education Student Assistance Act is amended by changing Sections 35, 55, 60, and 65.100 as follows:

(110 ILCS 947/35)

Sec. 35. Monetary award program.

(a) The Commission shall, each year, receive and consider applications for grant assistance under this Section. Subject to a separate appropriation for such purposes, an applicant is eligible for a grant under this Section when the Commission finds that the applicant:

(1) is a resident of this State and a citizen or permanent resident of the United States; and

(2) in the absence of grant assistance, will be deterred by financial considerations from completing an educational program at the qualified institution of his or her choice.

(b) The Commission shall award renewals only upon the student's application and upon the Commission's finding that the applicant:

(1) has remained a student in good standing;

(2) remains a resident of this State; and

(3) is in a financial situation that continues to warrant assistance.

(c) All grants shall be applicable only to tuition and necessary fee costs. The Commission shall determine the grant amount for each student, which shall not exceed the smallest of the following amounts:

(1) subject to appropriation, $5,468 for fiscal year 2009, $5,968 for fiscal year 2010, and $6,468 for fiscal year 2011 and each fiscal year thereafter, or such lesser amount as the Commission finds to be available, during an academic year;

(2) the amount which equals 2 semesters or 3 quarters tuition and other necessary fees required generally by the institution of all full-time undergraduate students; or

(3) such amount as the Commission finds to be appropriate in view of the applicant's financial resources.

Subject to appropriation, the maximum grant amount for students not subject to subdivision (1) of this subsection (c) must be increased by the same percentage as any increase made by law to the maximum grant amount under subdivision (1) of this subsection (c).

"Tuition and other necessary fees" as used in this Section include the customary charge for instruction and use of facilities in general, and the additional fixed fees charged for specified purposes, which are required generally of nongrant recipients for each academic period for which the grant applicant actually enrolls, but do not include fees payable only once or breakage fees and other contingent deposits which are refundable in whole or in part. The Commission may prescribe, by rule not inconsistent with this Section, detailed provisions concerning the computation of tuition and other necessary fees.

(d) No applicant, including those presently receiving scholarship assistance under this Act, is eligible for monetary award program consideration under this Act after receiving a baccalaureate degree or the equivalent of 135 semester credit hours of award payments.

(d-5) In this subsection (d-5), "renewing applicant" means a student attending an institution of higher learning who received a Monetary Award Program grant during the prior academic year. Beginning with the processing of applications for the 2020-2021 academic year, the Commission shall annually publish a priority deadline date for renewing applicants. Subject to appropriation, a renewing applicant who files by the published priority deadline date shall receive a grant if he or she continues to meet the eligibility requirements under this Section. A renewing applicant's failure to apply by the priority deadline date established under this subsection (d-5) shall not disqualify him or her from receiving a grant if sufficient funding is available to provide awards after that date.

(e) The Commission, in determining the number of grants to be offered, shall take into consideration past experience with the rate of grant funds unclaimed by recipients. The Commission shall notify applicants that grant assistance is contingent upon the availability of appropriated funds.

(e-5) The General Assembly finds and declares that it is an important purpose of the Monetary Award Program to facilitate access to college both for students who pursue postsecondary education immediately following high school and for those who pursue postsecondary education later in life, particularly Illinoisans who are dislocated workers with financial need and who are seeking to improve their economic position through education. For the 2015-2016 and 2016-2017 academic years, the Commission shall give additional and specific consideration to the needs of dislocated workers with the intent of allowing applicants who are dislocated workers an opportunity to secure financial assistance even if applying later than the general pool of applicants. The Commission's consideration shall include, in determining the number of grants to be offered, an estimate of the resources needed to serve dislocated workers who apply after the Commission initially suspends award announcements for the upcoming regular academic year, but prior to the beginning of that academic year. For the purposes of this subsection (e-5), a dislocated worker is defined as in the federal Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act.

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Commission shall determine the eligibility of and make grants to applicants enrolled at qualified for-profit institutions in accordance with the criteria set forth in this Section. The eligibility of applicants enrolled at such for-profit institutions shall be limited as follows:

(1) Beginning with the academic year 1997, only to eligible first-time freshmen and first-time transfer students who have attained an associate degree.

(2) Beginning with the academic year 1998, only to eligible freshmen students, transfer students who have attained an associate degree, and students who receive a grant under paragraph (1) for the academic year 1997 and whose grants are being renewed for the academic year 1998.

(3) Beginning with the academic year 1999, to all eligible students.

(h) The Commission may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-477, eff. 9-8-17; 100-621, eff. 7-20-18; 100-823, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-10-18.)

(110 ILCS 947/55)

Sec. 55. Police officer or fire officer survivor grant. Grants shall be provided for any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or child in the legal custody of police officers and fire officers who are killed or who become a person with a permanent disability with 90% to 100% disability in the line of duty while employed by, or in the voluntary service of, this State or any local public entity in this State. Beneficiaries need not be Illinois residents at the time of enrollment in order to receive this grant. With respect to disabled police and fire officers, children need not to be born, legally adopted, or in the legal custody of the officer before the disability occurred in order to receive this grant. Beneficiaries are entitled to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of full payment of tuition and mandatory fees at any State-sponsored Illinois institution of higher learning for either full or part-time study, or the equivalent of 8 semesters or 12 quarters of payment of tuition and mandatory fees at the rate established by the Commission for private institutions in the State of Illinois, provided the recipient is maintaining satisfactory academic progress. This benefit may be used for undergraduate or graduate study. The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid out of funds available to the Commission and shall accrue to the bona fide applicant without the requirement of demonstrating financial need to qualify for those benefits.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-673, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-10-18.)

(110 ILCS 947/60)

Sec. 60. Grants for dependents of Department of Corrections employees who are killed or who become a person with a permanent disability in the line of duty. Any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or child in the legal custody of an employee of the Department of Corrections who is assigned to a security position with the Department with responsibility for inmates of any correctional institution under the jurisdiction of the Department and who is killed or who becomes a person with a permanent disability with 90% to 100% disability in the line of duty is entitled to 8 semesters or 12 quarters of full payment of tuition and mandatory fees at any State-supported Illinois institution of higher learning for either full or part-time study, or the equivalent of 8 semesters or 12 quarters of payment of tuition and mandatory fees at the rate established by the Commission for private institutions in the State of Illinois, provided the recipient is maintaining satisfactory academic progress. This benefit may be used for undergraduate or graduate study. Beneficiaries need not be Illinois residents at the time of enrollment in order to receive this grant. With respect to disabled employees of the Department of Corrections, children need not to be born, legally adopted, or in the legal custody of the employee before the disability occurred in order to receive this grant. The benefits of this Section shall be administered by and paid out of funds available to the Commission and shall accrue to the bona fide applicant without the requirement of demonstrating financial need to qualify for those benefits.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-673, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-10-18.)

(110 ILCS 947/65.100)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on October 1, 2024)

Sec. 65.100. AIM HIGH Grant Pilot Program.

(a) The General Assembly makes all of the following findings:

(1) Both access and affordability are important aspects of the Illinois Public Agenda for College and Career Success report.

(2) This State is in the top quartile with respect to the percentage of family income needed to pay for college.

(3) Research suggests that as loan amounts increase, rather than an increase in grant amounts, the probability of college attendance decreases.

(4) There is further research indicating that socioeconomic status may affect the willingness of students to use loans to attend college.

(5) Strategic use of tuition discounting can decrease the amount of loans that students must use to pay for tuition.

(6) A modest, individually tailored tuition discount can make the difference in a student choosing to attend college and enhance college access for low-income and middle-income families.

(7) Even if the federally calculated financial need for college attendance is met, the federally determined Expected Family Contribution can still be a daunting amount.

(8) This State is the second largest exporter of students in the country.

(9) When talented Illinois students attend universities in this State, the State and those universities benefit.

(10) State universities in other states have adopted pricing and incentives that allow many Illinois residents to pay less to attend an out-of-state university than to remain in this State for college.

(11) Supporting Illinois student attendance at Illinois public universities can assist in State efforts to maintain and educate a highly trained workforce.

(12) Modest tuition discounts that are individually targeted and tailored can result in enhanced revenue for public universities.

(13) By increasing a public university's capacity to strategically use tuition discounting, the public university will be capable of creating enhanced tuition revenue by increasing enrollment yields.

(b) In this Section:

"Eligible applicant" means a student from any high school in this State, whether or not recognized by the State Board of Education, who is engaged in a program of study that in due course will be completed by the end of the school year and who meets all of the qualifications and requirements under this Section.

"Tuition and other necessary fees" includes the customary charge for instruction and use of facilities in general and the additional fixed fees charged for specified purposes that are required generally of non-grant recipients for each academic period for which the grant applicant actually enrolls, but does not include fees payable only once or breakage fees and other contingent deposits that are refundable in whole or in part. The Commission may adopt, by rule not inconsistent with this Section, detailed provisions concerning the computation of tuition and other necessary fees.

(c) Beginning with the 2019-2020 academic year, each public university may establish a merit-based scholarship pilot program known as the AIM HIGH Grant Pilot Program. Each year, the Commission shall receive and consider applications from public universities under this Section. Subject to appropriation and any tuition waiver limitation established by the Board of Higher Education, a public university campus may award a grant to a student under this Section if it finds that the applicant meets all of the following criteria:

(1) He or she is a resident of this State and a citizen or eligible noncitizen of the United States.

(2) He or she files a Free Application for Federal Student Aid and demonstrates financial need with a household income no greater than 6 times the poverty guidelines updated periodically in the Federal Register by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).

(3) He or she meets the minimum cumulative grade point average or ACT or SAT college admissions test score, as determined by the public university campus.

(4) He or she is enrolled in a public university as an undergraduate student on a full-time basis.

(5) He or she has not yet received a baccalaureate degree or the equivalent of 135 semester credit hours.

(6) He or she is not incarcerated.

(7) He or she is not in default on any student loan or does not owe a refund or repayment on any State or federal grant or scholarship.

(8) Any other reasonable criteria, as determined by the public university campus.

(d) Each public university campus shall determine grant renewal criteria consistent with the requirements under this Section.

(e) Each participating public university campus shall post on its Internet website criteria and eligibility requirements for receiving awards that use funds under this Section that include includes a range in the sizes of these individual awards. The criteria and amounts must also be reported to the Commission and the Board of Higher Education, who shall post the information on their respective Internet websites.

(f) After enactment of an appropriation for this Program, the Commission shall determine an allocation of funds to each public university in an amount proportionate to the number of undergraduate students who are residents of this State and citizens or eligible noncitizens of the United States and who were enrolled at each public university campus in the previous academic year. All applications must be made to the Commission on or before a date determined by the Commission and on forms that the Commission shall provide to each public university campus. The form of the application and the information required shall be determined by the Commission and shall include, without limitation, the total public university campus funds used to match funds received from the Commission in the previous academic year under this Section, if any, the total enrollment of undergraduate students who are residents of this State from the previous academic year, and any supporting documents as the Commission deems necessary. Each public university campus shall match the amount of funds received by the Commission with financial aid for eligible students.

A public university campus is not required to claim its entire allocation. The Commission shall make available to all public universities, on a date determined by the Commission, any unclaimed funds and the funds must be made available to those public university campuses in the proportion determined under this subsection (f), excluding from the calculation those public university campuses not claiming their full allocations.

Each public university campus may determine the award amounts for eligible students on an individual or broad basis, but, subject to renewal eligibility, each renewed award may not be less than the amount awarded to the eligible student in his or her first year attending the public university campus. Notwithstanding this limitation, a renewal grant may be reduced due to changes in the student's cost of attendance, including, but not limited to, if a student reduces the number of credit hours in which he or she is enrolled, but remains a full-time student, or switches to a course of study with a lower tuition rate.

An eligible applicant awarded grant assistance under this Section is eligible to receive other financial aid. Total grant aid to the student from all sources may not exceed the total cost of attendance at the public university campus.

(g) All money allocated to a public university campus under this Section may be used only for financial aid purposes for students attending the public university campus during the academic year, not including summer terms. Any funds received by a public university campus under this Section that are not granted to students in the academic year for which the funds are received must be refunded to the Commission before any new funds are received by the public university campus for the next academic year.

(h) Each public university campus that establishes a Program under this Section must annually report to the Commission, on or before a date determined by the Commission, the number of undergraduate students enrolled at that campus who are residents of this State.

(i) Each public university campus must report to the Commission the total non-loan financial aid amount given by the public university campus to undergraduate students in fiscal year 2018. To be eligible to receive funds under the Program, a public university campus may not decrease the total amount of non-loan financial aid for undergraduate students to an amount lower than the total non-loan financial aid amount given by the public university campus to undergraduate students in fiscal year 2018, not including any funds received from the Commission under this Section or any funds used to match grant awards under this Section.

(j) On or before a date determined by the Commission, each public university campus that participates in the Program under this Section shall annually submit a report to the Commission with all of the following information:

(1) The Program's impact on tuition revenue and enrollment goals and increase in access and affordability at the public university campus.

(2) Total funds received by the public university campus under the Program.

(3) Total non-loan financial aid awarded to undergraduate students attending the public university campus.

(4) Total amount of funds matched by the public university campus.

(5) Total amount of funds refunded to the Commission by the public university campus.

(6) The percentage of total financial aid distributed under the Program by the public university campus.

(7) The total number of students receiving grants from the public university campus under the Program and those students' grade level, race, gender, income level, family size, Monetary Award Program eligibility, Pell Grant eligibility, and zip code of residence and the amount of each grant award. This information shall include unit record data on those students regarding variables associated with the parameters of the public university's Program, including, but not limited to, a student's ACT or SAT college admissions test score, high school or university cumulative grade point average, or program of study.

On or before October 1, 2020 and annually on or before October 1 thereafter, the Commission shall submit a report with the findings under this subsection (j) and any other information regarding the AIM HIGH Grant Pilot Program to (i) the Governor, (ii) the Speaker of the House of Representatives, (iii) the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, (iv) the President of the Senate, and (v) the Minority Leader of the Senate. The reports to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct. The Commission's report may not disaggregate data to a level that may disclose personally identifying information of individual students.

The sharing and reporting of student data under this subsection (j) must be in accordance with the requirements under the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 and the Illinois School Student Records Act. All parties must preserve the confidentiality of the information as required by law. The names of the grant recipients under this Section are not subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act.

Public university campuses that fail to submit a report under this subsection (j) or that fail to adhere to any other requirements under this Section may not be eligible for distribution of funds under the Program for the next academic year, but may be eligible for distribution of funds for each academic year thereafter.

(k) The Commission shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(l) This Section is repealed on October 1, 2024.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-1015, eff. 8-21-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 420. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Sections 18, 28, and 48.1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/18) (from Ch. 17, par. 325)

Sec. 18. Change in control.

(a) Before any person, whether acting directly or indirectly or through or in concert with one or more persons, may cause (i) a change to occur in the ownership of outstanding stock of any State bank, whether by sale and purchase, gift, bequest or inheritance, or any other means, including the acquisition of stock of the State bank by any bank holding company, which will result in control or a change in the control of the bank, or (ii) a change to occur in the control of a holding company having control of the outstanding stock of a State bank whether by sale and purchase, gift, bequest or inheritance, or any other means, including the acquisition of stock of such holding company by any other bank holding company, which will result in control or a change in control of the bank or holding company, or (iii) a transfer of substantially all the assets or liabilities of the State bank, the Secretary shall be of the opinion and find:

(1) that the general character of proposed management or of the person desiring to purchase substantially all the assets or to assume substantially all the liabilities of the State bank, after the change in control, is such as to assure reasonable promise of successful, safe and sound operation;

(1.1) that depositors' interests will not be jeopardized by the purchase or assumption and that adequate provision has been made for all liabilities as required for a voluntary liquidation under Section 68 of this Act;

(2) that the future earnings prospects of the person desiring to purchase substantially all assets or to assume substantially all the liabilities of the State bank, after the proposed change in control, are favorable;

(2.5) that the future prospects of the institution will not jeopardize the financial stability of the bank or prejudice the interests of the depositors of the bank;

(3) that any prior involvement by the persons proposing to obtain control, to purchase substantially all the assets, or to assume substantially all the liabilities of the State bank or by the proposed management personnel with any other financial institution, whether as stockholder, director, officer or customer, was conducted in a safe and sound manner; and

(4) that if the acquisition is being made by a bank holding company, the acquisition is authorized under the Illinois Bank Holding Company Act of 1957.

(b) Any person desiring to purchase control of an existing State bank, to purchase substantially all the assets, or to assume substantially all the liabilities of the State bank shall, prior to that purchase, submit to the Secretary:

(1) a statement of financial worth;

(2) satisfactory evidence that any prior involvement by the persons and the proposed management personnel with any other financial institution, whether as stockholder, director, officer or customer, was conducted in a safe and sound manner; and

(3) such other relevant information as the Secretary may request to substantiate the findings under subsection (a) of this Section.

A person who has submitted information to the Secretary pursuant to this subsection (b) is under a continuing obligation until the Secretary takes action on the application to immediately supplement that information if there are any material changes in the information previously furnished or if there are any material changes in any circumstances that may affect the Secretary's opinion and findings. In addition, a person submitting information under this subsection shall notify the Secretary of the date when the change in control is finally effected.

The Secretary may impose such terms and conditions on the approval of the change in control application as he deems necessary or appropriate.

If an applicant, whose application for a change in control has been approved pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section, fails to effect the change in control within 180 days after the date of the Secretary's approval, the Secretary shall revoke that approval unless a request has been submitted, in writing, to the Secretary for an extension and the request has been approved.

(b-1) Any person, whether acting directly or indirectly or through or in concert with one or more persons, who obtains ownership of stock of an existing State bank or stock of a holding company that controls the State bank by gift, bequest, or inheritance such that ownership of the stock would constitute control of the State bank or holding company may obtain title and ownership of the stock, but may not exercise management or control of the business and affairs of the bank or vote his or her shares so as to exercise management or control unless and until the Secretary approves an application for the change of control as provided in subsection (b) of this Section.

(b-3) The provisions of this Section do not apply to an established holding company acquiring control of a State bank if the transaction is subject to approval under Section 3 of the federal Bank Holding Company Act, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or the federal Home Owners' Loan Act.

(c) Whenever a State bank makes a loan or loans, secured, or to be secured, by 25% or more of the outstanding stock of a State bank, the president or other chief executive officer of the lending bank shall promptly report such fact to the Secretary upon obtaining knowledge of such loan or loans, except that no report need be made in those cases where the borrower has been the owner of record of the stock for a period of one year or more, or the stock is that of a newly organized bank prior to its opening.

(d) The reports required by subsection subsections (b) of this Section 18, other than those relating to a transfer of assets or assumption of liabilities, shall contain the following information to the extent that it is known by the person making the report: (1) the number of shares involved; (2) the names of the sellers (or transferors); (3) the names of the purchasers (or transferees); (4) the names of the beneficial owners if the shares are registered in another name: (5) the purchase price, if applicable; (6) the total number of shares owned by the sellers (or transferors), the purchasers (or transferees) and the beneficial owners both immediately before and after the transaction; and, (7) in the case of a loan, the name of the borrower, the amount of the loan, the name of the bank issuing the stock securing the loan and the number of shares securing the loan. In addition to the foregoing, such reports shall contain such other information which is requested by the Secretary to inform the Secretary of the effect of the transaction upon control of the bank whose stock is involved.

(d-1) The reports required by subsection (b) of this Section 18 that relate to purchase of assets and assumption of liabilities shall contain the following information to the extent that it is known by the person making the report: (1) the value, amount, and description of the assets transferred; (2) the amount, type, and to whom each type of liabilities are owed; (3) the names of the purchasers (or transferees); (4) the names of the beneficial owners if the shares of a purchaser or transferee are registered in another name; (5) the purchase price, if applicable; and, (6) in the case of a loan obtained to effect a purchase, the name of the borrower, the amount and terms of the loan, and the description of the assets securing the loan. In addition to the foregoing, these reports shall contain any other information that is requested by the Secretary to inform the Secretary of the effect of the transaction upon the bank from which assets are purchased or liabilities are transferred.

(e) Whenever such a change as described in subsection (a) of this Section 18 occurs, each State bank shall report promptly to the Secretary any changes or replacement of its chief executive officer or of any director occurring in the next 12 month period, including in its report a statement of the past and current business and professional affiliations of the new chief executive officer or directors.

(f) (Blank).

(g)(1) Except as otherwise expressly provided in this subsection (g), the Secretary shall not approve an application for a change in control if upon consummation of the change in control the persons applying for the change in control, including any affiliates of the persons applying, would control 30% or more of the total amount of deposits which are located in this State at insured depository institutions. For purposes of this subsection (g), the words "insured depository institution" shall mean State banks, national banks, and insured savings associations. For purposes of this subsection (g), the word "deposits" shall have the meaning ascribed to that word in Section 3(l) 3(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. For purposes of this subsection (g), the total amount of deposits which are considered to be located in this State at insured depository institutions shall equal the sum of all deposits held at the main banking premises and branches in the State of Illinois of State banks, national banks, or insured savings associations. For purposes of this subsection (g), the word "affiliates" shall have the meaning ascribed to that word in Section 35.2 of this Act.

(2) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Secretary may approve an application for a change in control for a bank that is in default or in danger of default. Except in those instances in which an application for a change in control is for a bank that is in default or in danger of default, the Secretary may not approve a change in control which does not meet the requirements of paragraph (1) of this subsection. The Secretary may not waive the provisions of paragraph (1) of this subsection, whether pursuant to Section 3(d) of the federal Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 or Section 44(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, except as expressly provided in this paragraph (2) of this subsection.

(h) As used in this Section:

"Control" means the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the management or policies of the bank or to vote 25% or more of the outstanding stock of the bank. If there is any question as to whether a change in control application should be filed, the question shall be resolved in favor of filing the application with the Secretary.

"Substantially all" the assets or liabilities of a State bank means that portion of the assets or liabilities of a State bank such that their purchase or transfer will materially impair the ability of the State bank to continue successful, safe, and sound operations or to continue as a going concern or would cause the bank to lose its federal deposit insurance.

"Purchase" includes a transfer by gift, bequest, inheritance, or any other means.

As used in this Section, a person is acting in concert if that person is acting in concert under federal laws or regulations.

(Source: P.A. 100-888, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-18-18.)

(205 ILCS 5/28) (from Ch. 17, par. 335)

Sec. 28. Continuation of corporate entity. A resulting State bank, national bank or, after May 31, 1997, out-of-state bank shall be considered the same business and corporate entity as each merging bank or insured savings association or as the converting bank or insured savings association with all the property, rights, powers, duties, and obligations of each merging bank or of the converting bank or insured savings association except as affected by the State law in the case of a resulting State bank or out-of-state bank or by the national law in the case of a resulting national bank, and by the charter and by-laws of the resulting bank. A resulting bank shall be liable for all liabilities of the merging banks, insured savings association, or converting bank or insured savings association, and all the rights, franchises and interests of the merging banks, insured savings association, or converting bank or insured savings association in and to every species of property, real, personal, and mixed, and choses chooses in action thereunto belonging, shall be deemed to be transferred to and vested in the resulting bank without any deed or other transfer, and the resulting bank, without any order or other action on the part of any court or otherwise, shall hold and enjoy the same and all rights of property, franchises, and interests, including appointments, designations, and nominations and all other rights and interests as trustee, executor, administrator, registrar or transfer agent of stocks and bonds, guardian, assignee, receiver, and in every other fiduciary capacity, in the same manner and to the same extent as was held and enjoyed by the merging banks, insured savings association, or the converting bank or insured savings association. Any reference to a merging or converting bank or a merging or converting insured savings association in any writing, whether executed or taking effect before or after the merger or conversion, shall be deemed a reference to the resulting bank if not inconsistent with the other provisions of the writing.

(Source: P.A. 89-208, eff. 9-29-95; 89-567, eff. 7-26-96; revised 10-18-18.)

(205 ILCS 5/48.1) (from Ch. 17, par. 360)

Sec. 48.1. Customer financial records; confidentiality.

(a) For the purpose of this Section, the term "financial records" means any original, any copy, or any summary of:

(1) a document granting signature authority over a deposit or account;

(2) a statement, ledger card or other record on any deposit or account, which shows each transaction in or with respect to that account;

(3) a check, draft or money order drawn on a bank or issued and payable by a bank; or

(4) any other item containing information pertaining to any relationship established in the ordinary course of a bank's business between a bank and its customer, including financial statements or other financial information provided by the customer.

(b) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) The preparation, examination, handling or maintenance of any financial records by any officer, employee or agent of a bank having custody of the records, or the examination of the records by a certified public accountant engaged by the bank to perform an independent audit.

(2) The examination of any financial records by, or the furnishing of financial records by a bank to, any officer, employee or agent of (i) the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, (ii) after May 31, 1997, a state regulatory authority authorized to examine a branch of a State bank located in another state, (iii) the Comptroller of the Currency, (iv) the Federal Reserve Board, or (v) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation for use solely in the exercise of his duties as an officer, employee, or agent.

(3) The publication of data furnished from financial records relating to customers where the data cannot be identified to any particular customer or account.

(4) The making of reports or returns required under Chapter 61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(5) Furnishing information concerning the dishonor of any negotiable instrument permitted to be disclosed under the Uniform Commercial Code.

(6) The exchange in the regular course of business of (i) credit information between a bank and other banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises, directly or through a consumer reporting agency or (ii) financial records or information derived from financial records between a bank and other banks or financial institutions or commercial enterprises for the purpose of conducting due diligence pursuant to a purchase or sale involving the bank or assets or liabilities of the bank.

(7) The furnishing of information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities where the bank reasonably believes it has been the victim of a crime.

(8) The furnishing of information under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(9) The furnishing of information under the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act.

(10) The furnishing of information under the federal Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et seq.

(11) The furnishing of information under any other statute that by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order.

(12) The furnishing of information about the existence of an account of a person to a judgment creditor of that person who has made a written request for that information.

(13) The exchange in the regular course of business of information between commonly owned banks in connection with a transaction authorized under paragraph (23) of Section 5 and conducted at an affiliate facility.

(14) The furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any bank governed by this Act shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with a State agency provided the State agency pays to the bank a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A bank providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any assets held by the bank in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A bank shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender assets until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(15) The exchange in the regular course of business of information between a bank and any commonly owned affiliate of the bank, subject to the provisions of the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law.

(16) The furnishing of information to law enforcement authorities, the Illinois Department on Aging and its regional administrative and provider agencies, the Department of Human Services Office of Inspector General, or public guardians: (i) upon subpoena by the investigatory entity or the guardian, or (ii) if there is suspicion by the bank that a customer who is an elderly person or person with a disability has been or may become the victim of financial exploitation. For the purposes of this item (16), the term: (i) "elderly person" means a person who is 60 or more years of age, (ii) "disabled person" means a person who has or reasonably appears to the bank to have a physical or mental disability that impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from or prevent financial exploitation, and (iii) "financial exploitation" means tortious or illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly or disabled person, and includes, without limitation, misappropriation of the elderly or disabled person's assets or resources by undue influence, breach of fiduciary relationship, intimidation, fraud, deception, extortion, or the use of assets or resources in any manner contrary to law. A bank or person furnishing information pursuant to this item (16) shall be entitled to the same rights and protections as a person furnishing information under the Adult Protective Services Act and the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(17) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction requested or authorized by the customer, or in connection with:

(A) servicing or processing a financial product or service requested or authorized by the customer;

(B) maintaining or servicing a customer's account with the bank; or

(C) a proposed or actual securitization or secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights) related to a transaction of a customer.

Nothing in this item (17), however, authorizes the sale of the financial records or information of a customer without the consent of the customer.

(18) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to protect against actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability.

(19)(A) (a) The disclosure of financial records or information related to a private label credit program between a financial institution and a private label party in connection with that private label credit program. Such information is limited to outstanding balance, available credit, payment and performance and account history, product references, purchase information, and information related to the identity of the customer.

(B)(1) For purposes of this paragraph (19) of subsection (b) of Section 48.1, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (19) of subsection (b) of Section 48.1, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(20)(A) (a) The furnishing of financial records of a customer to the Department to aid the Department's initial determination or subsequent re-determination of the customer's eligibility for Medicaid and Medicaid long-term care benefits for long-term care services, provided that the bank receives the written consent and authorization of the customer, which shall:

(1) have the customer's signature notarized;

(2) be signed by at least one witness who certifies that he or she believes the customer to be of sound mind and memory;

(3) be tendered to the bank at the earliest practicable time following its execution, certification, and notarization;

(4) specifically limit the disclosure of the customer's financial records to the Department; and

(5) be in substantially the following form:

CUSTOMER CONSENT AND AUTHORIZATION

FOR RELEASE OF FINANCIAL RECORDS

I, ......................................., hereby authorize (Name of Customer)

.............................................................

(Name of Financial Institution)

.............................................................

(Address of Financial Institution)

to disclose the following financial records:

any and all information concerning my deposit, savings, money market, certificate of deposit, individual retirement, retirement plan, 401(k) plan, incentive plan, employee benefit plan, mutual fund and loan accounts (including, but not limited to, any indebtedness or obligation for which I am a co-borrower, co-obligor, guarantor, or surety), and any and all other accounts in which I have an interest and any other information regarding me in the possession of the Financial Institution,

to the Illinois Department of Human Services or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or both ("the Department"), for the following purpose(s):

to aid in the initial determination or re-determination by the State of Illinois of my eligibility for Medicaid long-term care benefits, pursuant to applicable law.

I understand that this Consent and Authorization may be revoked by me in writing at any time before my financial records, as described above, are disclosed, and that this Consent and Authorization is valid until the Financial Institution receives my written revocation. This Consent and Authorization shall constitute valid authorization for the Department identified above to inspect all such financial records set forth above, and to request and receive copies of such financial records from the Financial Institution (subject to such records search and reproduction reimbursement policies as the Financial Institution may have in place). An executed copy of this Consent and Authorization shall be sufficient and as good as the original and permission is hereby granted to honor a photostatic or electronic copy of this Consent and Authorization. Disclosure is strictly limited to the Department identified above and no other person or entity shall receive my financial records pursuant to this Consent and Authorization. By signing this form, I agree to indemnify and hold the Financial Institution harmless from any and all claims, demands, and losses, including reasonable attorneys fees and expenses, arising from or incurred in its reliance on this Consent and Authorization. As used herein, "Customer" shall mean "Member" if the Financial Institution is a credit union.

....................... ...................... (Date) (Signature of Customer)

...................... ...................... (Address of Customer)

...................... (Customer's birth date) (month/day/year)

The undersigned witness certifies that ................., known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as the customer to the foregoing Consent and Authorization, appeared before me and the notary public and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as his or her free and voluntary act for the uses and purposes therein set forth. I believe him or her to be of sound mind and memory. The undersigned witness also certifies that the witness is not an owner, operator, or relative of an owner or operator of a long-term care facility in which the customer is a patient or resident.

Dated: ................. ...................... (Signature of Witness)

...................... (Print Name of Witness)

...................... ...................... (Address of Witness)

State of Illinois) ) ss. County of .......)

The undersigned, a notary public in and for the above county and state, certifies that .........., known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as the customer to the foregoing Consent and Authorization, appeared before me together with the witness, .........., in person and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as the free and voluntary act of the customer for the uses and purposes therein set forth.

Dated:.......................................................

Notary Public:...............................................

My commission expires:.......................................

(B) (b) In no event shall the bank distribute the customer's financial records to the long-term care facility from which the customer seeks initial or continuing residency or long-term care services.

(C) (c) A bank providing financial records of a customer in good faith relying on a consent and authorization executed and tendered in accordance with this paragraph (20) shall not be liable to the customer or any other person in relation to the bank's disclosure of the customer's financial records to the Department. The customer signing the consent and authorization shall indemnify and hold the bank harmless that relies in good faith upon the consent and authorization and incurs a loss because of such reliance. The bank recovering under this indemnification provision shall also be entitled to reasonable attorney's fees and the expenses of recovery.

(D) (d) A bank shall be reimbursed by the customer for all costs reasonably necessary and directly incurred in searching for, reproducing, and disclosing a customer's financial records required or requested to be produced pursuant to any consent and authorization executed under this paragraph (20). The requested financial records shall be delivered to the Department within 10 days after receiving a properly executed consent and authorization or at the earliest practicable time thereafter if the requested records cannot be delivered within 10 days, but delivery may be delayed until the final reimbursement of all costs is received by the bank. The bank may honor a photostatic or electronic copy of a properly executed consent and authorization.

(E) (e) Nothing in this paragraph (20) shall impair, abridge, or abrogate the right of a customer to:

(1) directly disclose his or her financial records to the Department or any other person; or

(2) authorize his or her attorney or duly appointed agent to request and obtain the customer's financial records and disclose those financial records to the Department.

(F) (f) For purposes of this paragraph (20), "Department" means the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or any successor administrative agency of either agency.

(b)(1) For purposes of this paragraph (19) of subsection (b) of Section 48.1, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (19) of subsection (b) of Section 48.1, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(c) Except as otherwise provided by this Act, a bank may not disclose to any person, except to the customer or his duly authorized agent, any financial records or financial information obtained from financial records relating to that customer of that bank unless:

(1) the customer has authorized disclosure to the person;

(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order which meets the requirements of subsection (d) of this Section; or

(3) the bank is attempting to collect an obligation owed to the bank and the bank complies with the provisions of Section 2I of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(d) A bank shall disclose financial records under paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section under a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order only after the bank mails a copy of the subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order to the person establishing the relationship with the bank, if living, and, otherwise his personal representative, if known, at his last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid, unless the bank is specifically prohibited from notifying the person by order of court or by applicable State or federal law. A bank shall not mail a copy of a subpoena to any person pursuant to this subsection if the subpoena was issued by a grand jury under the Statewide Grand Jury Act.

(e) Any officer or employee of a bank who knowingly and willfully furnishes financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(f) Any person who knowingly and willfully induces or attempts to induce any officer or employee of a bank to disclose financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and, upon conviction, shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(g) A bank shall be reimbursed for costs that are reasonably necessary and that have been directly incurred in searching for, reproducing, or transporting books, papers, records, or other data required or requested to be produced pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order. The Commissioner shall determine the rates and conditions under which payment may be made.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-664, eff. 1-1-19; 100-888, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 425. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 34 as follows:

(205 ILCS 305/10) (from Ch. 17, par. 4411)

Sec. 10. Credit union records; member financial records.

(1) A credit union shall establish and maintain books, records, accounting systems and procedures which accurately reflect its operations and which enable the Department to readily ascertain the true financial condition of the credit union and whether it is complying with this Act.

(2) A photostatic or photographic reproduction of any credit union records shall be admissible as evidence of transactions with the credit union.

(3)(a) For the purpose of this Section, the term "financial records" means any original, any copy, or any summary of (1) a document granting signature authority over an account, (2) a statement, ledger card or other record on any account which shows each transaction in or with respect to that account, (3) a check, draft or money order drawn on a financial institution or other entity or issued and payable by or through a financial institution or other entity, or (4) any other item containing information pertaining to any relationship established in the ordinary course of business between a credit union and its member, including financial statements or other financial information provided by the member.

(b) This Section does not prohibit:

(1) The preparation, examination, handling or maintenance of any financial records by any officer, employee or agent of a credit union having custody of such records, or the examination of such records by a certified public accountant engaged by the credit union to perform an independent audit.

(2) The examination of any financial records by or the furnishing of financial records by a credit union to any officer, employee or agent of the Department, the National Credit Union Administration, Federal Reserve board or any insurer of share accounts for use solely in the exercise of his duties as an officer, employee or agent.

(3) The publication of data furnished from financial records relating to members where the data cannot be identified to any particular customer of account.

(4) The making of reports or returns required under Chapter 61 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

(5) Furnishing information concerning the dishonor of any negotiable instrument permitted to be disclosed under the Uniform Commercial Code.

(6) The exchange in the regular course of business of (i) credit information between a credit union and other credit unions or financial institutions or commercial enterprises, directly or through a consumer reporting agency or (ii) financial records or information derived from financial records between a credit union and other credit unions or financial institutions or commercial enterprises for the purpose of conducting due diligence pursuant to a merger or a purchase or sale of assets or liabilities of the credit union.

(7) The furnishing of information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities where the credit union reasonably believes it has been the victim of a crime.

(8) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(9) The furnishing of information pursuant to the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act.

(10) The furnishing of information pursuant to the federal "Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act", Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et sequentia.

(11) The furnishing of information pursuant to any other statute which by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant or court order.

(12) The furnishing of information in accordance with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996. Any credit union governed by this Act shall enter into an agreement for data exchanges with a State agency provided the State agency pays to the credit union a reasonable fee not to exceed its actual cost incurred. A credit union providing information in accordance with this item shall not be liable to any account holder or other person for any disclosure of information to a State agency, for encumbering or surrendering any assets held by the credit union in response to a lien or order to withhold and deliver issued by a State agency, or for any other action taken pursuant to this item, including individual or mechanical errors, provided the action does not constitute gross negligence or willful misconduct. A credit union shall have no obligation to hold, encumber, or surrender assets until it has been served with a subpoena, summons, warrant, court or administrative order, lien, or levy.

(13) The furnishing of information to law enforcement authorities, the Illinois Department on Aging and its regional administrative and provider agencies, the Department of Human Services Office of Inspector General, or public guardians: (i) upon subpoena by the investigatory entity or the guardian, or (ii) if there is suspicion by the credit union that a member who is an elderly person or person with a disability has been or may become the victim of financial exploitation. For the purposes of this item (13), the term: (i) "elderly person" means a person who is 60 or more years of age, (ii) "person with a disability" means a person who has or reasonably appears to the credit union to have a physical or mental disability that impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain protection from or prevent financial exploitation, and (iii) "financial exploitation" means tortious or illegal use of the assets or resources of an elderly person or person with a disability, and includes, without limitation, misappropriation of the elderly or disabled person's assets or resources by undue influence, breach of fiduciary relationship, intimidation, fraud, deception, extortion, or the use of assets or resources in any manner contrary to law. A credit union or person furnishing information pursuant to this item (13) shall be entitled to the same rights and protections as a person furnishing information under the Adult Protective Services Act and the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.

(14) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction requested or authorized by the member, or in connection with:

(A) servicing or processing a financial product or service requested or authorized by the member;

(B) maintaining or servicing a member's account with the credit union; or

(C) a proposed or actual securitization or secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights) related to a transaction of a member.

Nothing in this item (14), however, authorizes the sale of the financial records or information of a member without the consent of the member.

(15) The disclosure of financial records or information as necessary to protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability.

(16)(a) The disclosure of financial records or information related to a private label credit program between a financial institution and a private label party in connection with that private label credit program. Such information is limited to outstanding balance, available credit, payment and performance and account history, product references, purchase information, and information related to the identity of the customer.

(b)(1) For purposes of this item paragraph (16) of subsection (b) of Section 10, a "private label credit program" means a credit program involving a financial institution and a private label party that is used by a customer of the financial institution and the private label party primarily for payment for goods or services sold, manufactured, or distributed by a private label party.

(2) For purposes of this item paragraph (16) of subsection (b) of Section 10, a "private label party" means, with respect to a private label credit program, any of the following: a retailer, a merchant, a manufacturer, a trade group, or any such person's affiliate, subsidiary, member, agent, or service provider.

(17)(a) The furnishing of financial records of a member to the Department to aid the Department's initial determination or subsequent re-determination of the member's eligibility for Medicaid and Medicaid long-term care benefits for long-term care services, provided that the credit union receives the written consent and authorization of the member, which shall:

(1) have the member's signature notarized;

(2) be signed by at least one witness who certifies that he or she believes the member to be of sound mind and memory;

(3) be tendered to the credit union at the earliest practicable time following its execution, certification, and notarization;

(4) specifically limit the disclosure of the member's financial records to the Department; and

(5) be in substantially the following form:

CUSTOMER CONSENT AND AUTHORIZATION

FOR RELEASE OF FINANCIAL RECORDS

I, ......................................., hereby authorize (Name of Customer)

.............................................................

(Name of Financial Institution)

.............................................................

(Address of Financial Institution)

to disclose the following financial records:

any and all information concerning my deposit, savings, money market, certificate of deposit, individual retirement, retirement plan, 401(k) plan, incentive plan, employee benefit plan, mutual fund and loan accounts (including, but not limited to, any indebtedness or obligation for which I am a co-borrower, co-obligor, guarantor, or surety), and any and all other accounts in which I have an interest and any other information regarding me in the possession of the Financial Institution,

to the Illinois Department of Human Services or the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services, or both ("the Department"), for the following purpose(s):

to aid in the initial determination or re-determination by the State of Illinois of my eligibility for Medicaid long-term care benefits, pursuant to applicable law.

I understand that this Consent and Authorization may be revoked by me in writing at any time before my financial records, as described above, are disclosed, and that this Consent and Authorization is valid until the Financial Institution receives my written revocation. This Consent and Authorization shall constitute valid authorization for the Department identified above to inspect all such financial records set forth above, and to request and receive copies of such financial records from the Financial Institution (subject to such records search and reproduction reimbursement policies as the Financial Institution may have in place). An executed copy of this Consent and Authorization shall be sufficient and as good as the original and permission is hereby granted to honor a photostatic or electronic copy of this Consent and Authorization. Disclosure is strictly limited to the Department identified above and no other person or entity shall receive my financial records pursuant to this Consent and Authorization. By signing this form, I agree to indemnify and hold the Financial Institution harmless from any and all claims, demands, and losses, including reasonable attorneys fees and expenses, arising from or incurred in its reliance on this Consent and Authorization. As used herein, "Customer" shall mean "Member" if the Financial Institution is a credit union.

....................... ...................... (Date) (Signature of Customer)

...................... ...................... (Address of Customer)

...................... (Customer's birth date) (month/day/year)

The undersigned witness certifies that ................., known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as the customer to the foregoing Consent and Authorization, appeared before me and the notary public and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as his or her free and voluntary act for the uses and purposes therein set forth. I believe him or her to be of sound mind and memory. The undersigned witness also certifies that the witness is not an owner, operator, or relative of an owner or operator of a long-term care facility in which the customer is a patient or resident.

Dated: ................. ...................... (Signature of Witness)

...................... (Print Name of Witness)

...................... ...................... (Address of Witness)

State of Illinois) ) ss. County of .......)

The undersigned, a notary public in and for the above county and state, certifies that .........., known to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed as the customer to the foregoing Consent and Authorization, appeared before me together with the witness, .........., in person and acknowledged signing and delivering the instrument as the free and voluntary act of the customer for the uses and purposes therein set forth.

Dated:.......................................................

Notary Public:...............................................

My commission expires:.......................................

(b) In no event shall the credit union distribute the member's financial records to the long-term care facility from which the member seeks initial or continuing residency or long-term care services.

(c) A credit union providing financial records of a member in good faith relying on a consent and authorization executed and tendered in accordance with this item subparagraph (17) shall not be liable to the member or any other person in relation to the credit union's disclosure of the member's financial records to the Department. The member signing the consent and authorization shall indemnify and hold the credit union harmless that relies in good faith upon the consent and authorization and incurs a loss because of such reliance. The credit union recovering under this indemnification provision shall also be entitled to reasonable attorney's fees and the expenses of recovery.

(d) A credit union shall be reimbursed by the member for all costs reasonably necessary and directly incurred in searching for, reproducing, and disclosing a member's financial records required or requested to be produced pursuant to any consent and authorization executed under this item subparagraph (17). The requested financial records shall be delivered to the Department within 10 days after receiving a properly executed consent and authorization or at the earliest practicable time thereafter if the requested records cannot be delivered within 10 days, but delivery may be delayed until the final reimbursement of all costs is received by the credit union. The credit union may honor a photostatic or electronic copy of a properly executed consent and authorization.

(e) Nothing in this item subparagraph (17) shall impair, abridge, or abrogate the right of a member to:

(1) directly disclose his or her financial records to the Department or any other person; or

(2) authorize his or her attorney or duly appointed agent to request and obtain the member's financial records and disclose those financial records to the Department.

(f) For purposes of this item subparagraph (17), "Department" means the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or any successor administrative agency of either agency.

(18) (17) The furnishing of the financial records of a member to an appropriate law enforcement authority, without prior notice to or consent of the member, upon written request of the law enforcement authority, when reasonable suspicion of an imminent threat to the personal security and safety of the member exists that necessitates an expedited release of the member's financial records, as determined by the law enforcement authority. The law enforcement authority shall include a brief explanation of the imminent threat to the member in its written request to the credit union. The written request shall reflect that it has been authorized by a supervisory or managerial official of the law enforcement authority. The decision to furnish the financial records of a member to a law enforcement authority shall be made by a supervisory or managerial official of the credit union. A credit union providing information in accordance with this item (18) (17) shall not be liable to the member or any other person for the disclosure of the information to the law enforcement authority.

(c) Except as otherwise provided by this Act, a credit union may not disclose to any person, except to the member or his duly authorized agent, any financial records relating to that member of the credit union unless:

(1) the member has authorized disclosure to the person;

(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order that meets the requirements of subparagraph (3)(d) (d) of this Section; or

(3) the credit union is attempting to collect an obligation owed to the credit union and the credit union complies with the provisions of Section 2I of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act.

(d) A credit union shall disclose financial records under item (3)(c)(2) subparagraph (c)(2) of this Section pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order only after the credit union mails a copy of the subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order to the person establishing the relationship with the credit union, if living, and otherwise his personal representative, if known, at his last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid unless the credit union is specifically prohibited from notifying the person by order of court or by applicable State or federal law. In the case of a grand jury subpoena, a credit union shall not mail a copy of a subpoena to any person pursuant to this subsection if the subpoena was issued by a grand jury under the Statewide Grand Jury Act or notifying the person would constitute a violation of the federal Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978.

(e)(1) Any officer or employee of a credit union who knowingly and willfully wilfully furnishes financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and upon conviction thereof shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(2) Any person who knowingly and willfully wilfully induces or attempts to induce any officer or employee of a credit union to disclose financial records in violation of this Section is guilty of a business offense and upon conviction thereof shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(f) A credit union shall be reimbursed for costs which are reasonably necessary and which have been directly incurred in searching for, reproducing or transporting books, papers, records or other data of a member required or requested to be produced pursuant to a lawful subpoena, summons, warrant, citation to discover assets, or court order. The Secretary and the Director may determine, by rule, the rates and conditions under which payment shall be made. Delivery of requested documents may be delayed until final reimbursement of all costs is received.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-664, eff. 1-1-19; 100-778, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-18-18.)

(205 ILCS 305/34) (from Ch. 17, par. 4435)

Sec. 34. Duties of supervisory committee.

(1) The supervisory committee shall make or cause to be made an annual internal audit of the books and affairs of the credit union to determine that the credit union's accounting records and reports are prepared promptly and accurately reflect operations and results, that internal controls are established and effectively maintained to safeguard the assets of the credit union, and that the policies, procedures and practices established by the board of directors and management of the credit union are being properly administered. The supervisory committee shall submit a report of that audit to the board of directors and a summary of that report to the members at the next annual meeting of the credit union. It shall make or cause to be made such supplementary audits as it deems necessary or as are required by the Secretary or by the board of directors, and submit reports of these supplementary audits to the Secretary or board of directors as applicable. If the supervisory committee has not engaged a licensed certified public accountant or licensed certified public accounting firm to make the internal audit, the supervisory committee or other officials of the credit union shall not indicate or in any manner imply that such audit has been performed by a licensed certified public accountant or licensed certified public accounting firm or that the audit represents the independent opinion of a licensed certified public accountant or licensed certified public accounting firm. The supervisory committee must retain its tapes and working papers of each internal audit for inspection by the Department. The report of this audit must be made on a form approved by the Secretary. A copy of the report must be promptly delivered to the Secretary.

(2) The supervisory committee shall make or cause to be made at least once each year a reasonable percentage verification of members' share and loan accounts, consistent with rules promulgated by the Secretary.

(3) (A) The supervisory committee of a credit union with assets of $10,000,000 or more shall engage a licensed certified public accountant or licensed certified public accounting firm to perform an annual external independent audit of the credit union's financial statements in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards and the financial statements shall be issued in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America.

(B) The supervisory committee of a credit union with assets of $5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000, shall engage a licensed certified public accountant or licensed certified public accounting firm to perform on an annual basis: (i) an agreed-upon procedures engagement under attestation standards established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants to minimally satisfy the supervisory committee internal audit standards set forth in subsection (1); or (ii) an external independent audit of the credit union's financial statements pursuant to the standards set forth in paragraph (A) of subsection (3).

(C) The external independent audit report or agreed-upon agreed upon procedures report shall be completed and a copy thereof delivered to the Secretary no later than 120 days after the end of the calendar or fiscal year under audit or fiscal period for which the agreed-upon agreed upon procedures are performed. A credit union or group of credit unions may obtain an extension of the due date upon application to and receipt of written approval from the Secretary.

(D) If the credit union engages a licensed certified public accountant or licensed certified public accounting firm to perform an annual external independent audit of the credit union's financial statements pursuant to the standards in paragraph (A) of subsection (3) or an annual agreed-upon agreed upon procedures engagement pursuant to the standards in paragraph (B) of subsection (3), then the annual internal audit requirements of subsection (1) shall be deemed satisfied and met in all respects.

(4) In determining the appropriate balance in the allowance for loan losses account, a credit union may determine its historical loss rate using a defined period of time of less than 5 years, provided that:

(A) the methodology used to determine the defined period of time is formally documented in the credit union's policies and procedures and is appropriate to the credit union's size, business strategy, and loan portfolio characteristics and the economic environment of the areas and employers served by the credit union;

(B) supporting documentation is maintained for the technique used to develop the credit union loss rates, including the period of time used to accumulate historical loss data and the factors considered in establishing the time frames; and

(C) the external auditor conducting the credit union's financial statement audit has analyzed the methodology employed by the credit union and concludes that the financial statements, including the allowance for loan losses, are fairly stated in all material respects in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, as promulgated by the Financial Accounting Standards Board.

(5) A majority of the members of the supervisory committee shall constitute a quorum.

(6) On an annual basis commencing January 1, 2015, the members of the supervisory committee shall receive training related to their statutory duties. Supervisory committee members may receive the training through internal credit union training, external training offered by the credit union's retained auditors, trade associations, vendors, regulatory agencies, or any other sources or on-the-job experience, or a combination of those activities. The training may be received through any medium, including, but not limited to, conferences, workshops, audit closing meetings, seminars, teleconferences, webinars, and other Internet-based delivery channels.

(Source: P.A. 100-778, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 430. The Corporate Fiduciary Act is amended by changing Section 6-10 as follows:

(205 ILCS 620/6-10) (from Ch. 17, par. 1556-10)

Sec. 6-10. The receiver for a corporate fiduciary, under the direction of the Commissioner, shall have the power and authority and is charged with the duties and responsibilities as follows:

(1) To take possession of, and for the purpose of the receivership, the title to the books, records and assets of every description of the corporate fiduciary.

(2) To proceed to collect all debts, dues and claims belonging to the corporate fiduciary.

(3) To file with the Commissioner a copy of each report which he makes to the court, together with such other reports and records as the Commissioner may require.

(4) The receiver shall have authority to sue and defend in the receiver's own name and with respect to the affairs, assets, claims, debts and choses chooses in action of the corporate fiduciary.

(5) The receiver shall have authority, and it shall be the receiver's duty, to surrender to the customers of such corporate fiduciary, when requested in writing directed to the receiver by such customers, the assets, private papers and valuables left with the corporate fiduciary for safekeeping, under a custodial or agency agreement, upon satisfactory proof of ownership.

(6) As soon as can reasonably be done, the receiver shall resign on behalf of the corporate fiduciary, all trusteeships, guardianships, and all appointments as executor and administrator, or as custodian under the Illinois Uniform Transfers to Minors Act, as now or hereafter amended, or as fiduciary under custodial or agency agreements or under the terms of any other written agreement or court order whereunder the corporate fiduciary is holding property in a fiduciary capacity for the benefit of another person, making in each case, from the records and documents available to the receiver, a proper accounting, in the manner and scope as determined by the Commissioner to be practical and advisable under the circumstances, on behalf of the corporate fiduciary. The receiver, prior to resigning, shall cause a successor trustee or fiduciary to be appointed pursuant to the terms set forth in the governing instrument or pursuant to the provisions of the Trusts and Trustees Act, as now or hereafter amended, if applicable, then the receiver shall make application to the court having jurisdiction over the liquidation or winding up of the corporate fiduciary, for the appointment of a successor. The receiver, if a corporate fiduciary, shall not be disqualified from acting as successor trustee or fiduciary if appointed under the terms of the governing instrument, by court order or by the customer of the corporate fiduciary whose affairs are being liquidated or wound up and, in such case, no guardian ad litem need be appointed to review the accounting of the receiver unless the beneficiaries or customers of the corporate fiduciary so request in writing.

(7) The receiver shall have authority to redeem or take down collateral hypothecated by the corporate fiduciary to secure its notes and other evidence of indebtedness whenever the Commissioner deems it to be in the best interest of the creditors of the corporate fiduciary and directs the receiver so to do.

(8) Whenever the receiver shall find it necessary in the receiver's opinion to use and employ money of the corporate fiduciary, in order to protect fully and benefit the corporate fiduciary, by the purchase or redemption of any property, real or personal, in which the corporate fiduciary may have any rights by reason of any bond, mortgage, assignment, or other claim thereto, the receiver may certify the facts together with the receiver's opinions as to the value of the property involved, and the value of the equity the corporate fiduciary may have in the property to the Commissioner, together with a request for the right and authority to use and employ so much of the money of the corporate fiduciary as may be necessary to purchase the property, or to redeem the same from a sale if there was a sale, and if such request is granted, the receiver may use so much of the money of the corporate fiduciary as the Commissioner may have authorized to purchase said property at such sale.

(9) The receiver shall deposit daily all monies collected by the receiver in any State or national bank selected by the Commissioner, who may require (and the bank so selected may furnish) of such depository satisfactory securities or satisfactory surety bond for the safekeeping and prompt payment of the money so deposited. The deposits shall be made in the name of the Commissioner in trust for the receiver and be subject to withdrawal upon the receiver's order or upon the order of such persons as the Commissioner may designate. Such monies may be deposited without interest, unless otherwise agreed. However, if any interest was paid by such depository, it shall accrue to the benefit of the particular trust or fiduciary account to which the deposit belongs. Except as otherwise directed by the Commissioner, notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph, the receiver's investment and other powers shall be those under the governing instrument or under the Trusts and Trustees Act, as now or hereafter amended, and shall include the power to pay out income and principal in accordance with the terms of the governing instrument.

(10) The receiver shall do such things and take such steps from time to time under the direction and approval of the Commissioner as may reasonably appear to be necessary to conserve the corporate fiduciary's assets and secure the best interests of the creditors of the corporate fiduciary.

(11) The receiver shall record any judgment of dissolution entered in a dissolution proceeding and thereupon turn over to the Commissioner a certified copy thereof, together with all books of accounts and ledgers of such corporate fiduciary for preservation, as distinguished from the books of accounts and ledgers of the corporate fiduciary relating to the assets of the beneficiaries of such fiduciary relations, all of which books of accounts and ledgers shall be turned over by the receiver to the successor trustee or fiduciary.

(12) The receiver may cause all assets of the beneficiaries of such fiduciary relations to be registered in the name of the receiver or in the name of the receiver's nominee.

(13) The receiver shall have a reasonable period of time in which to review all of the trust accounts, executorships, administrationships, guardianships, or other fiduciary relationships, in order to ascertain that the investments by the corporate fiduciary of the assets of such trust accounts, executorships, administrationships, guardianships or other fiduciary relationships comply with the terms of the governing instrument, the prudent person rule governing the investment of such funds, or any other law regulating the investment of such funds.

(14) For its services in administering the trusts and other fiduciary accounts of the corporate fiduciary during the period of winding up the affairs of the corporate fiduciary, the receiver shall be entitled to be reimbursed for all costs and expenses incurred by the receiver and shall also be entitled to receive out of the assets of the individual fiduciary accounts being administered by the receiver during the period of winding up the affairs of the corporate fiduciary and prior to the appointment of a successor trustee or fiduciary, the usual and customary fees charged by the receiver in the administration of its own fiduciary accounts or reasonable fees approved by the Commissioner.

(15) The receiver, during its administration of the trusts and other fiduciary accounts of the corporate fiduciary during the winding up of the affairs of the corporate fiduciary, shall have all of the powers which are vested in trustees under the terms and provisions of the Trusts and Trustees Act, as now or hereafter amended.

(16) Upon the appointment of a successor trustee or fiduciary, the receiver shall deliver to such successor trustee or fiduciary all of the assets belonging to the individual trust or fiduciary account as to which the successor trustee or fiduciary succeeds, and the receiver shall thereupon be relieved of any further duties or obligations with respect thereto.

(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 435. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-3, 1-4, 4-1, and 4-8 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/1-3) (from Ch. 17, par. 2321-3)

Sec. 1-3. Necessity for license; scope of Act.

(a) No person, partnership, association, corporation or other entity shall engage in the business of brokering, funding, originating, servicing or purchasing of residential mortgage loans without first obtaining a license from the Secretary in accordance with the licensing procedure provided in this Article I and such regulations as may be promulgated by the Secretary. The licensing provisions of this Section shall not apply to any entity engaged solely in commercial mortgage lending or to any person, partnership association, corporation or other entity exempted pursuant to Section 1-4, subsection (d), of this Act or in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Secretary hereunder. No provision of this Act shall apply to an exempt person or entity as defined in items (1) and (1.5) of subsection (d) of Section 1-4 of this Act. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the preceding sentence, an individual acting as a mortgage loan originator who is not employed by and acting for an entity described in item (1) of subsection (tt) of Section 1-4 of this Act shall be subject to the mortgage loan originator licensing requirements of Article VII of this Act.

Effective January 1, 2011, no provision of this Act shall apply to an exempt person or entity as defined in item (1.8) of subsection (d) of Section 1-4 of this Act. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the preceding sentence, an individual acting as a mortgage loan originator who is not employed by and acting for an entity described in item (1) of subsection (tt) of Section 1-4 of this Act shall be subject to the mortgage loan originator licensing requirements of Article VII of this Act, and provided that an individual acting as a mortgage loan originator under item (1.8) of subsection (d) of Section 1-4 of this Act shall be further subject to a determination by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development through final rulemaking or other authorized agency determination under the federal Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008.

(a-1) A person who is exempt from licensure pursuant to paragraph (ii) of item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 1-4 of this Act as a federally chartered savings bank that is registered with the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry may apply to the Secretary for an exempt company registration for the purpose of sponsoring one or more individuals subject to the mortgage loan originator licensing requirements of Article VII of this Act. Registration with the Division of Banking of the Department shall not affect the exempt status of the applicant.

(1) A mortgage loan originator eligible for licensure under this subsection shall (A) be covered under an exclusive written contract with, and originate residential mortgage loans solely on behalf of, that exempt person; and (B) hold a current, valid insurance producer license under Article XXXI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(2) An exempt person shall: (A) fulfill any reporting requirements required by the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry or the Secretary; (B) provide a blanket surety bond pursuant to Section 7-12 of this Act covering the activities of all its sponsored mortgage loan originators; (C) reasonably supervise the activities of all its sponsored mortgage loan originators; (D) comply with all rules and orders (including the averments contained in Section 2-4 of this Act as applicable to a non-licensed exempt entity provided for in this Section) that the Secretary deems necessary to ensure compliance with the federal SAFE Act; and (E) pay an annual registration fee established by the Director.

(3) The Secretary may deny an exempt company registration to an exempt person or fine, suspend, or revoke an exempt company registration if the Secretary finds one of the following:

(A) that the exempt person is not a person of honesty, truthfulness, or good character;

(B) that the exempt person violated any applicable law, rule, or order;

(C) that the exempt person refused or failed to furnish, within a reasonable time, any information or make any report that may be required by the Secretary;

(D) that the exempt person had a final judgment entered against him or her in a civil action on grounds of fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation, and the conduct on which the judgment is based indicates that it would be contrary to the interest of the public to permit the exempt person to manage a loan originator;

(E) that the exempt person had an order entered against him or her involving fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation by an administrative agency of this State, the federal government, or any other state or territory of the United States, and the facts relating to the order indicate that it would be contrary to the interest of the public to permit the exempt person to manage a loan originator;

(F) that the exempt person made a material misstatement or suppressed or withheld information on the application for an exempt company registration or any document required to be filed with the Secretary; or

(G) that the exempt person violated Section 4-5 of this Act.

(a-5) An entity that is exempt from licensure pursuant to item (7) of subsection (d) of Section 1-4 of this Act as an independent loan processing entity shall annually apply to the Secretary through the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry for an exempt company registration for the purpose of sponsoring one or more individuals subject to the mortgage loan originator licensing requirements of Article VII of this Act. A loan processor who performs clerical or support duties at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a licensed mortgage loan originator sponsored by an independent loan processing entity shall be exempt from his or her own licensing as a mortgage loan originator. An independent loan processing entity shall not be subject to examination by the Secretary. The Secretary may adopt rules to implement any provisions necessary for the administration of this subsection.

(b) No person, partnership, association, corporation, or other entity except a licensee under this Act or an entity exempt from licensing pursuant to Section 1-4, subsection (d), of this Act shall do any business under any name or title, or circulate or use any advertising or make any representation or give any information to any person, which indicates or reasonably implies activity within the scope of this Act.

(c) The Secretary may, through the Attorney General, request the circuit court of either Cook or Sangamon County to issue an injunction to restrain any person from violating or continuing to violate any of the foregoing provisions of this Section.

(d) When the Secretary has reasonable cause to believe that any entity which has not submitted an application for licensure is conducting any of the activities described in subsection (a) hereof, the Secretary shall have the power to examine all books and records of the entity and any additional documentation necessary in order to determine whether such entity should become licensed under this Act.

(d-1) The Secretary may issue orders against any person if the Secretary has reasonable cause to believe that an unsafe, unsound, or unlawful practice has occurred, is occurring, or is about to occur, if any person has violated, is violating, or is about to violate any law, rule, or written agreement with the Secretary, or for the purposes of administering the provisions of this Act and any rule adopted in accordance with this Act.

(e) Any person, partnership, association, corporation or other entity who violates any provision of this Section commits a business offense and shall be fined an amount not to exceed $25,000. A mortgage loan brokered, funded, originated, serviced, or purchased by a party who is not licensed under this Section shall not be held to be invalid solely on the basis of a violation under this Section. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-113 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

(f) Each person, partnership, association, corporation or other entity conducting activities regulated by this Act shall be issued one license. Each office, place of business or location at which a residential mortgage licensee conducts any part of his or her business must be recorded with the Secretary pursuant to Section 2-8 of this Act.

(g) Licensees under this Act shall solicit, broker, fund, originate, service and purchase residential mortgage loans only in conformity with the provisions of this Act and such rules and regulations as may be promulgated by the Secretary.

(h) This Act applies to all entities doing business in Illinois as residential mortgage bankers, as defined by "An Act to provide for the regulation of mortgage bankers", approved September 15, 1977, as amended, regardless of whether licensed under that or any prior Act. Any existing residential mortgage lender or residential mortgage broker in Illinois whether or not previously licensed, must operate in accordance with this Act.

(i) This Act is a successor Act to and a continuance of the regulation of residential mortgage bankers provided in, "An Act to provide for the regulation of mortgage bankers", approved September 15, 1977, as amended.

Entities and persons subject to the predecessor Act shall be subject to this Act from and after its effective date.

(Source: P.A. 99-113, eff. 7-23-15; 100-851, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1153, eff. 12-19-18; revised 1-13-19.)

(205 ILCS 635/1-4)

Sec. 1-4. Definitions. The following words and phrases have the meanings given to them in this Section:

(a) "Residential real property" or "residential real estate" shall mean any real property located in Illinois, upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling. Those terms include a manufactured home as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code which is real property as defined in Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.

(b) "Making a residential mortgage loan" or "funding a residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly, advancing funds or making a commitment to advance funds to a loan applicant for a residential mortgage loan.

(c) "Soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating a residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly, accepting or offering to accept an application for a residential mortgage loan, assisting or offering to assist in the processing of an application for a residential mortgage loan on behalf of a borrower, or negotiating or offering to negotiate the terms or conditions of a residential mortgage loan with a lender on behalf of a borrower including, but not limited to, the submission of credit packages for the approval of lenders, the preparation of residential mortgage loan closing documents, including a closing in the name of a broker.

(d) "Exempt person or entity" shall mean the following:

(1) (i) Any banking organization or foreign banking corporation licensed by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the United States Comptroller of the Currency to transact business in this State; (ii) any national bank, federally chartered savings and loan association, federal savings bank, federal credit union; (iii) (blank); (iv) any bank, savings and loan association, savings bank, or credit union organized under the laws of this or any other state; (v) any Illinois Consumer Installment Loan Act licensee; (vi) any insurance company authorized to transact business in this State; (vii) any entity engaged solely in commercial mortgage lending; (viii) any service corporation of a savings and loan association or savings bank organized under the laws of this State or the service corporation of a federally chartered savings and loan association or savings bank having its principal place of business in this State, other than a service corporation licensed or entitled to reciprocity under the Real Estate License Act of 2000; or (ix) any first tier subsidiary of a bank, the charter of which is issued under the Illinois Banking Act by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, or the first tier subsidiary of a bank chartered by the United States Comptroller of the Currency and that has its principal place of business in this State, provided that the first tier subsidiary is regularly examined by the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the Comptroller of the Currency, or a consumer compliance examination is regularly conducted by the Federal Reserve Board.

(1.5) Any employee of a person or entity mentioned in item (1) of this subsection, when acting for such person or entity, or any registered mortgage loan originator when acting for an entity described in subsection (tt) of this Section.

(1.8) Any person or entity that does not originate mortgage loans in the ordinary course of business, but makes or acquires residential mortgage loans with his or her own funds for his or her or its own investment without intent to make, acquire, or resell more than 3 residential mortgage loans in any one calendar year.

(2) (Blank).

(2.1) A bona fide nonprofit organization.

(2.2) An employee of a bona fide nonprofit organization when acting on behalf of that organization.

(3) Any person employed by a licensee to assist in the performance of the residential mortgage licensee's activities regulated by this Act who is compensated in any manner by only one licensee.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Any individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity that originates, services, or brokers residential mortgage loans, as these activities are defined in this Act, and who or which receives no compensation for those activities, subject to the Commissioner's regulations and the federal Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008 and the rules promulgated under that Act with regard to the nature and amount of compensation.

(6) (Blank).

(7) Any entity engaged solely in providing loan processing services through the sponsoring of individuals acting pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 7-1A of this Act.

(e) "Licensee" or "residential mortgage licensee" shall mean a person, partnership, association, corporation, or any other entity who or which is licensed pursuant to this Act to engage in the activities regulated by this Act.

(f) "Mortgage loan" "residential mortgage loan" or "home mortgage loan" shall mean any loan primarily for personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling as defined in Section 103(v) of the federal Truth in Lending Act, or residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling.

(g) "Lender" shall mean any person, partnership, association, corporation, or any other entity who either lends or invests money in residential mortgage loans.

(h) "Ultimate equitable owner" shall mean a person who, directly or indirectly, owns or controls an ownership interest in a corporation, foreign corporation, alien business organization, trust, or any other form of business organization regardless of whether the person owns or controls the ownership interest through one or more persons or one or more proxies, powers of attorney, nominees, corporations, associations, partnerships, trusts, joint stock companies, or other entities or devices, or any combination thereof.

(i) "Residential mortgage financing transaction" shall mean the negotiation, acquisition, sale, or arrangement for or the offer to negotiate, acquire, sell, or arrange for, a residential mortgage loan or residential mortgage loan commitment.

(j) "Personal residence address" shall mean a street address and shall not include a post office box number.

(k) "Residential mortgage loan commitment" shall mean a contract for residential mortgage loan financing.

(l) "Party to a residential mortgage financing transaction" shall mean a borrower, lender, or loan broker in a residential mortgage financing transaction.

(m) "Payments" shall mean payment of all or any of the following: principal, interest and escrow reserves for taxes, insurance and other related reserves, and reimbursement for lender advances.

(n) "Commissioner" shall mean the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate, except that, beginning on April 6, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1047), all references in this Act to the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be references to the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(n-1) "Director" shall mean the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, except that, beginning on July 31, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-112), all references in this Act to the Director are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(o) "Loan brokering", "brokering", or "brokerage service" shall mean the act of helping to obtain from another entity, for a borrower, a loan secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois or assisting a borrower in obtaining a loan secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois in return for consideration to be paid by either the borrower or the lender including, but not limited to, contracting for the delivery of residential mortgage loans to a third party lender and soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating residential mortgage loans.

(p) "Loan broker" or "broker" shall mean a person, partnership, association, corporation, or limited liability company, other than those persons, partnerships, associations, corporations, or limited liability companies exempted from licensing pursuant to Section 1-4, subsection (d), of this Act, who performs the activities described in subsections (c), (o), and (yy) of this Section.

(q) "Servicing" shall mean the collection or remittance for or the right or obligation to collect or remit for any lender, noteowner, noteholder, or for a licensee's own account, of payments, interests, principal, and trust items such as hazard insurance and taxes on a residential mortgage loan in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan; and includes loan payment follow-up, delinquency loan follow-up, loan analysis and any notifications to the borrower that are necessary to enable the borrower to keep the loan current and in good standing. "Servicing" includes management of third-party entities acting on behalf of a residential mortgage licensee for the collection of delinquent payments and the use by such third-party entities of said licensee's servicing records or information, including their use in foreclosure.

(r) "Full service office" shall mean an office, provided by the licensee and not subleased from the licensee's employees, and staff in Illinois reasonably adequate to handle efficiently communications, questions, and other matters relating to any application for, or an existing home mortgage secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois with respect to which the licensee is brokering, funding originating, purchasing, or servicing. The management and operation of each full service office must include observance of good business practices such as proper signage; adequate, organized, and accurate books and records; ample phone lines, hours of business, staff training and supervision, and provision for a mechanism to resolve consumer inquiries, complaints, and problems. The Commissioner shall issue regulations with regard to these requirements and shall include an evaluation of compliance with this Section in his or her periodic examination of each licensee.

(s) "Purchasing" shall mean the purchase of conventional or government-insured mortgage loans secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois from either the lender or from the secondary market.

(t) "Borrower" shall mean the person or persons who seek the services of a loan broker, originator, or lender.

(u) "Originating" shall mean the issuing of commitments for and funding of residential mortgage loans.

(v) "Loan brokerage agreement" shall mean a written agreement in which a broker or loan broker agrees to do either of the following:

(1) obtain a residential mortgage loan for the borrower or assist the borrower in obtaining a residential mortgage loan; or

(2) consider making a residential mortgage loan to the borrower.

(w) "Advertisement" shall mean the attempt by publication, dissemination, or circulation to induce, directly or indirectly, any person to enter into a residential mortgage loan agreement or residential mortgage loan brokerage agreement relative to a mortgage secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois.

(x) (Blank).

(y) "Government-insured mortgage loan" shall mean any mortgage loan made on the security of residential real estate insured by the Department of Housing and Urban Development or Farmers Home Loan Administration, or guaranteed by the Veterans Administration.

(z) "Annual audit" shall mean a certified audit of the licensee's books and records and systems of internal control performed by a certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and generally accepted auditing standards.

(aa) "Financial institution" shall mean a savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union, or a bank organized under the laws of Illinois or a savings and loan association, savings bank, credit union or a bank organized under the laws of the United States and headquartered in Illinois.

(bb) "Escrow agent" shall mean a third party, individual or entity charged with the fiduciary obligation for holding escrow funds on a residential mortgage loan pending final payout of those funds in accordance with the terms of the residential mortgage loan.

(cc) "Net worth" shall have the meaning ascribed thereto in Section 3-5 of this Act.

(dd) "Affiliate" shall mean:

(1) any entity that directly controls or is controlled by the licensee and any other company that is directly affecting activities regulated by this Act that is controlled by the company that controls the licensee;

(2) any entity:

(A) that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a trust or otherwise, by or for the benefit of shareholders who beneficially or otherwise control, directly or indirectly, by trust or otherwise, the licensee or any company that controls the licensee; or

(B) a majority of the directors or trustees of which constitute a majority of the persons holding any such office with the licensee or any company that controls the licensee;

(3) any company, including a real estate investment trust, that is sponsored and advised on a contractual basis by the licensee or any subsidiary or affiliate of the licensee.

(ee) "First tier subsidiary" shall be defined by regulation incorporating the comparable definitions used by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate.

(ff) "Gross delinquency rate" means the quotient determined by dividing (1) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by a licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent and (ii) the number of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent by (2) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year and (ii) the number of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year.

(gg) "Delinquency rate factor" means the factor set by rule of the Commissioner that is multiplied by the average gross delinquency rate of licensees, determined annually for the immediately preceding calendar year, for the purpose of determining which licensees shall be examined by the Commissioner pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 4-8 of this Act.

(hh) (Blank).

(ii) "Confidential supervisory information" means any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the Commissioner under this Act, any report of examination visitation, or investigation prepared by the state regulatory authority of another state that examines a licensee, any document or record prepared or obtained in connection with or relating to any examination, visitation, or investigation, and any record prepared or obtained by the Commissioner to the extent that the record summarizes or contains information derived from any report, document, or record described in this subsection. "Confidential supervisory information" does not include any information or record routinely prepared by a licensee and maintained in the ordinary course of business or any information or record that is required to be made publicly available pursuant to State or federal law or rule.

(jj) "Mortgage loan originator" means an individual who for compensation or gain or in the expectation of compensation or gain:

(i) takes a residential mortgage loan application; or

(ii) offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan.

"Mortgage loan originator" includes an individual engaged in loan modification activities as defined in subsection (yy) of this Section. A mortgage loan originator engaged in loan modification activities shall report those activities to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the manner provided by the Department; however, the Department shall not impose a fee for reporting, nor require any additional qualifications to engage in those activities beyond those provided pursuant to this Act for mortgage loan originators.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include an individual engaged solely as a loan processor or underwriter except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) of Section 7-1A of this Act.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed in accordance with the Real Estate License Act of 2000, unless the person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator, or by any agent of that lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator.

"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or entity solely involved in extensions of credit relating to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in Section 101(53D) of Title 11, United States Code.

(kk) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in Section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and includes any credit union.

(ll) "Dwelling" means a residential structure or mobile home which contains one to 4 family housing units, or individual units of condominiums or cooperatives.

(mm) "Immediate family member" means a spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild, and includes step-parents, step-children, step-siblings, or adoptive relationships.

(nn) "Individual" means a natural person.

(oo) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who performs clerical or support duties as an employee at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a person licensed, or exempt from licensing, under this Act. "Clerical or support duties" includes subsequent to the receipt of an application:

(i) the receipt, collection, distribution, and analysis of information common for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan; and

(ii) communicating with a consumer to obtain the information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the extent that the communication does not include offering or negotiating loan rates or terms, or counseling consumers about residential mortgage loan rates or terms. An individual engaging solely in loan processor or underwriter activities shall not represent to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information, including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items, that the individual can or will perform any of the activities of a mortgage loan originator.

(pp) "Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators for the licensing and registration of licensed mortgage loan originators.

(qq) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage product other than a 30-year fixed rate mortgage.

(rr) "Person" means a natural person, corporation, company, limited liability company, partnership, or association.

(ss) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to the public, including:

(1) acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;

(2) bringing together parties interested in the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property;

(3) negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing financing with respect to any such transaction;

(4) engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in the activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; or

(5) offering to engage in any activity, or act in any capacity, described in this subsection (ss).

(tt) "Registered mortgage loan originator" means any individual that:

(1) meets the definition of mortgage loan originator and is an employee of:

(A) a depository institution;

(B) a subsidiary that is:

(i) owned and controlled by a depository institution; and

(ii) regulated by a federal banking agency; or

(C) an institution regulated by the Farm Credit Administration; and

(2) is registered with, and maintains a unique identifier through, the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.

(uu) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier assigned by protocols established by the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.

(vv) "Residential mortgage license" means a license issued pursuant to Section 1-3, 2-2, or 2-6 of this Act.

(ww) "Mortgage loan originator license" means a license issued pursuant to Section 7-1A, 7-3, or 7-6 of this Act.

(xx) "Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person authorized by the Secretary or by this Act to act in the Secretary's stead.

(yy) "Loan modification" means, for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly offering or negotiating on behalf of a borrower or homeowner to adjust the terms of a residential mortgage loan in a manner not provided for in the original or previously modified mortgage loan.

(zz) "Short sale facilitation" means, for compensation or gain, either directly or indirectly offering or negotiating on behalf of a borrower or homeowner to facilitate the sale of residential real estate subject to one or more residential mortgage loans or debts constituting liens on the property in which the proceeds from selling the residential real estate will fall short of the amount owed and the lien holders are contacted to agree to release their lien on the residential real estate and accept less than the full amount owed on the debt.

(aaa) "Bona fide nonprofit organization" means an organization that is described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, is exempt from federal income tax under Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, does not operate in a commercial context, and does all of the following:

(1) Promotes affordable housing or provides home ownership education or similar services.

(2) Conducts its activities in a manner that serves public or charitable purposes.

(3) Receives funding and revenue and charges fees in a manner that does not create an incentive for itself or its employees to act other than in the best interests of its clients.

(4) Compensates its employees in a manner that does not create an incentive for its employees to act other than in the best interests of its clients.

(5) Provides to, or identifies for, the borrower residential mortgage loans with terms favorable to the borrower and comparable to residential mortgage loans and housing assistance provided under government housing assistance programs.

The Commissioner may define by rule and regulation any terms used in this Act for the efficient and clear administration of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-783, eff. 8-10-18; 100-851, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1153, eff. 12-19-18; revised 1-13-19.)

(205 ILCS 635/4-1) (from Ch. 17, par. 2324-1)

Sec. 4-1. Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate; functions, powers, and duties. The functions, powers, and duties of the Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate shall include the following:

(a) to issue or refuse to issue any license as provided by this Act;

(b) to revoke or suspend for cause any license issued under this Act;

(c) to keep records of all licenses issued under this Act;

(d) to receive, consider, investigate, and act upon complaints made by any person in connection with any residential mortgage licensee in this State;

(e) (blank);

(f) to prescribe the forms of and receive:

(1) applications for licenses; and

(2) all reports and all books and records required to be made by any licensee under this Act, including annual audited financial statements and annual reports of mortgage activity;

(g) to adopt rules and regulations necessary and proper for the administration of this Act;

(h) to subpoena documents and witnesses and compel their attendance and production, to administer oaths, and to require the production of any books, papers, or other materials relevant to any inquiry authorized by this Act;

(h-1) to issue orders against any person, if the Commissioner has reasonable cause to believe that an unsafe, unsound, or unlawful practice has occurred, is occurring, or is about to occur, if any person has violated, is violating, or is about to violate any law, rule, or written agreement with the Commissioner, or for the purpose of administering the provisions of this Act and any rule adopted in accordance with the Act;

(h-2) to address any inquiries to any licensee, or the officers thereof, in relation to its activities and conditions, or any other matter connected with its affairs, and it shall be the duty of any licensee or person so addressed, to promptly reply in writing to such inquiries. The Commissioner may also require reports from any licensee at any time the Commissioner may deem desirable;

(i) to require information with regard to any license applicant as he or she may deem desirable, with due regard to the paramount interests of the public as to the experience, background, honesty, truthfulness, integrity, and competency of the license applicant as to financial transactions involving primary or subordinate mortgage financing, and where the license applicant is an entity other than an individual, as to the honesty, truthfulness, integrity, and competency of any officer or director of the corporation, association, or other entity, or the members of a partnership;

(j) to examine the books and records of every licensee under this Act at intervals as specified in Section 4-2;

(k) to enforce provisions of this Act;

(l) to levy fees, fines, and charges for services performed in administering this Act; the aggregate of all fees collected by the Commissioner on and after the effective date of this Act shall be paid promptly after receipt of the same, accompanied by a detailed statement thereof, into the Residential Finance Regulatory Fund under Section 4-1.5 of this Act; the amounts deposited into that Fund shall be used for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Office of Banks and Real Estate. Nothing in this Act shall prevent continuing the practice of paying expenses involving salaries, retirement, social security, and State-paid insurance of State officers by appropriation from the General Revenue Fund.

(m) to appoint examiners, supervisors, experts, and special assistants as needed to effectively and efficiently administer this Act;

(n) to conduct hearings for the purpose of:

(1) appeals of orders of the Commissioner;

(2) suspensions or revocations of licenses, or fining of licensees;

(3) investigating:

(i) complaints against licensees; or

(ii) annual gross delinquency rates; and

(4) carrying out the purposes of this Act;

(o) to exercise exclusive visitorial power over a licensee unless otherwise authorized by this Act or as vested in the courts, or upon prior consultation with the Commissioner, a foreign residential mortgage regulator with an appropriate supervisory interest in the parent or affiliate of a licensee;

(p) to enter into cooperative agreements with state regulatory authorities of other states to provide for examination of corporate offices or branches of those states and to accept reports of such examinations;

(q) to assign an examiner or examiners to monitor the affairs of a licensee with whatever frequency the Commissioner determines appropriate and to charge the licensee for reasonable and necessary expenses of the Commissioner, if in the opinion of the Commissioner an emergency exists or appears likely to occur;

(r) to impose civil penalties of up to $50 per day against a licensee for failing to respond to a regulatory request or reporting requirement; and

(s) to enter into agreements in connection with the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.

(Source: P.A. 100-783, eff. 8-10-18; 100-1153, eff. 12-19-18; revised 1-13-19.)

(205 ILCS 635/4-8) (from Ch. 17, par. 2324-8)

Sec. 4-8. Delinquency; examination.

(a) (Blank).

(b) The Secretary shall conduct as part of an examination of each licensee a review of the licensee's loan delinquency data.

This subsection shall not be construed as a limitation of the Secretary's examination authority under Section 4-2 of this Act or as otherwise provided in this Act. The Secretary may require a licensee to provide loan delinquency data as the Secretary deems necessary for the proper enforcement of the Act.

(c) The purpose of the examination under subsection (b) shall be to determine whether the loan delinquency data of the licensee has resulted from practices which deviate from sound and accepted mortgage underwriting practices, including, but not limited to, credit fraud, appraisal fraud, and property inspection fraud. For the purpose of conducting this examination, the Secretary may accept materials prepared for the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. Secretary

(d) The Secretary, at his or her discretion, may hold public hearings. Such testimony shall be by a homeowner or mortgagor or his agent, whose residential interest is affected by the activities of the residential mortgage licensee subject to such hearing. At such public hearing, a witness may present testimony on his or her behalf concerning only his or her home, or home mortgage, or a witness may authorize a third party to appear on his or her behalf. The testimony shall be restricted to information and comments related to a specific residence or specific residential mortgage application or applications for a residential mortgage or residential loan transaction. The testimony must be preceded by either a letter of complaint or a completed consumer complaint form prescribed by the Secretary.

(e) The Secretary shall, at the conclusion of the public hearings, release his or her findings and shall also make public any action taken with respect to the licensee. The Secretary shall also give full consideration to the findings of this examination whenever reapplication is made by the licensee for a new license under this Act.

(f) A licensee that is examined pursuant to subsection (b) shall submit to the Secretary a plan which shall be designed to reduce that licensee's loan delinquencies. The plan shall be implemented by the licensee as approved by the Secretary. A licensee that is examined pursuant to subsection (b) shall report monthly, for a one year period, one, 2, and 3 month loan delinquencies.

(g) Whenever the Secretary finds that a licensee's loan delinquencies on insured mortgages is unusually high within a particular geographic area, he or she shall require that licensee to submit such information as is necessary to determine whether that licensee's practices have constituted credit fraud, appraisal fraud or property inspection fraud. The Secretary shall promulgate such rules as are necessary to determine whether any licensee's loan delinquencies are unusually high within a particular area.

(Source: P.A. 99-15, eff. 1-1-16; 100-783, eff. 8-10-18; 100-1153, eff. 12-19-18; revised 1-13-19.)

Section 440. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-104 as follows:

(210 ILCS 49/5-104)

Sec. 5-104. Medicaid rates. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the Medicaid rates for Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities effective on July 1, 2018 must be equal to the rates in effect for Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Facilities on June 30, 2018, increased by 4%. The Department shall adopt rules, including emergency rules under subsection (bb) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18.)

(210 ILCS 49/5-106)

Sec. 5-106 5-104. Therapeutic visit rates. For a facility licensed under this Act by June 1, 2018 or provisionally licensed under this Act by June 1, 2018, a payment shall be made for therapeutic visits that have been indicated by an interdisciplinary team as therapeutically beneficial. Payment under this Section shall be at a rate of 75% of the facility's rate on July 27, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-646) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and may not exceed 20 days in a fiscal year and shall not exceed 10 days consecutively.

(Source: P.A. 100-646, eff. 7-27-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 445. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.5 and 3.50 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1082)

Sec. 3.5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Clinical observation" means the ongoing on-going observation of a patient's condition by a licensed health care professional utilizing a medical skill set while continuing assessment and care.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Emergency" means a medical condition of recent onset and severity that would lead a prudent layperson, possessing an average knowledge of medicine and health, to believe that urgent or unscheduled medical care is required.

"Emergency Medical Services personnel" or "EMS personnel" means persons licensed as an Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) (First Responder), Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD), Emergency Medical Technician (EMT), Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate (EMT-I), Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (A-EMT), Paramedic (EMT-P), Emergency Communications Registered Nurse (ECRN), or Pre-Hospital Registered Nurse (PHRN).

"Health care facility" means a hospital, nursing home, physician's office or other fixed location at which medical and health care services are performed. It does not include "pre-hospital emergency care settings" which utilize EMS personnel to render pre-hospital emergency care prior to the arrival of a transport vehicle, as defined in this Act.

"Hospital" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Medical monitoring" means the performance of medical tests and physical exams to evaluate an individual's ongoing on-going exposure to a factor that could negatively impact that person's health. "Medical monitoring" includes close surveillance or supervision of patients liable to suffer deterioration in physical or mental health and checks of various parameters such as pulse rate, temperature, respiration rate, the condition of the pupils, the level of consciousness and awareness, the degree of appreciation of pain, and blood gas concentrations such as oxygen and carbon dioxide.

"Trauma" means any significant injury which involves single or multiple organ systems.

(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-661, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-4-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1082)

Sec. 3.5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Clinical observation" means the ongoing on-going observation of a patient's condition by a licensed health care professional utilizing a medical skill set while continuing assessment and care.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

"Emergency" means a medical condition of recent onset and severity that would lead a prudent layperson, possessing an average knowledge of medicine and health, to believe that urgent or unscheduled medical care is required.

"Emergency Medical Services personnel" or "EMS personnel" means persons licensed as an Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) (First Responder), Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD), Emergency Medical Technician (EMT), Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate (EMT-I), Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (A-EMT), Paramedic (EMT-P), Emergency Communications Registered Nurse (ECRN), or Pre-Hospital Registered Nurse (PHRN), Pre-Hospital Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (PHAPRN), or Pre-Hospital Physician Assistant (PHPA).

"Health care facility" means a hospital, nursing home, physician's office or other fixed location at which medical and health care services are performed. It does not include "pre-hospital emergency care settings" which utilize EMS personnel to render pre-hospital emergency care prior to the arrival of a transport vehicle, as defined in this Act.

"Hospital" has the meaning ascribed to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Medical monitoring" means the performance of medical tests and physical exams to evaluate an individual's ongoing on-going exposure to a factor that could negatively impact that person's health. "Medical monitoring" includes close surveillance or supervision of patients liable to suffer deterioration in physical or mental health and checks of various parameters such as pulse rate, temperature, respiration rate, the condition of the pupils, the level of consciousness and awareness, the degree of appreciation of pain, and blood gas concentrations such as oxygen and carbon dioxide.

"Trauma" means any significant injury which involves single or multiple organ systems.

(Source: P.A. 99-661, eff. 1-1-17; 100-1082, eff. 8-24-19; revised 10-4-18.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.50)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1082)

Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure levels.

(a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or "EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires.

(b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" means a person who has successfully completed a course in intermediate life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in advanced life support care as approved by the Department, is licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires.

(c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in emergency medical response as approved by the Department and provides emergency medical response services prior to the arrival of an ambulance or specialized emergency medical services vehicle, in accordance with the level of care established by the National EMS Educational Standards Emergency Medical Responder course as modified by the Department. An Emergency Medical Responder who provides services as part of an EMS System response plan shall comply with the applicable sections of the Program Plan, as approved by the Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall have the authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum, practice, and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency Medical Responders.

On August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-973) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, a person who is licensed by the Department as a First Responder and has completed a Department-approved course in first responder defibrillator training based on, or equivalent to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other standards previously recognized by the Department shall be eligible for licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon meeting the licensure requirements and submitting an application to the Department. A valid First Responder license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Responder license until the First Responder license expires.

(c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24 months after the adoption of the administrative rules.

(d) The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(1) Prescribe education and training requirements, which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement that all phases of instruction, training, and field experience be completed before taking the appropriate licensure examination. Candidates may elect to take the appropriate National Registry examination in lieu of the Department's examination, but are responsible for making their own arrangements for taking the National Registry examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States under this paragraph (2), the Department shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are recognized.

(2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States with military emergency medical training. Applications shall be filed with the Department within one year after military discharge and shall contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a detailed description of the applicant's clinical experience. The Department may request additional and clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the application, including the applicant's training and experience, consistent with the standards set forth under subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the application clearly demonstrates that the training and experience meets such standards, the Department shall offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a Department-approved EMS personnel examination for the level of license for which the applicant is qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the level of EMS personnel license issued.

(3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic who have met the Department's education, training and examination requirements.

(4) Prescribe annual continuing education and relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure levels.

(5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic every 4 years, based on their compliance with continuing education and relicensure requirements as required by the Department pursuant to this Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall have 100 hours of approved continuing education, an EMT-I and an advanced EMT shall have 80 hours of approved continuing education, and an EMT shall have 60 hours of approved continuing education. An Illinois licensed EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN whose license has been expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for the level of EMS personnel license sought to be reinstated.

(6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN who qualifies, based on standards and procedures established by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination, licensure, and license renewal.

(8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of the evidence shows one or more of the following:

(A) The licensee has not met continuing education or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the Department;

(B) The licensee has failed to maintain proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she is licensed;

(C) The licensee, during the provision of medical services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has violated standards of performance and conduct as prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;

(E) The licensee is physically impaired to the extent that he or she cannot physically perform the skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate judgment, skill and safety for performing the functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or

(H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent offense.

(9) Prescribe education and training requirements in the administration and use of opioid antagonists for all levels of EMS personnel based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer for units of local government with a population base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit organization that serves a service area with a population base of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver of the fees described under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section on a form prescribed by the Department.

The education requirements prescribed by the Department under this Section must allow for the suspension of those requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or her release from active duty.

(e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(Source: P.A. 98-53, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; revised 10-4-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1082)

Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure levels.

(a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or "EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires.

(b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate" or "EMT-I" means a person who has successfully completed a course in intermediate life support as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT" means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved by the Department, is currently licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.

(c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in advanced life support care as approved by the Department, is licensed by the Department in accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices within an Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires.

(c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a course in emergency medical response as approved by the Department and provides emergency medical response services prior to the arrival of an ambulance or specialized emergency medical services vehicle, in accordance with the level of care established by the National EMS Educational Standards Emergency Medical Responder course as modified by the Department. An Emergency Medical Responder who provides services as part of an EMS System response plan shall comply with the applicable sections of the Program Plan, as approved by the Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall have the authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum, practice, and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency Medical Responders.

On August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-973) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, a person who is licensed by the Department as a First Responder and has completed a Department-approved course in first responder defibrillator training based on, or equivalent to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other standards previously recognized by the Department shall be eligible for licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon meeting the licensure requirements and submitting an application to the Department. A valid First Responder license issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency Medical Responder license until the First Responder license expires.

(c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24 months after the adoption of the administrative rules.

(d) The Department shall have the authority and responsibility to:

(1) Prescribe education and training requirements, which includes training in the use of epinephrine, for all levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements for all levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement that all phases of instruction, training, and field experience be completed before taking the appropriate licensure examination. Candidates may elect to take the appropriate National Registry examination in lieu of the Department's examination, but are responsible for making their own arrangements for taking the National Registry examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States under this paragraph (2), the Department shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are recognized.

(2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure from honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the United States with military emergency medical training. Applications shall be filed with the Department within one year after military discharge and shall contain: (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a detailed description of the applicant's clinical experience. The Department may request additional and clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the application, including the applicant's training and experience, consistent with the standards set forth under subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the application clearly demonstrates that the training and experience meet meets such standards, the Department shall offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully complete a Department-approved EMS personnel examination for the level of license for which the applicant is qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the level of EMS personnel license issued.

(3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or Paramedic who have met the Department's education, training and examination requirements.

(4) Prescribe annual continuing education and relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure levels.

(5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, PHRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or Paramedic every 4 years, based on their compliance with continuing education and relicensure requirements as required by the Department pursuant to this Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall have 100 hours of approved continuing education, an EMT-I and an advanced EMT shall have 80 hours of approved continuing education, and an EMT shall have 60 hours of approved continuing education. An Illinois licensed EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHPA, PHAPRN, or PHRN whose license has been expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of continuing medical education and clinical requirements to be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS Medical Director attesting to the applicant's qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department approved test for the level of EMS personnel license sought to be reinstated.

(6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or PHRN who qualifies, based on standards and procedures established by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination, licensure, and license renewal.

(8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of the evidence shows one or more of the following:

(A) The licensee has not met continuing education or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the Department;

(B) The licensee has failed to maintain proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she is licensed;

(C) The licensee, during the provision of medical services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(D) The licensee has failed to maintain or has violated standards of performance and conduct as prescribed by the Department in rules adopted pursuant to this Act or his or her EMS System's Program Plan;

(E) The licensee is physically impaired to the extent that he or she cannot physically perform the skills and functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the extent that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate judgment, skill and safety for performing the functions for which he or she is licensed, as verified by a physician, unless the person is on inactive status pursuant to Department regulations;

(G) The licensee has violated this Act or any rule adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or

(H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent offense.

(9) Prescribe education and training requirements in the administration and use of opioid antagonists for all levels of EMS personnel based on the National EMS Educational Standards and any modifications to those curricula specified by the Department through rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, PHAPRN, PHPA, or PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer for units of local government with a population base of less than 5,000 or as a volunteer for a not-for-profit organization that serves a service area with a population base of less than 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver of the fees described under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of this Section on a form prescribed by the Department.

The education requirements prescribed by the Department under this Section must allow for the suspension of those requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill the education requirement within 6 months after his or her release from active duty.

(e) In the event that any rule of the Department or an EMS Medical Director that requires testing for drug use as a condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts with or duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining agreement that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall not apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-1082, eff. 8-24-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 450. The Health Care Violence Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(210 ILCS 160/20)

Sec. 20. Workplace violence prevention program.

(a) A health care provider shall create a workplace violence prevention program that complies with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration guidelines for preventing workplace violence for health care and social service workers as amended or updated by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

(a-5) In addition, the workplace violence prevention program shall include:

(1) the following classifications of workplace violence as one of 4 possible types:

(A) "Type 1 violence" means workplace violence committed by a person who has no legitimate business at the work site and includes violent acts by anyone who enters the workplace with the intent to commit a crime.

(B) "Type 2 violence" means workplace violence directed at employees by customers, clients, patients, students, inmates, visitors, or other individuals accompanying a patient.

(C) "Type 3 violence" means workplace violence against an employee by a present or former employee, supervisor, or manager.

(D) "Type 4 violence" means workplace violence committed in the workplace by someone who does not work there, but has or is known to have had a personal relationship with an employee; .

(2) management commitment and worker participation, including, but not limited to, nurses;

(3) worksite analysis and identification of potential hazards;

(4) hazard prevention and control;

(5) safety and health training with required hours determined by rule; and

(6) recordkeeping and evaluation of the violence prevention program.

(b) The Department of Public Health may by rule adopt additional criteria for workplace violence prevention programs.

(Source: P.A. 100-1051, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 455. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 4, 154.8, 300.1, 370c, and 452 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 356z.29 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/4) (from Ch. 73, par. 616)

Sec. 4. Classes of insurance. Insurance and insurance business shall be classified as follows:

Class 1. Life, Accident and Health.

(a) Life. Insurance on the lives of persons and every insurance appertaining thereto or connected therewith and granting, purchasing or disposing of annuities. Policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts or contracts supplemental thereto which contain provisions for additional benefits in case of death by accidental means and provisions operating to safeguard such policies or contracts against lapse, to give a special surrender value, or special benefit, or an annuity, in the event, that the insured or annuitant shall become a person with a total and permanent disability as defined by the policy or contract, or which contain benefits providing acceleration of life or endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable, as an indemnity for long term care which is certified or ordered by a physician, including but not limited to, professional nursing care, medical care expenses, custodial nursing care, non-nursing custodial care provided in a nursing home or at a residence of the insured, or which contain benefits providing acceleration of life or endowment or annuity benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable, at any time during the insured's lifetime, as an indemnity for a terminal illness shall be deemed to be policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts within the intent of this clause.

Also to be deemed as policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts within the intent of this clause shall be those policies or riders that provide for the payment of up to 75% of the face amount of benefits in advance of the time they would otherwise be payable upon a diagnosis by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches that the insured has incurred a covered condition listed in the policy or rider.

"Covered condition", as used in this clause, means: heart attack, stroke, coronary artery surgery, life threatening cancer, renal failure, Alzheimer's disease, paraplegia, major organ transplantation, total and permanent disability, and any other medical condition that the Department may approve for any particular filing.

The Director may issue rules that specify prohibited policy provisions, not otherwise specifically prohibited by law, which in the opinion of the Director are unjust, unfair, or unfairly discriminatory to the policyholder, any person insured under the policy, or beneficiary.

(b) Accident and health. Insurance against bodily injury, disablement or death by accident and against disablement resulting from sickness or old age and every insurance appertaining thereto, including stop-loss insurance. Stop-loss insurance is insurance against the risk of economic loss issued to a single employer self-funded employee disability benefit plan or an employee welfare benefit plan as described in 29 U.S.C. 100 et seq. The insurance laws of this State, including this Code, do not apply to arrangements between a religious organization and the organization's members or participants when the arrangement and organization meet all of the following criteria:

(i) the organization is described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is exempt from taxation under Section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(ii) members of the organization share a common set of ethical or religious beliefs and share medical expenses among members in accordance with those beliefs and without regard to the state in which a member resides or is employed;

(iii) no funds that have been given for the purpose of the sharing of medical expenses among members described in paragraph (ii) of this subsection (b) are held by the organization in an off-shore trust or bank account;

(iv) the organization provides at least monthly to all of its members a written statement listing the dollar amount of qualified medical expenses that members have submitted for sharing, as well as the amount of expenses actually shared among the members;

(v) members of the organization retain membership even after they develop a medical condition;

(vi) the organization or a predecessor organization has been in existence at all times since December 31, 1999, and medical expenses of its members have been shared continuously and without interruption since at least December 31, 1999;

(vii) the organization conducts an annual audit that is performed by an independent certified public accounting firm in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and is made available to the public upon request;

(viii) the organization includes the following statement, in writing, on or accompanying all applications and guideline materials:

"Notice: The organization facilitating the sharing of medical expenses is not an insurance company, and neither its guidelines nor plan of operation constitute or create an insurance policy. Any assistance you receive with your medical bills will be totally voluntary. As such, participation in the organization or a subscription to any of its documents should never be considered to be insurance. Whether or not you receive any payments for medical expenses and whether or not this organization continues to operate, you are always personally responsible for the payment of your own medical bills.";

(ix) any membership card or similar document issued by the organization and any written communication sent by the organization to a hospital, physician, or other health care provider shall include a statement that the organization does not issue health insurance and that the member or participant is personally liable for payment of his or her medical bills;

(x) the organization provides to a participant, within 30 days after the participant joins, a complete set of its rules for the sharing of medical expenses, appeals of decisions made by the organization, and the filing of complaints;

(xi) the organization does not offer any other services that are regulated under any provision of the Illinois Insurance Code or other insurance laws of this State; and

(xii) the organization does not amass funds as reserves intended for payment of medical services, rather the organization facilitates the payments provided for in this subsection (b) through payments made directly from one participant to another.

(c) Legal Expense Insurance. Insurance which involves the assumption of a contractual obligation to reimburse the beneficiary against or pay on behalf of the beneficiary, all or a portion of his fees, costs, or expenses related to or arising out of services performed by or under the supervision of an attorney licensed to practice in the jurisdiction wherein the services are performed, regardless of whether the payment is made by the beneficiaries individually or by a third person for them, but does not include the provision of or reimbursement for legal services incidental to other insurance coverages. The insurance laws of this State, including this Act do not apply to:

(i) retainer contracts made by attorneys at law with individual clients with fees based on estimates of the nature and amount of services to be provided to the specific client, and similar contracts made with a group of clients involved in the same or closely related legal matters;

(ii) plans owned or operated by attorneys who are the providers of legal services to the plan;

(iii) plans providing legal service benefits to groups where such plans are owned or operated by authority of a state, county, local or other bar association;

(iv) any lawyer referral service authorized or operated by a state, county, local or other bar association;

(v) the furnishing of legal assistance by labor unions and other employee organizations to their members in matters relating to employment or occupation;

(vi) the furnishing of legal assistance to members or dependents, by churches, consumer organizations, cooperatives, educational institutions, credit unions, or organizations of employees, where such organizations contract directly with lawyers or law firms for the provision of legal services, and the administration and marketing of such legal services is wholly conducted by the organization or its subsidiary;

(vii) legal services provided by an employee welfare benefit plan defined by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974;

(viii) any collectively bargained plan for legal services between a labor union and an employer negotiated pursuant to Section 302 of the Labor Management Relations Act as now or hereafter amended, under which plan legal services will be provided for employees of the employer whether or not payments for such services are funded to or through an insurance company.

Class 2. Casualty, Fidelity and Surety.

(a) Accident and health. Insurance against bodily injury, disablement or death by accident and against disablement resulting from sickness or old age and every insurance appertaining thereto, including stop-loss insurance. Stop-loss insurance is insurance against the risk of economic loss issued to a single employer self-funded employee disability benefit plan or an employee welfare benefit plan as described in 29 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.

(b) Vehicle. Insurance against any loss or liability resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance or use of any vehicle (motor or otherwise), draft animal or aircraft. Any policy insuring against any loss or liability on account of the bodily injury or death of any person may contain a provision for payment of disability benefits to injured persons and death benefits to dependents, beneficiaries or personal representatives of persons who are killed, including the named insured, irrespective of legal liability of the insured, if the injury or death for which benefits are provided is caused by accident and sustained while in or upon or while entering into or alighting from or through being struck by a vehicle (motor or otherwise), draft animal or aircraft, and such provision shall not be deemed to be accident insurance.

(c) Liability. Insurance against the liability of the insured for the death, injury or disability of an employee or other person, and insurance against the liability of the insured for damage to or destruction of another person's property.

(d) Workers' compensation. Insurance of the obligations accepted by or imposed upon employers under laws for workers' compensation.

(e) Burglary and forgery. Insurance against loss or damage by burglary, theft, larceny, robbery, forgery, fraud or otherwise; including all householders' personal property floater risks.

(f) Glass. Insurance against loss or damage to glass including lettering, ornamentation and fittings from any cause.

(g) Fidelity and surety. Become surety or guarantor for any person, copartnership or corporation in any position or place of trust or as custodian of money or property, public or private; or, becoming a surety or guarantor for the performance of any person, copartnership or corporation of any lawful obligation, undertaking, agreement or contract of any kind, except contracts or policies of insurance; and underwriting blanket bonds. Such obligations shall be known and treated as suretyship obligations and such business shall be known as surety business.

(h) Miscellaneous. Insurance against loss or damage to property and any liability of the insured caused by accidents to boilers, pipes, pressure containers, machinery and apparatus of any kind and any apparatus connected thereto, or used for creating, transmitting or applying power, light, heat, steam or refrigeration, making inspection of and issuing certificates of inspection upon elevators, boilers, machinery and apparatus of any kind and all mechanical apparatus and appliances appertaining thereto; insurance against loss or damage by water entering through leaks or openings in buildings, or from the breakage or leakage of a sprinkler, pumps, water pipes, plumbing and all tanks, apparatus, conduits and containers designed to bring water into buildings or for its storage or utilization therein, or caused by the falling of a tank, tank platform or supports, or against loss or damage from any cause (other than causes specifically enumerated under Class 3 of this Section) to such sprinkler, pumps, water pipes, plumbing, tanks, apparatus, conduits or containers; insurance against loss or damage which may result from the failure of debtors to pay their obligations to the insured; and insurance of the payment of money for personal services under contracts of hiring.

(i) Other casualty risks. Insurance against any other casualty risk not otherwise specified under Classes 1 or 3, which may lawfully be the subject of insurance and may properly be classified under Class 2.

(j) Contingent losses. Contingent, consequential and indirect coverages wherein the proximate cause of the loss is attributable to any one of the causes enumerated under Class 2. Such coverages shall, for the purpose of classification, be included in the specific grouping of the kinds of insurance wherein such cause is specified.

(k) Livestock and domestic animals. Insurance against mortality, accident and health of livestock and domestic animals.

(l) Legal expense insurance. Insurance against risk resulting from the cost of legal services as defined under Class 1(c).

Class 3. Fire and Marine, etc.

(a) Fire. Insurance against loss or damage by fire, smoke and smudge, lightning or other electrical disturbances.

(b) Elements. Insurance against loss or damage by earthquake, windstorms, cyclone, tornado, tempests, hail, frost, snow, ice, sleet, flood, rain, drought or other weather or climatic conditions including excess or deficiency of moisture, rising of the waters of the ocean or its tributaries.

(c) War, riot and explosion. Insurance against loss or damage by bombardment, invasion, insurrection, riot, strikes, civil war or commotion, military or usurped power, or explosion (other than explosion of steam boilers and the breaking of fly wheels on premises owned, controlled, managed, or maintained by the insured.).

(d) Marine and transportation. Insurance against loss or damage to vessels, craft, aircraft, vehicles of every kind, (excluding vehicles operating under their own power or while in storage not incidental to transportation) as well as all goods, freights, cargoes, merchandise, effects, disbursements, profits, moneys, bullion, precious stones, securities, choses chooses in action, evidences of debt, valuable papers, bottomry and respondentia interests and all other kinds of property and interests therein, in respect to, appertaining to or in connection with any or all risks or perils of navigation, transit, or transportation, including war risks, on or under any seas or other waters, on land or in the air, or while being assembled, packed, crated, baled, compressed or similarly prepared for shipment or while awaiting the same or during any delays, storage, transshipment, or reshipment incident thereto, including marine builder's risks and all personal property floater risks; and for loss or damage to persons or property in connection with or appertaining to marine, inland marine, transit or transportation insurance, including liability for loss of or damage to either arising out of or in connection with the construction, repair, operation, maintenance, or use of the subject matter of such insurance, (but not including life insurance or surety bonds); but, except as herein specified, shall not mean insurances against loss by reason of bodily injury to the person; and insurance against loss or damage to precious stones, jewels, jewelry, gold, silver and other precious metals whether used in business or trade or otherwise and whether the same be in course of transportation or otherwise, which shall include jewelers' block insurance; and insurance against loss or damage to bridges, tunnels and other instrumentalities of transportation and communication (excluding buildings, their furniture and furnishings, fixed contents and supplies held in storage) unless fire, tornado, sprinkler leakage, hail, explosion, earthquake, riot and civil commotion are the only hazards to be covered; and to piers, wharves, docks and slips, excluding the risks of fire, tornado, sprinkler leakage, hail, explosion, earthquake, riot and civil commotion; and to other aids to navigation and transportation, including dry docks and marine railways, against all risk.

(e) Vehicle. Insurance against loss or liability resulting from or incident to the ownership, maintenance or use of any vehicle (motor or otherwise), draft animal or aircraft, excluding the liability of the insured for the death, injury or disability of another person.

(f) Property damage, sprinkler leakage and crop. Insurance against the liability of the insured for loss or damage to another person's property or property interests from any cause enumerated in this class; insurance against loss or damage by water entering through leaks or openings in buildings, or from the breakage or leakage of a sprinkler, pumps, water pipes, plumbing and all tanks, apparatus, conduits and containers designed to bring water into buildings or for its storage or utilization therein, or caused by the falling of a tank, tank platform or supports or against loss or damage from any cause to such sprinklers, pumps, water pipes, plumbing, tanks, apparatus, conduits or containers; insurance against loss or damage from insects, diseases or other causes to trees, crops or other products of the soil.

(g) Other fire and marine risks. Insurance against any other property risk not otherwise specified under Classes 1 or 2, which may lawfully be the subject of insurance and may properly be classified under Class 3.

(h) Contingent losses. Contingent, consequential and indirect coverages wherein the proximate cause of the loss is attributable to any of the causes enumerated under Class 3. Such coverages shall, for the purpose of classification, be included in the specific grouping of the kinds of insurance wherein such cause is specified.

(i) Legal expense insurance. Insurance against risk resulting from the cost of legal services as defined under Class 1(c).

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-18-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/154.8) (from Ch. 73, par. 766.8)

Sec. 154.8. Cease and desist order; suspension of certificate; civil penalty; judicial review. Cease and Desist Order - Suspension of Certificate - Civil penalty - Judicial Review.)

(1) If, after a hearing pursuant to Section 154.7, the Director finds that company has engaged in an improper claims practice, he shall order such company to cease and desist from such practices and, in the exercise of reasonable discretion, may suspend the company's certificate of authority for a period not to exceed 6 months or impose a civil penalty of up to $250,000, or both. Pursuant to Section 401, the Director shall adopt promulgate reasonable rules and regulations establishing standards for the implementation of this Section.

(2) Any order of the Director pursuant to this Section is subject to judicial review under Section 407 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 86-846; revised 10-18-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/300.1) (from Ch. 73, par. 912.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 300.1. The benefit contract.

(a) Every society authorized to do business in this State shall issue to each owner of a benefit contract a certificate specifying the amount of benefits provided thereby. The certificate, together with any riders or endorsements attached thereto, the laws of the society, the application for membership, the application for insurance and declaration of insurability, if any, signed by the applicant and all amendments to each thereof shall constitute the benefit contract, as of the date of issuance, between the society and the owner, and the certificate shall so state. A copy of the application for insurance and declaration of insurability, if any, shall be endorsed upon or attached to the certificate. All statements on the application shall be representations and not warranties. Any waiver of this provision shall be void.

(b) Any changes, additions or amendments to the laws of the society duly made or enacted subsequent to the issuance of the certificate shall bind the owner and the beneficiaries and shall govern and control the benefit contract in all respects the same as though such changes, additions or amendments had been made prior to and were in force at the time of the application for insurance, except that no change, addition or amendment shall destroy or diminish benefits which the society contracted to give the owner as of the date of issuance.

(c) Any person upon whose life a benefit contract is issued prior to attaining the age of majority shall be bound by the terms of the application and certificate and by all the laws and rules of the society to the same extent as though the age of majority had been attained at the time of application.

(d) A society shall provide in its laws and its certificates that, if its reserves as to all or any class of certificates become impaired, its board of directors or corresponding body may require that there shall be paid by the owner to the society an assessment in the amount of the owner's equitable proportion of such deficiency as ascertained by its board, and that, if the payment is not made, either (1) it shall stand as an indebtedness against the certificate and draw interest not to exceed the rate specified for certificate loans under the certificates; or (2) in lieu of or in combination with (1), the owner may accept a proportionate reduction in benefits under the certificate. However, in no event may an assessment obligation be forgiven, credited, or repaid by whatever means or however labeled by the society in lieu of collection or reduction in benefits, unless provided to all society members and approved in writing by the Director, except that the forgiveness or repayment of any assessments issued by a society that remain outstanding as of January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-814) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be forgiven or repaid by any manner or plan certified by an independent actuary and filed with the Director to make reasonable and adequate provision for the forgiveness or repayment of the assessment to all society members. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a society may fully repay, credit, or forgive an assessment from the date of death of any life insured under a certificate so long as the plan to forgive or repay the assessment is certified by an independent actuary and filed with the Director to make reasonable and adequate provision for the forgiveness or repayment of the assessment to all assessed society members as a result of the death. The society may specify the manner of the election and which alternative is to be presumed if no election is made. No such assessment shall take effect unless a 30-day notification has been provided to the Director, who shall have the ability to disapprove the assessment only if the Director finds that such assessment is not in the best interests of the benefit members of the domestic society. Disapproval by the Director shall be made within 30 days after receipt of notice and shall be in writing and mailed to the domestic society. If the Director disapproves the assessment, the reasons therefor therefore shall be stated in the written notice.

(e) Copies of any of the documents mentioned in this Section, certified by the secretary or corresponding officer of the society, shall be received in evidence of the terms and conditions thereof.

(f) No certificate shall be delivered or issued for delivery in this State unless a copy of the form has been filed with the Director in the manner provided for like policies issued by life insurers in this State. Every life, accident, health or disability insurance certificate and every annuity certificate issued on or after one year from January 1, 1986 (the effective date of Public Act 84-303) this amendatory Act shall meet the standard contract provision requirements not inconsistent with Public Act 84-303 this amendatory Act for like policies issued by life insurers in this State except that a society may provide for a grace period for payment of premiums of one full month in its certificates. The certificate shall also contain a provision stating the amount of premiums which are payable under the certificate and a provision reciting or setting forth the substance of any sections of the society's laws or rules in force at the time of issuance of the certificate which, if violated, will result in the termination or reduction of benefits payable under the certificate. If the laws of the society provide for expulsion or suspension of a member, the certificate shall also contain a provision that any member so expelled or suspended, except for nonpayment of a premium or within the contestable period for material misrepresentation in the application for membership or insurance, shall have the privilege of maintaining the certificate in force by continuing payment of the required premium.

(g) Benefit contracts issued on the lives of persons below the society's minimum age for adult membership may provide for transfer of control or ownership to the insured at an age specified in the certificate. A society may require approval of an application for membership in order to effect this transfer and may provide in all other respect for the regulation, government and control of such certificates and all rights, obligations and liabilities incident thereto and connected therewith. Ownership rights prior to such transfer shall be specified in the certificate.

(h) A society may specify the terms and conditions on which benefit contracts may be assigned.

(Source: P.A. 98-814, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-18-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.29)

Sec. 356z.29. Stage 4 advanced, metastatic cancer.

(a) As used in this Section, "stage 4 advanced, metastatic cancer" means cancer that has spread from the primary or original site of the cancer to nearby tissues, lymph nodes, or other areas or parts of the body.

(b) No individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, issued, delivered, or renewed in this State after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1057) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly that, as a provision of hospital, medical, or surgical services, directly or indirectly covers the treatment of stage 4 advanced, metastatic cancer shall limit or exclude coverage for a drug approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration by mandating that the insured shall first be required to fail to successfully respond to a different drug or prove a history of failure of the drug as long as the use of the drug is consistent with best practices for the treatment of stage 4 advanced, metastatic cancer and is supported by peer-reviewed medical literature.

(c) If, at any time before or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1057) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register, publishes a comment in the Federal Register, or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111–148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of the prohibition of coverage restrictions or exclusions contained in subsection (b) of this Section for the treatment of stage 4 advanced, metastatic cancer, then this Section is inoperative with respect to all such coverage other than that authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of the prohibition of coverage restrictions or exclusions contained in subsection (b) of this Section for the treatment of stage 4 advanced, metastatic cancer.

(Source: P.A. 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.30)

Sec. 356z.30 356z.29. Coverage for hearing aids for individuals under the age of 18.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Hearing care professional" means a person who is a licensed hearing instrument dispenser, licensed audiologist, or licensed physician.

"Hearing instrument" or "hearing aid" means any wearable non-disposable, non-experimental instrument or device designed to aid or compensate for impaired human hearing and any parts, attachments, or accessories for the instrument or device, including an ear mold but excluding batteries and cords.

(b) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after August 22, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1026) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly must provide coverage for medically necessary hearing instruments and related services for all individuals under the age of 18 when a hearing care professional prescribes a hearing instrument to augment communication.

(c) An insurer shall provide coverage, subject to all applicable co-payments, co-insurance, deductibles, and out-of-pocket limits, subject to the following restrictions:

(1) one hearing instrument shall be covered for each ear every 36 months;

(2) related services, such as audiological exams and selection, fitting, and adjustment of ear molds to maintain optimal fit shall be covered when deemed medically necessary by a hearing care professional; and

(3) hearing instrument repairs may be covered when deemed medically necessary.

(d) If, at any time before or after August 22, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1026) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register, publishes a comment in the Federal Register, or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111–148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of coverage for medically necessary hearing instruments and related services for individuals under the age of 18, then this Section is inoperative with respect to all such coverage other than that authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for medically necessary hearing instruments and related services for individuals under the age of 18.

(Source: P.A. 100-1026, eff. 8-22-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.31)

Sec. 356z.31 356z.29. Recovery housing for persons with substance use disorders.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Substance use disorder" and "case management" have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

"Hospital" means a facility licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Federally qualified health center" means a facility as defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the federal Social Security Act.

"Recovery housing" means a residential extended care treatment facility or a recovery home as defined and licensed in 77 Illinois Administrative Code, Part 2060, by the Illinois Department of Human Services, Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery.

(b) A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1065) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly may provide coverage for residential extended care services and supports for persons recovery housing for persons with substance use disorders who are at risk of a relapse following discharge from a health care clinic, federally qualified health center, hospital withdrawal management program or any other licensed withdrawal management program, or hospital emergency department so long as all of the following conditions are met:

(1) A health care clinic, federally qualified health center, hospital withdrawal management program or any other licensed withdrawal management program, or hospital emergency department has conducted an individualized assessment, using criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine, of the person's condition prior to discharge and has identified the person as being at risk of a relapse and in need of supportive services, including employment and training and case management, to maintain long-term recovery. A determination of whether a person is in need of supportive services shall also be based on whether the person has a history of poverty, job insecurity, and lack of a safe and sober living environment.

(2) The recovery housing is administered by a community-based agency that is licensed by or under contract with the Department of Human Services, Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery.

(3) The recovery housing is administered by a community-based agency as described in paragraph (2) upon the referral of a health care clinic, federally qualified health center, hospital withdrawal management program or any other licensed withdrawal management program, or hospital emergency department.

(c) Based on the individualized needs assessment, any coverage provided in accordance with this Section may include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) Substance use disorder treatment services that are in accordance with licensure standards promulgated by the Department of Human Services, Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery.

(2) Transitional housing services, including food or meal plans.

(3) Individualized case management and referral services, including case management and social services for the families of persons who are seeking treatment for a substance use disorder.

(4) Job training or placement services.

(d) The insurer may rate each community-based agency that is licensed by or under contract with the Department of Human Services, Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery to provide recovery housing based on an evaluation of each agency's ability to:

(1) reduce health care costs;

(2) reduce recidivism rates for persons suffering from a substance use disorder;

(3) improve outcomes;

(4) track persons with substance use disorders; and

(5) improve the quality of life of persons with substance use disorders through the utilization of sustainable recovery, education, employment, and housing services.

The insurer may publish the results of the ratings on its official website and shall, on an annual basis, update the posted results.

(e) The Department of Insurance may adopt any rules necessary to implement the provisions of this Section in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 100-1065, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.32)

Sec. 356z.32 356z.29. Coverage for fertility preservation services.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Iatrogenic infertility" means an in impairment of fertility by surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, or other medical treatment affecting reproductive organs or processes.

"May directly or indirectly cause" means the likely possibility that treatment will cause a side effect of infertility, based upon current evidence-based standards of care established by the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or other national medical associations that follow current evidence-based standards of care.

"Standard fertility preservation services" means procedures based upon current evidence-based standards of care established by the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, the American Society of Clinical Oncology, or other national medical associations that follow current evidence-based standards of care.

(b) An individual or group policy of accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1102) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly must provide coverage for medically necessary expenses for standard fertility preservation services when a necessary medical treatment may directly or indirectly cause iatrogenic infertility to an enrollee.

(c) In determining coverage pursuant to this Section, an insurer shall not discriminate based on an individual's expected length of life, present or predicted disability, degree of medical dependency, quality of life, or other health conditions, nor based on personal characteristics, including age, sex, sexual orientation, or marital status.

(d) If, at any time before or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1102) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register, publishes a comment in the Federal Register, or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111–148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of coverage for fertility preservation services, then this Section is inoperative with respect to all such coverage other than that authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for fertility preservation services.

(Source: P.A. 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)

Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.

(a)(1) On and after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews group accident and health policies providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall provide coverage for reasonable and necessary treatment and services for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.

(2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall be free to select the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act of his choice to treat such disorders, and the insurer shall pay the covered charges of such physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act up to the limits of coverage, provided (i) the disorder or condition treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the physician, licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is authorized to provide said services under the statutes of this State and in accordance with accepted principles of his profession.

(3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, those persons who may provide services to individuals shall do so after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Substance Use Disorder Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act has informed the patient of the desirability of the patient conferring with the patient's primary care physician.

(4) "Mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition" means a condition or disorder that involves a mental health condition or substance use disorder that falls under any of the diagnostic categories listed in the mental and behavioral disorders chapter of the current edition of the International Classification of Disease or that is listed in the most recent version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

(b)(1) (Blank).

(2) (Blank).

(2.5) (Blank).

(3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code, the reimbursing insurer that amends, delivers, issues, or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance, a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace, or a provider of treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions shall furnish medical records or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is at all times medically necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely review by a provider holding the same license and practicing in the same specialty as the patient's provider, who is unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by the patient (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's provider, and the insurer in the event of a dispute between the insurer and patient's provider regarding the medical necessity of a treatment proposed by a patient's provider. If the reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the treatment. Future contractual or employment actions by the insurer regarding the patient's provider may not be based on the provider's participation in this procedure. Nothing prevents the insured from agreeing in writing to continue treatment at his or her expense. When making a determination of the medical necessity for a treatment modality for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, an insurer must make the determination in a manner that is consistent with the manner used to make that determination with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with appropriate patient placement criteria established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria may be used to make medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders.

(4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly or an individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly:

(A) shall provide coverage based upon medical necessity for the treatment of a mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code; provided, however, that in each calendar year coverage shall not be less than the following:

(i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and

(ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient treatment including group and individual outpatient treatment; and

(iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 94-906), 20 additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and

(B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of days of inpatient treatment or the number of outpatient visits covered under the plan.

(C) (Blank).

(5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan or an individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace may not count toward the number of outpatient visits required to be covered under this Section an outpatient visit for the purpose of medication management and shall cover the outpatient visits under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient visits for the treatment of physical illness.

(5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after September 9, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-480) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall offer coverage for medically necessary acute treatment services and medically necessary clinical stabilization services. The treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity determinations for substance use disorders in accordance with the most current edition of the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine. The treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity determinations for medication-assisted treatment in accordance with the most current Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine.

As used in this subsection:

"Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational groups, and discharge planning.

"Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment, usually following acute treatment services for substance abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, relapse prevention, outreach to families and significant others, and aftercare planning for individuals beginning to engage in recovery from addiction.

(6) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may provide or offer coverage required under this Section through a managed care plan.

(6.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, or renewed on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1024) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly:

(A) shall not impose prior authorization requirements, other than those established under the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine, on a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration that is prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders;

(B) shall not impose any step therapy requirements, other than those established under the Treatment Criteria for Addictive, Substance-Related, and Co-Occurring Conditions established by the American Society of Addiction Medicine, before authorizing coverage for a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration that is prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders;

(C) shall place all prescription medications approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration prescribed or administered for the treatment of substance use disorders on, for brand medications, the lowest tier of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the individual or group health benefit plan that covers brand medications and, for generic medications, the lowest tier of the drug formulary developed and maintained by the individual or group health benefit plan that covers generic medications; and

(D) shall not exclude coverage for a prescription medication approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of substance use disorders and any associated counseling or wraparound services on the grounds that such medications and services were court ordered.

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) With respect to all mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions, coverage for inpatient treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a residential treatment center certified or licensed by the Department of Public Health or the Department of Human Services.

(c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for those individuals covered under Section 356z.15 of this Code.

(d) With respect to a group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace, the Department and, with respect to medical assistance, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall each enforce the requirements of this Section and Sections 356z.23 and 370c.1 of this Code, the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008, 42 U.S.C. 18031(j), and any amendments to, and federal guidance or regulations issued under, those Acts, including, but not limited to, final regulations issued under the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 and final regulations applying the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 to Medicaid managed care organizations, the Children's Health Insurance Program, and alternative benefit plans. Specifically, the Department and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall take action:

(1) proactively ensuring compliance by individual and group policies, including by requiring that insurers submit comparative analyses, as set forth in paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 370c.1, demonstrating how they design and apply nonquantitative treatment limitations, both as written and in operation, for mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits as compared to how they design and apply nonquantitative treatment limitations, as written and in operation, for medical and surgical benefits;

(2) evaluating all consumer or provider complaints regarding mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or condition coverage for possible parity violations;

(3) performing parity compliance market conduct examinations or, in the case of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, parity compliance audits of individual and group plans and policies, including, but not limited to, reviews of:

(A) nonquantitative treatment limitations, including, but not limited to, prior authorization requirements, concurrent review, retrospective review, step therapy, network admission standards, reimbursement rates, and geographic restrictions;

(B) denials of authorization, payment, and coverage; and

(C) other specific criteria as may be determined by the Department.

The findings and the conclusions of the parity compliance market conduct examinations and audits shall be made public.

The Director may adopt rules to effectuate any provisions of the Paul Wellstone and Pete Domenici Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 that relate to the business of insurance.

(e) Availability of plan information.

(1) The criteria for medical necessity determinations made under a group health plan, an individual policy of accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace with respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with respect to such benefits) must be made available by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to any current or potential participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon request.

(2) The reason for any denial under a group health benefit plan, an individual policy of accident and health insurance, or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance marketplace (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with such plan or policy) of reimbursement or payment for services with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorders or conditions benefits in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made available within a reasonable time and in a reasonable manner and in readily understandable language by the plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or beneficiary upon request.

(f) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1) State-regulated employer-sponsored group health insurance plans written in Illinois or which purport to provide coverage for a resident of this State; and (2) State employee health plans.

(g) (1) As used in this subsection:

"Benefits", with respect to insurers, means the benefits provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.1 (Clinically Managed Low-Intensity Residential), 3.3 (Clinically Managed Population-Specific High-Intensity Residential), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services.

"Benefits", with respect to managed care organizations, means the benefits provided for treatment services for inpatient and outpatient treatment of substance use disorders or conditions at American Society of Addiction Medicine levels of treatment 2.1 (Intensive Outpatient), 2.5 (Partial Hospitalization), 3.5 (Clinically Managed High-Intensity Residential), and 3.7 (Medically Monitored Intensive Inpatient) and OMT (Opioid Maintenance Therapy) services.

"Substance use disorder treatment provider or facility" means a licensed physician, licensed psychologist, licensed psychiatrist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed, certified, or otherwise State-approved facility or provider of substance use disorder treatment.

(2) A group health insurance policy, an individual health benefit plan, or qualified health plan that is offered through the health insurance marketplace, small employer group health plan, and large employer group health plan that is amended, delivered, issued, executed, or renewed in this State, or approved for issuance or renewal in this State, on or after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1023) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall comply with the requirements of this Section and Section 370c.1. The services for the treatment and the ongoing assessment of the patient's progress in treatment shall follow the requirements of 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060.

(3) Prior authorization shall not be utilized for the benefits under this subsection. The substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment. For an insurer that is not a managed care organization, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall occur for the initiation of treatment of the covered person within 2 business days. For managed care organizations, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility notification shall occur in accordance with the protocol set forth in the provider agreement for initiation of treatment within 24 hours. If the managed care organization is not capable of accepting the notification in accordance with the contractual protocol during the 24-hour period following admission, the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall have one additional business day to provide the notification to the appropriate managed care organization. Treatment plans shall be developed in accordance with the requirements and timeframes established in 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060. If the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility fails to notify the insurer of the initiation of treatment in accordance with these provisions, the insurer may follow its normal prior authorization processes.

(4) For an insurer that is not a managed care organization, if an insurer determines that benefits are no longer medically necessary, the insurer shall notify the covered person, the covered person's authorized representative, if any, and the covered person's health care provider in writing of the covered person's right to request an external review pursuant to the Health Carrier External Review Act. The notification shall occur within 24 hours following the adverse determination.

Pursuant to the requirements of the Health Carrier External Review Act, the covered person or the covered person's authorized representative may request an expedited external review. An expedited external review may not occur if the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility determines that continued treatment is no longer medically necessary. Under this subsection, a request for expedited external review must be initiated within 24 hours following the adverse determination notification by the insurer. Failure to request an expedited external review within 24 hours shall preclude a covered person or a covered person's authorized representative from requesting an expedited external review.

If an expedited external review request meets the criteria of the Health Carrier External Review Act, an independent review organization shall make a final determination of medical necessity within 72 hours. If an independent review organization upholds an adverse determination, an insurer shall remain responsible to provide coverage of benefits through the day following the determination of the independent review organization. A decision to reverse an adverse determination shall comply with the Health Carrier External Review Act.

(5) The substance use disorder treatment provider or facility shall provide the insurer with 7 business days' advance notice of the planned discharge of the patient from the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility and notice on the day that the patient is discharged from the substance use disorder treatment provider or facility.

(6) The benefits required by this subsection shall be provided to all covered persons with a diagnosis of substance use disorder or conditions. The presence of additional related or unrelated diagnoses shall not be a basis to reduce or deny the benefits required by this subsection.

(7) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require an insurer to provide coverage for any of the benefits in this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-305, eff. 8-24-17; 100-1023, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1024, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-18-18.)

(215 ILCS 5/452) (from Ch. 73, par. 1064)

Sec. 452. Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Nothing in this Code contained shall be held or construed to alter, modify, or repeal any of the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois an Act entitled "An Act In Relation to Civil Administration of the State Government and to Repeal Certain Acts Therein Named," approved March 7, 1917, and amendments thereto.

(Source: Laws 1937, p. 696; revised 10-19-18.)

Section 460. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Section 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 364, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-761, eff. 1-1-18; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1026, eff. 8-22-18; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 465. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356v, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.32, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 470. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 356z.29, 356z.30, 356z.32, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1026, eff. 8-22-18; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 475. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Sections 4-304, 7-204, and 8-103B as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/4-304) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 4-304)

Sec. 4-304. Beginning in 1986, the Commission shall prepare an annual report which shall be filed by January 31 of each year with the Joint Committee on Legislative Support Services of the General Assembly and the Governor and which shall be publicly available. Such report shall include:

(1) A general review of agency activities and changes, including:

(a) a review of significant decisions and other regulatory actions for the preceding year, and pending cases, and an analysis of the impact of such decisions and actions, and potential impact of any significant pending cases;

(b) for each significant decision, regulatory action and pending case, a description of the positions advocated by major parties, including Commission staff, and for each such decision rendered or action taken, the position adopted by the Commission and reason therefor;

(c) a description of the Commission's budget, caseload, and staff levels, including specifically:

(i) a breakdown by type of case of the cases resolved and filed during the year and of pending cases;

(ii) a description of the allocation of the Commission's budget, identifying amounts budgeted for each significant regulatory function or activity and for each department, bureau, section, division or office of the Commission and its employees;

(iii) a description of current employee levels, identifying any change occurring during the year in the number of employees, personnel policies and practices or compensation levels; and identifying the number and type of employees assigned to each Commission regulatory function and to each department, bureau, section, division or office of the Commission;

(d) a description of any significant changes in Commission policies, programs or practices with respect to agency organization and administration, hearings and procedures or substantive regulatory activity.

(2) A discussion and analysis of the state of each utility industry regulated by the Commission and significant changes, trends and developments therein, including the number and types of firms offering each utility service, existing, new and prospective technologies, variations in the quality, availability and price for utility services in different geographic areas of the State, and any other industry factors or circumstances which may affect the public interest or the regulation of such industries.

(3) A specific discussion of the energy planning responsibilities and activities of the Commission and energy utilities, including:

(a) the extent to which conservation, cogeneration, renewable energy technologies and improvements in energy efficiency are being utilized by energy consumers, the extent to which additional potential exists for the economical utilization of such supplies, and a description of existing and proposed programs and policies designed to promote and encourage such utilization;

(b) a description of each energy plan filed with the Commission pursuant to the provisions of this Act, and a copy, or detailed summary of the most recent energy plans adopted by the Commission;

(c) a discussion of the powers by which the Commission is implementing the planning responsibilities of Article VIII, including a description of the staff and budget assigned to such function, the procedures by which Commission staff reviews and analyzes energy plans submitted by the utilities, the Department of Natural Resources, and any other person or party; and

(d) a summary of the adoption of solar photovoltaic systems by residential and small business consumers in Illinois and a description of any and all barriers to residential and small business consumers' financing, installation, and valuation of energy produced by solar photovoltaic systems; electric utilities, alternative retail electric suppliers, and installers of distributed generation shall provide all information requested by the Commission or its staff necessary to complete the analysis required by this paragraph (d).

(4) A discussion of the extent to which utility services are available to all Illinois citizens including:

(a) the percentage and number of persons or households requiring each such service who are not receiving such service, and the reasons therefor therefore, including specifically the number of such persons or households who are unable to afford such service;

(b) a critical analysis of existing programs designed to promote and preserve the availability and affordability of utility services; and

(c) an analysis of the financial impact on utilities and other ratepayers of the inability of some customers or potential customers to afford utility service, including the number of service disconnections and reconnections, and cost thereof and the dollar amount of uncollectible accounts recovered through rates.

(5) A detailed description of the means by which the Commission is implementing its new statutory responsibilities under this Act, and the status of such implementation, including specifically:

(a) Commission reorganization resulting from the addition of an Executive Director and administrative law judge qualifications and review;

(b) Commission responsibilities for construction and rate supervision, including construction cost audits, management audits, excess capacity adjustments, phase-ins of new plant and the means and capability for monitoring and reevaluating existing or future construction projects;

(c) promulgation and application of rules concerning ex parte communications, circulation of recommended orders and transcription of closed meetings.

(6) A description of all appeals taken from Commission orders, findings or decisions and the status and outcome of such appeals.

(7) A description of the status of all studies and investigations required by this Act, including those ordered pursuant to Sections 9-244 and 13-301 and all such subsequently ordered studies or investigations.

(8) A discussion of new or potential developments in federal legislation, and federal agency and judicial decisions relevant to State regulation of utility services.

(9) All recommendations for appropriate legislative action by the General Assembly.

The Commission may include such other information as it deems to be necessary or beneficial in describing or explaining its activities or regulatory responsibilities. The report required by this Section shall be adopted by a vote of the full Commission prior to filing.

(Source: P.A. 99-107, eff. 7-22-15; 100-840, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-19-18.)

(220 ILCS 5/7-204) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 7-204)

Sec. 7-204. Reorganization defined; Commission approval therefore.

(a) For purposes of this Section, "reorganization" means any transaction which, regardless of the means by which it is accomplished, results in a change in the ownership of a majority of the voting capital stock of an Illinois public utility; or the ownership or control of any entity which owns or controls a majority of the voting capital stock of a public utility; or by which 2 public utilities merge, or by which a public utility acquires substantially all of the assets of another public utility; provided, however, that "reorganization" as used in this Section shall not include a mortgage or pledge transaction entered into to secure a bona fide borrowing by the party granting the mortgage or making the pledge.

In addition to the foregoing, "reorganization" shall include for purposes of this Section any transaction which, regardless of the means by which it is accomplished, will have the effect of terminating the affiliated interest status of any entity as defined in paragraph paragraphs (a), (b), (c) or (d) of subsection (2) of Section 7-101 of this Act where such entity had transactions with the public utility, in the 12 calendar months immediately preceding the date of termination of such affiliated interest status subject to subsection (3) of Section 7-101 of this Act with a value greater than 15% of the public utility's revenues for that same 12-month period. If the proposed transaction would have the effect of terminating the affiliated interest status of more than one Illinois public utility, the utility with the greatest revenues for the 12-month period shall be used to determine whether such proposed transaction is a reorganization for the purposes of this Section. The Commission shall have jurisdiction over any reorganization as defined herein.

(b) No reorganization shall take place without prior Commission approval. The Commission shall not approve any proposed reorganization if the Commission finds, after notice and hearing, that the reorganization will adversely affect the utility's ability to perform its duties under this Act. The Commission shall not approve any proposed reorganization unless the Commission finds, after notice and hearing, that:

(1) the proposed reorganization will not diminish the utility's ability to provide adequate, reliable, efficient, safe and least-cost public utility service;

(2) the proposed reorganization will not result in the unjustified subsidization of non-utility activities by the utility or its customers;

(3) costs and facilities are fairly and reasonably allocated between utility and non-utility activities in such a manner that the Commission may identify those costs and facilities which are properly included by the utility for ratemaking purposes;

(4) the proposed reorganization will not significantly impair the utility's ability to raise necessary capital on reasonable terms or to maintain a reasonable capital structure;

(5) the utility will remain subject to all applicable laws, regulations, rules, decisions and policies governing the regulation of Illinois public utilities;

(6) the proposed reorganization is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on competition in those markets over which the Commission has jurisdiction;

(7) the proposed reorganization is not likely to result in any adverse rate impacts on retail customers.

(c) The Commission shall not approve a reorganization without ruling on: (i) the allocation of any savings resulting from the proposed reorganization; and (ii) whether the companies should be allowed to recover any costs incurred in accomplishing the proposed reorganization and, if so, the amount of costs eligible for recovery and how the costs will be allocated.

(d) The Commission shall issue its Order approving or denying the proposed reorganization within 11 months after the application is filed. The Commission may extend the deadline for a period equivalent to the length of any delay which the Commission finds to have been caused by the Applicant's failure to provide data or information requested by the Commission or that the Commission ordered the Applicant to provide to the parties. The Commission may also extend the deadline by an additional period not to exceed 3 months to consider amendments to the Applicant's filing, or to consider reasonably unforeseeable changes in circumstances subsequent to the Applicant's initial filing.

(e) Subsections (c) and (d) and subparagraphs (6) and (7) of subsection (b) of this Section shall apply only to merger applications submitted to the Commission subsequent to April 23, 1997. No other Commission approvals shall be required for mergers that are subject to this Section.

(f) In approving any proposed reorganization pursuant to this Section the Commission may impose such terms, conditions or requirements as, in its judgment, are necessary to protect the interests of the public utility and its customers.

(Source: P.A. 100-840, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-19-18.)

(220 ILCS 5/8-103B)

Sec. 8-103B. Energy efficiency and demand-response measures.

(a) It is the policy of the State that electric utilities are required to use cost-effective energy efficiency and demand-response measures to reduce delivery load. Requiring investment in cost-effective energy efficiency and demand-response measures will reduce direct and indirect costs to consumers by decreasing environmental impacts and by avoiding or delaying the need for new generation, transmission, and distribution infrastructure. It serves the public interest to allow electric utilities to recover costs for reasonably and prudently incurred expenditures for energy efficiency and demand-response measures. As used in this Section, "cost-effective" means that the measures satisfy the total resource cost test. The low-income measures described in subsection (c) of this Section shall not be required to meet the total resource cost test. For purposes of this Section, the terms "energy-efficiency", "demand-response", "electric utility", and "total resource cost test" have the meanings set forth in the Illinois Power Agency Act.

(a-5) This Section applies to electric utilities serving more than 500,000 retail customers in the State for those multi-year plans commencing after December 31, 2017.

(b) For purposes of this Section, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State shall be deemed to have achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings of 6.6% from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, which percent is based on the deemed average weather normalized sales of electric power and energy during calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016 of 88,000,000 MWhs. For the purposes of this subsection (b) and subsection (b-5), the 88,000,000 MWhs of deemed electric power and energy sales shall be reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that are exempt from subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under subsection (l) of this Section, as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016. After 2017, the deemed value of cumulative persisting annual savings from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, shall be reduced each year, as follows, and the applicable value shall be applied to and count toward the utility's achievement of the cumulative persisting annual savings goals set forth in subsection (b-5):

(1) 5.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 5.2% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 4.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 4.0% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 3.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 3.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 2.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 2.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 2.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 2.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 1.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 1.7% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029; and

(13) 1.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030.

For purposes of this Section, "cumulative persisting annual savings" means the total electric energy savings in a given year from measures installed in that year or in previous years, but no earlier than January 1, 2012, that are still operational and providing savings in that year because the measures have not yet reached the end of their useful lives.

(b-5) Beginning in 2018, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State shall achieve the following cumulative persisting annual savings goals, as modified by subsection (f) of this Section and as compared to the deemed baseline of 88,000,000 MWhs of electric power and energy sales set forth in subsection (b), as reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that are exempt from subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under subsection (l) of this Section as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016, through the implementation of energy efficiency measures during the applicable year and in prior years, but no earlier than January 1, 2012:

(1) 7.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 9.1% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 10.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 11.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 13.1% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 14.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 15.7% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 17% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 17.9% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 18.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 19.7% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 20.6% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029; and

(13) 21.5% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030.

(b-10) For purposes of this Section, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall be deemed to have achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings of 6.6% from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, which is based on the deemed average weather normalized sales of electric power and energy during calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016 of 36,900,000 MWhs. For the purposes of this subsection (b-10) and subsection (b-15), the 36,900,000 MWhs of deemed electric power and energy sales shall be reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that are exempt from subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under subsection (l) of this Section, as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016. After 2017, the deemed value of cumulative persisting annual savings from energy efficiency measures and programs implemented during the period beginning January 1, 2012 and ending December 31, 2017, shall be reduced each year, as follows, and the applicable value shall be applied to and count toward the utility's achievement of the cumulative persisting annual savings goals set forth in subsection (b-15):

(1) 5.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 5.2% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 4.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 4.0% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 3.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 3.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 2.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 2.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 2.3% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 2.1% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 1.8% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 1.7% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029; and

(13) 1.5% deemed cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030.

(b-15) Beginning in 2018, electric utilities subject to this Section that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall achieve the following cumulative persisting annual savings goals, as modified by subsection (b-20) and subsection (f) of this Section and as compared to the deemed baseline as reduced by the number of MWhs equal to the sum of the annual consumption of customers that are exempt from subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under subsection (l) of this Section as averaged across the calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016, through the implementation of energy efficiency measures during the applicable year and in prior years, but no earlier than January 1, 2012:

(1) 7.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 8.2% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 9.0% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 9.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 10.6% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 11.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 12.2% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024;

(8) 13% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025;

(9) 13.6% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2026;

(10) 14.2% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2027;

(11) 14.8% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2028;

(12) 15.4% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2029; and

(13) 16% cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2030.

The difference between the cumulative persisting annual savings goal for the applicable calendar year and the cumulative persisting annual savings goal for the immediately preceding calendar year is 0.8% for the period of January 1, 2018 through December 31, 2025 and 0.6% for the period of January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2030.

(b-20) Each electric utility subject to this Section may include cost-effective voltage optimization measures in its plans submitted under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, and the costs incurred by a utility to implement the measures under a Commission-approved plan shall be recovered under the provisions of Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act. For purposes of this Section, the measure life of voltage optimization measures shall be 15 years. The measure life period is independent of the depreciation rate of the voltage optimization assets deployed.

Within 270 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall file a plan with the Commission that identifies the cost-effective voltage optimization investment the electric utility plans to undertake through December 31, 2024. The Commission, after notice and hearing, shall approve or approve with modification the plan within 120 days after the plan's filing and, in the order approving or approving with modification the plan, the Commission shall adjust the applicable cumulative persisting annual savings goals set forth in subsection (b-15) to reflect any amount of cost-effective energy savings approved by the Commission that is greater than or less than the following cumulative persisting annual savings values attributable to voltage optimization for the applicable year:

(1) 0.0% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2018;

(2) 0.17% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2019;

(3) 0.17% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2020;

(4) 0.33% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2021;

(5) 0.5% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2022;

(6) 0.67% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2023;

(7) 0.83% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2024; and

(8) 1.0% of cumulative persisting annual savings for the year ending December 31, 2025.

(b-25) In the event an electric utility jointly offers an energy efficiency measure or program with a gas utility under plans approved under this Section and Section 8-104 of this Act, the electric utility may continue offering the program, including the gas energy efficiency measures, in the event the gas utility discontinues funding the program. In that event, the energy savings value associated with such other fuels shall be converted to electric energy savings on an equivalent Btu basis for the premises. However, the electric utility shall prioritize programs for low-income residential customers to the extent practicable. An electric utility may recover the costs of offering the gas energy efficiency measures under this subsection (b-25).

For those energy efficiency measures or programs that save both electricity and other fuels but are not jointly offered with a gas utility under plans approved under this Section and Section 8-104 or not offered with an affiliated gas utility under paragraph (6) of subsection (f) of Section 8-104 of this Act, the electric utility may count savings of fuels other than electricity toward the achievement of its annual savings goal, and the energy savings value associated with such other fuels shall be converted to electric energy savings on an equivalent Btu basis at the premises.

In no event shall more than 10% of each year's applicable annual incremental goal as defined in paragraph (7) of subsection (g) of this Section be met through savings of fuels other than electricity.

(c) Electric utilities shall be responsible for overseeing the design, development, and filing of energy efficiency plans with the Commission and may, as part of that implementation, outsource various aspects of program development and implementation. A minimum of 10%, for electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State, and a minimum of 7%, for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, of the utility's entire portfolio funding level for a given year shall be used to procure cost-effective energy efficiency measures from units of local government, municipal corporations, school districts, public housing, and community college districts, provided that a minimum percentage of available funds shall be used to procure energy efficiency from public housing, which percentage shall be equal to public housing's share of public building energy consumption.

The utilities shall also implement energy efficiency measures targeted at low-income households, which, for purposes of this Section, shall be defined as households at or below 80% of area median income, and expenditures to implement the measures shall be no less than $25,000,000 per year for electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State and no less than $8,350,000 per year for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State.

Each electric utility shall assess opportunities to implement cost-effective energy efficiency measures and programs through a public housing authority or authorities located in its service territory. If such opportunities are identified, the utility shall propose such measures and programs to address the opportunities. Expenditures to address such opportunities shall be credited toward the minimum procurement and expenditure requirements set forth in this subsection (c).

Implementation of energy efficiency measures and programs targeted at low-income households should be contracted, when it is practicable, to independent third parties that have demonstrated capabilities to serve such households, with a preference for not-for-profit entities and government agencies that have existing relationships with or experience serving low-income communities in the State.

Each electric utility shall develop and implement reporting procedures that address and assist in determining the amount of energy savings that can be applied to the low-income procurement and expenditure requirements set forth in this subsection (c).

The electric utilities shall also convene a low-income energy efficiency advisory committee to assist in the design and evaluation of the low-income energy efficiency programs. The committee shall be comprised of the electric utilities subject to the requirements of this Section, the gas utilities subject to the requirements of Section 8-104 of this Act, the utilities' low-income energy efficiency implementation contractors, and representatives of community-based organizations.

(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a utility providing approved energy efficiency measures and, if applicable, demand-response measures in the State shall be permitted to recover all reasonable and prudently incurred costs of those measures from all retail customers, except as provided in subsection (l) of this Section, as follows, provided that nothing in this subsection (d) permits the double recovery of such costs from customers:

(1) The utility may recover its costs through an automatic adjustment clause tariff filed with and approved by the Commission. The tariff shall be established outside the context of a general rate case. Each year the Commission shall initiate a review to reconcile any amounts collected with the actual costs and to determine the required adjustment to the annual tariff factor to match annual expenditures. To enable the financing of the incremental capital expenditures, including regulatory assets, for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, the utility's actual year-end capital structure that includes a common equity ratio, excluding goodwill, of up to and including 50% of the total capital structure shall be deemed reasonable and used to set rates.

(2) A utility may recover its costs through an energy efficiency formula rate approved by the Commission under a filing under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, which shall specify the cost components that form the basis of the rate charged to customers with sufficient specificity to operate in a standardized manner and be updated annually with transparent information that reflects the utility's actual costs to be recovered during the applicable rate year, which is the period beginning with the first billing day of January and extending through the last billing day of the following December. The energy efficiency formula rate shall be implemented through a tariff filed with the Commission under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section that is consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (2) and that shall be applicable to all delivery services customers. The Commission shall conduct an investigation of the tariff in a manner consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (2), subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, and the provisions of Article IX of this Act to the extent they do not conflict with this paragraph (2). The energy efficiency formula rate approved by the Commission shall remain in effect at the discretion of the utility and shall do the following:

(A) Provide for the recovery of the utility's actual costs incurred under this Section that are prudently incurred and reasonable in amount consistent with Commission practice and law. The sole fact that a cost differs from that incurred in a prior calendar year or that an investment is different from that made in a prior calendar year shall not imply the imprudence or unreasonableness of that cost or investment.

(B) Reflect the utility's actual year-end capital structure for the applicable calendar year, excluding goodwill, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law. To enable the financing of the incremental capital expenditures, including regulatory assets, for electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State, a participating electric utility's actual year-end capital structure that includes a common equity ratio, excluding goodwill, of up to and including 50% of the total capital structure shall be deemed reasonable and used to set rates.

(C) Include a cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of the following:

(i) the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication; and

(ii) 580 basis points.

At such time as the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System ceases to include the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication, the monthly average yields of the U.S. Treasury bonds then having the longest duration published by the Board of Governors in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication shall instead be used for purposes of this paragraph (2).

(D) Permit and set forth protocols, subject to a determination of prudence and reasonableness consistent with Commission practice and law, for the following:

(i) recovery of incentive compensation expense that is based on the achievement of operational metrics, including metrics related to budget controls, outage duration and frequency, safety, customer service, efficiency and productivity, and environmental compliance; however, this protocol shall not apply if such expense related to costs incurred under this Section is recovered under Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act; incentive compensation expense that is based on net income or an affiliate's earnings per share shall not be recoverable under the energy efficiency formula rate;

(ii) recovery of pension and other post-employment benefits expense, provided that such costs are supported by an actuarial study; however, this protocol shall not apply if such expense related to costs incurred under this Section is recovered under Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act;

(iii) recovery of existing regulatory assets over the periods previously authorized by the Commission;

(iv) as described in subsection (e), amortization of costs incurred under this Section; and

(v) projected, weather normalized billing determinants for the applicable rate year.

(E) Provide for an annual reconciliation, as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), less any deferred taxes related to the reconciliation, with interest at an annual rate of return equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital, including a revenue conversion factor calculated to recover or refund all additional income taxes that may be payable or receivable as a result of that return, of the energy efficiency revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its energy efficiency formula rate tariff under this paragraph (2), with what the revenue requirement would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

The utility shall file, together with its tariff, the projected costs to be incurred by the utility during the rate year under the utility's multi-year plan approved under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, including, but not limited to, the projected capital investment costs and projected regulatory asset balances with correspondingly updated depreciation and amortization reserves and expense, that shall populate the energy efficiency formula rate and set the initial rates under the formula.

The Commission shall review the proposed tariff in conjunction with its review of a proposed multi-year plan, as specified in paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section. The review shall be based on the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, the Commission applies in a hearing to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The initial rates shall take effect beginning with the January monthly billing period following the Commission's approval.

The tariff's rate design and cost allocation across customer classes shall be consistent with the utility's automatic adjustment clause tariff in effect on June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly; however, the Commission may revise the tariff's rate design and cost allocation in subsequent proceedings under paragraph (3) of this subsection (d).

If the energy efficiency formula rate is terminated, the then current rates shall remain in effect until such time as the energy efficiency costs are incorporated into new rates that are set under this subsection (d) or Article IX of this Act, subject to retroactive rate adjustment, with interest, to reconcile rates charged with actual costs.

(3) The provisions of this paragraph (3) shall only apply to an electric utility that has elected to file an energy efficiency formula rate under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). Subsequent to the Commission's issuance of an order approving the utility's energy efficiency formula rate structure and protocols, and initial rates under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d), the utility shall file, on or before June 1 of each year, with the Chief Clerk of the Commission its updated cost inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate for the applicable rate year and the corresponding new charges, as well as the information described in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section. Each such filing shall conform to the following requirements and include the following information:

(A) The inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate for the applicable rate year shall be based on the projected costs to be incurred by the utility during the rate year under the utility's multi-year plan approved under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, including, but not limited to, projected capital investment costs and projected regulatory asset balances with correspondingly updated depreciation and amortization reserves and expense. The filing shall also include a reconciliation of the energy efficiency revenue requirement that was in effect for the prior rate year (as set by the cost inputs for the prior rate year) with the actual revenue requirement for the prior rate year (determined using a year-end rate base) that uses amounts reflected in the applicable FERC Form 1 that reports the actual costs for the prior rate year. Any over-collection or under-collection indicated by such reconciliation shall be reflected as a credit against, or recovered as an additional charge to, respectively, with interest calculated at a rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital approved by the Commission for the prior rate year, the charges for the applicable rate year. Such over-collection or under-collection shall be adjusted to remove any deferred taxes related to the reconciliation, for purposes of calculating interest at an annual rate of return equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital approved by the Commission for the prior rate year, including a revenue conversion factor calculated to recover or refund all additional income taxes that may be payable or receivable as a result of that return. Each reconciliation shall be certified by the participating utility in the same manner that FERC Form 1 is certified. The filing shall also include the charge or credit, if any, resulting from the calculation required by subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (d).

Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the intent of the reconciliation is to ultimately reconcile both the revenue requirement reflected in rates for each calendar year, beginning with the calendar year in which the utility files its energy efficiency formula rate tariff under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d), with what the revenue requirement determined using a year-end rate base for the applicable calendar year would have been had the actual cost information for the applicable calendar year been available at the filing date.

For purposes of this Section, "FERC Form 1" means the Annual Report of Major Electric Utilities, Licensees and Others that electric utilities are required to file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission under the Federal Power Act, Sections 3, 4(a), 304 and 209, modified as necessary to be consistent with 83 Ill. Admin. Code Part 415 as of May 1, 2011. Nothing in this Section is intended to allow costs that are not otherwise recoverable to be recoverable by virtue of inclusion in FERC Form 1.

(B) The new charges shall take effect beginning on the first billing day of the following January billing period and remain in effect through the last billing day of the next December billing period regardless of whether the Commission enters upon a hearing under this paragraph (3).

(C) The filing shall include relevant and necessary data and documentation for the applicable rate year. Normalization adjustments shall not be required.

Within 45 days after the utility files its annual update of cost inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate, the Commission shall with reasonable notice, initiate a proceeding concerning whether the projected costs to be incurred by the utility and recovered during the applicable rate year, and that are reflected in the inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate, are consistent with the utility's approved multi-year plan under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section and whether the costs incurred by the utility during the prior rate year were prudent and reasonable. The Commission shall also have the authority to investigate the information and data described in paragraph (9) of subsection (g) of this Section, including the proposed adjustment to the utility's return on equity component of its weighted average cost of capital. During the course of the proceeding, each objection shall be stated with particularity and evidence provided in support thereof, after which the utility shall have the opportunity to rebut the evidence. Discovery shall be allowed consistent with the Commission's Rules of Practice, which Rules of Practice shall be enforced by the Commission or the assigned administrative law judge. The Commission shall apply the same evidentiary standards, including, but not limited to, those concerning the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred by the utility, during the proceeding as it would apply in a proceeding to review a filing for a general increase in rates under Article IX of this Act. The Commission shall not, however, have the authority in a proceeding under this paragraph (3) to consider or order any changes to the structure or protocols of the energy efficiency formula rate approved under paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). In a proceeding under this paragraph (3), the Commission shall enter its order no later than the earlier of 195 days after the utility's filing of its annual update of cost inputs to the energy efficiency formula rate or December 15. The utility's proposed return on equity calculation, as described in paragraphs (7) through (9) of subsection (g) of this Section, shall be deemed the final, approved calculation on December 15 of the year in which it is filed unless the Commission enters an order on or before December 15, after notice and hearing, that modifies such calculation consistent with this Section. The Commission's determinations of the prudence and reasonableness of the costs incurred, and determination of such return on equity calculation, for the applicable calendar year shall be final upon entry of the Commission's order and shall not be subject to reopening, reexamination, or collateral attack in any other Commission proceeding, case, docket, order, rule, or regulation; however, nothing in this paragraph (3) shall prohibit a party from petitioning the Commission to rehear or appeal to the courts the order under the provisions of this Act.

(e) Beginning on June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, a utility subject to the requirements of this Section may elect to defer, as a regulatory asset, up to the full amount of its expenditures incurred under this Section for each annual period, including, but not limited to, any expenditures incurred above the funding level set by subsection (f) of this Section for a given year. The total expenditures deferred as a regulatory asset in a given year shall be amortized and recovered over a period that is equal to the weighted average of the energy efficiency measure lives implemented for that year that are reflected in the regulatory asset. The unamortized balance shall be recognized as of December 31 for a given year. The utility shall also earn a return on the total of the unamortized balances of all of the energy efficiency regulatory assets, less any deferred taxes related to those unamortized balances, at an annual rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital that includes, based on a year-end capital structure, the utility's actual cost of debt for the applicable calendar year and a cost of equity, which shall be calculated as the sum of the (i) the average for the applicable calendar year of the monthly average yields of 30-year U.S. Treasury bonds published by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in its weekly H.15 Statistical Release or successor publication; and (ii) 580 basis points, including a revenue conversion factor calculated to recover or refund all additional income taxes that may be payable or receivable as a result of that return. Capital investment costs shall be depreciated and recovered over their useful lives consistent with generally accepted accounting principles. The weighted average cost of capital shall be applied to the capital investment cost balance, less any accumulated depreciation and accumulated deferred income taxes, as of December 31 for a given year.

When an electric utility creates a regulatory asset under the provisions of this Section, the costs are recovered over a period during which customers also receive a benefit which is in the public interest. Accordingly, it is the intent of the General Assembly that an electric utility that elects to create a regulatory asset under the provisions of this Section shall recover all of the associated costs as set forth in this Section. After the Commission has approved the prudence and reasonableness of the costs that comprise the regulatory asset, the electric utility shall be permitted to recover all such costs, and the value and recoverability through rates of the associated regulatory asset shall not be limited, altered, impaired, or reduced.

(f) Beginning in 2017, each electric utility shall file an energy efficiency plan with the Commission to meet the energy efficiency standards for the next applicable multi-year period beginning January 1 of the year following the filing, according to the schedule set forth in paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (f). If a utility does not file such a plan on or before the applicable filing deadline for the plan, it shall face a penalty of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed.

(1) No later than 30 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly or May 1, 2017, whichever is later, each electric utility shall file a 4-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2018 that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals specified in paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (b-5) of this Section or in paragraphs (1) through (4) of subsection (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if the utility's expenditures are limited pursuant to subsection (m) of this Section or, for a utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers, if each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate that achievement of such goals is not cost effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 4-year plan period. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 4-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 4-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

(2) No later than March 1, 2021, each electric utility shall file a 4-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2022 that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals specified in paragraphs (5) through (8) of subsection (b-5) of this Section or in paragraphs (5) through (8) of subsection (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if the utility's expenditures are limited pursuant to subsection (m) of this Section or, each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate that achievement of such goals is not cost effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 4-year plan period. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 4-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 4-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

(3) No later than March 1, 2025, each electric utility shall file a 5-year energy efficiency plan commencing on January 1, 2026 that is designed to achieve the cumulative persisting annual savings goals specified in paragraphs (9) through (13) of subsection (b-5) of this Section or in paragraphs (9) through (13) of subsection (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, through implementation of energy efficiency measures; however, the goals may be reduced if the utility's expenditures are limited pursuant to subsection (m) of this Section or, each of the following conditions are met: (A) the plan's analysis and forecasts of the utility's ability to acquire energy savings demonstrate that achievement of such goals is not cost effective; and (B) the amount of energy savings achieved by the utility as determined by the independent evaluator for the most recent year for which savings have been evaluated preceding the plan filing was less than the average annual amount of savings required to achieve the goals for the applicable 5-year plan period. Except as provided in subsection (m) of this Section, annual increases in cumulative persisting annual savings goals during the applicable 5-year plan period shall not be reduced to amounts that are less than the maximum amount of cumulative persisting annual savings that is forecast to be cost-effectively achievable during the 5-year plan period. The Commission shall review any proposed goal reduction as part of its review and approval of the utility's proposed plan.

Each utility's plan shall set forth the utility's proposals to meet the energy efficiency standards identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15), as applicable and as such standards may have been modified under this subsection (f), taking into account the unique circumstances of the utility's service territory. For those plans commencing on January 1, 2018, the Commission shall seek public comment on the utility's plan and shall issue an order approving or disapproving each plan no later than August 31, 2017, or 105 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, whichever is later. For those plans commencing after December 31, 2021, the Commission shall seek public comment on the utility's plan and shall issue an order approving or disapproving each plan within 6 months after its submission. If the Commission disapproves a plan, the Commission shall, within 30 days, describe in detail the reasons for the disapproval and describe a path by which the utility may file a revised draft of the plan to address the Commission's concerns satisfactorily. If the utility does not refile with the Commission within 60 days, the utility shall be subject to penalties at a rate of $100,000 per day until the plan is filed. This process shall continue, and penalties shall accrue, until the utility has successfully filed a portfolio of energy efficiency and demand-response measures. Penalties shall be deposited into the Energy Efficiency Trust Fund.

(g) In submitting proposed plans and funding levels under subsection (f) of this Section to meet the savings goals identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section, as applicable, the utility shall:

(1) Demonstrate that its proposed energy efficiency measures will achieve the applicable requirements that are identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section, as modified by subsection (f) of this Section.

(2) Present specific proposals to implement new building and appliance standards that have been placed into effect.

(3) Demonstrate that its overall portfolio of measures, not including low-income programs described in subsection (c) of this Section, is cost-effective using the total resource cost test or complies with paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (f) of this Section and represents a diverse cross-section of opportunities for customers of all rate classes, other than those customers described in subsection (l) of this Section, to participate in the programs. Individual measures need not be cost effective.

(4) Present a third-party energy efficiency implementation program subject to the following requirements:

(A) beginning with the year commencing January 1, 2019, electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State shall fund third-party energy efficiency programs in an amount that is no less than $25,000,000 per year, and electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State shall fund third-party energy efficiency programs in an amount that is no less than $8,350,000 per year;

(B) during 2018, the utility shall conduct a solicitation process for purposes of requesting proposals from third-party vendors for those third-party energy efficiency programs to be offered during one or more of the years commencing January 1, 2019, January 1, 2020, and January 1, 2021; for those multi-year plans commencing on January 1, 2022 and January 1, 2026, the utility shall conduct a solicitation process during 2021 and 2025, respectively, for purposes of requesting proposals from third-party vendors for those third-party energy efficiency programs to be offered during one or more years of the respective multi-year plan period; for each solicitation process, the utility shall identify the sector, technology, or geographical area for which it is seeking requests for proposals;

(C) the utility shall propose the bidder qualifications, performance measurement process, and contract structure, which must include a performance payment mechanism and general terms and conditions; the proposed qualifications, process, and structure shall be subject to Commission approval; and

(D) the utility shall retain an independent third party to score the proposals received through the solicitation process described in this paragraph (4), rank them according to their cost per lifetime kilowatt-hours saved, and assemble the portfolio of third-party programs.

The electric utility shall recover all costs associated with Commission-approved, third-party administered programs regardless of the success of those programs.

(4.5) Implement cost-effective demand-response measures to reduce peak demand by 0.1% over the prior year for eligible retail customers, as defined in Section 16-111.5 of this Act, and for customers that elect hourly service from the utility pursuant to Section 16-107 of this Act, provided those customers have not been declared competitive. This requirement continues until December 31, 2026.

(5) Include a proposed or revised cost-recovery tariff mechanism, as provided for under subsection (d) of this Section, to fund the proposed energy efficiency and demand-response measures and to ensure the recovery of the prudently and reasonably incurred costs of Commission-approved programs.

(6) Provide for an annual independent evaluation of the performance of the cost-effectiveness of the utility's portfolio of measures, as well as a full review of the multi-year plan results of the broader net program impacts and, to the extent practical, for adjustment of the measures on a going-forward basis as a result of the evaluations. The resources dedicated to evaluation shall not exceed 3% of portfolio resources in any given year.

(7) For electric utilities that serve more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State:

(A) Through December 31, 2025, provide for an adjustment to the return on equity component of the utility's weighted average cost of capital calculated under subsection (d) of this Section:

(i) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is less than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved no more than 75% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 75% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 100% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility failed to achieve the goal.

(ii) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is more than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved at least 125% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 125% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility achieved above the goal. If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in this item (ii):

(aa) the calculation for determining achievement that is at least 125% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value; and

(bb) the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 125% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 8 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 125% achievement.

(B) For the period January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2030, provide for an adjustment to the return on equity component of the utility's weighted average cost of capital calculated under subsection (d) of this Section:

(i) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is less than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved no more than 66% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 66% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 100% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be reduced by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility failed to achieve the goal.

(ii) If the independent evaluator determines that the utility achieved a cumulative persisting annual savings that is more than the applicable annual incremental goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by a maximum of 200 basis points in the event that the utility achieved at least 134% of such goal. If the utility achieved more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal but less than 134% of such goal, then the return on equity component shall be increased by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility achieved above the goal. If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraph (3) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in this item (ii):

(aa) the calculation for determining achievement that is at least 134% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value; and

(bb) the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 134% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 134% achievement. The 6 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 134% achievement.

(7.5) For purposes of this Section, the term "applicable annual incremental goal" means the difference between the cumulative persisting annual savings goal for the calendar year that is the subject of the independent evaluator's determination and the cumulative persisting annual savings goal for the immediately preceding calendar year, as such goals are defined in subsections (b-5) and (b-15) of this Section and as these goals may have been modified as provided for under subsection (b-20) and paragraphs (1) through (3) of subsection (f) of this Section. Under subsections (b), (b-5), (b-10), and (b-15) of this Section, a utility must first replace energy savings from measures that have reached the end of their measure lives and would otherwise have to be replaced to meet the applicable savings goals identified in subsection (b-5) or (b-15) of this Section before any progress towards achievement of its applicable annual incremental goal may be counted. Notwithstanding anything else set forth in this Section, the difference between the actual annual incremental savings achieved in any given year, including the replacement of energy savings from measures that have expired, and the applicable annual incremental goal shall not affect adjustments to the return on equity for subsequent calendar years under this subsection (g).

(8) For electric utilities that serve less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State:

(A) Through December 31, 2025, the applicable annual incremental goal shall be compared to the annual incremental savings as determined by the independent evaluator.

(i) The return on equity component shall be reduced by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility did not achieve 84.4% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(ii) The return on equity component shall be increased by 8 basis points for each percent by which the utility exceeded 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(iii) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased if the annual incremental savings as determined by the independent evaluator is greater than 84.4% of the applicable annual incremental goal and less than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(iv) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased by an amount greater than 200 basis points pursuant to this subparagraph (A).

(B) For the period of January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2030, the applicable annual incremental goal shall be compared to the annual incremental savings as determined by the independent evaluator.

(i) The return on equity component shall be reduced by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility did not achieve 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(ii) The return on equity component shall be increased by 6 basis points for each percent by which the utility exceeded 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal.

(iii) The return on equity component shall not be increased or decreased by an amount greater than 200 basis points pursuant to this subparagraph (B).

(C) If the applicable annual incremental goal was reduced under paragraphs (1), (2) or (3) of subsection (f) of this Section, then the following adjustments shall be made to the calculations described in subparagraphs (A) and (B) of this paragraph (8):

(i) The calculation for determining achievement that is at least 125% or 134%, as applicable, of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the unreduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value.

(ii) For the period through December 31, 2025, the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 125% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 8 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 125% achievement.

(iii) For the period of January 1, 2026 through December 31, 2030, the calculation for determining achievement that is less than 134% but more than 100% of the applicable annual incremental goal shall use the reduced applicable annual incremental goal to set the value for 100% achievement of the goal and shall use the unreduced goal to set the value for 125% achievement. The 6 basis point value shall also be modified, as necessary, so that the 200 basis points are evenly apportioned among each percentage point value between 100% and 134% achievement.

(9) The utility shall submit the energy savings data to the independent evaluator no later than 30 days after the close of the plan year. The independent evaluator shall determine the cumulative persisting annual savings for a given plan year no later than 120 days after the close of the plan year. The utility shall submit an informational filing to the Commission no later than 160 days after the close of the plan year that attaches the independent evaluator's final report identifying the cumulative persisting annual savings for the year and calculates, under paragraph (7) or (8) of this subsection (g), as applicable, any resulting change to the utility's return on equity component of the weighted average cost of capital applicable to the next plan year beginning with the January monthly billing period and extending through the December monthly billing period. However, if the utility recovers the costs incurred under this Section under paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (d) of this Section, then the utility shall not be required to submit such informational filing, and shall instead submit the information that would otherwise be included in the informational filing as part of its filing under paragraph (3) of such subsection (d) that is due on or before June 1 of each year.

For those utilities that must submit the informational filing, the Commission may, on its own motion or by petition, initiate an investigation of such filing, provided, however, that the utility's proposed return on equity calculation shall be deemed the final, approved calculation on December 15 of the year in which it is filed unless the Commission enters an order on or before December 15, after notice and hearing, that modifies such calculation consistent with this Section.

The adjustments to the return on equity component described in paragraphs (7) and (8) of this subsection (g) shall be applied as described in such paragraphs through a separate tariff mechanism, which shall be filed by the utility under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section.

(h) No more than 6% of energy efficiency and demand-response program revenue may be allocated for research, development, or pilot deployment of new equipment or measures.

(i) When practicable, electric utilities shall incorporate advanced metering infrastructure data into the planning, implementation, and evaluation of energy efficiency measures and programs, subject to the data privacy and confidentiality protections of applicable law.

(j) The independent evaluator shall follow the guidelines and use the savings set forth in Commission-approved energy efficiency policy manuals and technical reference manuals, as each may be updated from time to time. Until such time as measure life values for energy efficiency measures implemented for low-income households under subsection (c) of this Section are incorporated into such Commission-approved manuals, the low-income measures shall have the same measure life values that are established for same measures implemented in households that are not low-income households.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, an electric utility subject to the requirements of this Section may file a tariff cancelling an automatic adjustment clause tariff in effect under this Section or Section 8-103, which shall take effect no later than one business day after the date such tariff is filed. Thereafter, the utility shall be authorized to defer and recover its expenditures incurred under this Section through a new tariff authorized under subsection (d) of this Section or in the utility's next rate case under Article IX or Section 16-108.5 of this Act, with interest at an annual rate equal to the utility's weighted average cost of capital as approved by the Commission in such case. If the utility elects to file a new tariff under subsection (d) of this Section, the utility may file the tariff within 10 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, and the cost inputs to such tariff shall be based on the projected costs to be incurred by the utility during the calendar year in which the new tariff is filed and that were not recovered under the tariff that was cancelled as provided for in this subsection. Such costs shall include those incurred or to be incurred by the utility under its multi-year plan approved under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, including, but not limited to, projected capital investment costs and projected regulatory asset balances with correspondingly updated depreciation and amortization reserves and expense. The Commission shall, after notice and hearing, approve, or approve with modification, such tariff and cost inputs no later than 75 days after the utility filed the tariff, provided that such approval, or approval with modification, shall be consistent with the provisions of this Section to the extent they do not conflict with this subsection (k). The tariff approved by the Commission shall take effect no later than 5 days after the Commission enters its order approving the tariff.

No later than 60 days after the effective date of the tariff cancelling the utility's automatic adjustment clause tariff, the utility shall file a reconciliation that reconciles the moneys collected under its automatic adjustment clause tariff with the costs incurred during the period beginning June 1, 2016 and ending on the date that the electric utility's automatic adjustment clause tariff was cancelled. In the event the reconciliation reflects an under-collection, the utility shall recover the costs as specified in this subsection (k). If the reconciliation reflects an over-collection, the utility shall apply the amount of such over-collection as a one-time credit to retail customers' bills.

(l) For the calendar years covered by a multi-year plan commencing after December 31, 2017, subsections (a) through (j) of this Section do not apply to any retail customers of an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State and whose total highest 30 minute demand was more than 10,000 kilowatts, or any retail customers of an electric utility that serves less than 3,000,000 retail customers but more than 500,000 retail customers in the State and whose total highest 15 minute demand was more than 10,000 kilowatts. For purposes of this subsection (l), "retail customer" has the meaning set forth in Section 16-102 of this Act. A determination of whether this subsection is applicable to a customer shall be made for each multi-year plan beginning after December 31, 2017. The criteria for determining whether this subsection (l) is applicable to a retail customer shall be based on the 12 consecutive billing periods prior to the start of the first year of each such multi-year plan.

(m) Notwithstanding the requirements of this Section, as part of a proceeding to approve a multi-year plan under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, the Commission shall reduce the amount of energy efficiency measures implemented for any single year, and whose costs are recovered under subsection (d) of this Section, by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of the measures to no more than

(1) 3.5% for the each of the 4 years beginning January 1, 2018,

(2) 3.75% for each of the 4 years beginning January 1, 2022, and

(3) 4% for each of the 5 years beginning January 1, 2026, of the average amount paid per kilowatthour by residential eligible retail customers during calendar year 2015. To determine the total amount that may be spent by an electric utility in any single year, the applicable percentage of the average amount paid per kilowatthour shall be multiplied by the total amount of energy delivered by such electric utility in the calendar year 2015, adjusted to reflect the proportion of the utility's load attributable to customers who are exempt from subsections (a) through (j) of this Section under subsection (l) of this Section. For purposes of this subsection (m), the amount paid per kilowatthour includes, without limitation, estimated amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes. For purposes of this Section, "eligible retail customers" shall have the meaning set forth in Section 16-111.5 of this Act. Once the Commission has approved a plan under subsections (f) and (g) of this Section, no subsequent rate impact determinations shall be made.

(Source: P.A. 99-906, eff. 6-1-17; 100-840, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-19-18.)

Section 480. The Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(225 ILCS 37/35)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2029)

Sec. 35. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action with regard to any license issued under this Act as the Department may consider proper, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, for any one or combination of the following causes:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act or its rules.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a certificate of registration.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(7) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public as defined by rules of the Department.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in an environmental health practitioner's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for a discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.

(11) A finding by the Department that the registrant, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(12) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(13) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills that result in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(14) Failure to comply with rules promulgated by the Illinois Department of Public Health or other State agencies related to the practice of environmental health.

(15) (Blank).

(16) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(17) A finding that the license has been applied for or obtained by fraudulent means.

(18) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(19) Gross overcharging for professional services including filing statements for collection of fees or moneys for which services are not rendered.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to (i) file a return, (ii) pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return; or (iii) pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission to a mental health facility as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension may end only upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume practice.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any person licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure or certification pursuant to this Act to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The examining physicians shall be those specifically designated by the Department. The Department may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The person to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any person to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of a license until the person submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, restored, or renewed licensure to practice or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual.

Any person whose license was granted, continued, restored, renewed, disciplined, or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the person shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the subject person's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

A person licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 100-796, eff. 8-10-18; 100-872, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 485. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control;

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a willful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

(49) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed physician assistants resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a physician assistant.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the Licensing Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician:

(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device; or

(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, the prescription of or treatment with long-term antibiotics.

(D) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 99-270, eff. 1-1-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-605, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1137, eff. 1-1-19; revised 12-19-18.)

Section 490. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Section 65-40 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/65-40) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 65-40. Written collaborative agreement; prescriptive authority.

(a) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as any Schedule III through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating physician must have a valid current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration to delegate authority to prescribe delegated controlled substances.

(b) To prescribe controlled substances under this Section, an advanced practice registered nurse must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license. Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician.

(c) The collaborating physician o shall file with the Department and the Prescription Monitoring Program notice of delegation of prescriptive authority and termination of such delegation, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances, the licensed advanced practice registered nurse shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(d) In addition to the requirements of subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, a collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate authority to an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(1) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated.

(2) Any delegation must be controlled substances that the collaborating physician prescribes.

(3) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician.

(4) The advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician.

(5) The advanced practice registered nurse meets the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any medication authority including Schedule II controlled substances of an advanced practice registered nurse for care provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45.

(g) (Blank).

(h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(i) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to an advanced practice registered nurse who meets the requirements of Section 65-43.

(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 495. The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 70/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 3669)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2028)

Sec. 19. Investigation; notice and hearing..

(a) The Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of any person holding or claiming to hold a license under this Act.

(b) The Department shall, before disciplining an applicant or licensee, at least 30 days prior to the date set for the hearing: (i) notify, in writing, the accused of the charges made and the time and place for the hearing on the charges, (ii) direct him or her to file a written answer to the charges under oath within 20 days after service of the notice, and (iii) inform the applicant or licensee that failure to file an answer will result in a default being entered against the applicant or licensee.

(c) Written or electronic notice, and any notice in the subsequent proceeding, may be served by personal delivery, by email, or by mail to the applicant or licensee at his or her address of record or email address of record.

(d) At the time and place fixed in the notice, the Board or hearing officer appointed by the Secretary shall proceed to hear the charges and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded ample opportunity to present any statement, testimony, evidence, and argument as may be pertinent to the charges or to their defense. The Board or hearing officer may continue the hearing from time to time.

(e) In case the person, after receiving the notice, fails to file an answer, his or her license may, in the discretion of the Secretary, having first received the recommendation of the Board, be suspended, revoked, or placed on probationary status, or be subject to whatever disciplinary action the Secretary considers proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for that action under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-675, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 500. The Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act is amended by changing Section 75 as follows:

(225 ILCS 109/75)

Sec. 75. Refusal, revocation, or suspension.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary nondisciplinary action, as the Department considers appropriate, including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or licensee for any one or more of the following:

(1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted under this Act;

(2) discipline by the Department under other state law and rules which the licensee is subject to;

(3) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing for any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(4) professional incompetence;

(5) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading manner;

(6) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising, employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to provide sex offender evaluation or treatment services contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act;

(7) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice;

(8) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(9) practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope permitted by law or accepting and performing professional responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to know that he or she is not competent to perform;

(10) knowingly delegating professional responsibilities to a person unqualified by training, experience, or licensure to perform;

(11) failing to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 60 days;

(12) having a habitual or excessive use of or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(13) having a pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act;

(14) discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section;

(15) a finding by the Department that the licensee, after having his or her license placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;

(16) willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments;

(17) making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in the practice of the profession;

(18) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(19) inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability;

(20) charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered; or

(21) practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective date of the order imposing the fine.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) (Blank).

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging the patient.

(f) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physician shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

A person holding a license under this Act or who has applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as required by the Department shall not be considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or mental illness or impairment.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and subject to action under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 100-872, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 505. The Telehealth Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 150/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Health care professional" includes physicians, physician assistants, dentists, optometrists, advanced practice registered nurses, clinical psychologists licensed in Illinois, dentists, occupational therapists, pharmacists, physical therapists, clinical social workers, speech-language pathologists, audiologists, hearing instrument dispensers, and mental health professionals and clinicians authorized by Illinois law to provide mental health services.

"Telehealth" means the evaluation, diagnosis, or interpretation of electronically transmitted patient-specific data between a remote location and a licensed health care professional that generates interaction or treatment recommendations. "Telehealth" includes telemedicine and the delivery of health care services provided by way of an interactive telecommunications system, as defined in subsection (a) of Section 356z.22 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-317, eff. 1-1-18; 100-644, eff. 1-1-19; 100-930, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 510. The Structural Pest Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3.18, 8, 17, 23, and 25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 235/3.18) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2203.18)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 3.18. "Planned use inspection" means an inspection of a certified or non-certified technician to observe the procedures for preparation, application, and disposal of pesticides to ensure that they are performed in accordance with this Act, the "Illinois Pesticide Act", as amended, the "Environmental Protection Act", as amended, the rules and regulations of the Illinois Pollution Control Board, and other applicable State law.

(Source: P.A. 85-177; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 10-22-18.)

(225 ILCS 235/8) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2208)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 8. Change of certified technician). When the licensee or registrant is without a certified technician, the licensee or registrant shall notify the Director in writing within 7 days and shall employ a technician certified in accordance with Section 5 of this Act no later than 45 days from the time the position of certified technician becomes vacant. All structural pest control operations shall be suspended until such time that the licensee or registrant obtains the services of a certified technician.

(Source: P.A. 84-362; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 10-22-18.)

(225 ILCS 235/17) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2217)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 17. Deposition of witnesses; testimony at hearing recorded). In the event of the inability of any party, or the Department, to procure the attendance of witnesses to give testimony or produce books and papers, such party or the Department may take the deposition of witnesses in accordance with the laws of this State. All testimony taken at a hearing shall be reduced to writing, and all such testimony and other evidence introduced at the hearing shall be a part of the record of the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 82-725; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 10-22-18.)

(225 ILCS 235/23) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2223)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 23. Judicial review of final administrative decision). The Administrative Review Law, as amended, and the rules adopted under the Administrative Review Law, apply to and govern all proceedings for judicial review of final administrative decisions of the Department under this Act. Such judicial review shall be had in the circuit court of the county in which the cause of action arose. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 82-783; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 10-22-18.)

(225 ILCS 235/25) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2225)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2029)

Sec. 25. The provisions of the "The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act", approved September 22, 1975, are hereby expressly adopted and shall apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the Department of Public Health under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 82-725; reenacted by P.A. 95-786, eff. 8-7-08; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 515. The Registered Interior Designers Act is amended by changing Sections 8 and 13 as follows:

(225 ILCS 310/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 8208)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 8. Requirements for registration.

(a) Each applicant for registration shall apply to the Department in writing on a form provided by the Department. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, each applicant shall take and pass the examination approved by the Department. Prior to registration, the applicant shall provide substantial evidence to the Board that the applicant:

(1) is a graduate of a 5-year interior design program from an accredited institution and has completed at least 2 years of full-time diversified interior design experience;

(2) is a graduate of a 4-year interior design program from an accredited institution and has completed at least 2 years of full-time diversified interior design experience;

(3) has completed at least 3 years of interior design curriculum from an accredited institution and has completed 3 years of full-time diversified interior design experience; or

(4) is a graduate of a 2-year interior design program from an accredited institution and has completed 4 years of full-time diversified interior design experience. ; or

(5) (blank).

(b) In addition to providing evidence of meeting the requirements of subsection (a), each applicant for registration as a registered interior designer shall provide substantial evidence that he or she has successfully completed the examination administered by the National Council for Interior Design Qualifications.

Examinations for applicants under this Act may be held at the direction of the Department from time to time but not less than once each year. The scope and form of the examination shall conform to the National Council for Interior Design Qualification examination for interior designers.

(b-5) Each applicant for registration shall pay to the Department the required registration fee, which is not refundable, at the time of filing his or her application.

(c) An individual may apply for original registration prior to passing the examination. He or she shall have 2 years after the date of filing an application to pass the examination. If evidence and documentation of passing the examination are is received by the Department later than 2 years after the individual's filing, the application shall be denied and the fee forfeited. The applicant may reapply at any time, but shall meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.

(d) Upon payment of the required fee, which shall be determined by rule, an applicant who is an architect licensed under the laws of this State may, without examination, be granted registration as a registered interior designer by the Department provided the applicant submits proof of an active architectural license in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 100-920, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(225 ILCS 310/13) (from Ch. 111, par. 8213)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 13. Refusal, revocation or suspension of registration. The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including fines not to exceed $5,000 for each violation, with regard to any registration for any one or combination of the following causes:

(a) Fraud in procuring the certificate of registration.

(b) Habitual intoxication or addiction to the use of drugs.

(c) Making any misrepresentations or false promises, directly or indirectly, to influence, persuade, or induce patronage.

(d) Professional connection or association with, or lending his or her name, to another for illegal use of the title "registered interior designer", or professional connection or association with any person, firm, or corporation holding itself out in any manner contrary to this Act.

(e) Obtaining or seeking to obtain checks, money, or any other items of value by false or fraudulent representations.

(f) Use of the title under a name other than his or her own.

(g) Improper, unprofessional, or dishonorable conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(h) Conviction in this or another state, or federal court, of any crime which is a felony, if the Department determines, after investigation, that such person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust.

(i) A violation of any provision of this Act or its rules.

(j) Revocation by another state, the District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation of an interior design or residential interior design license, certification, or registration if at least one of the grounds for that revocation is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for revocation set forth in this Act.

(k) Mental incompetence as declared by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(l) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the registrant has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(m) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(n) Failure to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department within 30 days after receipt of the written request.

(o) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the inability to practice interior design with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the registration of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest showing in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

The entry of a decree by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a certificate of registration under this Act is a person subject to involuntary admission under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall operate as a suspension of that registration. That person may resume using the title "registered interior designer" only upon a finding by the Board that he or she has been determined to be no longer subject to involuntary admission by the court and upon the Board's recommendation to the Director that he or she be permitted to resume using the title "registered interior designer".

(Source: P.A. 100-872, eff. 8-14-18; 100-920, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 520. The Collateral Recovery Act is amended by changing Section 85 as follows:

(225 ILCS 422/85)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 85. Consideration of past crimes.

(a) The Commission shall not require the license or permit holder or applicant to report the following information and shall not consider the following criminal history records in connection with an application for a license or permit under this Act:

(1) Juvenile adjudications of delinquent minors as defined in Section 5-105 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, subject to the restrictions set forth in Section 5-130 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(2) Law enforcement records, court records, and conviction records of an individual who was 18 years old or younger at the time of the conviction for the offense and before January 1, 2014, unless the nature of the offense required the individual to be tried as an adult.

(3) Records of arrest not followed by a conviction.

(4) Convictions overturned by a higher court.

(5) Convictions or arrests that have been sealed or expunged.

(b) When considering the denial of a license or recovery permit on the grounds of conviction of a crime, the Commission, in evaluating whether the conviction will impair the license or permit holder's or applicant's ability to engage in the position for which a license or permit is sought and the license or permit holder's or applicant's present eligibility for a license or recovery permit, shall consider each of the following criteria:

(1) The lack of direct relation of the offense for which the license or permit holder or applicant was previously convicted to the duties, functions, and responsibilities of the position for which a license or permit is sought.

(2) Circumstances relative to the offense, including the license or permit holder's or applicant's age at the time that the offense was committed.

(3) Evidence of any act committed subsequent to the act or crime under consideration as grounds for denial, which also could be considered as grounds for disciplinary action under this Act.

(4) Whether 5 years since a conviction or 3 years since successful completion of the imposed sentence for the conviction, whichever is later, have passed without a subsequent conviction.

(5) Successful completion of sentence or for license or permit holders or applicants serving a term of parole or probation, a progress report provided by the license or permit holder's or applicant's probation or parole officer that documents the license or permit holder's or applicant's compliance with conditions of supervision.

(6) If the license or permit holder or applicant was previously licensed or employed in this State or other states or jurisdictions, then the lack of prior misconduct arising from or related to the licensed position or position of employment.

(7) Evidence of rehabilitation or rehabilitative effort during or after incarceration, or during or after a term of supervision, including, but not limited to, a certificate of good conduct under Section 5-5.5-25 of the Unified Code of Corrections or a certificate of relief from disabilities under Section 5-5.5-10 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(8) Any other mitigating factors that contribute to the license or permit holder's or applicant's potential and current ability to perform the duties and responsibilities of practices licensed or registered under this Act.

(c) When considering the suspension or revocation of a license or recovery permit on the grounds of conviction of a crime, the Commission, in evaluating the rehabilitation of the license or permit holder, whether the conviction will impair the license or permit holder's ability to engage in the position for which a license or permit is sought, and the license or permit holder's present eligibility for a license or recovery permit, shall consider each of the following criteria:

(1) The nature and severity of the act or offense.

(2) The license holder's or recovery permit holder's criminal record in its entirety.

(3) The amount of time that has elapsed lapsed since the commission of the act or offense.

(4) Whether the license holder or recovery permit holder has complied with any terms of parole, probation, restitution, or any other sanctions lawfully imposed against him or her.

(5) If applicable, evidence of expungement proceedings.

(6) Evidence, if any, of rehabilitation submitted by the license holder or recovery permit holder.

(d) If the Commission refuses to issue or renew a license or permit, or suspends, revokes, places on probation, or takes any disciplinary action that the Commission may deem proper against a license or permit, then the Commission shall notify the license or permit holder or applicant of the decision in writing with the following included in the notice of decision:

(1) a statement about the decision;

(2) a list of the convictions that the Commission determined will impair the license or permit holder's or applicant's ability to engage in the position for which a license or permit is sought;

(3) a list of convictions that formed the sole or partial basis for the decision; and

(4) a summary of the appeal process or the earliest reapplication for a license or permit is permissible, whichever is applicable.

(e) No later than May 1 of each year, the Commission must prepare, publicly announce, and publish a report of summary statistical information relating to new and renewal license or permit applications during the preceding calendar year. Each report shall show, at a minimum:

(1) the number of applicants for a new or renewal license or permit under this Act within the previous calendar year;

(2) the number of applicants for a new or renewal license or permit under this Act within the previous calendar year who had a criminal conviction identified in paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 80;

(3) the number of applicants for a new or renewal license or permit under this Act in the previous calendar year who were granted a license or permit;

(4) the number of applicants for a new or renewal license or permit with a criminal conviction identified in paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 80 who were granted a license or permit under this Act within the previous calendar year;

(5) the number of applicants for a new or renewal license or permit under this Act within the previous calendar year who were denied a license or permit;

(6) the number of applicants for a new or renewal license or permit with a criminal conviction identified in paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 80 who were denied a license or permit under this Act in the previous calendar year in whole or in part because of the prior conviction;

(7) the number of licenses or permits issued with a condition of probation without monitoring imposed by the Commission under this Act in the previous calendar year to applicants with a criminal conviction identified in paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 80; and

(8) the number of licenses or permits issued with a condition of probation with monitoring imposed by the Commission under this Act in the previous calendar year to applicants with a criminal conviction identified in paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 80.

(Source: P.A. 100-286, eff. 1-1-18; 100-948, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 525. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Section 20-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/20-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 20-20. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, may place on probation, suspend, or revoke any license, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not to exceed $25,000 upon any licensee or applicant under this Act or any person who holds himself or herself out as an applicant or licensee or against a licensee in handling his or her own property, whether held by deed, option, or otherwise, for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(2) The conviction of or plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere to a felony or misdemeanor in this State or any other jurisdiction; or the entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction. Action taken under this paragraph (2) for a misdemeanor or an administrative sanction is limited to a misdemeanor or administrative sanction that has as an essential element dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses or by means of a confidence game.

(3) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(4) Practice under this Act as a licensee in a retail sales establishment from an office, desk, or space that is not separated from the main retail business by a separate and distinct area within the establishment.

(5) Having been disciplined by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified copy of the record of the action by the other state or jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

(6) Engaging in the practice of real estate brokerage without a license or after the licensee's license or temporary permit was expired or while the license was inoperative.

(7) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam.

(8) Aiding or abetting an applicant to subvert or cheat on the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam administered pursuant to this Act.

(9) Advertising that is inaccurate, misleading, or contrary to the provisions of the Act.

(10) Making any substantial misrepresentation or untruthful advertising.

(11) Making any false promises of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce.

(12) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or the making of false promises through licensees, employees, agents, advertising, or otherwise.

(13) Any misleading or untruthful advertising, or using any trade name or insignia of membership in any real estate organization of which the licensee is not a member.

(14) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without providing written notice to all parties for whom the licensee acts.

(15) Representing or attempting to represent a broker other than the sponsoring broker.

(16) Failure to account for or to remit any moneys or documents coming into his or her possession that belong to others.

(17) Failure to maintain and deposit in a special account, separate and apart from personal and other business accounts, all escrow moneys belonging to others entrusted to a licensee while acting as a broker, escrow agent, or temporary custodian of the funds of others or failure to maintain all escrow moneys on deposit in the account until the transactions are consummated or terminated, except to the extent that the moneys, or any part thereof, shall be:

(A) disbursed prior to the consummation or termination (i) in accordance with the written direction of the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, (ii) in accordance with directions providing for the release, payment, or distribution of escrow moneys contained in any written contract signed by the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, or (iii) pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(B) deemed abandoned and transferred to the Office of the State Treasurer to be handled as unclaimed property pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. Escrow moneys may be deemed abandoned under this subparagraph (B) only: (i) in the absence of disbursement under subparagraph (A); (ii) in the absence of notice of the filing of any claim in a court of competent jurisdiction; and (iii) if 6 months have elapsed after the receipt of a written demand for the escrow moneys from one of the principals to the transaction or the principal's duly authorized agent.

The account shall be noninterest bearing, unless the character of the deposit is such that payment of interest thereon is otherwise required by law or unless the principals to the transaction specifically require, in writing, that the deposit be placed in an interest bearing account.

(18) Failure to make available to the Department all escrow records and related documents maintained in connection with the practice of real estate within 24 hours of a request for those documents by Department personnel.

(19) Failing to furnish copies upon request of documents relating to a real estate transaction to a party who has executed that document.

(20) Failure of a sponsoring broker to timely provide information, sponsor cards, or termination of licenses to the Department.

(21) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(22) Commingling the money or property of others with his or her own money or property.

(23) Employing any person on a purely temporary or single deal basis as a means of evading the law regarding payment of commission to nonlicensees on some contemplated transactions.

(24) Permitting the use of his or her license as a broker to enable a leasing agent or unlicensed person to operate a real estate business without actual participation therein and control thereof by the broker.

(25) Any other conduct, whether of the same or a different character from that specified in this Section, that constitutes dishonest dealing.

(26) Displaying a "for rent" or "for sale" sign on any property without the written consent of an owner or his or her duly authorized agent or advertising by any means that any property is for sale or for rent without the written consent of the owner or his or her authorized agent.

(27) Failing to provide information requested by the Department, or otherwise respond to that request, within 30 days of the request.

(28) Advertising by means of a blind advertisement, except as otherwise permitted in Section 10-30 of this Act.

(29) Offering guaranteed sales plans, as defined in clause (A) of this subdivision (29), except to the extent hereinafter set forth:

(A) A "guaranteed sales plan" is any real estate purchase or sales plan whereby a licensee enters into a conditional or unconditional written contract with a seller, prior to entering into a brokerage agreement with the seller, by the terms of which a licensee agrees to purchase a property of the seller within a specified period of time at a specific price in the event the property is not sold in accordance with the terms of a brokerage agreement to be entered into between the sponsoring broker and the seller.

(B) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide the details and conditions of the plan in writing to the party to whom the plan is offered.

(C) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide to the party to whom the plan is offered evidence of sufficient financial resources to satisfy the commitment to purchase undertaken by the broker in the plan.

(D) Any licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall undertake to market the property of the seller subject to the plan in the same manner in which the broker would market any other property, unless the agreement with the seller provides otherwise.

(E) The licensee cannot purchase seller's property until the brokerage agreement has ended according to its terms or is otherwise terminated.

(F) Any licensee who fails to perform on a guaranteed sales plan in strict accordance with its terms shall be subject to all the penalties provided in this Act for violations thereof and, in addition, shall be subject to a civil fine payable to the party injured by the default in an amount of up to $25,000.

(30) Influencing or attempting to influence, by any words or acts, a prospective seller, purchaser, occupant, landlord, or tenant of real estate, in connection with viewing, buying, or leasing real estate, so as to promote or tend to promote the continuance or maintenance of racially and religiously segregated housing or so as to retard, obstruct, or discourage racially integrated housing on or in any street, block, neighborhood, or community.

(31) Engaging in any act that constitutes a violation of any provision of Article 3 of the Illinois Human Rights Act, whether or not a complaint has been filed with or adjudicated by the Human Rights Commission.

(32) Inducing any party to a contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement to break the contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement for the purpose of substituting, in lieu thereof, a new contract for sale or lease or brokerage agreement with a third party.

(33) Negotiating a sale, exchange, or lease of real estate directly with any person if the licensee knows that the person has an exclusive brokerage agreement with another broker, unless specifically authorized by that broker.

(34) When a licensee is also an attorney, acting as the attorney for either the buyer or the seller in the same transaction in which the licensee is acting or has acted as a managing broker or broker.

(35) Advertising or offering merchandise or services as free if any conditions or obligations necessary for receiving the merchandise or services are not disclosed in the same advertisement or offer. These conditions or obligations include without limitation the requirement that the recipient attend a promotional activity or visit a real estate site. As used in this subdivision (35), "free" includes terms such as "award", "prize", "no charge", "free of charge", "without charge", and similar words or phrases that reasonably lead a person to believe that he or she may receive or has been selected to receive something of value, without any conditions or obligations on the part of the recipient.

(36) (Blank).

(37) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued by the Department.

(38) Paying or failing to disclose compensation in violation of Article 10 of this Act.

(39) Requiring a party to a transaction who is not a client of the licensee to allow the licensee to retain a portion of the escrow moneys for payment of the licensee's commission or expenses as a condition for release of the escrow moneys to that party.

(40) Disregarding or violating any provision of this Act or the published rules adopted by the Department to enforce this Act or aiding or abetting any individual, foreign or domestic partnership, registered limited liability partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or other business entity in disregarding any provision of this Act or the published rules adopted by the Department to enforce this Act.

(41) Failing to provide the minimum services required by Section 15-75 of this Act when acting under an exclusive brokerage agreement.

(42) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a managing broker, broker, or leasing agent's inability to practice with reasonable skill or safety.

(43) Enabling, aiding, or abetting an auctioneer, as defined in the Auction License Act, to conduct a real estate auction in a manner that is in violation of this Act.

(44) Permitting any leasing agent or temporary leasing agent permit holder to engage in activities that require a broker's or managing broker's license.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) (Blank).

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-188, eff. 1-1-18; 100-534, eff. 9-22-17; 100-831, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-872, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 530. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 is amended by changing Sections 5-20 and 5-25 as follows:

(225 ILCS 458/5-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 5-20. Application for associate real estate trainee appraiser. Every person who desires to obtain an associate real estate trainee appraiser license shall:

(1) apply to the Department on forms provided by the Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the Secretary, accompanied by the required fee;

(2) be at least 18 years of age;

(3) provide evidence of having attained a high school diploma or completed an equivalent course of study as determined by an examination conducted or accepted by the Illinois State Board of Education;

(4) (blank); and

(5) provide evidence to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the Secretary, that he or she has successfully completed the prerequisite qualifying and any conditional education requirements as established by rule.

(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; 100-832, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

(225 ILCS 458/5-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 5-25. Renewal of license.

(a) The expiration date and renewal period for a State certified general real estate appraiser license or a State certified residential real estate appraiser license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b) and (f) of this Section, the holder of a license may renew the license within 90 days preceding the expiration date by:

(1) completing and submitting to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the Secretary, a renewal application form as provided by the Department;

(2) paying the required fees; and

(3) providing evidence to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the Secretary, of successful completion of the continuing education requirements through courses approved by the Department from education providers licensed by the Department, as established by the AQB and by rule.

(b) A State certified general real estate appraiser or State certified residential real estate appraiser whose license under this Act has expired may renew the license for a period of 2 years following the expiration date by complying with the requirements of paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subsection (a) of this Section and paying any late penalties established by rule.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The expiration date and renewal period for an associate real estate trainee appraiser license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (e) and (f) of this Section, the holder of an associate real estate appraiser license may renew the license within 90 days preceding the expiration date by:

(1) completing and submitting to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the Secretary, a renewal application form as provided by the Department;

(2) paying the required fees; and

(3) providing evidence to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the Secretary, of successful completion of the continuing education requirements through courses approved by the Department from education providers approved by the Department, as established by rule.

(e) Any associate real estate appraiser trainee whose license under this Act has expired may renew the license for a period of 2 years following the expiration date by complying with the requirements of paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subsection (d) of this Section and paying any late penalties as established by rule.

(f) Notwithstanding subsections (c) and (e), an appraiser whose license under this Act has expired may renew or convert the license without paying any lapsed renewal fees or late penalties if the license expired while the appraiser was:

(1) on active duty with the United States Armed Services;

(2) serving as the Coordinator of Real Estate Appraisal or an employee of the Department who was required to surrender his or her license during the term of employment.

Application for renewal must be made within 2 years following the termination of the military service or related education, training, or employment. The licensee shall furnish the Department with an affidavit that he or she was so engaged.

(g) The Department shall provide reasonable care and due diligence to ensure that each licensee under this Act is provided with a renewal application at least 90 days prior to the expiration date, but each licensee is responsible to timely renew or convert his or her license prior to its expiration date.

(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; 100-832, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 535. The Appraisal Management Company Registration Act is amended by changing Section 65 as follows:

(225 ILCS 459/65)

Sec. 65. Disciplinary actions.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed $25,000 for each violation, with regard to any registration for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted under this Act.

(3) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof or that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining registration or violating any provision of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act pertaining to advertising.

(5) Professional incompetence.

(6) Gross malpractice.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.

(8) Failing, within 30 days after requested, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(10) Discipline by another state, District of Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding by the Department that the registrant, after having his or her registration placed on probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.

(12) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.

(13) Filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(14) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(15) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a registration under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a registration under this Act.

(16) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding for violation of a state or federal fair housing law.

(17) Failure to obtain or maintain the bond required under Section 50 of this Act.

(18) Failure to pay appraiser panel fees or appraisal management company national registry fees.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing as provided for in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois the registration of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(c) An appraisal management company shall not be registered or included on the national registry if the company, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by a person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, canceled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked under the Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002 or the rules adopted under that Act, or similar discipline by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, a governmental agency, or an entity authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined as set forth under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 540. The Animal Welfare Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(225 ILCS 605/2) (from Ch. 8, par. 302)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act unless the context otherwise requires:

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Agriculture.

"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Agriculture.

"Pet shop operator" means any person who sells, offers to sell, exchange, or offers for adoption with or without charge or donation dogs, cats, birds, fish, reptiles, or other animals customarily obtained as pets in this State. However, a person who sells only such animals that he has produced and raised shall not be considered a pet shop operator under this Act, and a veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 shall not be considered a pet shop operator under this Act.

"Dog dealer" means any person who sells, offers to sell, exchange, or offers for adoption with or without charge or donation dogs in this State. However, a person who sells only dogs that he has produced and raised shall not be considered a dog dealer under this Act, and a veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 shall not be considered a dog dealer under this Act.

"Secretary of Agriculture" or "Secretary" means the Secretary of Agriculture of the United States Department of Agriculture.

"Person" means any person, firm, corporation, partnership, association or other legal entity, any public or private institution, the State of Illinois, or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of the State.

"Kennel operator" means any person who operates an establishment, other than an animal control facility, veterinary hospital, or animal shelter, where dogs or dogs and cats are maintained for boarding, training or similar purposes for a fee or compensation.

"Boarding" means a time frame greater than 12 hours or an overnight period during which an animal is kept by a kennel operator.

"Cat breeder" means a person who sells, offers to sell, exchanges, or offers for adoption with or without charge cats that he or she has produced and raised. A person who owns, has possession of, or harbors 5 or less females capable of reproduction shall not be considered a cat breeder.

"Dog breeder" means a person who sells, offers to sell, exchanges, or offers for adoption with or without charge dogs that he has produced and raised. A person who owns, has possession of, or harbors 5 or less females capable of reproduction shall not be considered a dog breeder.

"Animal control facility" means any facility operated by or under contract for the State, county, or any municipal corporation or political subdivision of the State for the purpose of impounding or harboring seized, stray, homeless, abandoned or unwanted dogs, cats, and other animals. "Animal control facility" also means any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 which operates for the above mentioned purpose in addition to its customary purposes.

"Animal shelter" means a facility operated, owned, or maintained by a duly incorporated humane society, animal welfare society, or other non-profit organization for the purpose of providing for and promoting the welfare, protection, and humane treatment of animals. "Animal shelter" also means any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 which operates for the above mentioned purpose in addition to its customary purposes.

"Day care operator" means a person who operates an establishment, other than an animal control facility, veterinary hospital, or animal shelter, where dogs or dogs and cats are kept for a period of time not exceeding 12 hours.

"Foster home" means an entity that accepts the responsibility for stewardship of animals that are the obligation of an animal shelter or animal control facility, not to exceed 4 animals at any given time. Permits to operate as a "foster home" shall be issued through the animal shelter or animal control facility.

"Guard dog service" means an entity that, for a fee, furnishes or leases guard or sentry dogs for the protection of life or property. A person is not a guard dog service solely because he or she owns a dog and uses it to guard his or her home, business, or farmland.

"Guard dog" means a type of dog used primarily for the purpose of defending, patrolling, or protecting property or life at a commercial establishment other than a farm. "Guard dog" does not include stock dogs used primarily for handling and controlling livestock or farm animals, nor does it include personally owned pets that also provide security.

"Sentry dog" means a dog trained to work without supervision in a fenced facility other than a farm, and to deter or detain unauthorized persons found within the facility.

"Probationary status" means the 12-month period following a series of violations of this Act during which any further violation shall result in an automatic 12-month suspension of licensure.

"Owner" means any person having a right of property in an animal, who keeps or harbors an animal, who has an animal in his or her care or acts as its custodian, or who knowingly permits a dog to remain on any premises occupied by him or her. "Owner" does not include a feral cat caretaker participating in a trap, spay/neuter, return or release program.

(Source: P.A. 99-310, eff. 1-1-16; 100-842, eff. 1-1-19; 100-870, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 545. The Surface Coal Mining Land Conservation and Reclamation Act is amended by changing Section 1.06 as follows:

(225 ILCS 720/1.06) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7901.06)

Sec. 1.06. Scope of the Act. This Act shall apply to all mining operations, except:

(a) the private non-commercial extraction of coal by a landowner or lessee where 250 tons or less of coal are removed in any 12 consecutive months;

(b) the extraction of coal incidental to the extraction of other minerals where the coal does not exceed 16 2/3% of the total mineral tonnage mined;

(c) coal exploration on federal lands;

(d) the extraction of coal on federal lands except to the extent provided under a cooperative agreement with the United States in accordance with Section 9.03; and

(e) the extraction of coal as an incidental part of a federal, State, or local government-financed highway or other construction under rules adopted by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 100-936, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 550. The Forest Products Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 2.02 as follows:

(225 ILCS 740/2.02) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 6904)

Sec. 2.02. "Tree" or "trees" means any tree, standing or felled, living or dead, and includes both those trees included within the definition of "timber" in Section 2 of the "Timber Buyers Licensing Act" and Christmas trees. The term does not apply to trees or parts of trees that have been cut into firewood.

(Source: P.A. 77-2801; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 555. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Sections 26 and 26.7 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/26) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-26)

Sec. 26. Wagering.

(a) Any licensee may conduct and supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering, as defined in Section 3.12 of this Act, on horse races conducted by an Illinois organization licensee or conducted at a racetrack located in another state or country and televised in Illinois in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 26 of this Act. Subject to the prior consent of the Board, licensees may supplement any pari-mutuel pool in order to guarantee a minimum distribution. Such pari-mutuel method of wagering shall not, under any circumstances if conducted under the provisions of this Act, be held or construed to be unlawful, other statutes of this State to the contrary notwithstanding. Subject to rules for advance wagering promulgated by the Board, any licensee may accept wagers in advance of the day of the race wagered upon occurs.

(b) No other method of betting, pool making, wagering or gambling shall be used or permitted by the licensee. Each licensee may retain, subject to the payment of all applicable taxes and purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered under subsection (a) of this Section, except as may otherwise be permitted under this Act.

(b-5) An individual may place a wager under the pari-mutuel system from any licensed location authorized under this Act provided that wager is electronically recorded in the manner described in Section 3.12 of this Act. Any wager made electronically by an individual while physically on the premises of a licensee shall be deemed to have been made at the premises of that licensee.

(c) Until January 1, 2000, the sum held by any licensee for payment of outstanding pari-mutuel tickets, if unclaimed prior to December 31 of the next year, shall be retained by the licensee for payment of such tickets until that date. Within 10 days thereafter, the balance of such sum remaining unclaimed, less any uncashed supplements contributed by such licensee for the purpose of guaranteeing minimum distributions of any pari-mutuel pool, shall be paid to the Illinois Veterans' Rehabilitation Fund of the State treasury, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act.

(c-5) Beginning January 1, 2000, the sum held by any licensee for payment of outstanding pari-mutuel tickets, if unclaimed prior to December 31 of the next year, shall be retained by the licensee for payment of such tickets until that date. Within 10 days thereafter, the balance of such sum remaining unclaimed, less any uncashed supplements contributed by such licensee for the purpose of guaranteeing minimum distributions of any pari-mutuel pool, shall be evenly distributed to the purse account of the organization licensee and the organization licensee.

(d) A pari-mutuel ticket shall be honored until December 31 of the next calendar year, and the licensee shall pay the same and may charge the amount thereof against unpaid money similarly accumulated on account of pari-mutuel tickets not presented for payment.

(e) No licensee shall knowingly permit any minor, other than an employee of such licensee or an owner, trainer, jockey, driver, or employee thereof, to be admitted during a racing program unless accompanied by a parent or guardian, or any minor to be a patron of the pari-mutuel system of wagering conducted or supervised by it. The admission of any unaccompanied minor, other than an employee of the licensee or an owner, trainer, jockey, driver, or employee thereof at a race track is a Class C misdemeanor.

(f) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, an organization licensee may contract with an entity in another state or country to permit any legal wagering entity in another state or country to accept wagers solely within such other state or country on races conducted by the organization licensee in this State. Beginning January 1, 2000, these wagers shall not be subject to State taxation. Until January 1, 2000, when the out-of-State entity conducts a pari-mutuel pool separate from the organization licensee, a privilege tax equal to 7 1/2% of all monies received by the organization licensee from entities in other states or countries pursuant to such contracts is imposed on the organization licensee, and such privilege tax shall be remitted to the Department of Revenue within 48 hours of receipt of the moneys from the simulcast. When the out-of-State entity conducts a combined pari-mutuel pool with the organization licensee, the tax shall be 10% of all monies received by the organization licensee with 25% of the receipts from this 10% tax to be distributed to the county in which the race was conducted.

An organization licensee may permit one or more of its races to be utilized for pari-mutuel wagering at one or more locations in other states and may transmit audio and visual signals of races the organization licensee conducts to one or more locations outside the State or country and may also permit pari-mutuel pools in other states or countries to be combined with its gross or net wagering pools or with wagering pools established by other states.

(g) A host track may accept interstate simulcast wagers on horse races conducted in other states or countries and shall control the number of signals and types of breeds of racing in its simulcast program, subject to the disapproval of the Board. The Board may prohibit a simulcast program only if it finds that the simulcast program is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. The host track simulcast program shall include the signal of live racing of all organization licensees. All non-host licensees and advance deposit wagering licensees shall carry the signal of and accept wagers on live racing of all organization licensees. Advance deposit wagering licensees shall not be permitted to accept out-of-state wagers on any Illinois signal provided pursuant to this Section without the approval and consent of the organization licensee providing the signal. For one year after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-968), non-host licensees may carry the host track simulcast program and shall accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program of horse races conducted at race tracks located within North America upon which wagering is permitted. For a period of one year after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-968), on horse races conducted at race tracks located outside of North America, non-host licensees may accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program upon which wagering is permitted. Beginning August 15, 2015 (one year after the effective date of Public Act 98-968), non-host licensees may carry the host track simulcast program and shall accept wagers on all races included as part of the simulcast program upon which wagering is permitted. All organization licensees shall provide their live signal to all advance deposit wagering licensees for a simulcast commission fee not to exceed 6% of the advance deposit wagering licensee's Illinois handle on the organization licensee's signal without prior approval by the Board. The Board may adopt rules under which it may permit simulcast commission fees in excess of 6%. The Board shall adopt rules limiting the interstate commission fees charged to an advance deposit wagering licensee. The Board shall adopt rules regarding advance deposit wagering on interstate simulcast races that shall reflect, among other things, the General Assembly's desire to maximize revenues to the State, horsemen purses, and organizational licensees. However, organization licensees providing live signals pursuant to the requirements of this subsection (g) may petition the Board to withhold their live signals from an advance deposit wagering licensee if the organization licensee discovers and the Board finds reputable or credible information that the advance deposit wagering licensee is under investigation by another state or federal governmental agency, the advance deposit wagering licensee's license has been suspended in another state, or the advance deposit wagering licensee's license is in revocation proceedings in another state. The organization licensee's provision of their live signal to an advance deposit wagering licensee under this subsection (g) pertains to wagers placed from within Illinois. Advance deposit wagering licensees may place advance deposit wagering terminals at wagering facilities as a convenience to customers. The advance deposit wagering licensee shall not charge or collect any fee from purses for the placement of the advance deposit wagering terminals. The costs and expenses of the host track and non-host licensees associated with interstate simulcast wagering, other than the interstate commission fee, shall be borne by the host track and all non-host licensees incurring these costs. The interstate commission fee shall not exceed 5% of Illinois handle on the interstate simulcast race or races without prior approval of the Board. The Board shall promulgate rules under which it may permit interstate commission fees in excess of 5%. The interstate commission fee and other fees charged by the sending racetrack, including, but not limited to, satellite decoder fees, shall be uniformly applied to the host track and all non-host licensees.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, through December 31, 2020, an organization licensee, with the consent of the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting, may maintain a system whereby advance deposit wagering may take place or an organization licensee, with the consent of the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting, may contract with another person to carry out a system of advance deposit wagering. Such consent may not be unreasonably withheld. Only with respect to an appeal to the Board that consent for an organization licensee that maintains its own advance deposit wagering system is being unreasonably withheld, the Board shall issue a final order within 30 days after initiation of the appeal, and the organization licensee's advance deposit wagering system may remain operational during that 30-day period. The actions of any organization licensee who conducts advance deposit wagering or any person who has a contract with an organization licensee to conduct advance deposit wagering who conducts advance deposit wagering on or after January 1, 2013 and prior to June 7, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-18) taken in reliance on the changes made to this subsection (g) by Public Act 98-18 are hereby validated, provided payment of all applicable pari-mutuel taxes are remitted to the Board. All advance deposit wagers placed from within Illinois must be placed through a Board-approved advance deposit wagering licensee; no other entity may accept an advance deposit wager from a person within Illinois. All advance deposit wagering is subject to any rules adopted by the Board. The Board may adopt rules necessary to regulate advance deposit wagering through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to regulate advance deposit wagering is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare. An advance deposit wagering licensee may retain all moneys as agreed to by contract with an organization licensee. Any moneys retained by the organization licensee from advance deposit wagering, not including moneys retained by the advance deposit wagering licensee, shall be paid 50% to the organization licensee's purse account and 50% to the organization licensee. With the exception of any organization licensee that is owned by a publicly traded company that is incorporated in a state other than Illinois and advance deposit wagering licensees under contract with such organization licensees, organization licensees that maintain advance deposit wagering systems and advance deposit wagering licensees that contract with organization licensees shall provide sufficiently detailed monthly accountings to the horsemen association representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting so that the horsemen association, as an interested party, can confirm the accuracy of the amounts paid to the purse account at the horsemen association's affiliated organization licensee from advance deposit wagering. If more than one breed races at the same race track facility, then the 50% of the moneys to be paid to an organization licensee's purse account shall be allocated among all organization licensees' purse accounts operating at that race track facility proportionately based on the actual number of host days that the Board grants to that breed at that race track facility in the current calendar year. To the extent any fees from advance deposit wagering conducted in Illinois for wagers in Illinois or other states have been placed in escrow or otherwise withheld from wagers pending a determination of the legality of advance deposit wagering, no action shall be brought to declare such wagers or the disbursement of any fees previously escrowed illegal.

(1) Between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. an inter-track wagering licensee other than the host track may supplement the host track simulcast program with additional simulcast races or race programs, provided that between January 1 and the third Friday in February of any year, inclusive, if no live thoroughbred racing is occurring in Illinois during this period, only thoroughbred races may be used for supplemental interstate simulcast purposes. The Board shall withhold approval for a supplemental interstate simulcast only if it finds that the simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. A supplemental interstate simulcast may be transmitted from an inter-track wagering licensee to its affiliated non-host licensees. The interstate commission fee for a supplemental interstate simulcast shall be paid by the non-host licensee and its affiliated non-host licensees receiving the simulcast.

(2) Between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. an inter-track wagering licensee other than the host track may receive supplemental interstate simulcasts only with the consent of the host track, except when the Board finds that the simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing. Consent granted under this paragraph (2) to any inter-track wagering licensee shall be deemed consent to all non-host licensees. The interstate commission fee for the supplemental interstate simulcast shall be paid by all participating non-host licensees.

(3) Each licensee conducting interstate simulcast wagering may retain, subject to the payment of all applicable taxes and the purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered. If any licensee conducts the pari-mutuel system wagering on races conducted at racetracks in another state or country, each such race or race program shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege tax of that daily handle as provided in subsection (a) of Section 27. Until January 1, 2000, from the sums permitted to be retained pursuant to this subsection, each inter-track wagering location licensee shall pay 1% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered on simulcast wagering to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund, subject to the provisions of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (11) of subsection (h) of Section 26 of this Act.

(4) A licensee who receives an interstate simulcast may combine its gross or net pools with pools at the sending racetracks pursuant to rules established by the Board. All licensees combining their gross pools at a sending racetrack shall adopt the takeout take-out percentages of the sending racetrack. A licensee may also establish a separate pool and takeout structure for wagering purposes on races conducted at race tracks outside of the State of Illinois. The licensee may permit pari-mutuel wagers placed in other states or countries to be combined with its gross or net wagering pools or other wagering pools.

(5) After the payment of the interstate commission fee (except for the interstate commission fee on a supplemental interstate simulcast, which shall be paid by the host track and by each non-host licensee through the host track host-track) and all applicable State and local taxes, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, the remainder of moneys retained from simulcast wagering pursuant to this subsection (g), and Section 26.2 shall be divided as follows:

(A) For interstate simulcast wagers made at a host track, 50% to the host track and 50% to purses at the host track.

(B) For wagers placed on interstate simulcast races, supplemental simulcasts as defined in subparagraphs (1) and (2), and separately pooled races conducted outside of the State of Illinois made at a non-host licensee, 25% to the host track, 25% to the non-host licensee, and 50% to the purses at the host track.

(6) Notwithstanding any provision in this Act to the contrary, non-host licensees who derive their licenses from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River may receive supplemental interstate simulcast races at all times subject to Board approval, which shall be withheld only upon a finding that a supplemental interstate simulcast is clearly adverse to the integrity of racing.

(7) Effective January 1, 2017, notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, after payment of all applicable State and local taxes and interstate commission fees, non-host licensees who derive their licenses from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall retain 50% of the retention from interstate simulcast wagers and shall pay 50% to purses at the track from which the non-host licensee derives its license.

(7.1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, if no standardbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County during any calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2002, all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m. during that calendar year shall be paid as follows:

(A) If the licensee that conducts horse racing at that racetrack requests from the Board at least as many racing dates as were conducted in calendar year 2000, 80% shall be paid to its thoroughbred purse account; and

(B) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund and shall be paid to purses for standardbred races for Illinois conceived and foaled horses conducted at any county fairgrounds. The moneys deposited into the Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited within 2 weeks after the day they were generated, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to standardbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with other moneys paid into that Fund. The moneys deposited pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be allocated as provided by the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board.

(7.2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, if no thoroughbred racing is conducted at a racetrack located in Madison County during any calendar year beginning on or after January 1, 2002, all moneys derived by that racetrack from simulcast wagering and inter-track wagering that (1) are to be used for purses and (2) are generated between the hours of 6:30 a.m. and 6:30 p.m. during that calendar year shall be deposited as follows:

(A) If the licensee that conducts horse racing at that racetrack requests from the Board at least as many racing dates as were conducted in calendar year 2000, 80% shall be deposited into its standardbred purse account; and

(B) Twenty percent shall be deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund. Moneys deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be paid to Illinois conceived and foaled thoroughbred breeders' programs and to thoroughbred purses for races conducted at any county fairgrounds for Illinois conceived and foaled horses at the discretion of the Department of Agriculture, with the advice and assistance of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund Advisory Board. The moneys deposited into the Illinois Colt Stakes Purse Distribution Fund pursuant to this subparagraph (B) shall be deposited within 2 weeks after the day they were generated, shall be in addition to and not in lieu of any other moneys paid to thoroughbred purses under this Act, and shall not be commingled with other moneys deposited into that Fund.

(7.3) (Blank).

(7.4) (Blank).

(8) Notwithstanding any provision in this Act to the contrary, an organization licensee from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River and its affiliated non-host licensees shall not be entitled to share in any retention generated on racing, inter-track wagering, or simulcast wagering at any other Illinois wagering facility.

(8.1) Notwithstanding any provisions in this Act to the contrary, if 2 organization licensees are conducting standardbred race meetings concurrently between the hours of 6:30 p.m. and 6:30 a.m., after payment of all applicable State and local taxes and interstate commission fees, the remainder of the amount retained from simulcast wagering otherwise attributable to the host track and to host track purses shall be split daily between the 2 organization licensees and the purses at the tracks of the 2 organization licensees, respectively, based on each organization licensee's share of the total live handle for that day, provided that this provision shall not apply to any non-host licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank).

(11) (Blank).

(12) The Board shall have authority to compel all host tracks to receive the simulcast of any or all races conducted at the Springfield or DuQuoin State fairgrounds and include all such races as part of their simulcast programs.

(13) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, in the event that the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at all wagering facilities in any calendar year is less than 75% of the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at all such wagering facilities for calendar year 1994, then each wagering facility that has an annual total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races that is less than 75% of the total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at such wagering facility for calendar year 1994, shall be permitted to receive, from any amount otherwise payable to the purse account at the race track with which the wagering facility is affiliated in the succeeding calendar year, an amount equal to 2% of the differential in total Illinois pari-mutuel handle on Illinois horse races at the wagering facility between that calendar year in question and 1994 provided, however, that a wagering facility shall not be entitled to any such payment until the Board certifies in writing to the wagering facility the amount to which the wagering facility is entitled and a schedule for payment of the amount to the wagering facility, based on: (i) the racing dates awarded to the race track affiliated with the wagering facility during the succeeding year; (ii) the sums available or anticipated to be available in the purse account of the race track affiliated with the wagering facility for purses during the succeeding year; and (iii) the need to ensure reasonable purse levels during the payment period. The Board's certification shall be provided no later than January 31 of the succeeding year. In the event a wagering facility entitled to a payment under this paragraph (13) is affiliated with a race track that maintains purse accounts for both standardbred and thoroughbred racing, the amount to be paid to the wagering facility shall be divided between each purse account pro rata, based on the amount of Illinois handle on Illinois standardbred and thoroughbred racing respectively at the wagering facility during the previous calendar year. Annually, the General Assembly shall appropriate sufficient funds from the General Revenue Fund to the Department of Agriculture for payment into the thoroughbred and standardbred horse racing purse accounts at Illinois pari-mutuel tracks. The amount paid to each purse account shall be the amount certified by the Illinois Racing Board in January to be transferred from each account to each eligible racing facility in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(h) The Board may approve and license the conduct of inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering by inter-track wagering licensees and inter-track wagering location licensees subject to the following terms and conditions:

(1) Any person licensed to conduct a race meeting (i) at a track where 60 or more days of racing were conducted during the immediately preceding calendar year or where over the 5 immediately preceding calendar years an average of 30 or more days of racing were conducted annually may be issued an inter-track wagering license; (ii) at a track located in a county that is bounded by the Mississippi River, which has a population of less than 150,000 according to the 1990 decennial census, and an average of at least 60 days of racing per year between 1985 and 1993 may be issued an inter-track wagering license; or (iii) at a track located in Madison County that conducted at least 100 days of live racing during the immediately preceding calendar year may be issued an inter-track wagering license, unless a lesser schedule of live racing is the result of (A) weather, unsafe track conditions, or other acts of God; (B) an agreement between the organization licensee and the associations representing the largest number of owners, trainers, jockeys, or standardbred drivers who race horses at that organization licensee's racing meeting; or (C) a finding by the Board of extraordinary circumstances and that it was in the best interest of the public and the sport to conduct fewer than 100 days of live racing. Any such person having operating control of the racing facility may receive inter-track wagering location licenses. An eligible race track located in a county that has a population of more than 230,000 and that is bounded by the Mississippi River may establish up to 9 inter-track wagering locations, an eligible race track located in Stickney Township in Cook County may establish up to 16 inter-track wagering locations, and an eligible race track located in Palatine Township in Cook County may establish up to 18 inter-track wagering locations. An application for said license shall be filed with the Board prior to such dates as may be fixed by the Board. With an application for an inter-track wagering location license there shall be delivered to the Board a certified check or bank draft payable to the order of the Board for an amount equal to $500. The application shall be on forms prescribed and furnished by the Board. The application shall comply with all other rules, regulations and conditions imposed by the Board in connection therewith.

(2) The Board shall examine the applications with respect to their conformity with this Act and the rules and regulations imposed by the Board. If found to be in compliance with the Act and rules and regulations of the Board, the Board may then issue a license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering to such applicant. All such applications shall be acted upon by the Board at a meeting to be held on such date as may be fixed by the Board.

(3) In granting licenses to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering, the Board shall give due consideration to the best interests of the public, of horse racing, and of maximizing revenue to the State.

(4) Prior to the issuance of a license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering, the applicant shall file with the Board a bond payable to the State of Illinois in the sum of $50,000, executed by the applicant and a surety company or companies authorized to do business in this State, and conditioned upon (i) the payment by the licensee of all taxes due under Section 27 or 27.1 and any other monies due and payable under this Act, and (ii) distribution by the licensee, upon presentation of the winning ticket or tickets, of all sums payable to the patrons of pari-mutuel pools.

(5) Each license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall specify the person to whom it is issued, the dates on which such wagering is permitted, and the track or location where the wagering is to be conducted.

(6) All wagering under such license is subject to this Act and to the rules and regulations from time to time prescribed by the Board, and every such license issued by the Board shall contain a recital to that effect.

(7) An inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee may accept wagers at the track or location where it is licensed, or as otherwise provided under this Act.

(8) Inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering shall not be conducted at any track less than 5 miles from a track at which a racing meeting is in progress.

(8.1) Inter-track wagering location licensees who derive their licenses from a particular organization licensee shall conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering only at locations that are within 160 miles of that race track where the particular organization licensee is licensed to conduct racing. However, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by those licensees at any location within 5 miles of any race track at which a horse race meeting has been licensed in the current year, unless the person having operating control of such race track has given its written consent to such inter-track wagering location licensees, which consent must be filed with the Board at or prior to the time application is made. In the case of any inter-track wagering location licensee initially licensed after December 31, 2013, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by those inter-track wagering location licensees that are located outside the City of Chicago at any location within 8 miles of any race track at which a horse race meeting has been licensed in the current year, unless the person having operating control of such race track has given its written consent to such inter-track wagering location licensees, which consent must be filed with the Board at or prior to the time application is made.

(8.2) Inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering shall not be conducted by an inter-track wagering location licensee at any location within 500 feet of an existing church or existing school, nor within 500 feet of the residences of more than 50 registered voters without receiving written permission from a majority of the registered voters at such residences. Such written permission statements shall be filed with the Board. The distance of 500 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services, education programs, residential purposes, or conducting inter-track wagering by an inter-track wagering location licensee, and not to property boundaries. However, inter-track wagering or simulcast wagering may be conducted at a site within 500 feet of a church, school or residences of 50 or more registered voters if such church, school or residences have been erected or established, or such voters have been registered, after the Board issues the original inter-track wagering location license at the site in question. Inter-track wagering location licensees may conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering only in areas that are zoned for commercial or manufacturing purposes or in areas for which a special use has been approved by the local zoning authority. However, no license to conduct inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering shall be granted by the Board with respect to any inter-track wagering location within the jurisdiction of any local zoning authority which has, by ordinance or by resolution, prohibited the establishment of an inter-track wagering location within its jurisdiction. However, inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering may be conducted at a site if such ordinance or resolution is enacted after the Board licenses the original inter-track wagering location licensee for the site in question.

(9) (Blank).

(10) An inter-track wagering licensee or an inter-track wagering location licensee may retain, subject to the payment of the privilege taxes and the purses, an amount not to exceed 17% of all money wagered. Each program of racing conducted by each inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege tax or pari-mutuel tax on such daily handle as provided in Section 27.

(10.1) Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, inter-track wagering location licensees shall pay 1% of the pari-mutuel handle at each location to the municipality in which such location is situated and 1% of the pari-mutuel handle at each location to the county in which such location is situated. In the event that an inter-track wagering location licensee is situated in an unincorporated area of a county, such licensee shall pay 2% of the pari-mutuel handle from such location to such county.

(10.2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, with respect to inter-track wagering at a race track located in a county that has a population of more than 230,000 and that is bounded by the Mississippi River ("the first race track"), or at a facility operated by an inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from the organization licensee that operates the first race track, on races conducted at the first race track or on races conducted at another Illinois race track and simultaneously televised to the first race track or to a facility operated by an inter-track wagering licensee or inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from the organization licensee that operates the first race track, those moneys shall be allocated as follows:

(A) That portion of all moneys wagered on standardbred racing that is required under this Act to be paid to purses shall be paid to purses for standardbred races.

(B) That portion of all moneys wagered on thoroughbred racing that is required under this Act to be paid to purses shall be paid to purses for thoroughbred races.

(11) (A) After payment of the privilege or pari-mutuel tax, any other applicable taxes, and the costs and expenses in connection with the gathering, transmission, and dissemination of all data necessary to the conduct of inter-track wagering, the remainder of the monies retained under either Section 26 or Section 26.2 of this Act by the inter-track wagering licensee on inter-track wagering shall be allocated with 50% to be split between the 2 participating licensees and 50% to purses, except that an inter-track wagering licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the Illinois organization licensee that provides the race or races, and an inter-track wagering licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with that organization licensee.

(B) From the sums permitted to be retained pursuant to this Act each inter-track wagering location licensee shall pay (i) the privilege or pari-mutuel tax to the State; (ii) 4.75% of the pari-mutuel handle on inter-track wagering at such location on races as purses, except that an inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall retain all purse moneys for its own purse account consistent with distribution set forth in this subsection (h), and inter-track wagering location licensees that accept wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall distribute all purse moneys to purses at the operating host track; (iii) until January 1, 2000, except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, 1% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered on inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering at each inter-track wagering location licensee facility to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund, provided that, to the extent the total amount collected and distributed to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund under this subsection (h) during any calendar year exceeds the amount collected and distributed to the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund during calendar year 1994, that excess amount shall be redistributed (I) to all inter-track wagering location licensees, based on each licensee's pro rata pro-rata share of the total handle from inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering for all inter-track wagering location licensees during the calendar year in which this provision is applicable; then (II) the amounts redistributed to each inter-track wagering location licensee as described in subpart (I) shall be further redistributed as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section 26 provided first, that the shares of those amounts, which are to be redistributed to the host track or to purses at the host track under subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subsection (g) of this Section 26 shall be redistributed based on each host track's pro rata share of the total inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering handle at all host tracks during the calendar year in question, and second, that any amounts redistributed as described in part (I) to an inter-track wagering location licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall be further redistributed, effective January 1, 2017, as provided in paragraph (7) of subsection (g) of this Section 26, with the portion of that further redistribution allocated to purses at that organization licensee to be divided between standardbred purses and thoroughbred purses based on the amounts otherwise allocated to purses at that organization licensee during the calendar year in question; and (iv) 8% of the pari-mutuel handle on inter-track wagering wagered at such location to satisfy all costs and expenses of conducting its wagering. The remainder of the monies retained by the inter-track wagering location licensee shall be allocated 40% to the location licensee and 60% to the organization licensee which provides the Illinois races to the location, except that an inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from a track located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the organization licensee that provides the race or races and an inter-track wagering location licensee that accepts wagers on races conducted by an organization licensee that conducts a race meet in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and that borders the Mississippi River shall not divide any remaining retention with the organization licensee. Notwithstanding the provisions of clauses (ii) and (iv) of this paragraph, in the case of the additional inter-track wagering location licenses authorized under paragraph (1) of this subsection (h) by Public Act 87-110, those licensees shall pay the following amounts as purses: during the first 12 months the licensee is in operation, 5.25% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location on races; during the second 12 months, 5.25%; during the third 12 months, 5.75%; during the fourth 12 months, 6.25%; and during the fifth 12 months and thereafter, 6.75%. The following amounts shall be retained by the licensee to satisfy all costs and expenses of conducting its wagering: during the first 12 months the licensee is in operation, 8.25% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location; during the second 12 months, 8.25%; during the third 12 months, 7.75%; during the fourth 12 months, 7.25%; and during the fifth 12 months and thereafter, 6.75%. For additional inter-track wagering location licensees authorized under Public Act 89-16, purses for the first 12 months the licensee is in operation shall be 5.75% of the pari-mutuel wagered at the location, purses for the second 12 months the licensee is in operation shall be 6.25%, and purses thereafter shall be 6.75%. For additional inter-track location licensees authorized under Public Act 89-16, the licensee shall be allowed to retain to satisfy all costs and expenses: 7.75% of the pari-mutuel handle wagered at the location during its first 12 months of operation, 7.25% during its second 12 months of operation, and 6.75% thereafter.

(C) There is hereby created the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund which shall remain in existence until December 31, 1999. Moneys remaining in the Fund after December 31, 1999 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund. Until January 1, 2000, all monies paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund pursuant to this paragraph (11) by inter-track wagering location licensees located in park districts of 500,000 population or less, or in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district and is the county seat of a county that (i) is contiguous to the state of Indiana and (ii) has a 1990 population of 88,257 according to the United States Bureau of the Census, and operating on May 1, 1994 shall be allocated by appropriation as follows:

Two-sevenths to the Department of Agriculture. Fifty percent of this two-sevenths shall be used to promote the Illinois horse racing and breeding industry, and shall be distributed by the Department of Agriculture upon the advice of a 9-member committee appointed by the Governor consisting of the following members: the Director of Agriculture, who shall serve as chairman; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting thoroughbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting standardbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; a representative of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by that Foundation; a representative of the Illinois Standardbred Owners and Breeders Association, recommended by that Association; a representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent and Protective Association or any successor organization thereto established in Illinois comprised of the largest number of owners and trainers, recommended by that Association or that successor organization; and a representative of the Illinois Harness Horsemen's Association, recommended by that Association. Committee members shall serve for terms of 2 years, commencing January 1 of each even-numbered year. If a representative of any of the above-named entities has not been recommended by January 1 of any even-numbered year, the Governor shall appoint a committee member to fill that position. Committee members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the performance of their official duties. The remaining 50% of this two-sevenths shall be distributed to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act;

Four-sevenths to park districts or municipalities that do not have a park district of 500,000 population or less for museum purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in such a park district) or to conservation districts for museum purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district and is the county seat of a county that (i) is contiguous to the state of Indiana and (ii) has a 1990 population of 88,257 according to the United States Bureau of the Census, except that if the conservation district does not maintain a museum, the monies shall be allocated equally between the county and the municipality in which the inter-track wagering location licensee is located for general purposes) or to a municipal recreation board for park purposes (if an inter-track wagering location licensee is located in a municipality that is not included within any park district and park maintenance is the function of the municipal recreation board and the municipality has a 1990 population of 9,302 according to the United States Bureau of the Census); provided that the monies are distributed to each park district or conservation district or municipality that does not have a park district in an amount equal to four-sevenths of the amount collected by each inter-track wagering location licensee within the park district or conservation district or municipality for the Fund. Monies that were paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund before August 9, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-110) by an inter-track wagering location licensee located in a municipality that is not included within any park district but is included within a conservation district as provided in this paragraph shall, as soon as practicable after August 9, 1991 (the effective date of Public Act 87-110), be allocated and paid to that conservation district as provided in this paragraph. Any park district or municipality not maintaining a museum may deposit the monies in the corporate fund of the park district or municipality where the inter-track wagering location is located, to be used for general purposes; and

One-seventh to the Agricultural Premium Fund to be used for distribution to agricultural home economics extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finances for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties of this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967.

Until January 1, 2000, all other monies paid into the Horse Racing Tax Allocation Fund pursuant to this paragraph (11) shall be allocated by appropriation as follows:

Two-sevenths to the Department of Agriculture. Fifty percent of this two-sevenths shall be used to promote the Illinois horse racing and breeding industry, and shall be distributed by the Department of Agriculture upon the advice of a 9-member committee appointed by the Governor consisting of the following members: the Director of Agriculture, who shall serve as chairman; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting thoroughbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; 2 representatives of organization licensees conducting standardbred race meetings in this State, recommended by those licensees; a representative of the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders and Owners Foundation, recommended by that Foundation; a representative of the Illinois Standardbred Owners and Breeders Association, recommended by that Association; a representative of the Horsemen's Benevolent and Protective Association or any successor organization thereto established in Illinois comprised of the largest number of owners and trainers, recommended by that Association or that successor organization; and a representative of the Illinois Harness Horsemen's Association, recommended by that Association. Committee members shall serve for terms of 2 years, commencing January 1 of each even-numbered year. If a representative of any of the above-named entities has not been recommended by January 1 of any even-numbered year, the Governor shall appoint a committee member to fill that position. Committee members shall receive no compensation for their services as members but shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses and disbursements incurred in the performance of their official duties. The remaining 50% of this two-sevenths shall be distributed to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act;

Four-sevenths to museums and aquariums located in park districts of over 500,000 population; provided that the monies are distributed in accordance with the previous year's distribution of the maintenance tax for such museums and aquariums as provided in Section 2 of the Park District Aquarium and Museum Act; and

One-seventh to the Agricultural Premium Fund to be used for distribution to agricultural home economics extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finances for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties of this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967. This subparagraph (C) shall be inoperative and of no force and effect on and after January 1, 2000.

(D) Except as provided in paragraph (11) of this subsection (h), with respect to purse allocation from inter-track wagering, the monies so retained shall be divided as follows:

(i) If the inter-track wagering licensee, except an inter-track wagering licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, is not conducting its own race meeting during the same dates, then the entire purse allocation shall be to purses at the track where the races wagered on are being conducted.

(ii) If the inter-track wagering licensee, except an inter-track wagering licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, is also conducting its own race meeting during the same dates, then the purse allocation shall be as follows: 50% to purses at the track where the races wagered on are being conducted; 50% to purses at the track where the inter-track wagering licensee is accepting such wagers.

(iii) If the inter-track wagering is being conducted by an inter-track wagering location licensee, except an inter-track wagering location licensee that derives its license from an organization licensee located in a county with a population in excess of 230,000 and bounded by the Mississippi River, the entire purse allocation for Illinois races shall be to purses at the track where the race meeting being wagered on is being held.

(12) The Board shall have all powers necessary and proper to fully supervise and control the conduct of inter-track wagering and simulcast wagering by inter-track wagering licensees and inter-track wagering location licensees, including, but not limited to the following:

(A) The Board is vested with power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations for the purpose of administering the conduct of this wagering and to prescribe reasonable rules, regulations and conditions under which such wagering shall be held and conducted. Such rules and regulations are to provide for the prevention of practices detrimental to the public interest and for the best interests of said wagering and to impose penalties for violations thereof.

(B) The Board, and any person or persons to whom it delegates this power, is vested with the power to enter the facilities of any licensee to determine whether there has been compliance with the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations relating to the conduct of such wagering.

(C) The Board, and any person or persons to whom it delegates this power, may eject or exclude from any licensee's facilities, any person whose conduct or reputation is such that his presence on such premises may, in the opinion of the Board, call into the question the honesty and integrity of, or interfere with the orderly conduct of such wagering; provided, however, that no person shall be excluded or ejected from such premises solely on the grounds of race, color, creed, national origin, ancestry, or sex.

(D) (Blank).

(E) The Board is vested with the power to appoint delegates to execute any of the powers granted to it under this Section for the purpose of administering this wagering and any rules and regulations promulgated in accordance with this Act.

(F) The Board shall name and appoint a State director of this wagering who shall be a representative of the Board and whose duty it shall be to supervise the conduct of inter-track wagering as may be provided for by the rules and regulations of the Board; such rules and regulation shall specify the method of appointment and the Director's powers, authority and duties.

(G) The Board is vested with the power to impose civil penalties of up to $5,000 against individuals and up to $10,000 against licensees for each violation of any provision of this Act relating to the conduct of this wagering, any rules adopted by the Board, any order of the Board or any other action which in the Board's discretion, is a detriment or impediment to such wagering.

(13) The Department of Agriculture may enter into agreements with licensees authorizing such licensees to conduct inter-track wagering on races to be held at the licensed race meetings conducted by the Department of Agriculture. Such agreement shall specify the races of the Department of Agriculture's licensed race meeting upon which the licensees will conduct wagering. In the event that a licensee conducts inter-track pari-mutuel wagering on races from the Illinois State Fair or DuQuoin State Fair which are in addition to the licensee's previously approved racing program, those races shall be considered a separate racing day for the purpose of determining the daily handle and computing the privilege or pari-mutuel tax on that daily handle as provided in Sections 27 and 27.1. Such agreements shall be approved by the Board before such wagering may be conducted. In determining whether to grant approval, the Board shall give due consideration to the best interests of the public and of horse racing. The provisions of paragraphs (1), (8), (8.1), and (8.2) of subsection (h) of this Section which are not specified in this paragraph (13) shall not apply to licensed race meetings conducted by the Department of Agriculture at the Illinois State Fair in Sangamon County or the DuQuoin State Fair in Perry County, or to any wagering conducted on those race meetings.

(14) An inter-track wagering location license authorized by the Board in 2016 that is owned and operated by a race track in Rock Island County shall be transferred to a commonly owned race track in Cook County on August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-757). The licensee shall retain its status in relation to purse distribution under paragraph (11) of this subsection (h) following the transfer to the new entity. The pari-mutuel tax credit under Section 32.1 shall not be applied toward any pari-mutuel tax obligation of the inter-track wagering location licensee of the license that is transferred under this paragraph (14).

(i) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Act, the conduct of wagering at wagering facilities is authorized on all days, except as limited by subsection (b) of Section 19 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-756, eff. 8-12-16; 99-757, eff. 8-12-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-627, eff. 7-20-18; 100-1152, eff. 12-14-18; revised 1-13-19.)

(230 ILCS 5/26.7)

Sec. 26.7. Advance Advanced deposit wagering surcharge. Beginning on August 26, 2012, each advance deposit wagering licensee shall impose a surcharge of 0.18% on winning wagers and winnings from wagers placed through advance deposit wagering. The surcharge shall be deducted from winnings prior to payout. Amounts derived from a surcharge imposed under this Section shall be paid to the standardbred purse accounts of organization licensees conducting standardbred racing.

(Source: P.A. 97-1060, eff. 8-24-12; 98-18, eff. 6-7-13; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 560. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 3-12, 5-1, 6-4, and 6-11 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/3-12)

Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.

(a) The State Commission shall have the following powers, functions, and duties:

(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors, distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers, non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes, boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend or revoke such licenses upon the State Commission's determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5, or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license for the specific premises where the violation occurred. An action for a violation of this Act shall be commenced by the State Commission within 2 years after the date the State Commission becomes aware of the violation.

In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the commission may impose a fine, upon the State Commission's determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30 days prior to such violation.

For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 was committed.

The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed $500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed $20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.

Any notice issued by the State Commission to a licensee for a violation of this Act or any notice with respect to settlement or offer in compromise shall include the field report, photographs, and any other supporting documentation necessary to reasonably inform the licensee of the nature and extent of the violation or the conduct alleged to have occurred. The failure to include such required documentation shall result in the dismissal of the action.

(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to carry on its functions and duties to the end that the health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and regulations to all licensees affected thereby.

(3) To call upon other administrative departments of the State, county and municipal governments, county and city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for such information and assistance as it deems necessary in the performance of its duties.

(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the State.

(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured, distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act authorizes an agent of the Commission to inspect private areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed desks.

(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's Attorney's Office of the county where the incident occurred, or initiate an investigation with the appropriate law enforcement officials.

(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of this Act.

(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation, the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against the licensee as provided in this Act.

(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a local commission in accordance with the provisions of this Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at whichever location is the more convenient for the majority of persons who are parties to the hearing.

(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms, records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable times for inspection by authorized representatives of the State Commission or by any local liquor control commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal, in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the form and manner of keeping accounts.

(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving complex issues or issues that will require a protracted period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to hear testimony and take proof material for its information in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books, which shall be effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to implement its powers under this paragraph (8).

Any circuit court may by order duly entered, require the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant books subpoenaed by the State Commission and the court may compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.

(9) To investigate the administration of laws in relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it may think desirable and as will serve to further the general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.

(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or other similar occurrence.

(11) To develop industry educational programs related to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.

(11.1) To license persons providing education and training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers for mandatory and non-mandatory training under the Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a license shall be made on forms provided by the State Commission.

(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license and regulatory information.

(13) (Blank).

(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of Public Act 95-634 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State. As part of its report, the Commission shall provide all of the following information:

(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated.

(B) The amount of licensing fees received.

(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside and outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations conducted.

(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses issued.

(F) The number of each of the following: reported violations; cease and desist notices issued by the Commission; notices of violations issued by the Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials, including, without limitation, the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol compliance operations to investigate whether businesses that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside or outside of this State directly to residents of this State are licensed by this State or are selling or attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in violation of this Act.

(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under this Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.

(17)(A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws of another state who has a winery shipper's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license under this Act and annually produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make application to the Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per year.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of production and sales for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) The Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1) is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000 gallons of its wine to retail licensees.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the Commission its production of wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated production and sales for the next 12 months. The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or become part of an affiliated group producing more than 25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.

(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act or Public Act 95-634 or a bona fide investigation by duly sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or its agents, the Commission shall maintain the production and sales information of a self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and shall not release such information to any person.

(F) The Commission shall issue regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Section and this Act.

(G) Nothing in this paragraph subsection (17) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois distributor.

(H) It is the intent of this paragraph subsection (17) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system it is necessary to create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes, vintages, and taste to find and create market niches sometimes too small for distributor or importing distributor business strategies. Limited self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(18)(A) A class 1 brewer licensee, who must also be either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer, may make application to the State Commission for a self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more than 232,500 gallons of the exemption holder's beer per year to retail licensees and to brewers, class 1 brewers, and class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider, or both beer and cider to non-licensees at their breweries.

(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the class 1 brewer licensee shall state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its establishment; (3) its efforts to establish distributor relationships; (4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the United States, this State, and any other state where it is licensed.

(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on the State Commission's website at least 45 days prior to action by the State Commission. The State Commission shall approve the application for a self-distribution exemption if the class 1 brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is not a member of any affiliated group that manufactures more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum or produces any other alcoholic beverages; (3) shall not annually manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer; (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500 gallons of its beer to retail licensees or to brewers, class 1 brewers, and class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider, or both beer and cider to non-licensees at their breweries; and (5) has relinquished any brew pub license held by the licensee, including any ownership interest it held in the licensed brew pub.

(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall annually certify to the State Commission its manufacture of beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months. The State Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it finds that the exemption holder has made a material misrepresentation in its application, violated a revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois, exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer in any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer or any other alcoholic beverage.

(E) The State Commission shall issue rules and regulations governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with this Act.

(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a self-distribution exemption holder from entering into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned distribution rights to an importing distributor or distributor, then the self-distribution exemption holder's distribution rights in the assigned territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to exceed 60 days.

(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to promote and continue orderly markets. The General Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois' regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer access to the marketplace in order to develop a customer base without impairing the integrity of the 3-tier system.

(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall present a written report to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of Public Act 90-739 on the business of soliciting, selling, and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State directly to residents of this State.

As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the following information:

(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues generated as a result of Public Act 90-739;

(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result of Public Act 90-739;

(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the number of notices of violations issued to the Department of Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of violations to law enforcement officials.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; 100-134, eff. 8-18-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-816, eff. 8-13-18; 100-1012, eff. 8-21-18; 100-1050, eff. 8-23-18; revised 10-24-18.)

(235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)

Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall be of the following classes:

(a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2. Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6. First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class 8. Limited Wine Manufacturer, Class 9. Craft Distiller, Class 10. Class 1 Brewer, Class 11. Class 2 Brewer,

(b) Distributor's license,

(c) Importing Distributor's license,

(d) Retailer's license,

(e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),

(f) Railroad license,

(g) Boat license,

(h) Non-Beverage User's license,

(i) Wine-maker's premises license,

(j) Airplane license,

(k) Foreign importer's license,

(l) Broker's license,

(m) Non-resident dealer's license,

(n) Brew Pub license,

(o) Auction liquor license,

(p) Caterer retailer license,

(q) Special use permit license,

(r) Winery shipper's license,

(s) Craft distiller tasting permit,

(t) Brewer warehouse permit.

No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a wine manufacturer's license.

(a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture, importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:

Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.

Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to importing distributors and distributors and may make sales as authorized under subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act.

Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors, and to no other licensees.

Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to no other licensees.

Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-634), is a holder of a first-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with Public Act 95-634.

Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow the manufacture of between 50,000 and 150,000 gallons of wine per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A person who, prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-634), is a holder of a second-class wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July 1, 2008 in compliance with Public Act 95-634.

Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Class 9. A craft distiller license shall allow the manufacture of up to 100,000 gallons of spirits by distillation per year and the storage of such spirits. If a craft distiller licensee, including a craft distiller licensee who holds more than one craft distiller license, is not affiliated with any other manufacturer of spirits, then the craft distiller licensee may sell such spirits to distributors in this State and up to 2,500 gallons of such spirits to non-licensees to the extent permitted by any exemption approved by the Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act. A craft distiller license holder may store such spirits at a non-contiguous licensed location, but at no time shall a craft distiller license holder directly or indirectly produce in the aggregate more than 100,000 gallons of spirits per year.

A craft distiller licensee may hold more than one craft distiller's license. However, a craft distiller that holds more than one craft distiller license shall not manufacture, in the aggregate, more than 100,000 gallons of spirits by distillation per year and shall not sell, in the aggregate, more than 2,500 gallons of such spirits to non-licensees in accordance with an exemption approved by the State Commission pursuant to Section 6-4 of this Act.

Any craft distiller licensed under this Act who on July 28, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1367) was licensed as a distiller and manufactured no more spirits than permitted by this Section shall not be required to pay the initial licensing fee.

Class 10. A class 1 brewer license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 930,000 gallons of beer per year provided that the class 1 brewer licensee does not manufacture more than a combined 930,000 gallons of beer per year and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 930,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor. A class 1 brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors and to retail licensees in accordance with the conditions set forth in paragraph (18) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12 of this Act. If the State Commission provides prior approval, a class 1 brewer may annually transfer up to 930,000 gallons of beer manufactured by that class 1 brewer to the premises of a licensed class 1 brewer wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

Class 11. A class 2 brewer license, which may only be issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer, shall allow the manufacture of up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year provided that the class 2 brewer licensee does not manufacture more than a combined 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor. A class 2 brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries to importing distributors and distributors, but shall not make sales or deliveries to any other licensee. If the State Commission provides prior approval, a class 2 brewer licensee may annually transfer up to 3,720,000 gallons of beer manufactured by that class 2 brewer licensee to the premises of a licensed class 2 brewer wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

A class 2 brewer may transfer beer to a brew pub wholly owned and operated by the class 2 brewer subject to the following limitations and restrictions: (i) the transfer shall not annually exceed more than 31,000 gallons; (ii) the annual amount transferred shall reduce the brew pub's annual permitted production limit; (iii) all beer transferred shall be subject to Article VIII of this Act; (iv) a written record shall be maintained by the brewer and brew pub specifying the amount, date of delivery, and receipt of the product by the brew pub; and (v) the brew pub shall be located no farther than 80 miles from the class 2 brewer's licensed location.

A class 2 brewer shall, prior to transferring beer to a brew pub wholly owned by the class 2 brewer, furnish a written notice to the State Commission of intent to transfer beer setting forth the name and address of the brew pub and shall annually submit to the State Commission a verified report identifying the total gallons of beer transferred to the brew pub wholly owned by the class 2 brewer.

(a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor to licensed distributors or importing distributors and which enlists agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis in this State must register those agents, representatives, or persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.

Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the Commission and shall include the name and address of the applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements, misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for suspension or revocation of the registration. The State Commission shall post a list of registered agents on the Commission's website.

(b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law, and the sale of beer, cider, or both beer and cider to brewers, class 1 brewers, and class 2 brewers that, pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act, sell beer, cider, or both beer and cider to non-licensees at their breweries. No person licensed as a distributor shall be granted a non-resident dealer's license.

(c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof, but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed, labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers and foreign importers only. No person licensed as an importing distributor shall be granted a non-resident dealer's license.

(d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. Nothing in Public Act 95-634 shall deny, limit, remove, or restrict the ability of a holder of a retailer's license to transfer, deliver, or ship alcoholic liquor to the purchaser for use or consumption subject to any applicable local law or ordinance. Any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of further describing the type of business conducted at a retail licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer, (ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted under subsection (e).

(e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit) shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the location and on the specific dates designated for the special event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii) submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has obtained local authority approval.

Nothing in this Act prohibits an Illinois licensed distributor from offering credit or a refund for unused, salable alcoholic liquors to a holder of a special event retailer's license or from the special event retailer's licensee from accepting the credit or refund of alcoholic liquors at the conclusion of the event specified in the license.

(f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State; and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for each car in which such sales are made.

(g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant thereon.

(h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase, possession and use of limited and stated quantities of alcoholic liquor as follows: Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons

(i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall require additional licensing per location as specified in Section 5-3 of this Act. A wine-maker's premises licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors and importing distributors from within or outside this State; and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane license shall be required of an airline company if liquor service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.

(k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that (i) the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) the foreign importer complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the foreign importer complies with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers.

(l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor, importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the State of Illinois.

No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the holder of a valid broker's license.

The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of said transaction in such form as the Commission may by regulations prescribe.

(ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside of this State by an express company, common carrier, or contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.

A broker's license under this subsection (l) shall not entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic liquors.

This subsection (l) shall not apply to distributors, employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to its registrants thereunder.

Any agent, representative, or person subject to registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall not be eligible to receive a broker's license.

(m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and importing distributors and to no one else in this State; provided that (i) said non-resident dealer shall register with the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois licensees during the license period, (ii) it shall comply with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale by duly filing such registration statement, thereby authorizing the non-resident dealer to proceed to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the non-resident dealer shall comply with the provisions of Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these provisions apply to manufacturers. No person licensed as a non-resident dealer shall be granted a distributor's or importing distributor's license.

(n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee to only (i) manufacture up to 155,000 gallons of beer per year only on the premises specified in the license, (ii) make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises or, with the approval of the Commission, beer manufactured on another brew pub licensed premises that is wholly owned and operated by the same licensee to importing distributors, distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption, (iii) store the beer upon the premises, (iv) sell and offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises for off-premises consumption no more than 155,000 gallons per year so long as such sales are only made in-person, (v) sell and offer for sale at retail for use and consumption on the premises specified in the license any form of alcoholic liquor purchased from a licensed distributor or importing distributor, and (vi) with the prior approval of the Commission, annually transfer no more than 155,000 gallons of beer manufactured on the premises to a licensed brew pub wholly owned and operated by the same licensee.

A brew pub licensee shall not under any circumstance sell or offer for sale beer manufactured by the brew pub licensee to retail licensees.

A person who holds a class 2 brewer license may simultaneously hold a brew pub license if the class 2 brewer (i) does not, under any circumstance, sell or offer for sale beer manufactured by the class 2 brewer to retail licensees; (ii) does not hold more than 3 brew pub licenses in this State; (iii) does not manufacture more than a combined 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year, including the beer manufactured at the brew pub; and (iv) is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or any other alcoholic liquor.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a licensed brewer, class 2 brewer, or non-resident dealer who before July 1, 2015 manufactured less than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and held a brew pub license on or before July 1, 2015 may (i) continue to qualify for and hold that brew pub license for the licensed premises and (ii) manufacture more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year and continue to qualify for and hold that brew pub license if that brewer, class 2 brewer, or non-resident dealer does not simultaneously hold a class 1 brewer license and is not a member of or affiliated with, directly or indirectly, a manufacturer that produces more than 3,720,000 gallons of beer per year or that produces any other alcoholic liquor.

(o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or unlicensed.

(p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor license will be issued to a person and it will permit the auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.

(q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special use permit license may be granted for the following time periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days per location in any 12-month period. An applicant for the special use permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

(r) A winery shipper's license shall allow a person with a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine manufacturer's license or who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state to ship wine made by that licensee directly to a resident of this State who is 21 years of age or older for that resident's personal use and not for resale. Prior to receiving a winery shipper's license, an applicant for the license must provide the Commission with a true copy of its current license in any state in which it is licensed as a manufacturer of wine. An applicant for a winery shipper's license must also complete an application form that provides any other information the Commission deems necessary. The application form shall include all addresses from which the applicant for a winery shipper's license intends to ship wine, including the name and address of any third party, except for a common carrier, authorized to ship wine on behalf of the manufacturer. The application form shall include an acknowledgement consenting to the jurisdiction of the Commission, the Illinois Department of Revenue, and the courts of this State concerning the enforcement of this Act and any related laws, rules, and regulations, including authorizing the Department of Revenue and the Commission to conduct audits for the purpose of ensuring compliance with Public Act 95-634, and an acknowledgement that the wine manufacturer is in compliance with Section 6-2 of this Act. Any third party, except for a common carrier, authorized to ship wine on behalf of a first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's licensee, a first-class or second-class wine-maker's licensee, a limited wine manufacturer's licensee, or a person who is licensed to make wine under the laws of another state shall also be disclosed by the winery shipper's licensee, and a copy of the written appointment of the third-party wine provider, except for a common carrier, to the wine manufacturer shall be filed with the State Commission as a supplement to the winery shipper's license application or any renewal thereof. The winery shipper's license holder shall affirm under penalty of perjury, as part of the winery shipper's license application or renewal, that he or she only ships wine, either directly or indirectly through a third-party provider, from the licensee's own production.

Except for a common carrier, a third-party provider shipping wine on behalf of a winery shipper's license holder is the agent of the winery shipper's license holder and, as such, a winery shipper's license holder is responsible for the acts and omissions of the third-party provider acting on behalf of the license holder. A third-party provider, except for a common carrier, that engages in shipping wine into Illinois on behalf of a winery shipper's license holder shall consent to the jurisdiction of the State Commission and the State. Any third-party, except for a common carrier, holding such an appointment shall, by February 1 of each calendar year and upon request by the State Commission or the Department of Revenue, file with the State Commission a statement detailing each shipment made to an Illinois resident. The statement shall include the name and address of the third-party provider filing the statement, the time period covered by the statement, and the following information:

(1) the name, address, and license number of the winery shipper on whose behalf the shipment was made;

(2) the quantity of the products delivered; and

(3) the date and address of the shipment.

If the Department of Revenue or the State Commission requests a statement under this paragraph, the third-party provider must provide that statement no later than 30 days after the request is made. Any books, records, supporting papers, and documents containing information and data relating to a statement under this paragraph shall be kept and preserved for a period of 3 years, unless their destruction sooner is authorized, in writing, by the Director of Revenue, and shall be open and available to inspection by the Director of Revenue or the State Commission or any duly authorized officer, agent, or employee of the State Commission or the Department of Revenue, at all times during business hours of the day. Any person who violates any provision of this paragraph or any rule of the State Commission for the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this paragraph is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor. In case of a continuing violation, each day's continuance thereof shall be a separate and distinct offense.

The State Commission shall adopt rules as soon as practicable to implement the requirements of Public Act 99-904 and shall adopt rules prohibiting any such third-party appointment of a third-party provider, except for a common carrier, that has been deemed by the State Commission to have violated the provisions of this Act with regard to any winery shipper licensee.

A winery shipper licensee must pay to the Department of Revenue the State liquor gallonage tax under Section 8-1 for all wine that is sold by the licensee and shipped to a person in this State. For the purposes of Section 8-1, a winery shipper licensee shall be taxed in the same manner as a manufacturer of wine. A licensee who is not otherwise required to register under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act must register under the Use Tax Act to collect and remit use tax to the Department of Revenue for all gallons of wine that are sold by the licensee and shipped to persons in this State. If a licensee fails to remit the tax imposed under this Act in accordance with the provisions of Article VIII of this Act, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act. If a licensee fails to properly register and remit tax under the Use Tax Act or the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act for all wine that is sold by the winery shipper and shipped to persons in this State, the winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the provisions of Article VII of this Act.

A winery shipper licensee must collect, maintain, and submit to the Commission on a semi-annual basis the total number of cases per resident of wine shipped to residents of this State. A winery shipper licensed under this subsection (r) must comply with the requirements of Section 6-29 of this Act.

Pursuant to paragraph (5.1) or (5.3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12, the State Commission may receive, respond to, and investigate any complaint and impose any of the remedies specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12.

As used in this subsection, "third-party provider" means any entity that provides fulfillment house services, including warehousing, packaging, distribution, order processing, or shipment of wine, but not the sale of wine, on behalf of a licensed winery shipper.

(s) A craft distiller tasting permit license shall allow an Illinois licensed craft distiller to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor inventory from its craft distiller licensed premises to the premises specified in the license hereby created and to conduct a sampling, only in the premises specified in the license hereby created, of the transferred alcoholic liquor in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 6-31 of this Act. The transferred alcoholic liquor may not be sold or resold in any form. An applicant for the craft distiller tasting permit license must also submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the maximum limits and have local authority approval.

A brewer warehouse permit may be issued to the holder of a class 1 brewer license or a class 2 brewer license. If the holder of the permit is a class 1 brewer licensee, the brewer warehouse permit shall allow the holder to store or warehouse up to 930,000 gallons of tax-determined beer manufactured by the holder of the permit at the premises specified on the permit. If the holder of the permit is a class 2 brewer licensee, the brewer warehouse permit shall allow the holder to store or warehouse up to 3,720,000 gallons of tax-determined beer manufactured by the holder of the permit at the premises specified on the permit. Sales to non-licensees are prohibited at the premises specified in the brewer warehouse permit.

(Source: P.A. 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-800, eff. 8-12-16; 99-902, eff. 8-26-16; 99-904, eff. 1-1-17; 100-17, eff. 6-30-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-816, eff. 8-13-18; 100-885, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1050, eff. 8-23-18; revised 10-2-18.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-4) (from Ch. 43, par. 121)

Sec. 6-4. (a) No person licensed by any licensing authority as a distiller, or a wine manufacturer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of such person shall be issued an importing distributor's or distributor's license, nor shall any person licensed by any licensing authority as an importing distributor, distributor or retailer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer or associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of such person be issued a distiller's license, a craft distiller's license, or a wine manufacturer's license; and no person or persons licensed as a distiller or craft distiller by any licensing authority shall have any interest, directly or indirectly, with such distributor or importing distributor.

However, an importing distributor or distributor, which on January 1, 1985 is owned by a brewer, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee, agent or shareholder owning more than 5% of the outstanding shares of the importing distributor or distributor referred to in this paragraph, may own or acquire an ownership interest of more than 5% of the outstanding shares of a wine manufacturer and be issued a wine manufacturer's license by any licensing authority.

(b) The foregoing provisions shall not apply to any person licensed by any licensing authority as a distiller or wine manufacturer, or to any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer who shall have been heretofore licensed by the State Commission as either an importing distributor or distributor during the annual licensing period expiring June 30, 1947, and shall actually have made sales regularly to retailers.

(c) Provided, however, that in such instances where a distributor's or importing distributor's license has been issued to any distiller or wine manufacturer or to any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer who has, during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, sold or distributed as such licensed distributor or importing distributor alcoholic liquors and wines to retailers, such distiller or wine manufacturer or any subsidiary or affiliate of any distiller or wine manufacturer holding such distributor's or importing distributor's license may continue to sell or distribute to retailers such alcoholic liquors and wines which are manufactured, distilled, processed or marketed by distillers and wine manufacturers whose products it sold or distributed to retailers during the whole or any part of its licensing periods; and such additional brands and additional products may be added to the line of such distributor or importing distributor, provided, that such brands and such products were not sold or distributed by any distributor or importing distributor licensed by the State Commission during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, but can not sell or distribute to retailers any other alcoholic liquors or wines.

(d) It shall be unlawful for any distiller licensed anywhere to have any stock ownership or interest in any distributor's or importing distributor's license wherein any other person has an interest therein who is not a distiller and does not own more than 5% of any stock in any distillery. Nothing herein contained shall apply to such distillers or their subsidiaries or affiliates, who had a distributor's or importing distributor's license during the licensing period ending June 30, 1947, which license was owned in whole by such distiller, or subsidiaries or affiliates of such distiller.

(e) Any person licensed as a brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer shall be permitted to sell on the licensed premises to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption for the premises in which he or she actually conducts such business: (i) beer manufactured by the brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer; (ii) beer manufactured by any other brewer, class 1 brewer, or class 2 brewer; and (iii) cider. Such sales shall be limited to on-premises, in-person sales only, for lawful consumption on or off premises. Such authorization shall be considered a privilege granted by the brewer license and, other than a manufacturer of beer as stated above, no manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor, excluding airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative, employee or agent, or shareholder shall be issued a retailer's license, nor shall any person having a retailer's license, excluding airplane licensees exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of this Act, or any subsidiary or affiliate thereof, or any officer, associate, member, partner, representative or agent, or shareholder be issued a manufacturer's license or importing distributor's license.

A manufacturer of beer that imports or transfers beer into this State must comply with Sections 6-8 and 8-1 of this Act.

A person who holds a class 1 or class 2 brewer license and is authorized by this Section to sell beer to non-licensees shall not sell beer to non-licensees from more than 3 total brewer or commonly owned brew pub licensed locations in this State. The class 1 or class 2 brewer shall designate to the State Commission the brewer or brew pub locations from which it will sell beer to non-licensees.

A person licensed as a craft distiller, including a person who holds more than one craft distiller license, not affiliated with any other person manufacturing spirits may be authorized by the Commission to sell up to 2,500 gallons of spirits produced by the person to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption for the premises in which he or she actually conducts business permitting only the retail sale of spirits manufactured at such premises. Such sales shall be limited to on-premises, in-person sales only, for lawful consumption on or off premises, and such authorization shall be considered a privilege granted by the craft distiller license. A craft distiller licensed for retail sale shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

A craft distiller license holder shall not deliver any alcoholic liquor to any non-licensee off the licensed premises. A craft distiller shall affirm in its annual craft distiller's license application that it does not produce more than 100,000 gallons of distilled spirits annually and that the craft distiller does not sell more than 2,500 gallons of spirits to non-licensees for on or off-premises consumption. In the application, which shall be sworn under penalty of perjury, the craft distiller shall state the volume of production and sales for each year since the craft distiller's establishment.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding any of the foregoing prohibitions, a limited wine manufacturer may sell at retail at its manufacturing site for on or off premises consumption and may sell to distributors. A limited wine manufacturer licensee shall secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.

(h) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 99-47 shall not diminish or impair the rights of any person, whether a distiller, wine manufacturer, agent, or affiliate thereof, who requested in writing and submitted documentation to the State Commission on or before February 18, 2015 to be approved for a retail license pursuant to what has heretofore been subsection (f); provided that, on or before that date, the State Commission considered the intent of that person to apply for the retail license under that subsection and, by recorded vote, the State Commission approved a resolution indicating that such a license application could be lawfully approved upon that person duly filing a formal application for a retail license and if that person, within 90 days of the State Commission appearance and recorded vote, first filed an application with the appropriate local commission, which application was subsequently approved by the appropriate local commission prior to consideration by the State Commission of that person's application for a retail license. It is further provided that the State Commission may approve the person's application for a retail license or renewals of such license if such person continues to diligently adhere to all representations made in writing to the State Commission on or before February 18, 2015, or thereafter, or in the affidavit filed by that person with the State Commission to support the issuance of a retail license and to abide by all applicable laws and duly adopted rules.

(Source: P.A. 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-448, eff. 8-24-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-902, eff. 8-26-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-816, eff. 8-13-18; 100-885, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-24-18.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-11)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(a-5) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, a local liquor control commissioner may grant an exemption to the prohibition in subsection (a) of this Section if a local rule or ordinance authorizes the local liquor control commissioner to grant that exemption.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of July 10, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-617).

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 31,000 square feet of floor space in a single story building located a distance of more than 90 feet but less than 100 feet from a high school that opened in 1928 as a junior high school and became a senior high school in 1933, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio area attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food,

(2) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises,

(3) the premises are less than 1,000 square feet,

(4) the premises are owned by the University of Illinois,

(5) the premises are immediately adjacent to property owned by a church and are not less than 20 nor more than 40 feet from the church space used for worship services, and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(i) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church, synagogue, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church, synagogue, or other place of worship are at least 100 feet apart, on parallel streets, and separated by an alley; and

(2) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a theater that is within 100 feet of a church if (1) the church owns the theater, (2) the church leases the theater to one or more entities, and (3) the theater is used by at least 5 different not-for-profit theater groups.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are parallel, on different streets, and separated by an alley;

(2) the southeast corner of the premises are at least 350 feet from the southwest corner of the school;

(3) the school was built in 1978;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and has held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises at a different location for more than 7 years; and

(7) the premises is at least 2,300 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 6,100 and 6,150 square feet.

(l) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 80 feet apart and no greater than 85 feet apart;

(3) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and on November 15, 2006 held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises for at least 14 different locations;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the premises is at least 3,200 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 7,150 and 7,200 square feet; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(m) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises and the church are perpendicular, and the primary entrance of the premises faces South while the primary entrance of the church faces West and the distance between the two entrances is more than 100 feet;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises lot line and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(3) the church was established at the current location in 1916 and the present structure was erected in 1925;

(4) the premises is a single story, single use building with at least 1,750 square feet and no more than 2,000 square feet;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(6) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(n) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(2) the school is located within subarea E of City of Chicago Residential Business Planned Development Number 70;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food; and

(5) the administration of City of Chicago School District 299 has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of the license.

(o) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises is located on a street that runs perpendicular to the street on which the church is located;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 60 feet;

(6) the premises is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet; and

(7) the premises was built in the year 1909.

For purposes of this subsection (o), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(p) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the shortest distance between the backdoor of the premises, which is used as an emergency exit, and the church is at least 80 feet;

(2) the church was established at the current location in 1889; and

(3) liquor has been sold on the premises since at least 1985.

(q) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church-owned property if:

(1) the premises is located within a larger building operated as a grocery store;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 720 square feet and the area of the larger building exceeds 18,000 square feet;

(3) the larger building containing the premises is within 100 feet of the nearest property line of a church-owned property on which a church-affiliated school is located;

(4) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on within the larger building;

(5) the primary entrance of the larger building and the premises and the primary entrance of the church-affiliated school are on different, parallel streets, and the distance between the 2 primary entrances is more than 100 feet;

(6) the larger building is separated from the church-owned property and church-affiliated school by an alley;

(7) the larger building containing the premises and the church building front are on perpendicular streets and are separated by a street; and

(8) (Blank).

(r) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance, renewal, or maintenance of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the primary entrance of the church and the primary entrance of the restaurant are at least 100 feet apart;

(2) the restaurant has operated on the ground floor and lower level of a multi-story, multi-use building for more than 40 years;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is conducted primarily in the below-grade level of the restaurant to which the only public access is by a staircase located inside the restaurant; and

(5) the restaurant has held a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises for more than 40 years.

(s) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population more than 5,000 and less than 10,000 and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the church was established at the location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued;

(2) a license for sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued before January 1, 2007; and

(3) a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 2007, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days.

(t) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant that is established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and a church if:

(1) the restaurant is located inside a five-story building with over 16,800 square feet of commercial space;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 31,050 square feet;

(3) the area of the restaurant does not exceed 5,800 square feet;

(4) the building has no less than 78 condominium units;

(5) the construction of the building in which the restaurant is located was completed in 2006;

(6) the building has 10 storefront properties, 3 of which are used for the restaurant;

(7) the restaurant will open for business in 2010;

(8) the building is north of the school and separated by an alley; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church and either the alderman of the ward in which the school is located or the principal of the school have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (t).

(u) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises operates as a restaurant and has been in operation since February 2008;

(2) the applicant is the owner of the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(5) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(6) the rear lot of the school and the rear corner of the building that the premises occupy are separated by an alley;

(7) the distance from the southwest corner of the property line of the school and the northeast corner of the building that the premises occupy is at least 16 feet, 5 inches;

(8) the distance from the rear door of the premises to the southwest corner of the property line of the school is at least 93 feet;

(9) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(10) the school's main structure was erected in 1902 and an addition was built to the main structure in 1959; and

(11) the principal of the school and the alderman in whose district the premises are located have expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(v) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the total land area of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is more than 600,000 square feet;

(2) the premises for which the license or renewal is sought has more than 600 parking stalls;

(3) the total area of all buildings on the premises for which the license or renewal is sought exceeds 140,000 square feet;

(4) the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is separated from the property line of the school by a street;

(5) the distance from the school's property line to the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is at least 60 feet;

(6) as of June 14, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-9), the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is located in the Illinois Medical District.

(w) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises occupy the first floor and basement of a 2-story building that is 106 years old;

(4) the premises is at least 7,000 square feet and located on a lot that is at least 11,000 square feet;

(5) the premises is located directly west of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(6) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(7) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 130 feet; and

(8) the church has been at its location for at least 40 years.

(x) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the church has been operating in its current location since 1973;

(3) the premises has been operating in its current location since 1988;

(4) the church and the premises are owned by the same parish;

(5) the premises is used for cultural and educational purposes;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his support of the issuance of the license;

(8) the premises is a 2-story building of approximately 23,000 square feet; and

(9) the premises houses a ballroom on its ground floor of approximately 5,000 square feet.

(y) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) according to the municipality, the distance between the east property line of the premises and the west property line of the school is 97.8 feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the school has been operating since 1959;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the school are located on the same street;

(7) the street on which the entrances of the premises and the school are located is a major diagonal thoroughfare;

(8) the premises is a single-story building of approximately 2,900 square feet; and

(9) the premises is used for commercial purposes only.

(z) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is a free-standing building that has "drive-through" pharmacy service;

(8) the premises has approximately 14,490 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 799 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs east-west and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aa) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is located across the street from a national grocery chain outlet;

(8) the premises has approximately 16,148 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 992 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs north-south and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(4) the premises is across the street from the church;

(5) the street on which the premises and the church are located is a major arterial street that runs east-west;

(6) the church is an elder-led and Bible-based Assyrian church;

(7) the premises and the church are both single-story buildings;

(8) the storefront directly west of the church is being used as a restaurant; and

(9) the distance between the northern-most property line of the premises and the southern-most property line of the church is 65 feet.

(cc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of October 25, 2011, the licensee has 1,767 stores operating nationwide, 87 stores operating in the State, and 10 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 124,000 square feet of space in the basement and first and second floors of a building located across the street from a school;

(6) the school opened in August of 2009 and occupies approximately 67,000 square feet of space; and

(7) the building in which the premises shall be located has been listed on the National Register of Historic Places since April 17, 1970.

(dd) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that was purchased from the municipality at a fair market price;

(2) the premises is constructed on land that was previously used as a parking facility for public safety employees;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(4) the main entrance to the store is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the school;

(5) the premises is to be new construction;

(6) the school is a private school;

(7) the principal of the school has given written approval for the license;

(8) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license;

(9) the grocery store level of the premises is between 60,000 and 70,000 square feet; and

(10) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates 2 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality.

(ee) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that once contained an industrial steel facility;

(2) the premises is located on land that has undergone environmental remediation;

(3) the premises is located within a retail complex containing retail stores where some of the stores sell alcoholic beverages;

(4) the principal activity of any restaurant in the retail complex is the sale of food, and the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the grocery store;

(6) the entrance to any business that sells alcoholic liquor is more than 100 feet from the entrance to the school;

(7) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license; and

(8) the principal of the school has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(ff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises is a one and one-half-story building of approximately 10,000 square feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are at least 300 feet apart and no more than 400 feet apart;

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his support for the issuance of the license; and

(7) the principal of the school has expressed, in writing, that there is no objection to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ff).

(gg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the property on which the church is located and the property on which the premises are located are both within a district originally listed on the National Register of Historic Places on February 14, 1979;

(3) the property on which the premises are located contains one or more multi-story buildings that are at least 95 years old and have no more than three stories;

(4) the building in which the church is located is at least 120 years old;

(5) the property on which the church is located is immediately adjacent to and west of the property on which the premises are located;

(6) the western boundary of the property on which the premises are located is no less than 118 feet in length and no more than 122 feet in length;

(7) as of December 31, 2012, both the church property and the property on which the premises are located are within 250 feet of City of Chicago Business-Residential Planned Development Number 38;

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For the purposes of this subsection, "banquet facility" means the part of the building that is located on the floor above a restaurant and caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(hh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a hotel and at an outdoor patio area attached to the hotel that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the hotel;

(2) the hotel is located within the City of Chicago Business Planned Development Number 468; and

(3) the hospital is located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(ii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant and at an outdoor patio area attached to the restaurant that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is not the principal business carried on by the licensee and is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the restaurant has been operated on the street level of a 2-story building located on a corner lot since 2008;

(3) the restaurant is between 3,700 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is no more than 6,200 square feet;

(4) the primary entrance to the restaurant and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(5) the street on which the restaurant and the church are located is a major east-west street;

(6) the restaurant and the church are separated by a one-way northbound street;

(7) the church is located to the west of and no more than 65 feet from the restaurant; and

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing.

(jj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located east of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(4) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 175 feet;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 40 feet;

(6) the licensee has been operating at the premises since 2012;

(7) the church was constructed in 1904;

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (jj).

(kk) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 169,048 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from a tuition-based preschool; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 191,535 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from an elementary school; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(mm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio or sidewalk cafe, or both, attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) as a restaurant, the premises may or may not offer catering as an incidental part of food service;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant is conducted in space owned by a hospital or an entity owned or controlled by, under common control with, or that controls a hospital, and the chief hospital administrator has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(4) the hospital is an adult acute care facility primarily located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(nn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises are a building that was constructed in 1913 and opened on May 24, 1915 as a vaudeville theater, and the premises were converted to a motion picture theater in 1935;

(4) the church was constructed in 1889 with a stone exterior;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart;

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(oo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque, church, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the mosque, church, or other place of worship are perpendicular and are on different streets;

(2) the primary entrance to the premises faces West and the primary entrance to the mosque, church, or other place of worship faces South;

(3) the distance between the 2 primary entrances is at least 100 feet;

(4) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established in a location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued;

(5) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established on or around January 1, 2011;

(6) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued on or before January 1, 1985;

(7) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 1985, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days; and

(8) the premises are a single-story, single-use building of at least 3,000 square feet and no more than 3,380 square feet.

(pp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established on premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of at least one church if:

(1) the sale of liquor shall not be the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the premises are at least 2,000 square feet and no more than 10,000 square feet and is located in a single-story building;

(3) the property on which the premises are located is within an area that, as of 2009, was designated as a Renewal Community by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development;

(4) the property on which the premises are located and the properties on which the churches are located are on the same street;

(5) the property on which the premises are located is immediately adjacent to and east of the property on which at least one of the churches is located;

(6) the property on which the premises are located is across the street and southwest of the property on which another church is located;

(7) the principal religious leaders of the churches have indicated their support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For purposes of this subsection (pp), "banquet facility" means the part of the building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(qq) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on premises that are located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school are at least 200 feet apart and no greater than 300 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 66 feet apart and no greater than 81 feet apart;

(3) the premises are a single-story, steel-framed commercial building with at least 18,042 square feet, and was constructed in 1925 and 1997;

(4) the owner of the business operated within the premises has been the general manager of a similar supermarket within one mile from the premises, which has had a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor since 2002, and is in good standing with the City of Chicago;

(5) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(6) the alderman of the ward has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the principal of the school has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(rr) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a club that leases space to a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a building of approximately 1,750 square feet and is rented by the owners of the grocery store from a family member;

(4) the property line of the premises is approximately 68 feet from the property line of the club;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the club where the school leases space are at least 100 feet apart;

(6) the director of the club renting space to the school has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(ss) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are located within a 15 unit building with 13 residential apartments and 2 commercial spaces, and the licensee will occupy both commercial spaces;

(2) a restaurant has been operated on the premises since June 2011;

(3) the restaurant currently occupies 1,075 square feet, but will be expanding to include 975 additional square feet;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(5) the premises are located south of the church and on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 93 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(7) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 72 feet;

(8) the building in which the restaurant is located was built in 1910;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ss).

(tt) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was previously authorized by a package goods liquor license;

(4) the premises are at least 40,000 square feet with 25 parking spaces in the contiguous surface lot to the north of the store and 93 parking spaces on the roof;

(5) the shortest distance between the lot line of the parking lot of the premises and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(6) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 180 feet;

(7) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 257 feet from the main entrance of the premises; and

(8) the applicant is the owner of 10 similar grocery stores within the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 30 years.

(uu) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are located in a building that is approximately 68,000 square feet with 157 parking spaces on property that was previously vacant land;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 500 feet from the entrance of the premises, which faces north;

(5) the church and the premises are separated by an alley;

(6) the applicant is the owner of 9 similar grocery stores in the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 40 years; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(vv) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is primary to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located south of the church and on perpendicular streets and are separated by a driveway;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 15 feet;

(6) the premises are less than 100 feet from the church center, but greater than 100 feet from the area within the building where church services are held;

(7) the premises are 25,830 square feet and sit on a lot that is 0.48 acres;

(8) the premises were once designated as a Korean American Presbyterian Church and were once used as a Masonic Temple;

(9) the premises were built in 1910;

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(11) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (vv).

For the purposes of this subsection (vv), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(ww) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is located within Sub Area III of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended; and

(2) the premises are located within Sub Area I, Sub Area II, or Sub Area IV of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended.

(xx) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of wine or wine-related products is the exclusive business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart and are located on different streets;

(3) the building in which the premises are located and the building in which the church is located are separated by an alley;

(4) the premises consists of less than 2,000 square feet of floor area dedicated to the sale of wine or wine-related products;

(5) the premises are located on the first floor of a 2-story building that is at least 99 years old and has a residential unit on the second floor; and

(6) the principal religious leader at the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(yy) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 27-story hotel containing 191 guest rooms;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises and is limited to a restaurant located on the first floor of the hotel;

(3) the hotel is adjacent to the church;

(4) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(5) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (yy); and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(zz) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 15-story hotel containing 143 guest rooms;

(2) the premises are approximately 85,691 square feet;

(3) a restaurant is operated on the premises;

(4) the restaurant is located in the first floor lobby of the hotel;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the hotel is located approximately 50 feet from the church and is separated from the church by a public street on the ground level and by air space on the upper level, which is where the public entrances are located;

(7) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (zz); and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aaa) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the grocery store;

(2) the premises are newly constructed on land that was formerly used by the Young Men's Christian Association;

(3) the grocery store is located within a planned development that was approved by the municipality in 2007;

(4) the premises are located in a multi-building, mixed-use complex;

(5) the entrance to the grocery store is located more than 200 feet from the entrance to the school;

(6) the entrance to the grocery store is located across the street from the back of the school building, which is not used for student or public access;

(7) the grocery store executed a binding lease for the property in 2008;

(8) the premises consist of 2 levels and occupy more than 80,000 square feet;

(9) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality; and

(10) the director of the school has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bbb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the premises are located in a single-story building of primarily brick construction containing at least 6 commercial units constructed before 1940;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are less than 4,000 square feet;

(5) the church established its congregation in 1891 and completed construction of the church building in 1990;

(6) the premises are located south of the church;

(7) the premises and church are located on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street; and

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(ccc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) as of March 14, 2007, the premises are located in a City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development No. 1052;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store and comprises no more than 10% of the total in-store sales;

(4) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality;

(5) the premises are new construction when the license is first issued;

(6) the constructed premises are to be no less than 50,000 square feet;

(7) the school is a private church-affiliated school;

(8) the premises and the property containing the church and church-affiliated school are located on perpendicular streets and the school and church are adjacent to one another;

(9) the pastor of the church and school has expressed, in writing, support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ddd) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the business has been issued a license from the municipality to allow the business to operate a theater on the premises;

(2) the theater has less than 200 seats;

(3) the premises are approximately 2,700 to 3,100 square feet of space;

(4) the premises are located to the north of the church;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any church within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any school within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(7) the premises are located in a building that is at least 100 years old; and

(8) any church or school located within 100 feet of the premises has indicated its support for the issuance or renewal of the license to the premises in writing.

(eee) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the applicant on the premises;

(3) a family-owned restaurant has operated on the premises since 1957;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(6) the church was established at its current location and the present structure was erected before 1900;

(7) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 75 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(8) the school is affiliated with the church;

(9) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing;

(10) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her lack of an objection to the issuance of the license.

(fff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a one-story building containing approximately 10,000 square feet and are rented by the owners of the grocery store;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises occurs in a retail area of the grocery store that is approximately 3,500 square feet;

(5) the grocery store has operated at the location since 1984;

(6) the grocery store is closed on Sundays;

(7) the property on which the premises are located is a corner lot that is bound by 3 streets and an alley, where one street is a one-way street that runs north-south, one street runs east-west, and one street runs northwest-southeast;

(8) the property line of the premises is approximately 16 feet from the property line of the building where the church is located;

(9) the premises are separated from the building containing the church by a public alley;

(10) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart;

(11) representatives of the church have delivered a written statement that the church does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (fff); and

(12) the alderman of the ward in which the grocery store is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ggg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) a residential retirement home formerly operated on the premises and the premises are being converted into a new apartment living complex containing studio and one-bedroom apartments with ground floor retail space;

(2) the restaurant and lobby coffee house are located within a Community Shopping District within the municipality;

(3) the premises are located in a single-building, mixed-use complex that, in addition to the restaurant and lobby coffee house, contains apartment residences, a fitness center for the residents of the apartment building, a lobby designed as a social center for the residents, a rooftop deck, and a patio with a dog run for the exclusive use of the residents;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the apartment complex, restaurant, or lobby coffee house;

(5) the entrance to the apartment residence is more than 310 feet from the entrance to the school and church;

(6) the entrance to the apartment residence is located at the end of the block around the corner from the south side of the school building;

(7) the school is affiliated with the church;

(8) the pastor of the parish, principal of the school, and the titleholder to the church and school have given written consent to the issuance of the license;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has given written consent to the issuance of the license; and

(10) the neighborhood block club has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(hhh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a home for indigent persons or a church if:

(1) a restaurant operates on the premises and has been in operation since January of 2014;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 100 years old;

(5) the primary entrance to the premises is more than 100 feet from the primary entrance to the home for indigent persons, which opened in 1989 and is operated to address homelessness and provide shelter;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the home for indigent persons are located on different streets;

(7) the executive director of the home for indigent persons has given written consent to the issuance of the license;

(8) the entrance to the premises is located within 100 feet of a Buddhist temple;

(9) the entrance to the premises is more than 100 feet from where any worship or educational programming is conducted by the Buddhist temple and is located in an area used only for other purposes; and

(10) the president and the board of directors of the Buddhist temple have given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(iii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a home for the aged if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a restaurant;

(3) the premises are on the ground floor of a multi-floor, university-affiliated housing facility;

(4) the premises occupy 1,916 square feet of space, with the total square footage from which liquor will be sold, served, and consumed to be 900 square feet;

(5) the premises are separated from the home for the aged by an alley;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the home for the aged are at least 500 feet apart and located on different streets;

(7) representatives of the home for the aged have expressed, in writing, that the home does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection; and

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the restaurant is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(jjj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) as of January 1, 2016, the premises were used for the sale of alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises and were authorized to do so pursuant to a retail tavern license held by an individual as the sole proprietor of the premises;

(2) the primary entrance to the school and the primary entrance to the premises are on the same street;

(3) the school was founded in 1949;

(4) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1930;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated is immediately across the street from the school; and

(6) the school has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(kkk) (Blank).

(lll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a synagogue or school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises are located on the same street on which the synagogue or school is located;

(4) the primary entrance to the premises and the closest entrance to the synagogue or school is at least 100 feet apart;

(5) the shortest distance between the premises and the synagogue or school is at least 65 feet apart and no greater than 70 feet apart;

(6) the premises are between 1,800 and 2,000 square feet;

(7) the synagogue was founded in 1861; and

(8) the leader of the synagogue has indicated, in writing, the synagogue's support for the issuance or renewal of the license.

(mmm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(3) the restaurant has been run by the same family for at least 19 consecutive years;

(4) the premises are located in a 3-story building in the most easterly part of the first floor;

(5) the building in which the premises are located has residential housing on the second and third floors;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises is on a north-south street around the corner and across an alley from the primary entrance to the church, which is on an east-west street;

(7) the primary entrance to the church and the primary entrance to the premises are more than 160 feet apart; and

(8) the church has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of a license under this subsection.

(nnn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and church or synagogue if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(3) the front door of the synagogue faces east on the next north-south street east of and parallel to the north-south street on which the restaurant is located where the restaurant's front door faces west;

(4) the closest exterior pedestrian entrance that leads to the school or the synagogue is across an east-west street and at least 300 feet from the primary entrance to the restaurant;

(5) the nearest church-related or school-related building is a community center building;

(6) the restaurant is on the ground floor of a 3-story building constructed in 1896 with a brick façade;

(7) the restaurant shares the ground floor with a theater, and the second and third floors of the building in which the restaurant is located consists of residential housing;

(8) the leader of the synagogue and school has expressed, in writing, that the synagogue does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ooo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 2,000 but less than 5,000 inhabitants in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 and within 100 feet of a home for the aged if:

(1) as of March 1, 2016, the premises were used to sell alcohol pursuant to a retail tavern and packaged goods license issued by the municipality and held by a limited liability company as the proprietor of the premises;

(2) the home for the aged was completed in 2015;

(3) the home for the aged is a 5-story structure;

(4) the building in which the premises are situated is directly adjacent to the home for the aged;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1950;

(6) the home for the aged has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license; and

(7) the president of the municipality has expressed in writing that he or she does not object to the issuance or renewal of the license.

(ppp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or churches if:

(1) the shortest distance between the premises and a church is at least 78 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the premises are a single-story, brick commercial building and between 3,600 to 4,000 square feet and the original building was built before 1922;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are separated from the buildings containing the churches by a street;

(5) the previous owners of the business located on the premises held a liquor license for at least 10 years;

(6) the new owner of the business located on the premises has managed 2 other food and liquor stores since 1997;

(7) the principal religious leaders at the places of worship have indicated their support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(qqq) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises are located on the opposite side of the same street on which the church is located;

(4) the church is located on a corner lot;

(5) the shortest distance between the premises and the church is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(6) the premises are at least 3,000 but no more than 5,000 square feet;

(7) the church's original chapel was built in 1858;

(8) the church's first congregation was organized in 1860; and

(9) the leaders of the church and the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(rrr) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a restaurant or banquet facility established within premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the immediately prior owner or the operator of the restaurant or banquet facility held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises for at least part of the 24 months before a change of ownership;

(4) the premises are located immediately east and across the street from an elementary school;

(5) the premises and elementary school are part of an approximately 100-acre campus owned by the church;

(6) the school opened in 1999 and was named after the founder of the church; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(sss) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the premises are at least 5,300 square feet and located in a building that was built prior to 1940;

(2) the shortest distance between the property line of the premises and the exterior wall of the building in which the church is located is at least 109 feet;

(3) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 118 feet;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 602 feet from the main entrance of the premises;

(5) the shortest distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the school is at least 177 feet;

(6) the applicant has been in business for more than 10 years;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(8) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ttt) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the premises are at least 59,000 square feet and located in a building that was built prior to 1940;

(2) the shortest distance between the west property line of the premises and the exterior wall of the church is at least 99 feet;

(3) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 102 feet;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 457 feet from the main entrance of the premises;

(5) the shortest distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the school is at least 66 feet;

(6) the applicant has been in business for more than 10 years;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(8) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(uuu) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a place of worship if:

(1) the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the premises are at least 7,100 square feet;

(3) the shortest distance between the north property line of the premises and the nearest exterior wall of the place of worship is at least 86 feet;

(4) the main entrance to the place of worship faces north and is more than 150 feet from the main entrance of the premises;

(5) the applicant has been in business for more than 20 years at the location;

(6) the principal religious leader of the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(vvv) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of 2 churches if:

(1) as of January 1, 2015, the premises were used for the sale of alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises and the sale was authorized pursuant to a retail tavern license held by an individual as the sole proprietor of the premises;

(2) a primary entrance of the church situated to the south of the premises is located on a street running perpendicular to the street upon which a primary entrance of the premises is situated;

(3) the church located to the south of the premises is a 3-story structure that was constructed in 2006;

(4) a parking lot separates the premises from the church located to the south of the premises;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1930;

(6) the building in which the premises are situated is a 2-story, mixed-use commercial and residential structure containing more than 20,000 total square feet and containing at least 7 residential units on the second floor and 3 commercial units on the first floor;

(7) the building in which the premises are situated is immediately adjacent to the church located to the north of the premises;

(8) the primary entrance of the church located to the north of the premises and the primary entrance of the premises are located on the same street;

(9) the churches have not indicated their opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(www) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food and is not the principal business of the restaurant;

(2) the building in which the restaurant is located was constructed in 1909 and is a 2-story structure;

(3) the restaurant has been operating continuously since 1962, has been located at the existing premises since 1989, and has been owned and operated by the same family, which also operates a deli in a building located immediately to the east and adjacent and connected to the restaurant;

(4) the entrance to the restaurant is more than 200 feet from the entrance to the school;

(5) the building in which the restaurant is located and the building in which the school is located are separated by a traffic-congested major street;

(6) the building in which the restaurant is located faces a public park located to the east of the school, cannot be seen from the windows of the school, and is not directly across the street from the school;

(7) the school building is located 2 blocks from a major private university;

(8) the school is a public school that has pre-kindergarten through eighth grade classes, is an open enrollment school, and has a preschool program that has earned a Gold Circle of Quality award;

(9) the local school council has given written consent for the issuance of the liquor license; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has given written consent for the issuance of the liquor license.

(xxx) (Blank).

(yyy) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a store that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are primarily used for the sale of alcoholic liquor;

(2) on January 1, 2017, the store was authorized to sell alcoholic liquor pursuant to a package goods liquor license;

(3) on January 1, 2017, the store occupied approximately 5,560 square feet and will be expanded to include 440 additional square feet for the purpose of storage;

(4) the store was in existence before the church;

(5) the building in which the store is located was built in 1956 and is immediately south of the church;

(6) the store and church are separated by an east-west street;

(7) the owner of the store received his first liquor license in 1986;

(8) the church has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the store is located has expressed his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license.

(zzz) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are approximately 2,800 square feet with east frontage on South Allport Street and north frontage on West 18th Street in the City of Chicago;

(2) the shortest distance between the north property line of the premises and the nearest exterior wall of the church is 95 feet;

(3) the main entrance to the church is on West 18th Street, faces south, and is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(5) the principal religious leader of the church has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(aaaa) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the shortest distance between the premises and the church is at least 65 feet apart and no greater than 70 feet apart;

(2) the premises are located on the ground floor of a freestanding, 3-story building of brick construction with 2 stories of residential apartments above the premises;

(3) the premises are approximately 2,557 square feet;

(4) the premises and the church are located on opposite corners and are separated by sidewalks and a street;

(5) the sale of alcohol is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the pastor of the church has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(bbbb) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises or an outdoor location at the premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the church was a Catholic cathedral on January 1, 2018;

(2) the church has been in existence for at least 150 years;

(3) the school is affiliated with the church;

(4) the premises are bordered by State Street on the east, Superior Street on the south, Dearborn Street on the west, and Chicago Avenue on the north;

(5) the premises are located within 2 miles of Lake Michigan and the Chicago River;

(6) the premises are located in and adjacent to a building for which construction commenced after January 1, 2018;

(7) the alderman who represents the district in which the premises are located has written a letter of support for the issuance of a license; and

(8) the principal religious leader of the church and the principal of the school have both signed a letter of support for the issuance of a license.

(cccc) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food and is not the principal business of the restaurant;

(2) the building in which the restaurant is located was constructed in 1912 and is a 3-story structure;

(3) the restaurant has been in operation since 2015 and its entrance faces North Western Avenue;

(4) the entrance to the school faces West Augusta Boulevard;

(5) the entrance to the restaurant is more than 100 feet from the entrance to the school;

(6) the school is a Catholic school affiliated with the nearby Catholic Parish church;

(7) the building in which the restaurant is located and the building in which the school is located are separated by an alley;

(8) the principal of the school has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the restaurant is located has expressed his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license.

(dddd) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises are approximately 6,250 square feet with south frontage on Bryn Mawr Avenue and north frontage on the alley 125 feet north of Bryn Mawr Avenue in the City of Chicago;

(2) the shortest distance between the south property line of the premises and the nearest exterior wall of the school is 248 feet;

(3) the main entrance to the school is on Christiana Avenue, faces east, and is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(5) the principal of the school has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(eeee) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises are approximately 2,300 square feet with south frontage on 53rd Street in the City of Chicago and the eastern property line of the premises abuts a private alleyway;

(2) the shortest distance between the south property line of the premises and the nearest exterior wall of the school is approximately 187 feet;

(3) the main entrance to the school is on Cornell Avenue, faces west, and is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(5) the principal of the school has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(Source: P.A. 99-46, eff. 7-15-15; 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-477, eff. 8-27-15; 99-484, eff. 10-30-15; 99-558, eff. 7-15-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-936, eff. 2-24-17; 100-36, eff. 8-4-17; 100-38, eff. 8-4-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-579, eff. 2-13-18; 100-663, eff. 8-2-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1036, eff. 8-22-18; revised 10-24-18.)

Section 565. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-4.2, 5-5.02, 5-5.25, 5-16.8, 5A-15, 9A-11, 12-4.51, and 14-12 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Sections 5-30.6 and 5-30.8 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-4.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-4.2)

Sec. 5-4.2. Ambulance services payments.

(a) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1993, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers at rates calculated in accordance with this Section. It is the intent of the General Assembly to provide adequate reimbursement for ambulance services so as to ensure adequate access to services for recipients of aid under this Article and to provide appropriate incentives to ambulance service providers to provide services in an efficient and cost-effective manner. Thus, it is the intent of the General Assembly that the Illinois Department implement a reimbursement system for ambulance services that, to the extent practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, is consistent with the payment principles of Medicare. To ensure uniformity between the payment principles of Medicare and Medicaid, the Illinois Department shall follow, to the extent necessary and practicable and subject to the availability of funds appropriated by the General Assembly for this purpose, the statutes, laws, regulations, policies, procedures, principles, definitions, guidelines, and manuals used to determine the amounts paid to ambulance service providers under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (Medicare).

(b) For ambulance services provided to a recipient of aid under this Article on or after January 1, 1996, the Illinois Department shall reimburse ambulance service providers based upon the actual distance traveled if a natural disaster, weather conditions, road repairs, or traffic congestion necessitates the use of a route other than the most direct route.

(c) For purposes of this Section, "ambulance services" includes medical transportation services provided by means of an ambulance, medi-car, service car, or taxi.

(c-1) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service" means medical transportation services that are described as ground ambulance services by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and provided in a vehicle that is licensed as an ambulance by the Illinois Department of Public Health pursuant to the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(c-2) For purposes of this Section, "ground ambulance service provider" means a vehicle service provider as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act that operates licensed ambulances for the purpose of providing emergency ambulance services, or non-emergency ambulance services, or both. For purposes of this Section, this includes both ambulance providers and ambulance suppliers as described by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

(c-3) For purposes of this Section, "medi-car" means transportation services provided to a patient who is confined to a wheelchair and requires the use of a hydraulic or electric lift or ramp and wheelchair lockdown when the patient's condition does not require medical observation, medical supervision, medical equipment, the administration of medications, or the administration of oxygen.

(c-4) For purposes of this Section, "service car" means transportation services provided to a patient by a passenger vehicle where that patient does not require the specialized modes described in subsection (c-1) or (c-3).

(d) This Section does not prohibit separate billing by ambulance service providers for oxygen furnished while providing advanced life support services.

(e) Beginning with services rendered on or after July 1, 2008, all providers of non-emergency medi-car and service car transportation must certify that the driver and employee attendant, as applicable, have completed a safety program approved by the Department to protect both the patient and the driver, prior to transporting a patient. The provider must maintain this certification in its records. The provider shall produce such documentation upon demand by the Department or its representative. Failure to produce documentation of such training shall result in recovery of any payments made by the Department for services rendered by a non-certified driver or employee attendant. Medi-car and service car providers must maintain legible documentation in their records of the driver and, as applicable, employee attendant that actually transported the patient. Providers must recertify all drivers and employee attendants every 3 years.

Notwithstanding the requirements above, any public transportation provider of medi-car and service car transportation that receives federal funding under 49 U.S.C. 5307 and 5311 need not certify its drivers and employee attendants under this Section, since safety training is already federally mandated.

(f) With respect to any policy or program administered by the Department or its agent regarding approval of non-emergency medical transportation by ground ambulance service providers, including, but not limited to, the Non-Emergency Transportation Services Prior Approval Program (NETSPAP), the Department shall establish by rule a process by which ground ambulance service providers of non-emergency medical transportation may appeal any decision by the Department or its agent for which no denial was received prior to the time of transport that either (i) denies a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service or (ii) grants a request for approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than the ground ambulance service provider would have received as compensation for the level of service requested. The rule shall be filed by December 15, 2012 and shall provide that, for any decision rendered by the Department or its agent on or after the date the rule takes effect, the ground ambulance service provider shall have 60 days from the date the decision is received to file an appeal. The rule established by the Department shall be, insofar as is practical, consistent with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Director's decision on an appeal under this Section shall be a final administrative decision subject to review under the Administrative Review Law.

(f-5) Beginning 90 days after July 20, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-842), (i) no denial of a request for approval for payment of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service, and (ii) no approval of non-emergency transportation by means of ground ambulance service at a level of service that entitles the ground ambulance service provider to a lower level of compensation from the Department than would have been received at the level of service submitted by the ground ambulance service provider, may be issued by the Department or its agent unless the Department has submitted the criteria for determining the appropriateness of the transport for first notice publication in the Illinois Register pursuant to Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(g) Whenever a patient covered by a medical assistance program under this Code or by another medical program administered by the Department, including a patient covered under the State's Medicaid managed care program, is being transported from a facility and requires non-emergency transportation including ground ambulance, medi-car, or service car transportation, a Physician Certification Statement as described in this Section shall be required for each patient. Facilities shall develop procedures for a licensed medical professional to provide a written and signed Physician Certification Statement. The Physician Certification Statement shall specify the level of transportation services needed and complete a medical certification establishing the criteria for approval of non-emergency ambulance transportation, as published by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that is met by the patient. This certification shall be completed prior to ordering the transportation service and prior to patient discharge. The Physician Certification Statement is not required prior to transport if a delay in transport can be expected to negatively affect the patient outcome.

The medical certification specifying the level and type of non-emergency transportation needed shall be in the form of the Physician Certification Statement on a standardized form prescribed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services. Within 75 days after July 27, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-646) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall develop a standardized form of the Physician Certification Statement specifying the level and type of transportation services needed in consultation with the Department of Public Health, Medicaid managed care organizations, a statewide association representing ambulance providers, a statewide association representing hospitals, 3 statewide associations representing nursing homes, and other stakeholders. The Physician Certification Statement shall include, but is not limited to, the criteria necessary to demonstrate medical necessity for the level of transport needed as required by (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and (ii) the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services as outlined in the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services' Medicare Benefit Policy Manual, Pub. 100-02, Chap. 10, Sec. 10.2.1, et seq. The use of the Physician Certification Statement shall satisfy the obligations of hospitals under Section 6.22 of the Hospital Licensing Act and nursing homes under Section 2-217 of the Nursing Home Care Act. Implementation and acceptance of the Physician Certification Statement shall take place no later than 90 days after the issuance of the Physician Certification Statement by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

Pursuant to subsection (E) of Section 12-4.25 of this Code, the Department is entitled to recover overpayments paid to a provider or vendor, including, but not limited to, from the discharging physician, the discharging facility, and the ground ambulance service provider, in instances where a non-emergency ground ambulance service is rendered as the result of improper or false certification.

Beginning October 1, 2018, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall collect data from Medicaid managed care organizations and transportation brokers, including the Department's NETSPAP broker, regarding denials and appeals related to the missing or incomplete Physician Certification Statement forms and overall compliance with this subsection. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall publish quarterly results on its website within 15 days following the end of each quarter.

(h) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(i) On and after July 1, 2018, the Department shall increase the base rate of reimbursement for both base charges and mileage charges for ground ambulance service providers for medical transportation services provided by means of a ground ambulance to a level not lower than 112% of the base rate in effect as of June 30, 2018.

(Source: P.A. 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-646, eff. 7-27-18; revised 8-27-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.02) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.02)

Sec. 5-5.02. Hospital reimbursements.

(a) Reimbursement to hospitals; July 1, 1992 through September 30, 1992. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code or the Illinois Department's Rules promulgated under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, reimbursement to hospitals for services provided during the period July 1, 1992 through September 30, 1992, shall be as follows:

(1) For inpatient hospital services rendered, or if applicable, for inpatient hospital discharges occurring, on or after July 1, 1992 and on or before September 30, 1992, the Illinois Department shall reimburse hospitals for inpatient services under the reimbursement methodologies in effect for each hospital, and at the inpatient payment rate calculated for each hospital, as of June 30, 1992. For purposes of this paragraph, "reimbursement methodologies" means all reimbursement methodologies that pertain to the provision of inpatient hospital services, including, but not limited to, any adjustments for disproportionate share, targeted access, critical care access and uncompensated care, as defined by the Illinois Department on June 30, 1992.

(2) For the purpose of calculating the inpatient payment rate for each hospital eligible to receive quarterly adjustment payments for targeted access and critical care, as defined by the Illinois Department on June 30, 1992, the adjustment payment for the period July 1, 1992 through September 30, 1992, shall be 25% of the annual adjustment payments calculated for each eligible hospital, as of June 30, 1992. The Illinois Department shall determine by rule the adjustment payments for targeted access and critical care beginning October 1, 1992.

(3) For the purpose of calculating the inpatient payment rate for each hospital eligible to receive quarterly adjustment payments for uncompensated care, as defined by the Illinois Department on June 30, 1992, the adjustment payment for the period August 1, 1992 through September 30, 1992, shall be one-sixth of the total uncompensated care adjustment payments calculated for each eligible hospital for the uncompensated care rate year, as defined by the Illinois Department, ending on July 31, 1992. The Illinois Department shall determine by rule the adjustment payments for uncompensated care beginning October 1, 1992.

(b) Inpatient payments. For inpatient services provided on or after October 1, 1993, in addition to rates paid for hospital inpatient services pursuant to the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, as now or hereafter amended, or the Illinois Department's prospective reimbursement methodology, or any other methodology used by the Illinois Department for inpatient services, the Illinois Department shall make adjustment payments, in an amount calculated pursuant to the methodology described in paragraph (c) of this Section, to hospitals that the Illinois Department determines satisfy any one of the following requirements:

(1) Hospitals that are described in Section 1923 of the federal Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, except that for rate year 2015 and after a hospital described in Section 1923(b)(1)(B) of the federal Social Security Act and qualified for the payments described in subsection (c) of this Section for rate year 2014 provided the hospital continues to meet the description in Section 1923(b)(1)(B) in the current determination year; or

(2) Illinois hospitals that have a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate which is at least one-half a standard deviation above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for all hospitals in Illinois receiving Medicaid payments from the Illinois Department; or

(3) Illinois hospitals that on July 1, 1991 had a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate, as defined in paragraph (h) of this Section, that was at least the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for all hospitals in Illinois receiving Medicaid payments from the Illinois Department and which were located in a planning area with one-third or fewer excess beds as determined by the Health Facilities and Services Review Board, and that, as of June 30, 1992, were located in a federally designated Health Manpower Shortage Area; or

(4) Illinois hospitals that:

(A) have a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate that is at least equal to the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate for all hospitals in Illinois receiving Medicaid payments from the Department; and

(B) also have a Medicaid obstetrical inpatient utilization rate that is at least one standard deviation above the mean Medicaid obstetrical inpatient utilization rate for all hospitals in Illinois receiving Medicaid payments from the Department for obstetrical services; or

(5) Any children's hospital, which means a hospital devoted exclusively to caring for children. A hospital which includes a facility devoted exclusively to caring for children shall be considered a children's hospital to the degree that the hospital's Medicaid care is provided to children if either (i) the facility devoted exclusively to caring for children is separately licensed as a hospital by a municipality prior to February 28, 2013; (ii) the hospital has been designated by the State as a Level III perinatal care facility, has a Medicaid Inpatient Utilization rate greater than 55% for the rate year 2003 disproportionate share determination, and has more than 10,000 qualified children days as defined by the Department in rulemaking; (iii) the hospital has been designated as a Perinatal Level III center by the State as of December 1, 2017, is a Pediatric Critical Care Center designated by the State as of December 1, 2017 and has a 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate equal to or greater than 45%; or (iv) the hospital has been designated as a Perinatal Level II center by the State as of December 1, 2017, has a 2017 Medicaid Inpatient Utilization Rate greater than 70%, and has at least 10 pediatric beds as listed on the IDPH 2015 calendar year hospital profile.

(c) Inpatient adjustment payments. The adjustment payments required by paragraph (b) shall be calculated based upon the hospital's Medicaid inpatient utilization rate as follows:

(1) hospitals with a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate below the mean shall receive a per day adjustment payment equal to $25;

(2) hospitals with a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate that is equal to or greater than the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate but less than one standard deviation above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate shall receive a per day adjustment payment equal to the sum of $25 plus $1 for each one percent that the hospital's Medicaid inpatient utilization rate exceeds the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate;

(3) hospitals with a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate that is equal to or greater than one standard deviation above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate but less than 1.5 standard deviations above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate shall receive a per day adjustment payment equal to the sum of $40 plus $7 for each one percent that the hospital's Medicaid inpatient utilization rate exceeds one standard deviation above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate; and

(4) hospitals with a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate that is equal to or greater than 1.5 standard deviations above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate shall receive a per day adjustment payment equal to the sum of $90 plus $2 for each one percent that the hospital's Medicaid inpatient utilization rate exceeds 1.5 standard deviations above the mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate.

(d) Supplemental adjustment payments. In addition to the adjustment payments described in paragraph (c), hospitals as defined in clauses (1) through (5) of paragraph (b), excluding county hospitals (as defined in subsection (c) of Section 15-1 of this Code) and a hospital organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, shall be paid supplemental inpatient adjustment payments of $60 per day. For purposes of Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, these supplemental adjustment payments shall not be classified as adjustment payments to disproportionate share hospitals.

(e) The inpatient adjustment payments described in paragraphs (c) and (d) shall be increased on October 1, 1993 and annually thereafter by a percentage equal to the lesser of (i) the increase in the DRI hospital cost index for the most recent 12 month period for which data are available, or (ii) the percentage increase in the statewide average hospital payment rate over the previous year's statewide average hospital payment rate. The sum of the inpatient adjustment payments under paragraphs (c) and (d) to a hospital, other than a county hospital (as defined in subsection (c) of Section 15-1 of this Code) or a hospital organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, however, shall not exceed $275 per day; that limit shall be increased on October 1, 1993 and annually thereafter by a percentage equal to the lesser of (i) the increase in the DRI hospital cost index for the most recent 12-month period for which data are available or (ii) the percentage increase in the statewide average hospital payment rate over the previous year's statewide average hospital payment rate.

(f) Children's hospital inpatient adjustment payments. For children's hospitals, as defined in clause (5) of paragraph (b), the adjustment payments required pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) shall be multiplied by 2.0.

(g) County hospital inpatient adjustment payments. For county hospitals, as defined in subsection (c) of Section 15-1 of this Code, there shall be an adjustment payment as determined by rules issued by the Illinois Department.

(h) For the purposes of this Section the following terms shall be defined as follows:

(1) "Medicaid inpatient utilization rate" means a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of a hospital's inpatient days provided in a given 12-month period to patients who, for such days, were eligible for Medicaid under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, and the denominator of which is the total number of the hospital's inpatient days in that same period.

(2) "Mean Medicaid inpatient utilization rate" means the total number of Medicaid inpatient days provided by all Illinois Medicaid-participating hospitals divided by the total number of inpatient days provided by those same hospitals.

(3) "Medicaid obstetrical inpatient utilization rate" means the ratio of Medicaid obstetrical inpatient days to total Medicaid inpatient days for all Illinois hospitals receiving Medicaid payments from the Illinois Department.

(i) Inpatient adjustment payment limit. In order to meet the limits of Public Law 102-234 and Public Law 103-66, the Illinois Department shall by rule adjust disproportionate share adjustment payments.

(j) University of Illinois Hospital inpatient adjustment payments. For hospitals organized under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, there shall be an adjustment payment as determined by rules adopted by the Illinois Department.

(k) The Illinois Department may by rule establish criteria for and develop methodologies for adjustment payments to hospitals participating under this Article.

(l) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(m) The Department shall establish a cost-based reimbursement methodology for determining payments to hospitals for approved graduate medical education (GME) programs for dates of service on and after July 1, 2018.

(1) As used in this subsection, "hospitals" means the University of Illinois Hospital as defined in the University of Illinois Hospital Act and a county hospital in a county of over 3,000,000 inhabitants.

(2) An amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan defining GME shall maximize reimbursement, shall not be limited to the education programs or special patient care payments allowed under Medicare, and shall include:

(A) inpatient days;

(B) outpatient days;

(C) direct costs;

(D) indirect costs;

(E) managed care days;

(F) all stages of medical training and education including students, interns, residents, and fellows with no caps on the number of persons who may qualify; and

(G) patient care payments related to the complexities of treating Medicaid enrollees including clinical and social determinants of health.

(3) The Department shall make all GME payments directly to hospitals including such costs in support of clients enrolled in Medicaid managed care entities.

(4) The Department shall promptly take all actions necessary for reimbursement to be effective for dates of service on and after July 1, 2018 including publishing all appropriate public notices, amendments to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan, and adoption of administrative rules if necessary.

(5) As used in this subsection, "managed care days" means costs associated with services rendered to enrollees of Medicaid managed care entities. "Medicaid managed care entities" means any entity which contracts with the Department to provide services paid for on a capitated basis. "Medicaid managed care entities" includes a managed care organization and a managed care community network.

(6) All payments under this Section are contingent upon federal approval of changes to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan, if that approval is required.

(7) The Department may adopt rules necessary to implement Public Act 100-581 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with subsection (aa) of Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of that Act, the General Assembly finds that the adoption of rules to implement Public Act 100-581 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly is deemed an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(Source: P.A. 100-580, eff. 3-12-18; 100-581, eff. 3-12-18; revised 3-13-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-5.25)

Sec. 5-5.25. Access to behavioral health and medical services.

(a) The General Assembly finds that providing access to behavioral health and medical services in a timely manner will improve the quality of life for persons suffering from illness and will contain health care costs by avoiding the need for more costly inpatient hospitalization.

(b) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall reimburse psychiatrists, federally qualified health centers as defined in Section 1905(l)(2)(B) of the federal Social Security Act, clinical psychologists, clinical social workers, advanced practice registered nurses certified in psychiatric and mental health nursing, and mental health professionals and clinicians authorized by Illinois law to provide behavioral health services and advanced practice registered nurses certified in psychiatric and mental health nursing to recipients via telehealth. The Department, by rule, shall establish: (i) criteria for such services to be reimbursed, including appropriate facilities and equipment to be used at both sites and requirements for a physician or other licensed health care professional to be present at the site where the patient is located; however, the Department shall not require that a physician or other licensed health care professional be physically present in the same room as the patient for the entire time during which the patient is receiving telehealth services; and (ii) a method to reimburse providers for mental health services provided by telehealth.

(c) The Department shall reimburse any Medicaid certified eligible facility or provider organization that acts as the location of the patient at the time a telehealth service is rendered, including substance abuse centers licensed by the Department of Human Services' Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse.

(d) On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

(Source: P.A. 100-385, eff. 1-1-18; 100-790, eff. 8-10-18; 100-1019, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.26, and 356z.29, and 356z.32 of the Illinois Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1057, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1102, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.6)

Sec. 5-30.6. Managed care organization contracts procurement requirement. Beginning on March 12, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-580) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, any new contract between the Department and a managed care organization as defined in Section 5-30.1 shall be procured in accordance with the Illinois Procurement Code.

(a) Application.

(1) This Section does not apply to the State of Illinois Medicaid Managed Care Organization Request for Proposals (2018-24-001) or any agreement, regardless of what it may be called, related to or arising from this procurement, including, but not limited to, contracts, renewals, renegotiated contracts, amendments, and change orders.

(2) This Section does not apply to Medicare-Medicaid Alignment Initiative contracts executed under Article V-F of this Code.

(b) In the event any provision of this Section or of the Illinois Procurement Code is inconsistent with applicable federal law or would have the effect of foreclosing the use, potential use, or receipt of federal financial participation, the applicable federal law or funding condition shall prevail, but only to the extent of such inconsistency.

(Source: P.A. 100-580, eff. 3-12-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.8)

Sec. 5-30.8. Managed care organization rate transparency.

(a) For the establishment of managed care organization (MCO) capitation base rate payments from the State, including, but not limited to: (i) hospital fee schedule reforms and updates, (ii) rates related to a single State-mandated preferred drug list, (iii) rate updates related to the State's preferred drug list, (iv) inclusion of coverage for children with special needs, (v) inclusion of coverage for children within the child welfare system, (vi) annual MCO capitation rates, and (vii) any retroactive provider fee schedule adjustments or other changes required by legislation or other actions, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall implement a capitation base rate setting process beginning on July 27, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-646) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly which shall include all of the following elements of transparency:

(1) The Department shall include participating MCOs and a statewide trade association representing a majority of participating MCOs in meetings to discuss the impact to base capitation rates as a result of any new or updated hospital fee schedules or other provider fee schedules. Additionally, the Department shall share any data or reports used to develop MCO capitation rates with participating MCOs. This data shall be comprehensive enough for MCO actuaries to recreate and verify the accuracy of the capitation base rate build-up.

(2) The Department shall not limit the number of experts that each MCO is allowed to bring to the draft capitation base rate meeting or the final capitation base rate review meeting. Draft and final capitation base rate review meetings shall be held in at least 2 locations.

(3) The Department and its contracted actuary shall meet with all participating MCOs simultaneously and together along with consulting actuaries contracted with statewide trade association representing a majority of Medicaid health plans at the request of the plans. Participating MCOs shall additionally, at their request, be granted individual capitation rate development meetings with the Department.

(4) Any quality incentive or other incentive withholding of any portion of the actuarially certified capitation rates must be budget-neutral. The entirety of any aggregate withheld amounts must be returned to the MCOs in proportion to their performance on the relevant performance metric. No amounts shall be returned to the Department if all performance measures are not achieved to the extent allowable by federal law and regulations.

(5) Upon request, the Department shall provide written responses to questions regarding MCO capitation base rates, the capitation base development methodology, and MCO capitation rate data, and all other requests regarding capitation rates from MCOs. Upon request, the Department shall also provide to the MCOs materials used in incorporating provider fee schedules into base capitation rates.

(b) For the development of capitation base rates for new capitation rate years:

(1) The Department shall take into account emerging experience in the development of the annual MCO capitation base rates, including, but not limited to, current-year cost and utilization trends observed by MCOs in an actuarially sound manner and in accordance with federal law and regulations.

(2) No later than January 1 of each year, the Department shall release an agreed upon annual calendar that outlines dates for capitation rate setting meetings for that year. The calendar shall include at least the following meetings and deadlines:

(A) An initial meeting for the Department to review MCO data and draft rate assumptions to be used in the development of capitation base rates for the following year.

(B) A draft rate meeting after the Department provides the MCOs with the draft capitation base rates to discuss, review, and seek feedback regarding the draft capitation base rates.

(3) Prior to the submission of final capitation rates to the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Department shall provide the MCOs with a final actuarial report including the final capitation base rates for the following year and subsequently conduct a final capitation base review meeting. Final capitation rates shall be marked final.

(c) For the development of capitation base rates reflecting policy changes:

(1) Unless contrary to federal law and regulation, the Department must provide notice to MCOs of any significant operational policy change no later than 60 days prior to the effective date of an operational policy change in order to give MCOs time to prepare for and implement the operational policy change and to ensure that the quality and delivery of enrollee health care is not disrupted. "Operational policy change" means a change to operational requirements such as reporting formats, encounter submission definitional changes, or required provider interfaces made at the sole discretion of the Department and not required by legislation with a retroactive effective date. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as a requirement to delay or prohibit implementation of policy changes that impact enrollee benefits as determined in the sole discretion of the Department.

(2) No later than 60 days after the effective date of the policy change or program implementation, the Department shall meet with the MCOs regarding the initial data collection needed to establish capitation base rates for the policy change. Additionally, the Department shall share with the participating MCOs what other data is needed to estimate the change and the processes for collection of that data that shall be utilized to develop capitation base rates.

(3) No later than 60 days after the effective date of the policy change or program implementation, the Department shall meet with MCOs to review data and the Department's written draft assumptions to be used in development of capitation base rates for the policy change, and shall provide opportunities for questions to be asked and answered.

(4) No later than 60 days after the effective date of the policy change or program implementation, the Department shall provide the MCOs with draft capitation base rates and shall also conduct a draft capitation base rate meeting with MCOs to discuss, review, and seek feedback regarding the draft capitation base rates.

(d) For the development of capitation base rates for retroactive policy or fee schedule changes:

(1) The Department shall meet with the MCOs regarding the initial data collection needed to establish capitation base rates for the policy change. Additionally, the Department shall share with the participating MCOs what other data is needed to estimate the change and the processes for collection of the data that shall be utilized to develop capitation base rates.

(2) The Department shall meet with MCOs to review data and the Department's written draft assumptions to be used in development of capitation base rates for the policy change. The Department shall provide opportunities for questions to be asked and answered.

(3) The Department shall provide the MCOs with draft capitation rates and shall also conduct a draft rate meeting with MCOs to discuss, review, and seek feedback regarding the draft capitation base rates.

(4) The Department shall inform MCOs no less than quarterly of upcoming benefit and policy changes to the Medicaid program.

(e) Meetings of the group established to discuss Medicaid capitation rates under this Section shall be closed to the public and shall not be subject to the Open Meetings Act. Records and information produced by the group established to discuss Medicaid capitation rates under this Section shall be confidential and not subject to the Freedom of Information Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-646, eff. 7-27-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.9)

Sec. 5-30.9 5-30.6. Disenrollment requirements; managed care organization. Disenrollment of a Medicaid enrollee from a managed care organization under contract with the Department shall be in accordance with the requirements of 42 CFR 438.56 whenever a contract is terminated between a Medicaid managed care health plan and a primary care provider that results in a disruption to the Medicaid enrollee's provider-beneficiary relationship.

(Source: P.A. 100-950, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-30.10)

Sec. 5-30.10 5-30.8. Electronic report submission. To preserve the quality of data and ensure productive oversight of Medicaid managed care organizations, all regular reports required, either by contract or statute, to be collected by the Department from managed care organizations shall be collected through a secure electronic format and medium as designated by the Department. The Department shall consider concerns raised by the contractor about potential burdens associated with producing the report. Ad hoc reports may be collected in alternative manners.

(Source: P.A. 100-1105, eff. 8-27-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-15)

Sec. 5A-15. Protection of federal revenue.

(a) If the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services finds that any federal upper payment limit applicable to the payments under this Article is exceeded then:

(1) (i) if such finding is made before payments have been issued, the payments under this Article and the increases in claims-based hospital payment rates specified under Section 14-12 of this Code, as authorized under Public Act 100-581 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, that exceed the applicable federal upper payment limit shall be reduced uniformly to the extent necessary to comply with the applicable federal upper payment limit; or (ii) if such finding is made after payments have been issued, the payments under this Article that exceed the applicable federal upper payment limit shall be reduced uniformly to the extent necessary to comply with the applicable federal upper payment limit; and

(2) any assessment rate imposed under this Article shall be reduced such that the aggregate assessment is reduced by the same percentage reduction applied in paragraph (1); and

(3) any transfers from the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-8 shall be reduced by the same percentage reduction applied in paragraph (1).

(b) Any payment reductions made under the authority granted in this Section are exempt from the requirements and actions under Section 5A-10.

(c) If any payments made as a result of the requirements of this Article are subject to a disallowance, deferral, or adjustment of federal matching funds then:

(1) the Department shall recoup the payments related to those federal matching funds paid by the Department from the parties paid by the Department;

(2) if the payments that are subject to a disallowance, deferral, or adjustment of federal matching funds were made to MCOs, the Department shall recoup the payments related to the disallowance, deferral, or adjustment from the MCOs no sooner than the Department is required to remit federal matching funds to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or any other federal agency, and hospitals that received payments from the MCOs that were made with such disallowed, deferred, or adjusted federal matching funds must return those payments to the MCOs at least 10 business days before the MCOs are required to remit such payments to the Department; and

(3) any assessment paid to the Department by hospitals under this Article that is attributable to the payments that are subject to a disallowance, deferral, or adjustment of federal matching funds, shall be refunded to the hospitals by the Department.

If an MCO is unable to recoup funds from a hospital for any reason, then the Department, upon written notice from an MCO, shall work in good faith with the MCO to mitigate losses associated with the lack of recoupment. Losses by an MCO shall not exceed 1% of the total payments distributed by the MCO to hospitals pursuant to the Hospital Assessment Program.

(Source: P.A. 100-580, eff. 3-12-18; 100-581, eff. 3-12-18; revised 3-13-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/9A-11) (from Ch. 23, par. 9A-11)

Sec. 9A-11. Child care.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes that families with children need child care in order to work. Child care is expensive and families with low incomes, including those who are transitioning from welfare to work, often struggle to pay the costs of day care. The General Assembly understands the importance of helping low-income low income working families become and remain self-sufficient. The General Assembly also believes that it is the responsibility of families to share in the costs of child care. It is also the preference of the General Assembly that all working poor families should be treated equally, regardless of their welfare status.

(b) To the extent resources permit, the Illinois Department shall provide child care services to parents or other relatives as defined by rule who are working or participating in employment or Department approved education or training programs. At a minimum, the Illinois Department shall cover the following categories of families:

(1) recipients of TANF under Article IV participating in work and training activities as specified in the personal plan for employment and self-sufficiency;

(2) families transitioning from TANF to work;

(3) families at risk of becoming recipients of TANF;

(4) families with special needs as defined by rule;

(5) working families with very low incomes as defined by rule;

(6) families that are not recipients of TANF and that need child care assistance to participate in education and training activities; and

(7) families with children under the age of 5 who have an open intact family services case with the Department of Children and Family Services. Any family that receives child care assistance in accordance with this paragraph shall remain eligible for child care assistance 6 months after the child's intact family services case is closed, regardless of whether the child's parents or other relatives as defined by rule are working or participating in Department approved employment or education or training programs. The Department of Human Services, in consultation with the Department of Children and Family Services, shall adopt rules to protect the privacy of families who are the subject of an open intact family services case when such families enroll in child care services. Additional rules shall be adopted to offer children who have an open intact family services case the opportunity to receive an Early Intervention screening and other services that their families may be eligible for as provided by the Department of Human Services.

The Department shall specify by rule the conditions of eligibility, the application process, and the types, amounts, and duration of services. Eligibility for child care benefits and the amount of child care provided may vary based on family size, income, and other factors as specified by rule.

A family's eligibility for child care services shall be redetermined no sooner than 12 months following the initial determination or most recent redetermination. During the 12-month periods, the family shall remain eligible for child care services regardless of (i) a change in family income, unless family income exceeds 85% of State median income, or (ii) a temporary change in the ongoing status of the parents or other relatives, as defined by rule, as working or attending a job training or educational program.

In determining income eligibility for child care benefits, the Department annually, at the beginning of each fiscal year, shall establish, by rule, one income threshold for each family size, in relation to percentage of State median income for a family of that size, that makes families with incomes below the specified threshold eligible for assistance and families with incomes above the specified threshold ineligible for assistance. Through and including fiscal year 2007, the specified threshold must be no less than 50% of the then-current State median income for each family size. Beginning in fiscal year 2008, the specified threshold must be no less than 185% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size. Notwithstanding any other provision of law or administrative rule to the contrary, beginning in fiscal year 2019, the specified threshold for working families with very low incomes as defined by rule must be no less than 185% of the then-current federal poverty level for each family size.

In determining eligibility for assistance, the Department shall not give preference to any category of recipients or give preference to individuals based on their receipt of benefits under this Code.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as conferring entitlement status to eligible families.

The Illinois Department is authorized to lower income eligibility ceilings, raise parent co-payments, create waiting lists, or take such other actions during a fiscal year as are necessary to ensure that child care benefits paid under this Article do not exceed the amounts appropriated for those child care benefits. These changes may be accomplished by emergency rule under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, except that the limitation on the number of emergency rules that may be adopted in a 24-month period shall not apply.

The Illinois Department may contract with other State agencies or child care organizations for the administration of child care services.

(c) Payment shall be made for child care that otherwise meets the requirements of this Section and applicable standards of State and local law and regulation, including any requirements the Illinois Department promulgates by rule in addition to the licensure requirements promulgated by the Department of Children and Family Services and Fire Prevention and Safety requirements promulgated by the Office of the State Fire Marshal, and is provided in any of the following:

(1) a child care center which is licensed or exempt from licensure pursuant to Section 2.09 of the Child Care Act of 1969;

(2) a licensed child care home or home exempt from licensing;

(3) a licensed group child care home;

(4) other types of child care, including child care provided by relatives or persons living in the same home as the child, as determined by the Illinois Department by rule.

(c-5) Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, child and day care home providers, including licensed and license exempt, participating in the Department's child care assistance program shall be considered to be public employees and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be their employer as of January 1, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-320) this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, but not before. The State shall engage in collective bargaining with an exclusive representative of child and day care home providers participating in the child care assistance program concerning their terms and conditions of employment that are within the State's control. Nothing in this subsection shall be understood to limit the right of families receiving services defined in this Section to select child and day care home providers or supervise them within the limits of this Section. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of child and day care home providers for any purposes not specifically provided in Public Act 94-320 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly, including, but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Child and day care home providers shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

In according child and day care home providers and their selected representative rights under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, the State intends that the State action exemption to application of federal and State antitrust laws be fully available to the extent that their activities are authorized by Public Act 94-320 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

(d) The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, a co-payment scale that provides for cost sharing by families that receive child care services, including parents whose only income is from assistance under this Code. The co-payment shall be based on family income and family size and may be based on other factors as appropriate. Co-payments may be waived for families whose incomes are at or below the federal poverty level.

(d-5) The Illinois Department, in consultation with its Child Care and Development Advisory Council, shall develop a plan to revise the child care assistance program's co-payment scale. The plan shall be completed no later than February 1, 2008, and shall include:

(1) findings as to the percentage of income that the average American family spends on child care and the relative amounts that low-income families and the average American family spend on other necessities of life;

(2) recommendations for revising the child care co-payment scale to assure that families receiving child care services from the Department are paying no more than they can reasonably afford;

(3) recommendations for revising the child care co-payment scale to provide at-risk children with complete access to Preschool for All and Head Start; and

(4) recommendations for changes in child care program policies that affect the affordability of child care.

(e) (Blank).

(f) The Illinois Department shall, by rule, set rates to be paid for the various types of child care. Child care may be provided through one of the following methods:

(1) arranging the child care through eligible providers by use of purchase of service contracts or vouchers;

(2) arranging with other agencies and community volunteer groups for non-reimbursed child care;

(3) (blank); or

(4) adopting such other arrangements as the Department determines appropriate.

(f-1) Within 30 days after June 4, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-587) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department of Human Services shall establish rates for child care providers that are no less than the rates in effect on January 1, 2018 increased by 4.26%.

(f-5) (Blank).

(g) Families eligible for assistance under this Section shall be given the following options:

(1) receiving a child care certificate issued by the Department or a subcontractor of the Department that may be used by the parents as payment for child care and development services only; or

(2) if space is available, enrolling the child with a child care provider that has a purchase of service contract with the Department or a subcontractor of the Department for the provision of child care and development services. The Department may identify particular priority populations for whom they may request special consideration by a provider with purchase of service contracts, provided that the providers shall be permitted to maintain a balance of clients in terms of household incomes and families and children with special needs, as defined by rule.

(Source: P.A. 100-387, eff. 8-25-17; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-860, eff. 2-14-19; 100-909, eff. 10-1-18; 100-916, eff. 8-17-18; revised 10-9-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.51)

Sec. 12-4.51. Workforce training and healthy families demonstration project.

(a) Subject to the availability of funds provided for this purpose by the federal government, local philanthropic or charitable sources, or other private sources, there is created a 5-year demonstration project within the Department of Human Services to provide an intensive workforce training program for entry-level entry level workers and a multi-generational healthy family initiative. No general revenue funds may be used to fund the demonstration project created under this Section. The demonstration project shall be implemented no later than 6 months after January 1, 2019 (the effective date of Public Act 100-806) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly and shall terminate 5 years after the initial date of implementation. The demonstration project shall be operated and maintained by a non-profit, community-based entity that shall provide the majority of the wages earned by participants enrolled in the workforce training program as well as support services to families, including new and expectant parents, enrolled in the multi-generational healthy family initiative. The total number of participants in the 5-year demonstration project at any one time shall not exceed 500. Participants enrolled in the workforce training program or the multi-generational healthy family initiative shall qualify to have whatever financial assistance they receive from their participation excluded from consideration for purposes of determining eligibility for or the amount of assistance under this Code as provided in subsection (d) of Section 1-7. The selected entity must immediately notify the Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare and Family Services whenever a participant enrolled in the workforce training program or the multi-generational healthy family initiative leaves the demonstration project and ceases to participate in any of the programs under the demonstration making the participant ineligible to receive an exemption as provided in subsection (d) of Section 1-7.

(b) The entity selected to operate and maintain the demonstration project shall be a non-profit, community-based entity in good standing with the State that is located in a county with a population of less than 3,000,000. The selected entity must comply with all applicable State and federal requirements and must develop and implement a research component to determine the effectiveness of the demonstration project in promoting and instilling self-sufficiency through its intensive workforce training program and multi-generational healthy family initiative. The State shall not fund the research component outlined in the Section or any program under the demonstration project.

(c) Beginning one year after the initial implementation date of the demonstration project, and each year thereafter for the duration of the demonstration, the selected entity shall submit a report to the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, and the General Assembly that details the progress and effectiveness of the demonstration project and the demonstration's impact on instilling the value of self-sufficiency in participants. The 4th annual report shall also provide policy recommendations on best practices for and continued research on facilitating bridges to self-sufficiency. The 4th annual report may also include a recommendation on making the demonstration project permanent upon completion of the demonstration project period.

The reports to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(Source: P.A. 100-806, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/14-12)

Sec. 14-12. Hospital rate reform payment system. The hospital payment system pursuant to Section 14-11 of this Article shall be as follows:

(a) Inpatient hospital services. Effective for discharges on and after July 1, 2014, reimbursement for inpatient general acute care services shall utilize the All Patient Refined Diagnosis Related Grouping (APR-DRG) software, version 30, distributed by 3M^TM Health Information System.

(1) The Department shall establish Medicaid weighting factors to be used in the reimbursement system established under this subsection. Initial weighting factors shall be the weighting factors as published by 3M Health Information System, associated with Version 30.0 adjusted for the Illinois experience.

(2) The Department shall establish a statewide-standardized amount to be used in the inpatient reimbursement system. The Department shall publish these amounts on its website no later than 10 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(3) In addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall develop adjusters to adjust the rate of reimbursement for critical Medicaid providers or services for trauma, transplantation services, perinatal care, and Graduate Medical Education (GME).

(4) The Department shall develop add-on payments to account for exceptionally costly inpatient stays, consistent with Medicare outlier principles. Outlier fixed loss thresholds may be updated to control for excessive growth in outlier payments no more frequently than on an annual basis, but at least triennially. Upon updating the fixed loss thresholds, the Department shall be required to update base rates within 12 months.

(5) The Department shall define those hospitals or distinct parts of hospitals that shall be exempt from the APR-DRG reimbursement system established under this Section. The Department shall publish these hospitals' inpatient rates on its website no later than 10 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(6) Beginning July 1, 2014 and ending on June 30, 2024, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall develop an adjustor to adjust the rate of reimbursement for safety-net hospitals defined in Section 5-5e.1 of this Code excluding pediatric hospitals.

(7) Beginning July 1, 2014 and ending on June 30, 2020, or upon implementation of inpatient psychiatric rate increases as described in subsection (n) of Section 5A-12.6, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall develop an adjustor to adjust the rate of reimbursement for Illinois freestanding inpatient psychiatric hospitals that are not designated as children's hospitals by the Department but are primarily treating patients under the age of 21.

(7.5) Beginning July 1, 2020, the reimbursement for inpatient psychiatric services shall be so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 13%. Beginning July 1, 2022, the reimbursement for inpatient psychiatric services shall be so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 13%. Beginning July 1, 2024, the reimbursement for inpatient psychiatric services shall be so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 13%.

(8) Beginning July 1, 2018, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall adjust the rate of reimbursement for hospitals designated by the Department of Public Health as a Perinatal Level II or II+ center by applying the same adjustor that is applied to Perinatal and Obstetrical care cases for Perinatal Level III centers, as of December 31, 2017.

(9) Beginning July 1, 2018, in addition to the statewide-standardized amount, the Department shall apply the same adjustor that is applied to trauma cases as of December 31, 2017 to inpatient claims to treat patients with burns, including, but not limited to, APR-DRGs 841, 842, 843, and 844.

(10) Beginning July 1, 2018, the statewide-standardized amount for inpatient general acute care services shall be uniformly increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 40%. Beginning July 1, 2020, the statewide-standardized amount for inpatient general acute care services shall be uniformly increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 40%. Beginning July 1, 2022, the statewide-standardized amount for inpatient general acute care services shall be uniformly increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 40%. Beginning July 1, 2023 the statewide-standardized amount for inpatient general acute care services shall be uniformly increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 40%.

(11) Beginning July 1, 2018, the reimbursement for inpatient rehabilitation services shall be increased by the addition of a $96 per day add-on.

Beginning July 1, 2020, the reimbursement for inpatient rehabilitation services shall be uniformly increased so that the $96 per day add-on is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 0.9%.

Beginning July 1, 2022, the reimbursement for inpatient rehabilitation services shall be uniformly increased so that the $96 per day add-on as adjusted by the July 1, 2020 increase, is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 0.9%.

Beginning July 1, 2023, the reimbursement for inpatient rehabilitation services shall be uniformly increased so that the $96 per day add-on as adjusted by the July 1, 2022 increase, is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of this subsection and paragraphs (3) and (4) of subsection (b) multiplied by 0.9%.

(b) Outpatient hospital services. Effective for dates of service on and after July 1, 2014, reimbursement for outpatient services shall utilize the Enhanced Ambulatory Procedure Grouping (EAPG E-APG) software, version 3.7 distributed by 3M^TM

Health Information System.

(1) The Department shall establish Medicaid weighting factors to be used in the reimbursement system established under this subsection. The initial weighting factors shall be the weighting factors as published by 3M Health Information System, associated with Version 3.7.

(2) The Department shall establish service specific statewide-standardized amounts to be used in the reimbursement system.

(A) The initial statewide standardized amounts, with the labor portion adjusted by the Calendar Year 2013 Medicare Outpatient Prospective Payment System wage index with reclassifications, shall be published by the Department on its website no later than 10 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(B) The Department shall establish adjustments to the statewide-standardized amounts for each Critical Access Hospital, as designated by the Department of Public Health in accordance with 42 CFR 485, Subpart F. The EAPG standardized amounts are determined separately for each critical access hospital such that simulated EAPG payments using outpatient base period paid claim data plus payments under Section 5A-12.4 of this Code net of the associated tax costs are equal to the estimated costs of outpatient base period claims data with a rate year cost inflation factor applied.

(3) In addition to the statewide-standardized amounts, the Department shall develop adjusters to adjust the rate of reimbursement for critical Medicaid hospital outpatient providers or services, including outpatient high volume or safety-net hospitals. Beginning July 1, 2018, the outpatient high volume adjustor shall be increased to increase annual expenditures associated with this adjustor by $79,200,000, based on the State Fiscal Year 2015 base year data and this adjustor shall apply to public hospitals, except for large public hospitals, as defined under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.25(a).

(4) Beginning July 1, 2018, in addition to the statewide standardized amounts, the Department shall make an add-on payment for outpatient expensive devices and drugs. This add-on payment shall at least apply to claim lines that: (i) are assigned with one of the following EAPGs: 490, 1001 to 1020, and coded with one of the following revenue codes: 0274 to 0276, 0278; or (ii) are assigned with one of the following EAPGs: 430 to 441, 443, 444, 460 to 465, 495, 496, 1090. The add-on payment shall be calculated as follows: the claim line's covered charges multiplied by the hospital's total acute cost to charge ratio, less the claim line's EAPG payment plus $1,000, multiplied by 0.8.

(5) Beginning July 1, 2018, the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services shall be increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection multiplied by 46%. Beginning July 1, 2020, the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services shall be increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection multiplied by 46%. Beginning July 1, 2022, the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services shall be increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection multiplied by 46%. Beginning July 1, 2023, the statewide-standardized amounts for outpatient services shall be increased so that base claims projected reimbursement is increased by an amount equal to the funds allocated in paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of Section 5A-12.6, less the amount allocated under paragraphs (8) and (9) of subsection (a) and paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection multiplied by 46%.

(c) In consultation with the hospital community, the Department is authorized to replace 89 Ill. Admin. Code 152.150 as published in 38 Ill. Reg. 4980 through 4986 within 12 months of June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. If the Department does not replace these rules within 12 months of June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the rules in effect for 152.150 as published in 38 Ill. Reg. 4980 through 4986 shall remain in effect until modified by rule by the Department. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to mandate that the Department file a replacement rule.

(d) Transition period. There shall be a transition period to the reimbursement systems authorized under this Section that shall begin on the effective date of these systems and continue until June 30, 2018, unless extended by rule by the Department. To help provide an orderly and predictable transition to the new reimbursement systems and to preserve and enhance access to the hospital services during this transition, the Department shall allocate a transitional hospital access pool of at least $290,000,000 annually so that transitional hospital access payments are made to hospitals.

(1) After the transition period, the Department may begin incorporating the transitional hospital access pool into the base rate structure; however, the transitional hospital access payments in effect on June 30, 2018 shall continue to be paid, if continued under Section 5A-16.

(2) After the transition period, if the Department reduces payments from the transitional hospital access pool, it shall increase base rates, develop new adjustors, adjust current adjustors, develop new hospital access payments based on updated information, or any combination thereof by an amount equal to the decreases proposed in the transitional hospital access pool payments, ensuring that the entire transitional hospital access pool amount shall continue to be used for hospital payments.

(d-5) Hospital transformation program. The Department, in conjunction with the Hospital Transformation Review Committee created under subsection (d-5), shall develop a hospital transformation program to provide financial assistance to hospitals in transforming their services and care models to better align with the needs of the communities they serve. The payments authorized in this Section shall be subject to approval by the federal government.

(1) Phase 1. In State fiscal years 2019 through 2020, the Department shall allocate funds from the transitional access hospital pool to create a hospital transformation pool of at least $262,906,870 annually and make hospital transformation payments to hospitals. Subject to Section 5A-16, in State fiscal years 2019 and 2020, an Illinois hospital that received either a transitional hospital access payment under subsection (d) or a supplemental payment under subsection (f) of this Section in State fiscal year 2018, shall receive a hospital transformation payment as follows:

(A) If the hospital's Rate Year 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate is equal to or greater than 45%, the hospital transformation payment shall be equal to 100% of the sum of its transitional hospital access payment authorized under subsection (d) and any supplemental payment authorized under subsection (f).

(B) If the hospital's Rate Year 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate is equal to or greater than 25% but less than 45%, the hospital transformation payment shall be equal to 75% of the sum of its transitional hospital access payment authorized under subsection (d) and any supplemental payment authorized under subsection (f).

(C) If the hospital's Rate Year 2017 Medicaid inpatient utilization rate is less than 25%, the hospital transformation payment shall be equal to 50% of the sum of its transitional hospital access payment authorized under subsection (d) and any supplemental payment authorized under subsection (f).

(2) Phase 2. During State fiscal years 2021 and 2022, the Department shall allocate funds from the transitional access hospital pool to create a hospital transformation pool annually and make hospital transformation payments to hospitals participating in the transformation program. Any hospital may seek transformation funding in Phase 2. Any hospital that seeks transformation funding in Phase 2 to update or repurpose the hospital's physical structure to transition to a new delivery model, must submit to the Department in writing a transformation plan, based on the Department's guidelines, that describes the desired delivery model with projections of patient volumes by service lines and projected revenues, expenses, and net income that correspond to the new delivery model. In Phase 2, subject to the approval of rules, the Department may use the hospital transformation pool to increase base rates, develop new adjustors, adjust current adjustors, or develop new access payments in order to support and incentivize hospitals to pursue such transformation. In developing such methodologies, the Department shall ensure that the entire hospital transformation pool continues to be expended to ensure access to hospital services or to support organizations that had received hospital transformation payments under this Section.

(A) Any hospital participating in the hospital transformation program shall provide an opportunity for public input by local community groups, hospital workers, and healthcare professionals and assist in facilitating discussions about any transformations or changes to the hospital.

(B) As provided in paragraph (9) of Section 3 of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act, any hospital participating in the transformation program may be excluded from the requirements of the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act for those projects related to the hospital's transformation. To be eligible, the hospital must submit to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board certification from the Department, approved by the Hospital Transformation Review Committee, that the project is a part of the hospital's transformation.

(C) As provided in subsection (a-20) of Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, a hospital that received hospital transformation payments under this Section may convert to a freestanding emergency center. To be eligible for such a conversion, the hospital must submit to the Department of Public Health certification from the Department, approved by the Hospital Transformation Review Committee, that the project is a part of the hospital's transformation.

(3) Within 6 months after March 12, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-581) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department, in conjunction with the Hospital Transformation Review Committee, shall develop and adopt, by rule, the goals, objectives, policies, standards, payment models, or criteria to be applied in Phase 2 of the program to allocate the hospital transformation funds. The goals, objectives, and policies to be considered may include, but are not limited to, achieving unmet needs of a community that a hospital serves such as behavioral health services, outpatient services, or drug rehabilitation services; attaining certain quality or patient safety benchmarks for health care services; or improving the coordination, effectiveness, and efficiency of care delivery. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any rule adopted in accordance with this subsection (d-5) may be submitted to the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules for approval only if the rule has first been approved by 9 of the 14 members of the Hospital Transformation Review Committee.

(4) Hospital Transformation Review Committee. There is created the Hospital Transformation Review Committee. The Committee shall consist of 14 members. No later than 30 days after March 12, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-581) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the 4 legislative leaders shall each appoint 3 members; the Governor shall appoint the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, or his or her designee, as a member; and the Director of Healthcare and Family Services shall appoint one member. Any vacancy shall be filled by the applicable appointing authority within 15 calendar days. The members of the Committee shall select a Chair and a Vice-Chair from among its members, provided that the Chair and Vice-Chair cannot be appointed by the same appointing authority and must be from different political parties. The Chair shall have the authority to establish a meeting schedule and convene meetings of the Committee, and the Vice-Chair shall have the authority to convene meetings in the absence of the Chair. The Committee may establish its own rules with respect to meeting schedule, notice of meetings, and the disclosure of documents; however, the Committee shall not have the power to subpoena individuals or documents and any rules must be approved by 9 of the 14 members. The Committee shall perform the functions described in this Section and advise and consult with the Director in the administration of this Section. In addition to reviewing and approving the policies, procedures, and rules for the hospital transformation program, the Committee shall consider and make recommendations related to qualifying criteria and payment methodologies related to safety-net hospitals and children's hospitals. Members of the Committee appointed by the legislative leaders shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the Legislative Ethics Commission, not the Executive Ethics Commission, and all requests under the Freedom of Information Act shall be directed to the applicable Freedom of Information officer for the General Assembly. The Department shall provide operational support to the Committee as necessary.

(e) Beginning 36 months after initial implementation, the Department shall update the reimbursement components in subsections (a) and (b), including standardized amounts and weighting factors, and at least triennially and no more frequently than annually thereafter. The Department shall publish these updates on its website no later than 30 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(f) Continuation of supplemental payments. Any supplemental payments authorized under Illinois Administrative Code 148 effective January 1, 2014 and that continue during the period of July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014 shall remain in effect as long as the assessment imposed by Section 5A-2 that is in effect on December 31, 2017 remains in effect.

(g) Notwithstanding subsections (a) through (f) of this Section and notwithstanding the changes authorized under Section 5-5b.1, any updates to the system shall not result in any diminishment of the overall effective rates of reimbursement as of the implementation date of the new system (July 1, 2014). These updates shall not preclude variations in any individual component of the system or hospital rate variations. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Department from increasing the rates of reimbursement or developing payments to ensure access to hospital services. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to guarantee a minimum amount of spending in the aggregate or per hospital as spending may be impacted by factors including but not limited to the number of individuals in the medical assistance program and the severity of illness of the individuals.

(h) The Department shall have the authority to modify by rulemaking any changes to the rates or methodologies in this Section as required by the federal government to obtain federal financial participation for expenditures made under this Section.

(i) Except for subsections (g) and (h) of this Section, the Department shall, pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 5-40 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, provide for presentation at the June 2014 hearing of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules (JCAR) additional written notice to JCAR of the following rules in order to commence the second notice period for the following rules: rules published in the Illinois Register, rule dated February 21, 2014 at 38 Ill. Reg. 4559 (Medical Payment), 4628 (Specialized Health Care Delivery Systems), 4640 (Hospital Services), 4932 (Diagnostic Related Grouping (DRG) Prospective Payment System (PPS)), and 4977 (Hospital Reimbursement Changes), and published in the Illinois Register dated March 21, 2014 at 38 Ill. Reg. 6499 (Specialized Health Care Delivery Systems) and 6505 (Hospital Services).

(j) Out-of-state hospitals. Beginning July 1, 2018, for purposes of determining for State fiscal years 2019 and 2020 the hospitals eligible for the payments authorized under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, the Department shall include out-of-state hospitals that are designated a Level I pediatric trauma center or a Level I trauma center by the Department of Public Health as of December 1, 2017.

(k) The Department shall notify each hospital and managed care organization, in writing, of the impact of the updates under this Section at least 30 calendar days prior to their effective date.

(Source: P.A. 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 100-581, eff. 3-12-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 570. The Early Mental Health and Addictions Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(305 ILCS 65/10)

Sec. 10. Medicaid pilot program for opioid and other drug addictions.

(a) Legislative findings. The General Assembly finds as follows:

(1) Illinois continues to face a serious and ongoing opioid epidemic.

(2) Opioid-related overdose deaths rose 76% between 2013 and 2016.

(3) Opioid and other drug addictions are life-long diseases that require a disease management approach and not just episodic treatment.

(4) There is an urgent need to create a treatment approach that proactively engages and encourages individuals with opioid and other drug addictions into treatment to help prevent chronic use and a worsening addiction and to significantly curb the rate of overdose deaths.

(b) With the goal of early initial engagement of individuals who have an opioid or other drug addiction in addiction treatment and for keeping individuals engaged in treatment following detoxification, a residential treatment stay, or hospitalization to prevent chronic recurrent drug use, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in partnership with the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Alcoholism and Substance Abuse and with meaningful input from stakeholders, shall develop an Assertive Engagement and Community-Based Clinical Treatment Pilot Program for early treatment of an opioid or other drug addiction. The pilot program shall be implemented across a broad spectrum of geographic regions across the State.

(c) Assertive engagement and community-based clinical treatment services. All services included in the pilot program established under this Section shall be evidence-based or evidence-informed as applicable and the services shall be flexibly provided in-office, in-home, and in-community with an emphasis on in-home and in-community services. The model shall take into consideration area workforce, community uniqueness, and cultural diversity. The model shall, at a minimum, allow for and include each of the following:

(1) Assertive community outreach, engagement, and continuing care strategies to encourage participation and retention in addiction treatment services for both initial engagement into addiction treatment services, and for post-hospitalization, post-detoxification, and post-residential treatment.

(2) Case management for purposes of linking individuals to treatment, ongoing monitoring, problem solving, and assisting individuals in organizing their treatment and goals. Case management shall be covered for individuals not yet engaged in treatment for purposes of reaching such individuals early on in their addiction and for individuals in treatment.

(3) Clinical treatment that is delivered in an individual's natural environment, including in-home or in-community treatment, to better equip the individual with coping mechanisms that may trigger re-use.

(4) Coverage of provider transportation costs in delivering in-home and in-community services in both rural and urban settings. For rural communities, the model shall take into account the wider geographic areas providers are required to travel for in-home and in-community pilot services for purposes of reimbursement.

(5) Recovery support services.

(6) For individuals who receive services through the pilot program but disengage for a short duration (a period of no longer than 9 months), allow seamless treatment re-engagement in the pilot program.

(7) Supported education and employment.

(8) Working with the individual's family, school, and other community support systems.

(9) Service flexibility to enable recovery and positive health outcomes.

(d) Federal waiver or State Plan amendment; implementation timeline. The Department shall follow the timeline for application for federal approval and implementation outlined in subsection (c) of Section 5. The pilot program contemplated in this Section shall be implemented only to the extent that federal financial participation is available.

(e) Pay-for-performance payment model. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in partnership with the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Alcoholism and Substance Abuse and with meaningful input from stakeholders, shall develop a pay-for-performance payment model aimed at achieving high-quality high quality treatment and overall health and quality of life outcomes, rather than a fee-for-service payment model. The payment model shall allow for service flexibility to achieve such outcomes, shall cover actual provider costs of delivering the pilot program services to enable sustainability, and shall include all provider costs associated with the data collection for purposes of the analytics and outcomes reporting required in subsection (g). The Department shall ensure that the payment model works as intended by this Section within managed care.

(f) Rulemaking. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in partnership with the Department of Human Services' Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Alcoholism and Substance Abuse and with meaningful input from stakeholders, shall develop rules for purposes of implementation of the pilot program within 6 months after federal approval of the pilot program. If the Department determines federal approval is not required for implementation, the Department shall develop rules with meaningful stakeholder input no later than December 31, 2019.

(g) Pilot program analytics and outcomes reports. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall engage a third party partner with expertise in program evaluation, analysis, and research at the end of 5 years of implementation to review the outcomes of the pilot program in treating addiction and preventing periods of symptom exacerbation and recurrence. For purposes of evaluating the outcomes of the pilot program, the Department shall require providers of the pilot program services to track all of the following annual data:

(1) Length of engagement and retention in pilot program services.

(2) Recurrence of drug use.

(3) Symptom management (the ability or inability to control drug use).

(4) Days of hospitalizations related to substance use or residential treatment stays.

(5) Periods of homelessness and periods of housing stability.

(6) Periods of criminal justice involvement.

(7) Educational and employment attainment during following pilot program services.

(8) Enrollee satisfaction with his or her quality of life and level of social connectedness, pre-pilot and post-pilot services.

(h) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall deliver a final report to the General Assembly on the outcomes of the pilot program within one year after 4 years of full implementation, and after 7 years of full implementation, compared to typical treatment available to other youth with significant mental health conditions, as well as the cost savings associated with the pilot program taking into account all public systems used when an individual with a significant mental health condition does not have access to the right treatment and supports in the early stages of his or her illness.

The reports to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

Post-pilot program discharge outcomes shall be collected for all service recipients who exit the pilot program for up to 3 years after exit. This includes youth who exit the program with planned or unplanned discharges. The post-exit data collected shall include the annual data listed in paragraphs (1) through (8) of subsection (g). Data collection shall be done in a manner that does not violate individual privacy laws. Outcomes for enrollees in the pilot and post-exit outcomes shall be included in the final report to the General Assembly under this subsection (h) within one year of 4 full years of implementation, and in an additional report within one year of 7 full years of implementation in order to provide more information about post-exit outcomes on a greater number of youth who enroll in pilot program services in the final years of the pilot program.

(Source: P.A. 100-1016, eff. 8-21-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 575. The Older Adult Services Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(320 ILCS 42/35)

Sec. 35. Older Adult Services Advisory Committee.

(a) The Older Adult Services Advisory Committee is created to advise the directors of Aging, Healthcare and Family Services, and Public Health on all matters related to this Act and the delivery of services to older adults in general.

(b) The Advisory Committee shall be comprised of the following:

(1) The Director of Aging or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair and shall be an ex officio and nonvoting member.

(2) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services and the Director of Public Health or their designees, who shall serve as vice-chairs and shall be ex officio and nonvoting members.

(3) One representative each of the Governor's Office, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Veterans' Affairs, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Insurance, the Department on Aging, the Department on Aging's State Long Term Care Ombudsman, the Illinois Housing Finance Authority, and the Illinois Housing Development Authority, each of whom shall be selected by his or her respective director and shall be an ex officio and nonvoting member.

(4) Thirty members appointed by the Director of Aging in collaboration with the directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services, and selected from the recommendations of statewide associations and organizations, as follows:

(A) One member representing the Area Agencies on Aging;

(B) Four members representing nursing homes or licensed assisted living establishments;

(C) One member representing home health agencies;

(D) One member representing case management services;

(E) One member representing statewide senior center associations;

(F) One member representing Community Care Program homemaker services;

(G) One member representing Community Care Program adult day services;

(H) One member representing nutrition project directors;

(I) One member representing hospice programs;

(J) One member representing individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementias;

(K) Two members representing statewide trade or labor unions;

(L) One advanced practice registered nurse with experience in gerontological nursing;

(M) One physician specializing in gerontology;

(N) One member representing regional long-term care ombudsmen;

(O) One member representing municipal, township, or county officials;

(P) (Blank);

(Q) (Blank);

(R) One member representing the parish nurse movement;

(S) One member representing pharmacists;

(T) Two members representing statewide organizations engaging in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of the senior population;

(U) Two family caregivers;

(V) Two citizen members over the age of 60;

(W) One citizen with knowledge in the area of gerontology research or health care law;

(X) One representative of health care facilities licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; and

(Y) One representative of primary care service providers.

The Director of Aging, in collaboration with the Directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services, may appoint additional citizen members to the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee. Each such additional member must be either an individual age 60 or older or an uncompensated caregiver for a family member or friend who is age 60 or older.

(c) Voting members of the Advisory Committee shall serve for a term of 3 years or until a replacement is named. All members shall be appointed no later than January 1, 2005. Of the initial appointees, as determined by lot, 10 members shall serve a term of one year; 10 shall serve for a term of 2 years; and 12 shall serve for a term of 3 years. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of that term. The Advisory Committee shall meet at least quarterly and may meet more frequently at the call of the Chair. A simple majority of those appointed shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a majority of those present and voting shall be necessary for Advisory Committee action. Members of the Advisory Committee shall receive no compensation for their services.

(d) The Advisory Committee shall have an Executive Committee comprised of the Chair, the Vice Chairs, and up to 15 members of the Advisory Committee appointed by the Chair who have demonstrated expertise in developing, implementing, or coordinating the system restructuring initiatives defined in Section 25. The Executive Committee shall have responsibility to oversee and structure the operations of the Advisory Committee and to create and appoint necessary subcommittees and subcommittee members. The Advisory Committee's Community Care Program Medicaid Enrollment Oversight Subcommittee shall have the membership and powers and duties set forth in Section 4.02 of the Illinois Act on the Aging.

(e) The Advisory Committee shall study and make recommendations related to the implementation of this Act, including, but not limited to, system restructuring initiatives as defined in Section 25 or otherwise related to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-587, eff. 6-4-18; 100-621, eff. 7-20-18; revised 8-1-18.)

Section 580. The Quincy Veterans' Home Rehabilitation and Rebuilding Act is amended by changing Sections 30 and 50 as follows:

(330 ILCS 21/30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 17, 2023)

Sec. 30. Procedures for selection.

(a) The State construction agency must use a two-phase procedure for the selection of the successful design-build entity. Phase I of the procedure will evaluate and shortlist the design-build entities based on qualifications, and Phase II will evaluate the technical and cost proposals.

(b) The State construction agency shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in Phase I. These factors are in addition to any prequalification requirements of design-build entities that the agency has set forth. Each request for proposal shall establish the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the State construction agency. The State construction agency must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in the event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The State construction agency shall include the following criteria in every Phase I evaluation of design-build entities: (1) experience of personnel; (2) successful experience with similar project types; (3) financial capability; (4) timeliness of past performance; (5) experience with similarly sized projects; (6) successful reference checks of the firm; (7) commitment to assign personnel for the duration of the project and qualifications of the entity's consultants; and (8) ability or past performance in meeting or exhausting good faith efforts to meet the utilization goals for business enterprises established in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act. The State construction agency may include any additional relevant criteria in Phase I that it deems necessary for a proper qualification review.

The State construction agency may not consider any design-build entity for evaluation or award if the entity has any pecuniary interest in the project or has other relationships or circumstances, including, but not limited to, long-term leasehold, mutual performance, or development contracts with the State construction agency, that may give the design-build entity a financial or tangible advantage over other design-build entities in the preparation, evaluation, or performance of the design-build contract or that create the appearance of impropriety. No proposal shall be considered that does not include an entity's plan to comply with the requirements established in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, for both the design and construction areas of performance, and with Section 2-105 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

Upon completion of the qualifications evaluation, the State construction agency shall create a shortlist of the most highly qualified design-build entities. The State construction agency, in its discretion, is not required to shortlist the maximum number of entities as identified for Phase II evaluation, so long as no less than 2 design-build entities nor more than 6 design-build entities are selected to submit Phase II proposals.

The State construction agency shall notify the entities selected for the shortlist in writing. This notification shall commence the period for the preparation of the Phase II technical and cost evaluations. The State construction agency must allow sufficient time for the shortlist entities to prepare their Phase II submittals considering the scope and detail requested by the State agency.

(c) The State construction agency shall include in the request for proposal the evaluating factors to be used in the technical and cost submission components of Phase II. Each request for proposal shall establish, for both the technical and cost submission components of Phase II, the relative importance assigned to each evaluation factor and subfactor, including any weighting of criteria to be employed by the State construction agency. The State construction agency must maintain a record of the evaluation scoring to be disclosed in the event of a protest regarding the solicitation.

The State construction agency shall include the following criteria in every Phase II technical evaluation of design-build entities: (1) compliance with objectives of the project; (2) compliance of proposed services to the request for proposal requirements; (3) quality of products or materials proposed; (4) quality of design parameters; (5) design concepts; (6) innovation in meeting the scope and performance criteria; and (7) constructability of the proposed project. The State construction agency may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection.

The State construction agency shall include the following criteria in every Phase II cost evaluation: the total project cost, the construction costs, and the time of completion. The State construction agency may include any additional relevant technical evaluation factors it deems necessary for proper selection. The total project cost criteria weighting weighing factor shall be 25%.

The State construction agency shall directly employ or retain a licensed design professional to evaluate the technical and cost submissions to determine if the technical submissions are in accordance with generally accepted industry standards.

Upon completion of the technical submissions and cost submissions evaluation, the State construction agency may award the design-build contract to the highest overall ranked entity.

(Source: P.A. 100-610, eff. 7-17-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(330 ILCS 21/50)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 17, 2023)

Sec. 50. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act applies to all administrative rules and procedures of the State construction agency under this Act except that nothing herein shall be construed to render any prequalification or other responsibility criteria as a "license" or "licensing" under that Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-610, eff. 7-17-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 585. The Service Member Employment and Reemployment Rights Act is amended by changing Section 5-20 as follows:

(330 ILCS 61/5-20)

Sec. 5-20. Notice of rights and duties.

(a) Each employer shall provide to employees entitled to rights and benefits under this Act a notice of the rights, benefits, and obligations of service member employees under this Act.

(b) The requirement for the provision of notice under this Act may be met by the posting of the notice where the employer employer's customarily places place notices for employees.

(Source: P.A. 100-1101, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 590. The Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act is amended by changing the heading of Article VII-A as follows:

(405 ILCS 80/Art. VII-A heading)

ARTICLE VII-A. DIVERSION FROM FACILITY-BASED CARE PROGRAM

(Source: P.A. 100-924, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

Section 595. The Comprehensive Lead Education, Reduction, and Window Replacement Program Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 43/5)

Sec. 5. Findings; intent; establishment of program.

(a) The General Assembly finds all of the following:

(1) Lead-based paint poisoning is a potentially devastating, but preventable disease. It is one of the top environmental threats to children's health in the United States.

(2) The number of lead-poisoned children in Illinois is among the highest in the nation, especially in older, more affordable properties.

(3) Lead poisoning causes irreversible damage to the development of a child's nervous system. Even at low and moderate levels, lead poisoning causes learning disabilities, problems with speech, shortened attention span, hyperactivity, and behavioral problems. Recent research links low levels of lead exposure to lower IQ scores and to juvenile delinquency.

(4) Older housing is the number one risk factor for childhood lead poisoning. Properties built before 1950 are statistically much more likely to contain lead-based paint hazards than buildings constructed more recently.

(5) While the use of lead-based paint in residential properties was banned in 1978, the State of Illinois ranks seventh nationally in the number of housing units built before 1978 and has the highest risk for lead hazards.

(6) There are nearly 1.4 million households with lead-based paint hazards in Illinois.

(7) Most children are lead poisoned in their own homes through exposure to lead dust from deteriorated lead paint surfaces, like windows, and when lead paint deteriorates or is disturbed through home renovation and repainting.

(8) Children at the highest risk for lead poisoning live in low-income communities and in older housing throughout the State of Illinois.

(9) The control of lead hazards significantly reduces lead-poisoning rates.

(10) Windows are considered a higher lead exposure risk more often than other components in a housing unit. Windows are a major contributor of lead dust in the home, due to both weathering conditions and friction effects on paint.

(11) The Comprehensive Lead Education Elimination, Reduction, and Window Replacement (CLEAR-WIN) Program was established under Public Act 95-492 as a pilot program to reduce potential lead hazards by replacing windows in low-income, pre-1978 homes. It also provided for on-the-job training for community members in 2 pilot communities in Chicago and Peoria County.

(12) The CLEAR-WIN Program provided for installation of 8,000 windows in 466 housing units between 2010 and 2014. Evaluations of the pilot program determined window replacement was effective in lowering lead hazards and produced energy, environmental, health, and market benefits. Return on investment was almost $2 for every dollar spent.

(13) There is an insufficient pool of licensed lead abatement workers and contractors to address the problem in some areas of the State.

(14) Through grants from the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development and State dollars, some communities in Illinois have begun to reduce lead poisoning of children. While this is an ongoing effort, it only addresses a small number of the low-income children statewide in communities with high levels of lead paint in the housing stock.

(b) It is the intent of the General Assembly to:

(1) address the problem of lead poisoning of children by eliminating lead hazards in homes;

(2) provide training within communities to encourage the use of lead paint safe work practices;

(3) create job opportunities for community members in the lead abatement industry;

(4) support the efforts of small business and property owners committed to maintaining lead-safe housing; and

(5) assist in the maintenance of affordable lead-safe housing stock.

(c) The General Assembly hereby establishes the Comprehensive Lead Education, Reduction, and Window Replacement Program to assist residential property owners through a Lead Direct Assistance Program to reduce lead hazards in residential properties.

(d) The Department of Public Health is authorized to:

(1) adopt rules necessary to implement this Act;

(2) adopt by reference the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for administration of this Act;

(3) assess administrative fines and penalties, as established by the Department by rule, for persons violating rules adopted by the Department under this Act;

(4) make referrals for prosecution to the Attorney General or the State's Attorney for the county in which a violation occurs, for a violation of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act; and

(5) establish agreements under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act with the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Illinois Housing Development Authority, or any other public agency as required, to implement this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-461, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 600. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 1a, 2.1, 5, and 6.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/1a) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-1a)

Sec. 1a. Definitions. In this Act:

"Advanced practice registered nurse" has the meaning provided in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Ambulance provider" means an individual or entity that owns and operates a business or service using ambulances or emergency medical services vehicles to transport emergency patients.

"Approved pediatric health care facility" means a health care facility, other than a hospital, with a sexual assault treatment plan approved by the Department to provide medical forensic services to pediatric sexual assault survivors who present with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of the last 7 days or who have disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and were in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

"Areawide sexual assault treatment plan" means a plan, developed by hospitals or by hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities in a community or area to be served, which provides for medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors that shall be made available by each of the participating hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities.

"Board-certified child abuse pediatrician" means a physician certified by the American Board of Pediatrics in child abuse pediatrics.

"Board-eligible child abuse pediatrician" means a physician who has completed the requirements set forth by the American Board of Pediatrics to take the examination for certification in child abuse pediatrics.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency contraception" means medication as approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after sexual assault.

"Follow-up healthcare" means healthcare services related to a sexual assault, including laboratory services and pharmacy services, rendered within 90 days of the initial visit for medical forensic services.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a physician assistant, a sexual assault forensic examiner, an advanced practice registered nurse, a registered professional nurse, a licensed practical nurse, or a sexual assault nurse examiner.

"Hospital" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act, any outpatient center included in the hospital's sexual assault treatment plan where hospital employees provide medical forensic services, and an out-of-state hospital that has consented to the jurisdiction of the Department under Section 2.06.

"Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit" means a prepackaged set of materials and forms to be used for the collection of evidence relating to sexual assault. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where an alleged sexual assault or sexual abuse occurred.

"Licensed practical nurse" has the meaning provided in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Medical forensic services" means health care delivered to patients within or under the care and supervision of personnel working in a designated emergency department of a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility. "Medical forensic services" includes, but is not limited to, taking a medical history, performing photo documentation, performing a physical and anogenital examination, assessing the patient for evidence collection, collecting evidence in accordance with a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program administered by the Department of State Police using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit, if appropriate, assessing the patient for drug-facilitated or alcohol-facilitated sexual assault, providing an evaluation of and care for sexually transmitted infection and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), pregnancy risk evaluation and care, and discharge and follow-up healthcare planning.

"Pediatric health care facility" means a clinic or physician's office that provides medical services to pediatric patients.

"Pediatric sexual assault survivor" means a person under the age of 13 who presents for medical forensic services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Photo documentation" means digital photographs or colposcope videos stored and backed up backed-up securely in the original file format.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

"Physician assistant" has the meaning provided in Section 4 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

"Prepubescent sexual assault survivor" means a female who is under the age of 18 years and has not had a first menstrual cycle or a male who is under the age of 18 years and has not started to develop secondary sex characteristics who presents for medical forensic services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Qualified medical provider" means a board-certified child abuse pediatrician, board-eligible child abuse pediatrician, a sexual assault forensic examiner, or a sexual assault nurse examiner who has access to photo documentation tools, and who participates in peer review.

"Registered Professional Nurse" has the meaning provided in Section 50-10 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Sexual assault" means:

(1) an act of sexual conduct; as used in this paragraph, "sexual conduct" has the meaning provided under Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(2) any act of sexual penetration; as used in this paragraph, "sexual penetration" has the meaning provided under Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and includes, without limitation, acts prohibited under Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Sexual assault forensic examiner" means a physician or physician assistant who has completed training that meets or is substantially similar to the Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner Education Guidelines established by the International Association of Forensic Nurses.

"Sexual assault nurse examiner" means an advanced practice registered nurse or registered professional nurse who has completed a sexual assault nurse examiner training program that meets the Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner Education Guidelines established by the International Association of Forensic Nurses.

"Sexual assault services voucher" means a document generated by a hospital or approved pediatric health care facility at the time the sexual assault survivor receives outpatient medical forensic services that may be used to seek payment for any ambulance services, medical forensic services, laboratory services, pharmacy services, and follow-up healthcare provided as a result of the sexual assault.

"Sexual assault survivor" means a person who presents for medical forensic services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Sexual assault transfer plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital and approved by the Department, which describes the hospital's procedures for transferring sexual assault survivors to another hospital, and an approved pediatric health care facility, if applicable, in order to receive medical forensic services.

"Sexual assault treatment plan" means a written plan that describes the procedures and protocols for providing medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors who present themselves for such services, either directly or through transfer from a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility.

"Transfer hospital" means a hospital with a sexual assault transfer plan approved by the Department.

"Transfer services" means the appropriate medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment prior to the transfer of a sexual assault survivor to a hospital or an approved pediatric health care facility that provides medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors pursuant to a sexual assault treatment plan or areawide sexual assault treatment plan.

"Treatment hospital" means a hospital with a sexual assault treatment plan approved by the Department to provide medical forensic services to all sexual assault survivors who present with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of the last 7 days or who have disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and were in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

"Treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer" means a hospital with a treatment plan approved by the Department to provide medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors 13 years old or older who present with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of the last 7 days or who have disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and were in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

(Source: P.A. 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-775, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-24-18.)

(410 ILCS 70/2.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-2.1)

Sec. 2.1. Plan of correction; penalties.

(a) If the Department surveyor determines that the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility is not in compliance with its approved plan, the surveyor shall provide the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility with a written list of the specific items of noncompliance within 10 working days after the conclusion of the on-site on site review. The hospital shall have 10 working days to submit to the Department a plan of correction which contains the hospital's or approved pediatric health care facility's specific proposals for correcting the items of noncompliance. The Department shall review the plan of correction and notify the hospital in writing within 10 working days as to whether the plan is acceptable or unacceptable.

If the Department finds the Plan of Correction unacceptable, the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility shall have 10 working days to resubmit an acceptable Plan of Correction. Upon notification that its Plan of Correction is acceptable, a hospital or approved pediatric health care facility shall implement the Plan of Correction within 60 days.

(b) The failure of a hospital to submit an acceptable Plan of Correction or to implement the Plan of Correction, within the time frames required in this Section, will subject a hospital to the imposition of a fine by the Department. The Department may impose a fine of up to $500 per day until a hospital complies with the requirements of this Section.

If an approved pediatric health care facility fails to submit an acceptable Plan of Correction or to implement the Plan of Correction within the time frames required in this Section, then the Department shall notify the approved pediatric health care facility that the approved pediatric health care facility may not provide medical forensic services under this Act. The Department may impose a fine of up to $500 per patient provided services in violation of this Act.

(c) Before imposing a fine pursuant to this Section, the Department shall provide the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility via certified mail with written notice and an opportunity for an administrative hearing. Such hearing must be requested within 10 working days after receipt of the Department's Notice. All hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the Department's rules in administrative hearings.

(Source: P.A. 100-775, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

(410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)

Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for medical forensic services provided to sexual assault survivors by hospitals and approved pediatric health care facilities.

(a) Every hospital and approved pediatric health care facility providing medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant, the services set forth in subsection (a-5).

Beginning January 1, 2022, a qualified medical provider must provide the services set forth in subsection (a-5).

(a-5) A treatment hospital, a treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer, or an approved pediatric health care facility shall provide the following services in accordance with subsection (a):

(1) Appropriate medical forensic services without delay, in a private, age-appropriate or developmentally-appropriate space, required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of a sexual assault survivor and which may be used as evidence in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the sexual assault, in a proceeding under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or in an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

Records of medical forensic services, including results of examinations and tests, the Illinois State Police Medical Forensic Documentation Forms, the Illinois State Police Patient Discharge Materials, and the Illinois State Police Patient Consent: Collect and Test Evidence or Collect and Hold Evidence Form, shall be maintained by the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility as part of the patient's electronic medical record.

Records of medical forensic services of sexual assault survivors under the age of 18 shall be retained by the hospital for a period of 60 years after the sexual assault survivor reaches the age of 18. Records of medical forensic services of sexual assault survivors 18 years of age or older shall be retained by the hospital for a period of 20 years after the date the record was created.

Records of medical forensic services may only be disseminated in accordance with Section 6.5 of this Act and other State and federal law.

(1.5) An offer to complete the Illinois Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit for any sexual assault survivor who presents within a minimum of the last 7 days of the assault or who has disclosed past sexual assault by a specific individual and was in the care of that individual within a minimum of the last 7 days.

(A) Appropriate oral and written information concerning evidence-based guidelines for the appropriateness of evidence collection depending on the sexual development of the sexual assault survivor, the type of sexual assault, and the timing of the sexual assault shall be provided to the sexual assault survivor. Evidence collection is encouraged for prepubescent sexual assault survivors who present to a hospital or approved pediatric health care facility with a complaint of sexual assault within a minimum of 96 hours after the sexual assault.

Before January 1, 2022, the information required under this subparagraph shall be provided in person by the health care professional providing medical forensic services directly to the sexual assault survivor.

On and after January 1, 2022, the information required under this subparagraph shall be provided in person by the qualified medical provider providing medical forensic services directly to the sexual assault survivor.

The written information provided shall be the information created in accordance with Section 10 of this Act.

(B) Following the discussion regarding the evidence-based guidelines for evidence collection in accordance with subparagraph (A), evidence collection must be completed at the sexual assault survivor's request. A sexual assault nurse examiner conducting an examination using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit may do so without the presence or participation of a physician.

(2) Appropriate oral and written information concerning the possibility of infection, sexually transmitted infection, including an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from sexual assault, and pregnancy resulting from sexual assault.

(3) Appropriate oral and written information concerning accepted medical procedures, laboratory tests, medication, and possible contraindications of such medication available for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease resulting from sexual assault.

(3.5) After after a medical evidentiary or physical examination, access to a shower at no cost, unless showering facilities are unavailable. ;

(4) An amount of medication, including HIV prophylaxis, for treatment at the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant in accordance with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and consistent with the hospital's or approved pediatric health care facility's current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors.

(5) Photo documentation of the sexual assault survivor's injuries, anatomy involved in the assault, or other visible evidence on the sexual assault survivor's body to supplement the medical forensic history and written documentation of physical findings and evidence beginning July 1, 2019. Photo documentation does not replace written documentation of the injury.

(6) Written and oral instructions indicating the need for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted infection.

(7) Referral by hospital or approved pediatric health care facility personnel for appropriate counseling.

(8) Medical advocacy services provided by a rape crisis counselor whose communications are protected under Section 8-802.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, if there is a memorandum of understanding between the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility and a rape crisis center. With the consent of the sexual assault survivor, a rape crisis counselor shall remain in the exam room during the medical forensic examination.

(9) Written information regarding services provided by a Children's Advocacy Center and rape crisis center, if applicable.

(a-7) By January 1, 2022, every hospital with a treatment plan approved by the Department shall employ or contract with a qualified medical provider to initiate medical forensic services to a sexual assault survivor within 90 minutes of the patient presenting to the treatment hospital or treatment hospital with approved pediatric transfer. The provision of medical forensic services by a qualified medical provider shall not delay the provision of life-saving medical care.

(b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks medical forensic services or follow-up healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian, surrogate, or agent. If a sexual assault survivor is unable to consent to medical forensic services, the services may be provided under the Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act, the Health Care Surrogate Act, or other applicable State and federal laws.

(b-5) Every hospital or approved pediatric health care facility providing medical forensic services to sexual assault survivors shall issue a voucher to any sexual assault survivor who is eligible to receive one in accordance with Section 5.2 of this Act. The hospital shall make a copy of the voucher and place it in the medical record of the sexual assault survivor. The hospital shall provide a copy of the voucher to the sexual assault survivor after discharge upon request.

(c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-775, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1087, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-24-18.)

(410 ILCS 70/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Written consent to the release of sexual assault evidence for testing.

(a) Upon the completion of medical forensic services, the health care professional providing the medical forensic services shall provide the patient the opportunity to sign a written consent to allow law enforcement to submit the sexual assault evidence for testing, if collected. The written consent shall be on a form included in the sexual assault evidence collection kit and posted on the Illinois State Police website. The consent form shall include whether the survivor consents to the release of information about the sexual assault to law enforcement.

(1) A survivor 13 years of age or older may sign the written consent to release the evidence for testing.

(2) If the survivor is a minor who is under 13 years of age, the written consent to release the sexual assault evidence for testing may be signed by the parent, guardian, investigating law enforcement officer, or Department of Children and Family Services.

(3) If the survivor is an adult who has a guardian of the person, a health care surrogate, or an agent acting under a health care power of attorney, the consent of the guardian, surrogate, or agent is not required to release evidence and information concerning the sexual assault or sexual abuse. If the adult is unable to provide consent for the release of evidence and information and a guardian, surrogate, or agent under a health care power of attorney is unavailable or unwilling to release the information, then an investigating law enforcement officer may authorize the release.

(4) Any health care professional or health care institution, including any hospital or approved pediatric health care facility, who provides evidence or information to a law enforcement officer under a written consent as specified in this Section is immune from any civil or professional liability that might arise from those actions, with the exception of willful or wanton misconduct. The immunity provision applies only if all of the requirements of this Section are met.

(b) The hospital or approved pediatric health care facility shall keep a copy of a signed or unsigned written consent form in the patient's medical record.

(c) If a written consent to allow law enforcement to hold the sexual assault evidence is signed at the completion of medical forensic services, the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility shall include the following information in its discharge instructions:

(1) the sexual assault evidence will be stored for 10 years from the completion of an Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit, or 10 years from the age of 18 years, whichever is longer;

(2) a person authorized to consent to the testing of the sexual assault evidence may sign a written consent to allow law enforcement to test the sexual assault evidence at any time during that 10-year period for an adult victim, or until a minor victim turns 28 years of age by (A) contacting the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, or if unknown, the law enforcement agency contacted by the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification Act; or (B) by working with an advocate at a rape crisis center;

(3) the name, address, and phone number of the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, or if unknown the name, address, and phone number of the law enforcement agency contacted by the hospital or approved pediatric health care facility under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification Act; and

(4) the name and phone number of a local rape crisis center.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-775, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1087, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-24-18.)

Section 605. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Section 25.4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/25.4)

Sec. 25.4. Youth in care birth record request.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, an individual's status as a youth in care may be verified:

(1) with a copy of the court order placing the youth in the guardianship or custody of the Department of Children and Family Services or terminating the Department of Children and Family Services' guardianship or custody of the youth; or

(2) by a human services agency, legal services agency, or other similar agency that has knowledge of the individual's youth in care status, including, but not limited to:

(A) a child welfare agency, including the Department of Children and Family Services; or

(B) the attorney or guardian ad litem who served as the youth in care's attorney or guardian ad litem during proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

A person described in subsection (b) of this Section must not be charged for verification under this Section.

A person who knowingly or purposefully falsifies this verification is subject to a penalty of $100.

(b) The applicable fees under Section 25 of this Act for a search for a birth record or a certified copy of a birth record shall be waived for all requests made by:

(1) a youth in care, as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, whose status is verified under subsection (a) of this Section; or

(2) a person under the age of 27 who was a youth in care, as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, on or after his or her 18th birthday and whose status is verified under subsection (a) of this Section.

The State Registrar of Vital Records shall establish standards and procedures consistent with this Section for waiver of the applicable fees.

(c) A person shall be provided no more than 4 birth records annually under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-619, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-24-18.)

Section 610. The Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act is amended by changing Sections 3.3 and 4 as follows:

(410 ILCS 625/3.3)

Sec. 3.3. Farmers' markets.

(a) The General Assembly finds as follows:

(1) Farmers' markets, as defined in subsection (b) of this Section, provide not only a valuable marketplace for farmers and food artisans to sell their products directly to consumers, but also a place for consumers to access fresh fruits, vegetables, and other agricultural products.

(2) Farmers' markets serve as a stimulator for local economies and for thousands of new businesses every year, allowing farmers to sell directly to consumers and capture the full retail value of their products. They have become important community institutions and have figured in the revitalization of downtown districts and rural communities.

(3) Since 1999, the number of farmers' markets has tripled and new ones are being established every year. There is a lack of consistent regulation from one county to the next, resulting in confusion and discrepancies between counties regarding how products may be sold. There continue continues to be inconsistencies, confusion, and lack of awareness by consumers, farmers, markets, and local health authorities of required guidelines affecting farmers' markets from county to county.

(4) (Blank).

(5) (Blank).

(6) Recognizing that farmers' markets serve as small business incubators and that farmers' profit margins frequently are narrow, even in direct-to-consumer retail, protecting farmers from costs of regulation that are disproportionate to their profits will help ensure the continued viability of these local farms and small businesses.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Farmers' market" means a common facility or area where the primary purpose is for farmers to gather to sell a variety of fresh fruits and vegetables and other locally produced farm and food products directly to consumers.

(c) (Blank).

(d) This Section does not intend and shall not be construed to limit the power of counties, municipalities, and other local government units to regulate farmers' markets for the protection of the public health, safety, morals, and welfare, including, but not limited to, licensing requirements and time, place, and manner restrictions, except as specified in this Act. This Section provides for a statewide scheme for the orderly and consistent interpretation of the Department's administrative rules pertaining to the safety of food and food products sold at farmers' markets.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) The following provisions shall apply concerning statewide farmers' market food safety guidelines:

(1) The Director, in accordance with this Section, shall adopt administrative rules (as provided by the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act) for foods found at farmers' markets.

(2) The rules and regulations described in this Section shall be consistently enforced by local health authorities throughout the State.

(2.5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law except as provided in this Section, local public health departments and all other units of local government are prohibited from creating sanitation guidelines, rules, or regulations for farmers' markets that are more stringent than those farmers' market sanitation regulations contained in the administrative rules adopted by the Department for the purposes of implementing this Section and Sections 3.4, 3.5, and 4 of this Act. Except as provided for in Sections 3.4 and 4 of this Act, this Section does not intend and shall not be construed to limit the power of local health departments and other government units from requiring licensing and permits for the sale of commercial food products, processed food products, prepared foods, and potentially hazardous foods at farmers' markets or conducting related inspections and enforcement activities, so long as those permits and licenses do not include unreasonable fees or sanitation provisions and rules that are more stringent than those laid out in the administrative rules adopted by the Department for the purposes of implementing this Section and Sections 3.4, 3.5, and 4 of this Act.

(3) In the case of alleged noncompliance non-compliance with the provisions described in this Section, local health departments shall issue written notices to vendors and market managers of any noncompliance issues.

(4) Produce and food products coming within the scope of the provisions of this Section shall include, but not be limited to, raw agricultural products, including fresh fruits and vegetables; popcorn, grains, seeds, beans, and nuts that are whole, unprocessed, unpackaged, and unsprouted; fresh herb sprigs springs and dried herbs in bunches; baked goods sold at farmers' markets; cut fruits and vegetables; milk and cheese products; ice cream; syrups; wild and cultivated mushrooms; apple cider and other fruit and vegetable juices; herb vinegar; garlic-in-oil; flavored oils; pickles, relishes, salsas, and other canned or jarred items; shell eggs; meat and poultry; fish; ready-to-eat foods; commercially produced prepackaged food products; and any additional items specified in the administrative rules adopted by the Department to implement Section 3.3 of this Act.

(n) Local health department regulatory guidelines may be applied to foods not often found at farmers' markets, all other food products not regulated by the Department of Agriculture and the Department of Public Health, as well as live animals to be sold at farmers' markets.

(o) (Blank).

(p) The Department of Public Health and the Department of Agriculture shall adopt administrative rules necessary to implement, interpret, and make specific the provisions of this Section, including, but not limited to, rules concerning labels, sanitation, and food product safety according to the realms of their jurisdiction.

(q) The Department shall create a food sampling training and license program as specified in Section 3.4 of this Act.

(r) In addition to any rules adopted pursuant to subsection (p) of this Section, the following provisions shall be applied uniformly throughout the State, including to home rule units, except as otherwise provided in this Act:

(1) Farmers market vendors shall provide effective means to maintain potentially hazardous food, as defined in Section 4 of this Act, at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or below. As an alternative to mechanical refrigeration, an effectively insulated, hard-sided, cleanable container with sufficient ice or other cooling means that is intended for the storage of potentially hazardous food shall be used. Local health departments shall not limit vendors' choice of refrigeration or cooling equipment and shall not charge a fee for use of such equipment. Local health departments shall not be precluded from requiring an effective alternative form of cooling if a vendor is unable to maintain food at the appropriate temperature.

(2) Handwashing stations may be shared by farmers' market vendors if handwashing stations are accessible to vendors.

(Source: P.A. 99-9, eff. 7-10-15; 99-191, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-488, eff. 6-1-18; 100-805, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-24-18.)

(410 ILCS 625/4)

Sec. 4. Cottage food operation.

(a) For the purpose of this Section:

A food is "acidified" if: (i) acid or acid ingredients are added to it to produce a final equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below; or (ii) it is fermented to produce a final equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below.

"Canned food" means food preserved in air-tight, vacuum-sealed containers that are heat processed sufficiently to enable storing the food at normal home temperatures.

"Cottage food operation" means an operation conducted by a person who produces or packages food or drink, other than foods and drinks listed as prohibited in paragraph (1.5) of subsection (b) of this Section, in a kitchen located in that person's primary domestic residence or another appropriately designed and equipped residential or commercial-style kitchen on that property for direct sale by the owner, a family member, or employee.

"Cut leafy greens" means fresh leafy greens whose leaves have been cut, shredded, sliced, chopped, or torn. "Cut leafy greens" does not mean cut-to-harvest leafy greens.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Equilibrium pH" means the final potential of hydrogen measured in an acidified food after all the components of the food have achieved the same acidity.

"Farmers' market" means a common facility or area where farmers gather to sell a variety of fresh fruits and vegetables and other locally produced farm and food products directly to consumers.

"Leafy greens" includes iceberg lettuce; romaine lettuce; leaf lettuce; butter lettuce; baby leaf lettuce, such as immature lettuce or leafy greens; escarole; endive; spring mix; spinach; cabbage; kale; arugula; and chard. "Leafy greens" does not include microgreens or herbs such as cilantro or parsley.

"Main ingredient" means an agricultural product that is the defining or distinctive ingredient in a cottage food product, though not necessarily by predominance of weight.

"Microgreen" means an edible plant seedling grown in soil or substrate and harvested above the soil or substrate line.

"Potentially hazardous food" means a food that is potentially hazardous according to the Department's administrative rules. Potentially hazardous food (PHF) in general means a food that requires time and temperature control for safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation.

"Sprout" means any seedling intended for human consumption that was produced in a manner that does not meet the definition of microgreen.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law and except as provided in subsections (c), (d), and (e) of this Section, neither the Department nor the Department of Agriculture nor the health department of a unit of local government may regulate the transaction of food or drink by a cottage food operation providing that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) (Blank).

(1.5) A cottage food operation may produce homemade food and drink. However, a cottage food operation, unless properly licensed, certified, and compliant with all requirements to sell a listed food item under the laws and regulations pertinent to that food item, shall not sell or offer to sell the following food items or processed foods containing the following food items, except as indicated:

(A) meat, poultry, fish, seafood, or shellfish;

(B) dairy, except as an ingredient in a non-potentially hazardous baked good or candy, such as caramel, subject to paragraph (1.8);

(C) eggs, except as an ingredient in a non-potentially hazardous baked good or in dry noodles;

(D) pumpkin pies, sweet potato pies, cheesecakes, custard pies, creme pies, and pastries with potentially hazardous fillings or toppings;

(E) garlic in oil or oil infused with garlic, except if the garlic oil is acidified;

(F) canned foods, except for the following, which may be canned only in Mason-style jars with new lids:

(i) fruit jams, fruit jellies, fruit preserves, or fruit butters;

(ii) syrups;

(iii) whole or cut fruit canned in syrup;

(iv) acidified fruit or vegetables prepared and offered for sale in compliance with paragraph (1.6); and

(v) condiments such as prepared mustard, horseradish, or ketchup that do not contain ingredients prohibited under this Section and that are prepared and offered for sale in compliance with paragraph (1.6);

(G) sprouts;

(H) cut leafy greens, except for cut leafy greens that are dehydrated, acidified, or blanched and frozen;

(I) cut or pureed fresh tomato or melon;

(J) dehydrated tomato or melon;

(K) frozen cut melon;

(L) wild-harvested, non-cultivated mushrooms;

(M) alcoholic beverages; or

(N) kombucha.

(1.6) In order to sell canned tomatoes or a canned product containing tomatoes, a cottage food operator shall either:

(A) follow exactly a recipe that has been tested by the United States Department of Agriculture or by a state cooperative extension located in this State or any other state in the United States; or

(B) submit the recipe, at the cottage food operator's expense, to a commercial laboratory to test that the product has been adequately acidified; use only the varietal or proportionate varietals of tomato included in the tested recipe for all subsequent batches of such recipe; and provide documentation of the test results of the recipe submitted under this subparagraph to an inspector upon request during any inspection authorized by paragraph (2) of subsection (d).

(1.7) A State-certified local public health department that regulates the service of food by a cottage food operation in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section may require a cottage food operation to submit a canned food that is subject to paragraph (1.6), at the cottage food operator's expense, to a commercial laboratory to verify that the product has a final equilibrium pH of 4.6 or below.

(1.8) A State-certified local public health department that regulates the service of food by a cottage food operation in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section may require a cottage food operation to submit a recipe for any baked good containing cheese, at the cottage food operator's expense, to a commercial laboratory to verify that it is non-potentially hazardous before allowing the cottage food operation to sell the baked good as a cottage food.

(2) The food is to be sold at a farmers' market, with the exception that cottage foods that have a locally grown agricultural product as the main ingredient may be sold on the farm where the agricultural product is grown or delivered directly to the consumer.

(3) (Blank).

(4) The food packaging conforms to the labeling requirements of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act and includes the following information on the label of each of its products:

(A) the name and address of the cottage food operation;

(B) the common or usual name of the food product;

(C) all ingredients of the food product, including any colors, artificial flavors, and preservatives, listed in descending order by predominance of weight shown with common or usual names;

(D) the following phrase: "This product was produced in a home kitchen not subject to public health inspection that may also process common food allergens.";

(E) the date the product was processed; and

(F) allergen labeling as specified in federal labeling requirements.

(5) The name and residence of the person preparing and selling products as a cottage food operation are is registered with the health department of a unit of local government where the cottage food operation resides. No fees shall be charged for registration. Registration shall be for a minimum period of one year.

(6) The person preparing or packaging products as a cottage food operation has a Department approved Food Service Sanitation Management Certificate.

(7) At the point of sale, a placard is displayed in a prominent location that states the following: "This product was produced in a home kitchen not subject to public health inspection that may also process common food allergens.".

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section, if the Department or the health department of a unit of local government has received a consumer complaint or has reason to believe that an imminent health hazard exists or that a cottage food operation's product has been found to be misbranded, adulterated, or not in compliance with the exception for cottage food operations pursuant to this Section, then it may invoke cessation of sales of cottage food products until it deems that the situation has been addressed to the satisfaction of the Department.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section, a State-certified local public health department may, upon providing a written statement to the Department, regulate the service of food by a cottage food operation. The regulation by a State-certified local public health department may include all of the following requirements:

(1) That the cottage food operation (A) register with the State-certified local public health department, which shall be for a minimum of one year and include a reasonable fee set by the State-certified local public health department that is no greater than $25 notwithstanding paragraph (5) of subsection (b) of this Section and (B) agree in writing at the time of registration to grant access to the State-certified local public health department to conduct an inspection of the cottage food operation's primary domestic residence in the event of a consumer complaint or foodborne illness outbreak.

(2) That in the event of a consumer complaint or foodborne illness outbreak the State-certified local public health department is allowed to (A) inspect the premises of the cottage food operation in question and (B) set a reasonable fee for that inspection.

(e) The Department may adopt rules as may be necessary to implement the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-191, eff. 1-1-16; 100-35, eff. 1-1-18; 100-1069, eff. 8-24-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 615. The Illinois Solid Waste Management Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(415 ILCS 20/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7057)

Sec. 7. It is the intent of this Act to provide the framework for a comprehensive solid waste management program in Illinois.

The Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly on or before January 1, 1992, a report evaluating the effectiveness of the programs provided under this Act and Section 22.14 of the Environmental Protection Act; assessing the need for a continuation of existing programs, development and implementation of new programs and appropriate funding mechanisms; and recommending legislative and administrative action to fully implement a comprehensive solid waste management program in Illinois.

The Department shall investigate the suitability and advisability of providing tax incentives for Illinois businesses to use recycled products and purchase or lease recycling equipment, and shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 1987, on the results of this investigation.

By July 1, 1989, the Department shall submit to the Governor and members of the General Assembly a waste reduction report:

(a) that describes various mechanisms that could be utilized to stimulate and enhance the reduction of industrial and post-consumer waste in the State, including their advantages and disadvantages. The mechanisms to be analyzed shall include, but not be limited to, incentives for prolonging product life, methods for ensuring product recyclability, taxes for excessive packaging, tax incentives, prohibitions on the use of certain products, and performance standards for products; and

(b) that includes specific recommendations to stimulate and enhance waste reduction in the industrial and consumer sector, including, but not limited to, legislation, financial incentives and disincentives, and public education.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, with the cooperation of the State Board of Education, the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, and others as needed, shall develop, coordinate and conduct an education program for solid waste management and recycling. The program shall include, but not be limited to, education for the general public, businesses, government, educators and students.

The education program shall address, at a minimum, the following topics: the solid waste management alternatives of recycling, composting, and source reduction; resource allocation and depletion; solid waste planning; reuse of materials; pollution prevention; and household hazardous waste.

The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity shall cooperate with municipal and county governments, regional school superintendents, educational education service centers, local school districts, and planning agencies and committees to coordinate local and regional education programs and workshops and to expedite the exchange of technical information.

By March 1, 1989, the Department shall prepare a report on strategies for distributing and marketing landscape waste compost from centralized composting sites operated by units of local government. The report shall, at a minimum, evaluate the effects of product quality, assured supply, cost and public education on the availability of compost, free delivery, and public sales composting program. The evaluation of public sales programs shall focus on direct retail sale of bagged compost at the site or special distribution centers and bulk sale of finished compost to wholesalers for resale.

(Source: P.A. 94-793, eff. 5-19-06; revised 10-19-18.)

Section 620. The Environmental Toxicology Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(415 ILCS 75/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 983)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires: ;

(a) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health. ;

(b) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health. ;

(c) "Program" means the Environmental Toxicology Program as established by this Act. ;

(d) "Exposure" means contact with a hazardous substance. ;

(e) "Hazardous substance" means chemical compounds, elements, or combinations of chemicals which, because of quantity concentration, physical characteristics or toxicological characteristics may pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health and includes, but is not limited to, any substance defined as a hazardous substance in Section 3.215 of the "Environmental Protection Act. ", approved June 29, 1970, as amended;

(f) "Initial assessment" means a review and evaluation of site history and hazardous substances involved, potential for population exposure, the nature of any health related complaints and any known patterns in disease occurrence. ;

(g) "Comprehensive health study" means a detailed analysis which may include: a review of available environmental, morbidity and mortality data; environmental and biological sampling; detailed review of scientific literature; exposure analysis; population surveys; or any other scientific or epidemiologic methods deemed necessary to adequately evaluate the health status of the population at risk and any potential relationship to environmental factors. ;

(h) "Superfund Site" means any hazardous waste site designated for cleanup on the National Priorities List as mandated by the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-510), as amended. ;

(i) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-103, eff. 8-11-17; 100-621, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 625. The Mercury Switch Removal Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(415 ILCS 97/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)

Sec. 15. Mercury switch collection programs.

(a) Within 60 days of April 24, 2006 (the effective date of this Act), manufacturers of vehicles in Illinois that contain mercury switches must begin to implement a mercury switch collection program that facilitates the removal of mercury switches from end-of-life vehicles before the vehicles are flattened, crushed, shredded, or otherwise processed for recycling and to collect and properly manage mercury switches in accordance with the Environmental Protection Act and regulations adopted thereunder. In order to ensure that the mercury switches are removed and collected in a safe and consistent manner, manufacturers must, to the extent practicable, use the currently available end-of-life vehicle recycling infrastructure. The collection program must be designed to achieve capture rates of not less than (i) 35% for the period of July 1, 2006, through June 30, 2007; (ii) 50% for the period of July 1, 2007, through June 30, 2008; and (iii) 70% for the period of July 1, 2008, through June 30, 2009 and for each subsequent period of July 1 through June 30. At a minimum, the collection program must:

(1) Develop and provide educational materials that include guidance as to which vehicles may contain mercury switches and procedures for locating and removing mercury switches. The materials may include, but are not limited to, brochures, fact sheets, and videos.

(2) Conduct outreach activities to encourage vehicle recyclers and vehicle crushers to participate in the mercury switch collection program. The activities may include, but are not limited to, direct mailings, workshops, and site visits.

(3) Provide storage containers to participating vehicle recyclers and vehicle crushers for mercury switches removed under the program.

(4) Provide a collection and transportation system to periodically collect and replace filled storage containers from vehicle recyclers, vehicle crushers, and scrap metal recyclers, either upon notification that a storage container is full or on a schedule predetermined by the manufacturers.

(5) Establish an entity that will serve as a point of contact for the collection program and that will establish, implement, and oversee the collection program on behalf of the manufacturers.

(6) Track participation in the collection program and the progress of mercury switch removals and collections.

(b) Within 90 days of April 24, 2006 (the effective date of this Act), manufacturers of vehicles in Illinois that contain mercury switches must submit to the Agency an implementation plan that describes how the collection program under subsection (a) of this Section will be carried out for the duration of the program and how the program will achieve the capture rates set forth in subsection (a) of this Section. At a minimum, the implementation plan must:

(A) Identify the educational materials that will assist vehicle recyclers, vehicle crushers, and scrap metal processors in identifying, removing, and properly managing mercury switches removed from end-of-life vehicles.

(B) Describe the outreach program that will be undertaken to encourage vehicle recyclers and vehicle crushers to participate in the mercury switch collection program.

(C) Describe how the manufacturers will ensure that mercury switches removed from end-of-life vehicles are managed in accordance with the Illinois Environmental Protection Act and regulations adopted thereunder.

(D) Describe how the manufacturers will collect and document the information required in the quarterly reports submitted pursuant to subsection (e) of this Section.

(E) Describe how the collection program will be financed and implemented.

(F) Identify the manufacturer's address to which the Agency should send the notice required under subsection (f) of this Section.

The Agency shall review the collection program plans it receives for completeness and shall notify the manufacturer in writing if a plan is incomplete. Within 30 days after receiving a notification of incompleteness from the Agency the manufacturer shall submit to the Agency a plan that contains all of the required information.

(c) The Agency must provide assistance to manufacturers in their implementation of the collection program required under this Section. The assistance shall include providing manufacturers with information about businesses likely to be engaged in vehicle recycling or vehicle crushing, conducting site visits to promote participation in the collection program, and assisting with the scheduling, locating, and staffing of workshops conducted to encourage vehicle recyclers and vehicle crushers to participate in the collection program.

(d) Manufacturers subject to the collection program requirements of this Section shall provide, to the extent practicable, the opportunity for trade associations of vehicle recyclers, vehicle crushers, and scrap metal recyclers to be involved in the delivery and dissemination of educational materials regarding the identification, removal, collection, and proper management of mercury switches in end-of-life vehicles.

(e) (Blank).

(f) If the reports required under this Act indicate that the capture rates set forth in subsection (a) of this Section for the period of July 1, 2007, through though June 30, 2008, or for any subsequent period have not been met the Agency shall provide notice that the capture rate was not met; provided, however, that the Agency is not required to provide notice if it determines that the capture rate was not met due to a force majeure. The Agency shall provide the notice by posting a statement on its website and by sending a written notice via certified mail to the manufacturers subject to the collection program requirement of this Section at the addresses provided in the manufacturers' collection plans. Once the Agency provides notice pursuant to this subsection (f) it is not required to provide notice in subsequent periods in which the capture rate is not met.

(g) Beginning 30 days after the Agency first provides notice pursuant to subsection (f) of this Section, the following shall apply:

(1) Vehicle recyclers must remove all mercury switches from each end-of-life vehicle before delivering the vehicle to an on-site or off-site vehicle crusher or to a scrap metal recycler, provided that a vehicle recycler is not required to remove a mercury switch that is inaccessible due to significant damage to the vehicle in the area surrounding the mercury switch that occurred before the vehicle recycler's receipt of the vehicle in which case the damage must be noted in the records the vehicle recycler is required to maintain under subsection (c) of Section 10 of this Act.

(2) No vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or scrap metal recycler shall flatten, crush, or otherwise process an end-of-life vehicle for recycling unless all mercury switches have been removed from the vehicle, provided that a mercury switch that is inaccessible due to significant damage to the vehicle in the area surrounding the mercury switch that occurred before the vehicle recycler's, vehicle crusher's, or scrap metal recycler's receipt of the vehicle is not required to be removed. The damage must be noted in the records the vehicle recycler or vehicle crusher is required to maintain under subsection (c) of Section 10 of this Act.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) through (2) of this subsection (g), a scrap metal recycler may agree to accept an end-of-life vehicle that contains one or more mercury switches and that has not been flattened, crushed, shredded, or otherwise processed for recycling provided the scrap metal recycler removes all mercury switches from the vehicle before the vehicle is flattened, crushed, shredded, or otherwise processed for recycling. Scrap metal recyclers are not required to remove a mercury switch that is inaccessible due to significant damage to the vehicle in the area surrounding the mercury switch that occurred before the scrap metal recycler's receipt of the vehicle. The damage must be noted in the records the scrap metal recycler is required to maintain under subsection (c) of Section 10 of this Act.

(4) Manufacturers subject to the collection program requirements of this Section must provide to vehicle recyclers, vehicle crushers, and scrap metal recyclers the following compensation for all mercury switches removed from end-of-life vehicles on or after the date of the notice: $2.00 for each mercury switch removed by the vehicle recycler, vehicle crusher, or the scrap metal recycler, the costs of the containers in which the mercury switches are collected, and the costs of packaging and transporting the mercury switches off-site. Payment of this compensation must be provided in a prompt manner.

(h) In meeting the requirements of this Section, manufacturers may work individually or as part of a group of 2 or more manufacturers.

(Source: P.A. 97-459, eff. 7-1-12; revised 10-19-18.)

Section 630. The Consumer Electronics Recycling Act is amended by changing Sections 1-10 and 1-25 as follows:

(415 ILCS 151/1-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1165)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2026)

Sec. 1-10. Manufacturer e-waste program.

(a) For program year 2019 and each program year thereafter, each manufacturer shall, individually or collectively as part of a manufacturer clearinghouse, provide a manufacturer e-waste program to transport and subsequently recycle, in accordance with the requirements of this Act, residential CEDs collected at, and prepared for transport from, the program collection sites and one-day collection events included in the program during the program year.

(b) Each manufacturer e-waste program must include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) satisfaction of the convenience standard described in Section 1-15 of this Act;

(2) instructions for designated county recycling coordinators and municipal joint action agencies to annually file notice to participate in the program;

(3) transportation and subsequent recycling of the residential CEDs collected at, and prepared for transport from, the program collection sites and one-day collection events included in the program during the program year; and

(4) submission of a report to the Agency, by March 1, 2020, and each March 1 thereafter, which includes:

(A) the total weight of all residential CEDs transported from program collection sites and one-day collection events throughout the State during the preceding program year by CED category;

(B) the total weight of residential CEDs transported from all program collection sites and one-day collection events in each county in the State during the preceding program year by CED category; and

(C) the total weight of residential CEDs transported from all program collection sites and one-day collection events in each county in the State during that preceding program year and that was recycled.

(c) Each manufacturer e-waste program shall make the instructions required under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) available on its website by December 1, 2017, and the program shall provide to the Agency a hyperlink to the website for posting on the Agency's website.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a manufacturer from accepting, through a manufacturer e-waste program, residential CEDs collected through a curbside collection program that is operated pursuant to an agreement between a third party and a unit of local government located within a county or municipal joint action agency that has elected to participate in a manufacturer e-waste program.

(Source: P.A. 100-362, eff. 8-25-17; 100-433, eff. 8-25-17; 100-592, eff. 6-22-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1165)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2026)

Sec. 1-10. Manufacturer e-waste program.

(a) For program year 2019 and each program year thereafter, each manufacturer shall, individually or collectively as part of a manufacturer clearinghouse, provide a manufacturer e-waste program to transport and subsequently recycle, in accordance with the requirements of this Act, residential CEDs collected at, and prepared for transport from, the program collection sites and one-day collection events included in the program during the program year.

(b) Each manufacturer e-waste program must include, at a minimum, the following:

(1) satisfaction of the convenience standard described in Section 1-15 of this Act;

(2) instructions for designated county recycling coordinators and municipal joint action agencies to annually file notice to participate in the program;

(3) transportation and subsequent recycling of the residential CEDs collected at, and prepared for transport from, the program collection sites and one-day collection events included in the program during the program year; and

(4) submission of a report to the Agency, by March 1, 2020, and each March 1 thereafter, which includes:

(A) the total weight of all residential CEDs transported from program collection sites and one-day collection events throughout the State during the preceding program year by CED category;

(B) the total weight of residential CEDs transported from all program collection sites and one-day collection events in each county in the State during the preceding program year by CED category; and

(C) the total weight of residential CEDs transported from all program collection sites and one-day collection events in each county in the State during that preceding program year and that was recycled.

(c) Each manufacturer e-waste program shall make the instructions required under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) available on its website by December 1, 2017, and the program shall provide to the Agency a hyperlink to the website for posting on the Agency's website.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a manufacturer from accepting, through a manufacturer e-waste program, residential CEDs collected through a curbside or drop-off collection program that is operated pursuant to a residential franchise collection agreement authorized by Section 11-19-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or Section 5-1048 of the Counties Code between a third party and a unit of local government located within a county or municipal joint action agency that has elected to participate in a manufacturer e-waste program.

(e) A collection program operated in accordance with this Section shall:

(1) meet the collector responsibilities under subsections (a), (a-5), (d), (e), and (g) under Section 1-45 and require certification on the bill of lading or similar manifest from the unit of local government, the third party, and the county or municipal joint action agency that elected to participate in the manufacturer e-waste program that the CEDs were collected, to the best of their knowledge, from residential consumers in the State of Illinois;

(2) comply with the audit provisions under subsection (g) of Section 1-30;

(3) locate any drop-off location where CEDs are collected on property owned by a unit of local government; and

(4) have signage at any drop-off location indicating only residential CEDs are accepted for recycling.

Manufacturers of CEDs are not financially responsible for transporting and consolidating CEDs collected from a collection program's drop-off location. Any drop-off location used in 2019 must have been identified by the county or municipal joint action agency in the written notice of election to participate in the manufacturer e-waste program in accordance with Section 1-20 by March 1, 2018. Any drop-off location operating in 2020 or in subsequent years must be identified by the county or municipal joint action agency in the annual written notice of election to participate in a manufacturer e-waste program in accordance with Section 1-20 to be eligible for the subsequent program year.

(Source: P.A. 100-362, eff. 8-25-17; 100-433, eff. 8-25-17; 100-592, eff. 6-22-18; 100-1165, eff. 6-1-19; revised 1-15-19.)

(415 ILCS 151/1-25)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-1165)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2026)

Sec. 1-25. Manufacturer e-waste program plans.

(a) By July 1, 2018, and by July 1 of each year thereafter for the upcoming program year, beginning with program year 2019, each manufacturer shall, individually or through a manufacturer clearinghouse, submit to the Agency a manufacturer e-waste program plan, which includes, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the contact information for the individual who will serve as the point of contact for the manufacturer e-waste program;

(2) the identity of each county that has elected to participate in the manufacturer e-waste program during the program year;

(3) for each county, the location of each program collection site and one-day collection event included in the manufacturer e-waste program for the program year;

(4) the collector operating each program collection site and one-day collection event included in the manufacturer e-waste program for the program year;

(5) the recyclers that manufacturers plan to use during the program year to transport and subsequently recycle residential CEDs under the program, with the updated list of recyclers to be provided to the Agency no later than December 1 preceding each program year;

(6) an explanation of any deviation by the program from the standard program collection site distribution set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1-15 of this Act for the program year, along with copies of all written agreements made pursuant to paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 1-15 for the program year; and

(7) if a group of 2 or more manufacturers are participating in a manufacturer clearinghouse, certification that the methodology used for allocating responsibility for the transportation and recycling of residential CEDs by manufacturers participating in the manufacturer clearinghouse for the program year will be in compliance with the allocation methodology established under Section 1-84.5 of this Act.

(b) Within 60 days after receiving a manufacturer e-waste program plan, the Agency shall review the plan and approve the plan or disapprove the plan.

(1) If the Agency determines that the program collection sites and one-day collection events specified in the plan will satisfy the convenience standard set forth in Section 1-15 of this Act, then the Agency shall approve the manufacturer e-waste program plan and provide written notification of the approval to the individual who serves as the point of contact for the manufacturer. The Agency shall make the approved plan available on the Agency's website.

(2) If the Agency determines the plan will not satisfy the convenience standard set forth in Section 1-15 of this Act, then the Agency shall disapprove the manufacturer e-waste program plan and provide written notification of the disapproval and the reasons for the disapproval to the individual who serves as the point of contact for the manufacturer. Within 30 days after the date of disapproval, the manufacturer shall submit a revised manufacturer e-waste program plan that addresses the deficiencies noted in the Agency's disapproval.

(c) Manufacturers shall assume financial responsibility for carrying out their e-waste program plans, including, but not limited to, financial responsibility for providing the packaging materials necessary to prepare shipments of collected residential CEDs in compliance with subsection (e) of Section 1-45, as well as financial responsibility for bulk transportation and recycling of collected residential CEDs.

(Source: P.A. 100-362, eff. 8-25-17; 100-433, eff. 8-25-17; 100-592, eff. 6-22-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-1165)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2026)

Sec. 1-25. Manufacturer e-waste program plans.

(a) By September 1, 2018 for program year 2019, and by July 1 of each year thereafter, each manufacturer shall, individually or through a manufacturer clearinghouse, submit to the Agency a manufacturer e-waste program plan, which includes, at a minimum, the following:

(1) the contact information for the individual who will serve as the point of contact for the manufacturer e-waste program;

(2) the identity of each county that has elected to participate in the manufacturer e-waste program during the program year;

(3) for each county, the location of each program collection site and one-day collection event included in the manufacturer e-waste program for the program year;

(4) the collector operating each program collection site and one-day collection event included in the manufacturer e-waste program for the program year;

(5) the recyclers that manufacturers plan to use during the program year to transport and subsequently recycle residential CEDs under the program, with the updated list of recyclers to be provided to the Agency no later than December 1 preceding each program year;

(6) an explanation of any deviation by the program from the standard program collection site distribution set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1-15 of this Act for the program year, along with copies of all written agreements made pursuant to paragraphs (1) or (2) of subsection (b) of Section 1-15 for the program year; and

(7) if a group of 2 or more manufacturers are participating in a manufacturer clearinghouse, certification that the methodology used for allocating responsibility for the transportation and recycling of residential CEDs by manufacturers participating in the manufacturer clearinghouse for the program year will be in compliance with the allocation methodology established under Section 1-84.5 of this Act.

(b) Within 60 days after receiving a manufacturer e-waste program plan, the Agency shall review the plan and approve the plan or disapprove the plan.

(1) If the Agency determines that the program collection sites and one-day collection events specified in the plan will satisfy the convenience standard set forth in Section 1-15 of this Act, then the Agency shall approve the manufacturer e-waste program plan and provide written notification of the approval to the individual who serves as the point of contact for the manufacturer. The Agency shall make the approved plan available on the Agency's website.

(2) If the Agency determines the plan will not satisfy the convenience standard set forth in Section 1-15 of this Act, then the Agency shall disapprove the manufacturer e-waste program plan and provide written notification of the disapproval and the reasons for the disapproval to the individual who serves as the point of contact for the manufacturer. Within 30 days after the date of disapproval, the manufacturer shall submit a revised manufacturer e-waste program plan that addresses the deficiencies noted in the Agency's disapproval.

(c) Manufacturers shall assume financial responsibility for carrying out their e-waste program plans, including, but not limited to, financial responsibility for providing the packaging materials necessary to prepare shipments of collected residential CEDs in compliance with subsection (e) of Section 1-45, as well as financial responsibility for bulk transportation and recycling of collected residential CEDs.

(Source: P.A. 100-362, eff. 8-25-17; 100-433, eff. 8-25-17; 100-592, eff. 6-22-18; 100-1165, eff. 6-1-19; revised 1-15-19.)

Section 635. The Firearms Restraining Order Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 10, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, and 70 as follows:

(430 ILCS 67/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Family member of the respondent" means a spouse, parent, child, or step-child of the respondent, any other person related by blood or present marriage to the respondent, or a person who shares a common dwelling with the respondent.

"Firearms restraining order" means an order issued by the court, prohibiting and enjoining a named person from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving any firearms.

"Intimate partner" means a spouse, former spouse, a person with whom the respondent has or allegedly has a child in common, or a person with whom the respondent has or has had a dating or engagement relationship.

"Petitioner" means:

(1) a family member of the respondent as defined in this Act; or

(2) a law enforcement officer, who files a petition alleging that the respondent poses a danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

"Respondent" means the person alleged in the petition to pose a danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/10)

Sec. 10. Commencement of action; procedure.

(a) An action Actions for a firearms restraining order is are commenced by filing a verified petition for a firearms restraining order in any circuit court.

(b) A petition for a firearms restraining order may be filed in any county where the respondent resides.

(c) No fee shall be charged by the clerk for filing, amending, vacating, certifying, or photocopying petitions or orders; or for issuing alias summons; or for any related filing service. No fee shall be charged by the sheriff or other law enforcement for service by the sheriff or other law enforcement of a petition, rule, motion, or order in an action commenced under this Section.

(d) The court shall provide, through the office of the clerk of the court, simplified forms and clerical assistance to help with the writing and filing of a petition under this Section by any person not represented by counsel. In addition, that assistance may be provided by the State's Attorney.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/25)

Sec. 25. Process. The summons shall be in the form prescribed by Supreme Court Rule 101(d), except that it shall require the respondent to answer or appear within 7 days. Attachments to the summons or notice shall include the petition for the firearms restraining order and supporting affidavits, if any, and any emergency firearms restraining order that has been issued. The enforcement of an order under Section 35 shall not be affected by the lack of service, delivery, or notice, provided the requirements of subsection (f) of that Section are otherwise met.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/30)

Sec. 30. Service of notice of hearings. Service of notice of hearings. Except as provided in Section 25, notice of hearings on petitions or motions shall be served in accordance with Supreme Court Rules 11 and 12, unless notice is excused by Section 35 of this Act, or by the Code of Civil Procedure, Supreme Court Rules, or local rules.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/35)

Sec. 35. Ex parte orders and emergency hearings.

(a) A petitioner may request an emergency firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The petition shall also describe the type and location of any firearm or firearms presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for an emergency firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner Petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for an emergency firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) An emergency firearms restraining order shall be issued on an ex parte basis, that is, without notice to the respondent.

(e) An emergency hearing held on an ex parte basis shall be held the same day that the petition is filed or the next day that the court is in session.

(f) If a circuit or associate judge finds probable cause to believe that the respondent poses an immediate and present danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm, the circuit or associate judge shall issue an emergency order.

(f-5) If the court issues an emergency firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms.

(g) An emergency firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms for the duration of the order; and

(2) the respondent to turn over to the local law enforcement agency any Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license in his or her possession. The local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the card and concealed carry license to the Department of State Police Firearm Services Bureau for safekeeping. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license, if unexpired, shall be returned to the respondent after the firearms restraining order is terminated or expired.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (h-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or use the firearms for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(h-5) A respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent or to anyone residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(h-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, the firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm is removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm; and

(2) the firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm.

(i) In accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, the court shall schedule a full hearing as soon as possible, but no longer than 14 days from the issuance of an ex parte firearms restraining order, to determine if a 6-month firearms restraining order shall be issued. The court may extend an ex parte order as needed, but not to exceed 14 days, to effectuate service of the order or if necessary to continue protection. The court may extend the order for a greater length of time by mutual agreement of the parties.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/40)

Sec. 40. Six-month Six month orders.

(a) A petitioner may request a 6-month firearms restraining order by filing an affidavit or verified pleading alleging that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm. The petition shall also describe the number, types, and locations of any firearms presently believed by the petitioner to be possessed or controlled by the respondent.

(b) If the respondent is alleged to pose a significant danger of causing personal injury to an intimate partner, or an intimate partner is alleged to have been the target of a threat or act of violence by the respondent, the petitioner shall make a good faith effort to provide notice to any and all intimate partners of the respondent. The notice must include that the petitioner intends to petition the court for a 6-month firearms restraining order, and, if the petitioner is a law enforcement officer, referral to relevant domestic violence or stalking advocacy or counseling resources, if appropriate. The petitioner Petitioner shall attest to having provided the notice in the filed affidavit or verified pleading. If, after making a good faith effort, the petitioner is unable to provide notice to any or all intimate partners, the affidavit or verified pleading should describe what efforts were made.

(c) Every person who files a petition for a 6-month firearms restraining order, knowing the information provided to the court at any hearing or in the affidavit or verified pleading to be false, is guilty of perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(d) Upon receipt of a petition for a 6-month firearms restraining order, the court shall order a hearing within 30 days.

(e) In determining whether to issue a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall consider evidence including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) The unlawful and reckless use, display, or brandishing of a firearm by the respondent.

(2) The history of use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force by the respondent against another person.

(3) Any prior arrest of the respondent for a felony offense.

(4) Evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or alcohol by the respondent.

(5) A recent threat of violence or act of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(6) A violation of an emergency order of protection issued under Section 217 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-17 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or of an order of protection issued under Section 214 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or Section 112A-14 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(7) A pattern of violent acts or violent threats, including, but not limited to, threats of violence or acts of violence by the respondent directed toward himself, herself, or another.

(f) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the respondent poses a significant danger of personal injury to himself, herself, or another by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(g) If the court finds that there is clear and convincing evidence to issue a firearms restraining order, the court shall issue a firearms restraining order that shall be in effect for 6 months subject to renewal under Section 45 of this Act or termination under that Section.

(g-5) If the court issues a 6-month firearms restraining order, it shall, upon a finding of probable cause that the respondent possesses firearms, issue a search warrant directing a law enforcement agency to seize the respondent's firearms. The court may, as part of that warrant, direct the law enforcement agency to search the respondent's residence and other places where the court finds there is probable cause to believe he or she is likely to possess the firearms.

(h) A 6-month firearms restraining order shall require:

(1) the respondent to refrain from having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving additional firearms for the duration of the order; and

(2) the respondent to turn over to the local law enforcement agency any firearm or Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license in his or her possession. The local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the card and concealed carry license to the Department of State Police Firearm Services Bureau for safekeeping. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card and concealed carry license, if unexpired, shall be returned to the respondent after the firearms restraining order is terminated or expired.

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i-5) of this Section, upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to the respondent because the respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or use the firearms for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency.

(i-5) A respondent whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked or suspended may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the respondent's petition, to transfer the respondent's firearm to a person who is lawfully able to possess the firearm if the person does not reside at the same address as the respondent. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the person protected by the emergency firearms restraining order. While the order is in effect, the transferee who receives the respondent's firearms must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent or to anyone any one residing in the same residence as the respondent.

(i-6) If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms surrendered under this Section, he or she may petition the court, if the petitioner is present in court or has notice of the petition, to have the firearm returned to him or her. If the court determines that person to be the lawful owner of the firearm, the firearm shall be returned to him or her, provided that:

(1) the firearm is removed from the respondent's custody, control, or possession and the lawful owner agrees to store the firearm in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm; and

(2) the firearm is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.

The person petitioning for the return of his or her firearm must swear or affirm by affidavit that he or she: (i) is the lawful owner of the firearm; (ii) shall not transfer the firearm to the respondent; and (iii) will store the firearm in a manner that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm.

(j) If the court does not issue a firearms restraining order at the hearing, the court shall dissolve any emergency firearms restraining order then in effect.

(k) When the court issues a firearms restraining order under this Section, the court shall inform the respondent that he or she is entitled to one hearing during the period of the order to request a termination of the order, under Section 45 of this Act, and shall provide the respondent with a form to request a hearing.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/45)

Sec. 45. Termination and renewal.

(a) A person subject to a firearms restraining order issued under this Act may submit one written request at any time during the effective period of the order for a hearing to terminate the order.

(1) The respondent shall have the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the respondent does not pose a danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(2) If the court finds after the hearing that the respondent has met his or her burden, the court shall terminate the order.

(b) A petitioner may request a renewal of a firearms restraining order at any time within the 3 months before the expiration of a firearms restraining order.

(1) A court shall, after notice and a hearing, renew a firearms restraining order issued under this part if the petitioner proves, by clear and convincing evidence, that the respondent continues to pose a danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(2) In determining whether to renew a firearms restraining order issued under this Act, the court shall consider evidence of the facts identified in subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act and any other evidence of an increased risk for violence.

(3) At the hearing, the petitioner shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent continues to pose a danger of causing personal injury to himself, herself, or another in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm.

(4) The renewal of a firearms restraining order issued under this Section shall be in effect for 6 months, subject to termination by further order of the court at a hearing held under this Section and further renewal by further order of the court under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/50)

Sec. 50. Notice of orders.

(a) Entry and issuance. Upon issuance of any firearms restraining order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency firearms restraining order is issued in accordance with Section 35 of this Act (emergency firearms restraining order): , (i) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures and (ii) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(b) Filing with sheriff. The clerk of the issuing judge shall, or the petitioner may, on the same day that a firearms restraining order is issued, file a certified copy of that order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records or charged with serving the order upon the respondent. If the order was issued in accordance with Section 35 of this Act (emergency firearms restraining order), the clerk shall, on the next court day, file a certified copy of the order with the sheriff or other law enforcement officials charged with maintaining Department of State Police records.

(c) Service by sheriff. Unless the respondent was present in court when the order was issued, the sheriff or other law enforcement official shall promptly serve that order upon the respondent and file proof of the service, in the manner provided for service of process in civil proceedings. Instead of serving the order upon the respondent, however, the sheriff, other law enforcement official, or other persons defined in Section 112A-22.10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure Criminal Code of 1963 may serve the respondent with a short form notification as provided in that Section. If process has not yet been served upon the respondent, it shall be served with the order or short form notification if the service is made by the sheriff, or other law enforcement official.

(d) Any order renewing or terminating any firearms restraining order shall be promptly recorded, issued, and served as provided in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/55)

Sec. 55. Data maintenance by law enforcement agencies.

(a) All sheriffs shall furnish to the Department of State Police, daily, in the form and detail the Department requires, copies of any recorded firearms restraining orders order issued by the court, and any foreign orders of protection filed by the clerk of the court, and transmitted to the sheriff by the clerk of the court under Section 50. Each firearms restraining order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) on the same day it is issued by the court. If an emergency firearms restraining order was issued in accordance with Section 35 of this Act, the order shall be entered in the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) as soon as possible after receipt from the clerk.

(b) The Department of State Police shall maintain a complete and systematic record and index of all valid and recorded firearms restraining orders issued or filed under this Act. The data shall be used to inform all dispatchers and law enforcement officers at the scene of a violation of a firearms restraining order of the effective dates and terms of any recorded order of protection.

(c) The data, records, and transmittals required under this Section shall pertain to any valid emergency or 6-month firearms restraining order, whether issued in a civil or criminal proceeding or authorized under the laws of another state, tribe, or United States territory.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

(430 ILCS 67/70)

Sec. 70. Non-preclusion of remedies. Nothing in this Act shall preclude a petitioner or law enforcement law-enforcement officer from removing weapons under other authority, or filing criminal charges when probable cause exists.

(Source: P.A. 100-607, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-2-18.)

Section 640. The Farmer Equity Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(505 ILCS 72/15)

Sec. 15. Inclusion of socially disadvantaged farmers.

(a) The Department shall ensure the inclusion of socially disadvantaged farmers, including socially disadvantaged farmers in urbanized areas, in the development, adoption, implementation, and enforcement of food and agriculture laws, regulations, policies, and programs.

(b) The Department shall:

(1) consult with the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency, the Director of Natural Resources, the Executive Director of the Illinois Housing Development Authority, the Secretary of Human Services, and other interested parties of the public and private sector of the State on opportunities for socially disadvantaged farmers to coordinate State programs;

(2) disseminate information regarding opportunities provided by, including, but not limited to, the United States Department of Agriculture, the United States Environmental Protection Agency, the General Accounting Office, the Office of Management and Budget, and other federal agencies that that have programs that may assist socially disadvantaged farmers; and

(3) evaluate opportunities for the inclusion of socially disadvantaged farmers in boards, committees, commissions, and other similar positions created by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 100-1039, eff. 8-23-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 645. The Food and Agriculture Research Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(505 ILCS 82/25)

Sec. 25. Administrative oversight. (a) The Department of Agriculture shall provide general administrative oversight with the assistance and advice of duly elected Board of Directors of the Illinois Council on Food and Agricultural Research. Food and agricultural research administrators at each of the universities shall administer the specifics of the funded research programs. Annually the Illinois Council on Food and Agricultural Research administrators shall prepare a combined proposed budget for the research that the Director of Agriculture shall submit to the Governor for inclusion in the Executive budget and consideration by the General Assembly. The budget shall specify major categories of proposed expenditures, including salary, wages, and fringe benefits; operation and maintenance; supplies and expenses; and capital improvements.

(b) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-621, eff. 7-20-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 650. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing Section 15.5 as follows:

(510 ILCS 5/15.5)

Sec. 15.5. Reckless dog owner; complaint; penalty.

(a) The Administrator, State's Attorney, Director, or any citizen may file a complaint in circuit court to determine whether a person is a reckless dog owner. If an owner is determined to be a reckless dog owner by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall order the immediate impoundment and forfeiture of all dogs the reckless dog owner has a property right in. Forfeiture may be to any licensed shelter, rescue, or sanctuary. The court shall further prohibit the property right ownership of a dog by the person determined to be a reckless dog owner for a period of at least 12 months, but not more than 36 months for the first reckless dog owner determination.

(a-5) A dog's history during ownership by a person found to be a reckless dog owner shall not be considered conclusive of the dog's temperament and qualification for adoption or transfer. The dog's temperament shall be independently evaluated by a person qualified to conduct behavioral assessments and, if the dog is deemed adoptable, the receiving facility shall make a reasonable attempt to place the dog in another home, transfer the dog to rescue, or place the dog in a sanctuary.

(b) A person who refuses to forfeit a dog under this Section is in a violation which carries a public safety fine of $500 for each dog. The fine shall to be deposited into the Pet Population Control Fund. Each day a person fails to comply with a forfeiture or prohibition ordered under this Section shall constitute a separate offense.

(Source: P.A. 100-971, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 655. The Police Service Dog Protection Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(510 ILCS 83/15)

Sec. 15. Vehicles transporting police dogs; requirements. A vehicle used to transport a police dog shall be equipped with a heat sensor monitoring device which shall:

(1) monitor the internal temperature of the vehicle in which the police dog is being transported;

(2) provide an audible and visual notification in the vehicle if the interior temperature reaches 85 degrees Fahrenheit which remotely notifies the law enforcement officer responsible for the police dog or the law enforcement agency's 24-hour 24 hour dispatch center; and

(3) have a safety mechanism to reduce the interior temperature of the vehicle.

(Source: P.A. 100-666, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 660. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.26, 2.36a, 3.1-9, 3.2, and 3.3 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.26) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.26)

Sec. 2.26. Deer hunting permits. Any person attempting to take deer shall first obtain a "Deer Hunting Permit" issued by the Department in accordance with its administrative rules. Those rules must provide for the issuance of the following types of resident deer archery permits: (i) a combination permit, consisting of one either-sex permit and one antlerless-only permit, (ii) a single antlerless-only permit, and (iii) a single either-sex permit. The fee for a Deer Hunting Permit to take deer with either bow and arrow or gun shall not exceed $25.00 for residents of the State. The Department may by administrative rule provide for non-resident deer hunting permits for which the fee will not exceed $300 in 2005, $350 in 2006, and $400 in 2007 and thereafter except as provided below for non-resident landowners and non-resident archery hunters. The Department may by administrative rule provide for a non-resident archery deer permit consisting of not more than 2 harvest tags at a total cost not to exceed $325 in 2005, $375 in 2006, and $425 in 2007 and thereafter. The fees for a youth resident and non-resident archery deer permit shall be the same.

The standards and specifications for use of guns and bow and arrow for deer hunting shall be established by administrative rule.

No person may have in his or her possession any firearm not authorized by administrative rule for a specific hunting season when taking deer.

Persons having a firearm deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of shotgun, handgun, or muzzle loading rifle.

Persons having an archery deer hunting permit shall be permitted to take deer only during the period from 1/2 hour before sunrise to 1/2 hour after sunset, and only during those days for which an open season is established for the taking of deer by use of bow and arrow.

It shall be unlawful for any person to take deer by use of dogs, horses, automobiles, aircraft or other vehicles, or by the use or aid of bait or baiting of any kind. For the purposes of this Section, "bait" means any material, whether liquid or solid, including food, salt, minerals, and other products, except pure water, that can be ingested, placed, or scattered in such a manner as to attract or lure white-tailed deer. "Baiting" means the placement or scattering of bait to attract deer. An area is considered as baited during the presence of and for 10 consecutive days following the removal of bait. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the use of a dog to track wounded deer. Any person using a dog for tracking wounded deer must maintain physical control of the dog at all times by means of a maximum 50 foot lead attached to the dog's collar or harness. Tracking wounded deer is permissible at night, but at no time outside of legal deer hunting hours or seasons shall any person handling or accompanying a dog being used for tracking wounded deer be in possession of any firearm or archery device. Persons tracking wounded deer with a dog during the firearm deer seasons shall wear blaze orange or solid blaze pink color as required. Dog handlers tracking wounded deer with a dog are exempt from hunting license and deer permit requirements so long as they are accompanied by the licensed deer hunter who wounded the deer.

It shall be unlawful to possess or transport any wild deer which has been injured or killed in any manner upon a public highway or public right-of-way of this State unless exempted by administrative rule.

Persons hunting deer must have gun unloaded and no bow and arrow device shall be carried with the arrow in the nocked position during hours when deer hunting is unlawful.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by gun, to further participate with gun in any deer hunting party.

It shall be unlawful for any person, having taken the legal limit of deer by bow and arrow, to further participate with bow and arrow in any deer hunting party.

The Department may prohibit upland game hunting during the gun deer season by administrative rule.

The Department shall not limit the number of non-resident, either-sex archery deer hunting permits to less than 20,000.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this Section, including administrative rules, shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

For the purposes of calculating acreage under this Section, the Department shall, after determining the total acreage of the applicable tract or tracts of land, round remaining fractional portions of an acre greater than or equal to half of an acre up to the next whole acre.

For the purposes of taking white-tailed deer, nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent the manipulation, including mowing or cutting, of standing crops as a normal agricultural or soil stabilization practice, food plots, or normal agricultural practices, including planting, harvesting, and maintenance such as cultivating or the use of products designed for scent only and not capable of ingestion, solid or liquid, placed or scattered, in such a manner as to attract or lure deer. Such manipulation for the purpose of taking white-tailed deer may be further modified by administrative rule.

(Source: P.A. 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-869, eff. 1-1-17; 100-691, eff. 1-1-19; 100-949, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

(520 ILCS 5/2.36a) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.36a)

Sec. 2.36a. Value of protected species; violations.

(a) Any person who, for profit or commercial purposes, knowingly captures or kills, possesses, offers for sale, sells, offers to barter, barters, offers to purchase, purchases, delivers for shipment, ships, exports, imports, causes to be shipped, exported, or imported, delivers for transportation, transports or causes to be transported, carries or causes to be carried, or receives for shipment, transportation, carriage, or export any animal or part of animal of the species protected by this Act, contrary to the provisions of this Act, and such animals, in whole or in part, are valued at or in excess of a total of $300, as per specie value specified in subsection (c) of this Section, commits a Class 3 felony.

A person shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony if convicted under this Section for more than one violation within a 90-day period where the animals of each violation are not valued at or in excess of $300, but the total value of the animals from the multiple violations is at or in excess of $300. The prosecution for a Class 4 felony for these multiple violations must be alleged in a single charge or indictment and brought in a single prosecution.

(b) Possession of animals, in whole or in part, captured or killed in violation of this Act, valued at or in excess of $600, as per specie value specified in subsection (c) of this Section, shall be considered prima facie evidence of possession for profit or commercial purposes.

(c) For purposes of this Section, the fair market value or replacement cost, whichever is greater, shall be used to determine the value of the species protected by this Act, but in no case shall the minimum value of all species protected by this Act be less than as follows:

(1) Eagle, $1,000;

(2) Whitetail deer, $1,000 and wild turkey, $500;

(3) Fur-bearing mammals, $50;

(4) Game birds (except the wild turkey) and migratory game birds (except Trumpeter swans), $50;

(5) Owls, hawks, falcons, kites, harriers, and ospreys, and other birds of prey, $250;

(6) Game mammals (except whitetail deer), $50;

(7) Other mammals, $100;

(8) Resident and migratory non-game birds (except birds of prey), $100;

(9) Trumpeter swans, $1,000.

(d) In this subsection (d), "point" means a projection on the antler of a whitetail antlered deer that is at least one-inch long as measured from the tip to the nearest edge of antler beam and the length of which exceeds the length of its base. A person who possesses whitetail antlered deer, in whole or in part, captured or killed in violation of this Act, shall pay restitution to the Department in the amount of $1,000 per whitetail antlered deer and an additional $500 per antler point, for each whitetail antlered deer with at least 8 but not more than 10 antler points. For whitetail antlered deer with 11 or more antler points, restitution of $1,000 shall be paid to the Department per whitetail antlered deer plus $750 per antler point.

(Source: P.A. 100-960, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.1-9)

Sec. 3.1-9. Youth Hunting and Trapping License.

(a) Before any or non-resident youth under 18 years of age shall take or attempt to take any species protected by Section 2.2 of this Code for which an open season is established, he or she shall first procure and possess a valid Youth Hunting and Trapping License. The Youth Hunting and Trapping License shall be a renewable license that shall expire on the March 31 following the date of issuance. The fee for a Youth Hunting and Trapping License is $7.

A Youth Hunting and Trapping License shall entitle the licensee to hunt while supervised by an adult who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid Illinois hunting license.

A youth licensed under this subsection (a) shall not hunt or carry a hunting device, including, but not limited to, a firearm, bow and arrow, or crossbow unless the youth is accompanied by and under the close personal supervision of an adult who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid Illinois hunting license.

The Department shall adopt rules for the administration of the program, but shall not require any certificate of competency or other hunting or trapping education as a condition of the Youth Hunting and Trapping License. If a youth has a valid certificate of competency for hunting from a hunter safety course approved by the Department, he or she is exempt from the supervision requirements for youth hunters in this Section.

(b) or non-resident A Youth Hunting and Trapping License shall entitle the licensee to trap while supervised by an adult who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid Illinois trapping license.

A youth licensed under this Section shall not trap or carry a hunting device, including, but not limited to, a firearm, bow and arrow, or crossbow unless the youth is accompanied by and under the close personal supervision of an adult who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid Illinois trapping license.

The Department shall adopt rules for the administration of the program, but shall not require any certificate of competency or other trapping education as a condition of the Youth Hunting and Trapping License. If a youth has a valid certificate of competency for trapping from a trapper safety course approved by the Department, then he or she is exempt from the supervision requirements for youth trappers in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-307, eff. 1-1-16; 99-868, eff. 1-1-17; 100-638, eff. 1-1-19; 100-691, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-18-18.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.2) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.2)

Sec. 3.2. Hunting license; application; instruction. Before the Department or any county, city, village, township, incorporated town clerk or his duly designated agent or any other person authorized or designated by the Department to issue hunting licenses shall issue a hunting license to any person, the person shall file his application with the Department or other party authorized to issue licenses on a form provided by the Department and further give definite proof of identity and place of legal residence. Each clerk designating agents to issue licenses and stamps shall furnish the Department, within 10 days following the appointment, the names and mailing addresses of the agents. Each clerk or his duly designated agent shall be authorized to sell licenses and stamps only within the territorial area for which he was elected or appointed. No duly designated agent is authorized to furnish licenses or stamps for issuance by any other business establishment. Each application shall be executed and sworn to and shall set forth the name and description of the applicant and place of residence.

No hunting license shall be issued to any person born on or after January 1, 1980 unless he presents the person authorized to issue the license evidence that he has held a hunting license issued by the State of Illinois or another state in a prior year, or a certificate of competency as provided in this Section. Persons under 18 years of age may be issued a Lifetime Hunting or Sportsmen's Combination License as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code but shall not be entitled to hunt alone, without the supervision of an adult age 21 or older order, unless they have a certificate of competency as provided in this Section and the certificate is in their possession while hunting.

The Department of Natural Resources shall authorize personnel of the Department or certified volunteer instructors to conduct courses, of not less than 10 hours in length, in firearms and hunter safety, which may include training in bow and arrow safety, at regularly specified intervals throughout the State. Persons successfully completing the course shall receive a certificate of competency. The Department of Natural Resources may further cooperate with any reputable association or organization in establishing courses if the organization has as one of its objectives the promotion of safety in the handling of firearms or bow and arrow.

The Department of Natural Resources shall designate any person found by it to be competent to give instruction in the handling of firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. The persons so appointed shall give the course of instruction and upon the successful completion shall issue to the person instructed a certificate of competency in the safe handling of firearms, hunter safety, and bow and arrow. No charge shall be made for any course of instruction except for materials or ammunition consumed. The Department of Natural Resources shall furnish information on the requirements of hunter safety education programs to be distributed free of charge to applicants for hunting licenses by the persons appointed and authorized to issue licenses. Funds for the conducting of firearms and hunter safety courses shall be taken from the fee charged for the Firearm Owners Identification Card.

The fee for a hunting license to hunt all species for a resident of Illinois is $12. For residents age 65 or older, and, commencing with the 2012 license year, resident veterans of the United States Armed Forces after returning from service abroad or mobilization by the President of the United States, the fee is one-half of the fee charged for a hunting license to hunt all species for a resident of Illinois. Veterans must provide to the Department, at one of the Department's 5 regional offices, verification of their service. The Department shall establish what constitutes suitable verification of service for the purpose of issuing resident veterans hunting licenses at a reduced fee. The fee for a hunting license to hunt all species shall be $1 for residents over 75 years of age. Nonresidents shall be charged $57 for a hunting license.

Nonresidents may be issued a nonresident hunting license for a period not to exceed 10 consecutive days' hunting in the State and shall be charged a fee of $35.

A special nonresident hunting license authorizing a nonresident to take game birds by hunting on a game breeding and hunting preserve area only, established under Section 3.27, shall be issued upon proper application being made and payment of a fee equal to that for a resident hunting license. The expiration date of this license shall be on the same date each year that game breeding and hunting preserve area licenses expire.

Each applicant for a State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp, regardless of his residence or other condition, shall pay a fee of $15 and shall receive a stamp. The fee for a State Migratory Waterfowl Stamp shall be waived for residents over 75 years of age. Except as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the stamp shall be signed by the person or affixed to his license or permit in a space designated by the Department for that purpose.

Each applicant for a State Habitat Stamp, regardless of his residence or other condition, shall pay a fee of $5 and shall receive a stamp. The fee for a State Habitat Stamp shall be waived for residents over 75 years of age. Except as provided under Section 20-45 of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code, the stamp shall be signed by the person or affixed to his license or permit in a space designated by the Department for that purpose.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed as to require the purchase of more than one State Habitat Stamp by any person in any one license year.

The fees for State Pheasant Stamps and State Furbearer Stamps shall be waived for residents over 75 years of age.

The Department shall furnish the holders of hunting licenses and stamps with an insignia as evidence of possession of license, or license and stamp, as the Department may consider advisable. The insignia shall be exhibited and used as the Department may order.

All other hunting licenses and all State stamps shall expire upon March 31 of each year.

Every person holding any license, permit, or stamp issued under the provisions of this Act shall have it in his possession for immediate presentation for inspection to the officers and authorized employees of the Department, any sheriff, deputy sheriff, or any other peace officer making a demand for it. This provision shall not apply to Department owned or managed sites where it is required that all hunters deposit their license, permit, or Firearm Owner's Identification Card at the check station upon entering the hunting areas.

(Source: P.A. 100-638, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.3) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.3)

Sec. 3.3. Trapping license required. Before any person shall trap any of the mammals protected by this Act, for which an open trapping season has been established, he shall first procure a trapping license from the Department to do so. No traps shall be placed in the field, set or unset, prior to the opening day of the trapping season.

Traps used in the taking of such mammals shall be marked or tagged with metal tags or inscribed in lettering giving the name and address of the owner or the customer identification number issued by the Department, and absence of such mark or tag shall be prima facie evidence that such trap or traps are illegally used and the trap or traps shall be confiscated and disposed of as directed by the Department.

Before any person 18 years of age or older shall trap, attempt to trap, or sell the green hides of any mammal of the species defined as fur-bearing mammals by Section 2.2 for which an open season is established under this Act, he shall first have procured a State Habitat Stamp.

Beginning January 1, 2016, no trapping license shall be issued to any person born on or after January 1, 1998 unless he or she presents to the authorized issuer of the license evidence that he or she has a certificate of competency provided for in this Section.

The Department of Natural Resources shall authorize personnel of the Department, or volunteer instructors, found by the Department to be competent, to provide instruction in courses on trapping techniques and ethical trapping behavior as needed throughout the State, which courses shall be at least 8 hours in length. Persons so authorized shall provide instruction in such courses to individuals at no charge, and shall issue to individuals successfully completing such courses certificates of competency in basic trapping techniques. The Department shall cooperate in establishing such courses with any reputable association or organization which has as one of its objectives the promotion of the ethical use of legal fur harvesting devices and techniques. The Department shall furnish information on the requirements of the trapper education program to be distributed free of charge to applicants for trapping licenses by the persons appointed and authorized to issue licenses.

The owners residing on, or bona fide tenants of farm lands, and their children actually residing on such lands, shall have the right to trap mammals protected by this Act, for which an open trapping season has been established, upon such lands, without procuring licenses, provided that such mammals are taken during the periods of time and with such devices as are permitted by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-868, eff. 1-1-17; 100-638, eff. 1-1-19; 100-964, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 665. The Pollinator Friendly Solar Site Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 15 as follows:

(525 ILCS 55/1)

Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Pollinator-Friendly Pollinator Friendly Solar Site Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-1022, eff. 8-21-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(525 ILCS 55/15)

Sec. 15. Recognition of beneficial habitat. An owner or manager of a solar site with a generating capacity of more than 40 kilowatts implementing site management practices under this Act may claim that the site is "pollinator-friendly" or provides benefits to game birds, songbirds, and pollinators only if the site adheres to guidance set forth by the pollinator-friendly pollinator friendly scorecard published by the Department in consultation with the University of Illinois, Department of Entomology. The scorecard shall be posted on the Department's website on or before 6 months after the effective date of this Act. An owner making a beneficial habitat claim shall make the solar site's pollinator scorecard, and where available, related vegetation management plans, available to the public and provide a copy to the Department and a nonprofit solar industry trade association of this State.

(Source: P.A. 100-1022, eff. 8-21-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 670. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 2-123, 3-117.1, 3-808.1, 3-815, 6-109, 6-118, 6-303, 6-525, 8-101, 11-501.01, 11-501.7, 12-610.2, 12-806a, 15-301, 18c-1304, 18c-4502, and 18c-7401 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 3-699.15 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/2-123) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-123)

Sec. 2-123. Sale and distribution of information.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary may make the driver's license, vehicle and title registration lists, in part or in whole, and any statistical information derived from these lists available to local governments, elected state officials, state educational institutions, and all other governmental units of the State and Federal Government requesting them for governmental purposes. The Secretary shall require any such applicant for services to pay for the costs of furnishing such services and the use of the equipment involved, and in addition is empowered to establish prices and charges for the services so furnished and for the use of the electronic equipment utilized.

(b) The Secretary is further empowered to and he may, in his discretion, furnish to any applicant, other than listed in subsection (a) of this Section, vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, other electronic format or computer processable medium, or printout at a fixed fee of $250 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $500 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, in advance, and require in addition a further sufficient deposit based upon the Secretary of State's estimate of the total cost of the information requested and a charge of $25 for orders received before October 1, 2003 and $50 for orders received on or after October 1, 2003, per 1,000 units or part thereof identified or the actual cost, whichever is greater. The Secretary is authorized to refund any difference between the additional deposit and the actual cost of the request. This service shall not be in lieu of an abstract of a driver's record nor of a title or registration search. This service may be limited to entities purchasing a minimum number of records as required by administrative rule. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall be the entire vehicle or driver data list, or part thereof. The information sold pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. Commercial purchasers of driver and vehicle record databases shall enter into a written agreement with the Secretary of State that includes disclosure of the commercial use of the information to be purchased.

(b-1) The Secretary is further empowered to and may, in his or her discretion, furnish vehicle or driver data on a computer tape, disk, or other electronic format or computer processible medium, at no fee, to any State or local governmental agency that uses the information provided by the Secretary to transmit data back to the Secretary that enables the Secretary to maintain accurate driving records, including dispositions of traffic cases. This information may be provided without fee not more often than once every 6 months.

(c) Secretary of State may issue registration lists. The Secretary of State may compile a list of all registered vehicles. Each list of registered vehicles shall be arranged serially according to the registration numbers assigned to registered vehicles and may contain in addition the names and addresses of registered owners and a brief description of each vehicle including the serial or other identifying number thereof. Such compilation may be in such form as in the discretion of the Secretary of State may seem best for the purposes intended.

(d) The Secretary of State shall furnish no more than 2 current available lists of such registrations to the sheriffs of all counties and to the chiefs of police of all cities and villages and towns of 2,000 population and over in this State at no cost. Additional copies may be purchased by the sheriffs or chiefs of police at the fee of $500 each or at the cost of producing the list as determined by the Secretary of State. Such lists are to be used for governmental purposes only.

(e) (Blank).

(e-1) (Blank).

(f) The Secretary of State shall make a title or registration search of the records of his office and a written report on the same for any person, upon written application of such person, accompanied by a fee of $5 for each registration or title search. The written application shall set forth the intended use of the requested information. No fee shall be charged for a title or registration search, or for the certification thereof requested by a government agency. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain personally identifying information unless the request for a search was made for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section. The report of the title or registration search shall not contain highly restricted personal information unless specifically authorized by this Code.

The Secretary of State shall certify a title or registration record upon written request. The fee for certification shall be $5 in addition to the fee required for a title or registration search. Certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by Seal of the Secretary of State.

The Secretary of State may notify the vehicle owner or registrant of the request for purchase of his title or registration information as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requester requestor until expiration of a 10-day 10 day period. This 10-day 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the vehicle owner or registrant or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requester requestor of title or vehicle information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

(f-5) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any personally identifying information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless the information is disclosed for one of the following purposes:

(1) For use by any government agency, including any court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or any private person or entity acting on behalf of a federal, State, or local agency in carrying out its functions.

(2) For use in connection with matters of motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts, and dealers; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers.

(3) For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or its agents, employees, or contractors, but only:

(A) to verify the accuracy of personal information submitted by an individual to the business or its agents, employees, or contractors; and

(B) if such information as so submitted is not correct or is no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purposes of preventing fraud by, pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering on a debt or security interest against, the individual.

(4) For use in research activities and for use in producing statistical reports, if the personally identifying information is not published, redisclosed, or used to contact individuals.

(5) For use in connection with any civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in any federal, State, or local court or agency or before any self-regulatory body, including the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, and the execution or enforcement of judgments and orders, or pursuant to an order of a federal, State, or local court.

(6) For use by any insurer or insurance support organization or by a self-insured entity or its agents, employees, or contractors in connection with claims investigation activities, antifraud activities, rating, or underwriting.

(7) For use in providing notice to the owners of towed or impounded vehicles.

(8) For use by any person licensed as a private detective or firm licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, private investigative agency or security service licensed in Illinois for any purpose permitted under this subsection.

(9) For use by an employer or its agent or insurer to obtain or verify information relating to a holder of a commercial driver's license that is required under chapter 313 of title 49 of the United States Code.

(10) For use in connection with the operation of private toll transportation facilities.

(11) For use by any requester, if the requester demonstrates it has obtained the written consent of the individual to whom the information pertains.

(12) For use by members of the news media, as defined in Section 1-148.5, for the purpose of newsgathering when the request relates to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(13) For any other use specifically authorized by law, if that use is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

(f-6) The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any highly restricted personal information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless specifically authorized by this Code.

(g) 1. The Secretary of State may, upon receipt of a written request and a fee as set forth in Section 6-118, furnish to the person or agency so requesting a driver's record or data contained therein. Such document may include a record of: current driver's license issuance information, except that the information on judicial driving permits shall be available only as otherwise provided by this Code; convictions; orders entered revoking, suspending or cancelling a driver's license or privilege; and notations of accident involvement. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential. Information released pursuant to a request for a driver's record shall not contain personally identifying information, unless the request for the driver's record was made for one of the purposes set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section. The Secretary of State may, without fee, allow a parent or guardian of a person under the age of 18 years, who holds an instruction permit or graduated driver's license, to view that person's driving record online, through a computer connection. The parent or guardian's online access to the driving record will terminate when the instruction permit or graduated driver's license holder reaches the age of 18.

2. The Secretary of State shall not disclose or otherwise make available to any person or entity any highly restricted personal information obtained by the Secretary of State in connection with a driver's license, vehicle, or title registration record unless specifically authorized by this Code. The Secretary of State may certify an abstract of a driver's record upon written request therefor. Such certification shall be made under the signature of the Secretary of State and shall be authenticated by the Seal of his office.

3. All requests for driving record information shall be made in a manner prescribed by the Secretary and shall set forth the intended use of the requested information.

The Secretary of State may notify the affected driver of the request for purchase of his driver's record as the Secretary deems appropriate.

No information shall be released to the requester until expiration of a 10-day 10 day period. This 10-day 10 day period shall not apply to requests for information made by law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency under the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, who are employed by or are acting on behalf of law enforcement officials, government agencies, financial institutions, attorneys, insurers, employers, automobile associated businesses, and other business entities for purposes consistent with the Illinois Vehicle Code, the affected driver or other entities as the Secretary may exempt by rule and regulation.

Any misrepresentation made by a requester requestor of driver information shall be punishable as a petty offense, except in the case of persons licensed as a private detective or firms licensed as a private detective agency which shall be subject to disciplinary sanctions under Section 40-10 of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.

4. The Secretary of State may furnish without fee, upon the written request of a law enforcement agency, any information from a driver's record on file with the Secretary of State when such information is required in the enforcement of this Code or any other law relating to the operation of motor vehicles, including records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

5. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the Secretary of State may furnish, without fee, information from an individual driver's record on file, if a written request therefor is submitted by any public transit system or authority, public defender, law enforcement agency, a state or federal agency, or an Illinois local intergovernmental association, if the request is for the purpose of a background check of applicants for employment with the requesting agency, or for the purpose of an official investigation conducted by the agency, or to determine a current address for the driver so public funds can be recovered or paid to the driver, or for any other purpose set forth in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

The Secretary may also furnish the courts a copy of an abstract of a driver's record, without fee, subsequent to an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. Such abstract may include records of dispositions; documented information involving the use of a motor vehicle as contained in the current file; whether such individual has, or previously had, a driver's license; and the address and personal description as reflected on said driver's record.

6. Any certified abstract issued by the Secretary of State or transmitted electronically by the Secretary of State pursuant to this Section, to a court or on request of a law enforcement agency, for the record of a named person as to the status of the person's driver's license shall be prima facie evidence of the facts therein stated and if the name appearing in such abstract is the same as that of a person named in an information or warrant, such abstract shall be prima facie evidence that the person named in such information or warrant is the same person as the person named in such abstract and shall be admissible for any prosecution under this Code and be admitted as proof of any prior conviction or proof of records, notices, or orders recorded on individual driving records maintained by the Secretary of State.

7. Subject to any restrictions contained in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, and upon receipt of a proper request and a fee as set forth in Section 6-118, the Secretary of State shall provide a driver's record or data contained therein to the affected driver, or the affected driver's attorney, upon verification. Such record shall contain all the information referred to in paragraph 1 of this subsection (g) plus: any recorded accident involvement as a driver; information recorded pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 6-117 and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-204 of this Code. All other information, unless otherwise permitted by this Code, shall remain confidential.

(h) The Secretary shall not disclose social security numbers or any associated information obtained from the Social Security Administration except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual except: (1) to officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the social security numbers in performance of their official duties, (2) to law enforcement officials for a lawful, civil or criminal law enforcement investigation, and if the head of the law enforcement agency has made a written request to the Secretary specifying the law enforcement investigation for which the social security numbers are being sought, (3) to the United States Department of Transportation, or any other State, pursuant to the administration and enforcement of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986, (4) pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, (5) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) for utilization in the child support enforcement duties assigned to that Department under provisions of the Illinois Public Aid Code after the individual has received advanced meaningful notification of what redisclosure is sought by the Secretary in accordance with the federal Privacy Act, (5.5) to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services solely for the purpose of verifying Illinois residency where such residency is an eligibility requirement for benefits under the Illinois Public Aid Code or any other health benefit program administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or the Department of Human Services, (6) to the Illinois Department of Revenue solely for use by the Department in the collection of any tax or debt that the Department of Revenue is authorized or required by law to collect, provided that the Department shall not disclose the social security number to any person or entity outside of the Department, or (7) to the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs for the purpose of confirming veteran status.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Medical statements or medical reports received in the Secretary of State's Office shall be confidential. Except as provided in this Section, no confidential information may be open to public inspection or the contents disclosed to anyone, except officers and employees of the Secretary who have a need to know the information contained in the medical reports and the Driver License Medical Advisory Board, unless so directed by an order of a court of competent jurisdiction. If the Secretary receives a medical report regarding a driver that does not address a medical condition contained in a previous medical report, the Secretary may disclose the unaddressed medical condition to the driver or his or her physician, or both, solely for the purpose of submission of a medical report that addresses the condition.

(k) Disbursement of fees collected under this Section shall be as follows: (1) of the $12 fee for a driver's record, $3 shall be paid into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund, and $6 shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund; (2) 50% of the amounts collected under subsection (b) shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund; and (3) all remaining fees shall be disbursed under subsection (g) of Section 2-119 of this Code.

(l) (Blank).

(m) Notations of accident involvement that may be disclosed under this Section shall not include notations relating to damage to a vehicle or other property being transported by a tow truck. This information shall remain confidential, provided that nothing in this subsection (m) shall limit disclosure of any notification of accident involvement to any law enforcement agency or official.

(n) Requests made by the news media for driver's license, vehicle, or title registration information may be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge, as determined by the Secretary, when the specific purpose for requesting the documents is deemed to be in the public interest. Waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest if the principal purpose of the request is to access and disseminate information regarding the health, safety, and welfare or the legal rights of the general public and is not for the principal purpose of gaining a personal or commercial benefit. The information provided pursuant to this subsection shall not contain personally identifying information unless the information is to be used for one of the purposes identified in subsection (f-5) of this Section.

(o) The redisclosure of personally identifying information obtained pursuant to this Section is prohibited, except to the extent necessary to effectuate the purpose for which the original disclosure of the information was permitted.

(p) The Secretary of State is empowered to adopt rules to effectuate this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-127, eff. 1-1-16; 100-590, eff. 6-8-18; revised 10-11-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-117.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-117.1)

Sec. 3-117.1. When junking certificates or salvage certificates must be obtained.

(a) Except as provided in Chapter 4 and Section 3-117.3 of this Code, a person who possesses a junk vehicle shall within 15 days cause the certificate of title, salvage certificate, certificate of purchase, or a similarly acceptable out-of-state out of state document of ownership to be surrendered to the Secretary of State along with an application for a junking certificate, except as provided in Section 3-117.2, whereupon the Secretary of State shall issue to such a person a junking certificate, which shall authorize the holder thereof to possess, transport, or, by an endorsement, transfer ownership in such junked vehicle, and a certificate of title shall not again be issued for such vehicle. The owner of a junk vehicle is not required to surrender the certificate of title under this subsection if (i) there is no lienholder on the certificate of title or (ii) the owner of the junk vehicle has a valid lien release from the lienholder releasing all interest in the vehicle and the owner applying for the junk certificate matches the current record on the certificate of title file for the vehicle.

A licensee who possesses a junk vehicle and a Certificate of Title, Salvage Certificate, Certificate of Purchase, or a similarly acceptable out-of-state document of ownership for such junk vehicle, may transport the junk vehicle to another licensee prior to applying for or obtaining a junking certificate, by executing a uniform invoice. The licensee transferor shall furnish a copy of the uniform invoice to the licensee transferee at the time of transfer. In any case, the licensee transferor shall apply for a junking certificate in conformance with Section 3-117.1 of this Chapter. The following information shall be contained on a uniform invoice:

(1) The business name, address and dealer license number of the person disposing of the vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl;

(2) The name and address of the person acquiring the vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl, and if that person is a dealer, the Illinois or out-of-state dealer license number of that dealer;

(3) The date of the disposition of the vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl;

(4) The year, make, model, color and description of each vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl disposed of by such person;

(5) The manufacturer's vehicle identification number, Secretary of State identification number or Illinois Department of State Police number, for each vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl part disposed of by such person;

(6) The printed name and legible signature of the person or agent disposing of the vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl; and

(7) The printed name and legible signature of the person accepting delivery of the vehicle, junk vehicle or vehicle cowl.

The Secretary of State may certify a junking manifest in a form prescribed by the Secretary of State that reflects those vehicles for which junking certificates have been applied or issued. A junking manifest may be issued to any person and it shall constitute evidence of ownership for the vehicle listed upon it. A junking manifest may be transferred only to a person licensed under Section 5-301 of this Code as a scrap processor. A junking manifest will allow the transportation of those vehicles to a scrap processor prior to receiving the junk certificate from the Secretary of State.

(b) An application for a salvage certificate shall be submitted to the Secretary of State in any of the following situations:

(1) When an insurance company makes a payment of damages on a total loss claim for a vehicle, the insurance company shall be deemed to be the owner of such vehicle and the vehicle shall be considered to be salvage except that ownership of (i) a vehicle that has incurred only hail damage that does not affect the operational safety of the vehicle or (ii) any vehicle 9 model years of age or older may, by agreement between the registered owner and the insurance company, be retained by the registered owner of such vehicle. The insurance company shall promptly deliver or mail within 20 days the certificate of title along with proper application and fee to the Secretary of State, and a salvage certificate shall be issued in the name of the insurance company. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an insurer making payment of damages on a total loss claim for the theft of a vehicle shall not be required to apply for a salvage certificate unless the vehicle is recovered and has incurred damage that initially would have caused the vehicle to be declared a total loss by the insurer.

(1.1) When a vehicle of a self-insured company is to be sold in the State of Illinois and has sustained damaged by collision, fire, theft, rust corrosion, or other means so that the self-insured company determines the vehicle to be a total loss, or if the cost of repairing the damage, including labor, would be greater than 70% of its fair market value without that damage, the vehicle shall be considered salvage. The self-insured company shall promptly deliver the certificate of title along with proper application and fee to the Secretary of State, and a salvage certificate shall be issued in the name of the self-insured company. A self-insured company making payment of damages on a total loss claim for the theft of a vehicle may exchange the salvage certificate for a certificate of title if the vehicle is recovered without damage. In such a situation, the self-insured shall fill out and sign a form prescribed by the Secretary of State which contains an affirmation under penalty of perjury that the vehicle was recovered without damage and the Secretary of State may, by rule, require photographs to be submitted.

(2) When a vehicle the ownership of which has been transferred to any person through a certificate of purchase from acquisition of the vehicle at an auction, other dispositions as set forth in Sections 4-208 and 4-209 of this Code, or a lien arising under Section 18a-501 of this Code shall be deemed salvage or junk at the option of the purchaser. The person acquiring such vehicle in such manner shall promptly deliver or mail, within 20 days after the acquisition of the vehicle, the certificate of purchase, the proper application and fee, and, if the vehicle is an abandoned mobile home under the Abandoned Mobile Home Act, a certification from a local law enforcement agency that the vehicle was purchased or acquired at a public sale under the Abandoned Mobile Home Act to the Secretary of State and a salvage certificate or junking certificate shall be issued in the name of that person. The salvage certificate or junking certificate issued by the Secretary of State under this Section shall be free of any lien that existed against the vehicle prior to the time the vehicle was acquired by the applicant under this Code.

(3) A vehicle which has been repossessed by a lienholder shall be considered to be salvage only when the repossessed vehicle, on the date of repossession by the lienholder, has sustained damage by collision, fire, theft, rust corrosion, or other means so that the cost of repairing such damage, including labor, would be greater than 33 1/3% of its fair market value without such damage. If the lienholder determines that such vehicle is damaged in excess of 33 1/3% of such fair market value, the lienholder shall, before sale, transfer or assignment of the vehicle, make application for a salvage certificate, and shall submit with such application the proper fee and evidence of possession. If the facts required to be shown in subsection (f) of Section 3-114 are satisfied, the Secretary of State shall issue a salvage certificate in the name of the lienholder making the application. In any case wherein the vehicle repossessed is not damaged in excess of 33 1/3% of its fair market value, the lienholder shall comply with the requirements of subsections (f), (f-5), and (f-10) of Section 3-114, except that the affidavit of repossession made by or on behalf of the lienholder shall also contain an affirmation under penalty of perjury that the vehicle on the date of sale is not damaged in excess of 33 1/3% of its fair market value. If the facts required to be shown in subsection (f) of Section 3-114 are satisfied, the Secretary of State shall issue a certificate of title as set forth in Section 3-116 of this Code. The Secretary of State may by rule or regulation require photographs to be submitted.

(4) A vehicle which is a part of a fleet of more than 5 commercial vehicles registered in this State or any other state or registered proportionately among several states shall be considered to be salvage when such vehicle has sustained damage by collision, fire, theft, rust, corrosion or similar means so that the cost of repairing such damage, including labor, would be greater than 33 1/3% of the fair market value of the vehicle without such damage. If the owner of a fleet vehicle desires to sell, transfer, or assign his interest in such vehicle to a person within this State other than an insurance company licensed to do business within this State, and the owner determines that such vehicle, at the time of the proposed sale, transfer or assignment is damaged in excess of 33 1/3% of its fair market value, the owner shall, before such sale, transfer or assignment, make application for a salvage certificate. The application shall contain with it evidence of possession of the vehicle. If the fleet vehicle at the time of its sale, transfer, or assignment is not damaged in excess of 33 1/3% of its fair market value, the owner shall so state in a written affirmation on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State by rule or regulation. The Secretary of State may by rule or regulation require photographs to be submitted. Upon sale, transfer or assignment of the fleet vehicle the owner shall mail the affirmation to the Secretary of State.

(5) A vehicle that has been submerged in water to the point that rising water has reached over the door sill and has entered the passenger or trunk compartment is a "flood vehicle". A flood vehicle shall be considered to be salvage only if the vehicle has sustained damage so that the cost of repairing the damage, including labor, would be greater than 33 1/3% of the fair market value of the vehicle without that damage. The salvage certificate issued under this Section shall indicate the word "flood", and the word "flood" shall be conspicuously entered on subsequent titles for the vehicle. A person who possesses or acquires a flood vehicle that is not damaged in excess of 33 1/3% of its fair market value shall make application for title in accordance with Section 3-116 of this Code, designating the vehicle as "flood" in a manner prescribed by the Secretary of State. The certificate of title issued shall indicate the word "flood", and the word "flood" shall be conspicuously entered on subsequent titles for the vehicle.

(6) When any licensed rebuilder, repairer, new or used vehicle dealer, or remittance agent has submitted an application for title to a vehicle (other than an application for title to a rebuilt vehicle) that he or she knows or reasonably should have known to have sustained damages in excess of 33 1/3% of the vehicle's fair market value without that damage; provided, however, that any application for a salvage certificate for a vehicle recovered from theft and acquired from an insurance company shall be made as required by paragraph (1) of this subsection (b).

(c) Any person who without authority acquires, sells, exchanges, gives away, transfers or destroys or offers to acquire, sell, exchange, give away, transfer or destroy the certificate of title to any vehicle which is a junk or salvage vehicle shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(d) Except as provided under subsection (a), any person who knowingly fails to surrender to the Secretary of State a certificate of title, salvage certificate, certificate of purchase or a similarly acceptable out-of-state document of ownership as required under the provisions of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for a subsequent offense; except that a person licensed under this Code who violates paragraph (5) of subsection (b) of this Section is guilty of a business offense and shall be fined not less than $1,000 nor more than $5,000 for a first offense and is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation.

(e) Any vehicle which is salvage or junk may not be driven or operated on roads and highways within this State. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor. A salvage vehicle displaying valid special plates issued under Section 3-601(b) of this Code, which is being driven to or from an inspection conducted under Section 3-308 of this Code, is exempt from the provisions of this subsection. A salvage vehicle for which a short term permit has been issued under Section 3-307 of this Code is exempt from the provisions of this subsection for the duration of the permit.

(Source: P.A. 99-932, eff. 6-1-17; 100-104, eff. 11-9-17; 100-956, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1083, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-11-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.15)

Sec. 3-699.15. Coast Guard license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates designated as U.S. Coast Guard plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design and color of the special plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application.

(c) An applicant shall be charged a $26 fee for the original issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable. Of this fee, $11 shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $26 fee, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $24 shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-73, eff. 1-1-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.16)

Sec. 3-699.16 3-699.15. Operation Desert Shield/Desert Storm license plates.

(a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special registration plates designated as Operation Desert Shield/Desert Storm license plates to any Illinois resident who has earned the Southwest Asia Service Medal from the United States Armed Forces. The special plates issued under this Section may be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, motorcycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the staggered multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, and the appropriate registration fee shall accompany the application. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or personalized in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The Secretary shall, in his or her discretion, approve and prescribe stickers or decals as provided under Section 3-412.

(Source: P.A. 100-820, eff. 8-13-18; revised 10-22-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-808.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-808.1)

Sec. 3-808.1. Permanent vehicle registration plate.

(a) Permanent vehicle registration plates shall be issued, at no charge, to the following:

1. Vehicles, other than medical transport vehicles, owned and operated by the State of Illinois or by any State agency financed by funds appropriated by the General Assembly;

2. Special disability plates issued to vehicles owned and operated by the State of Illinois or by any State agency financed by funds appropriated by the General Assembly.

(b) Permanent vehicle registration plates shall be issued, for a one-time one time fee of $8.00, to the following:

1. Vehicles, other than medical transport vehicles, operated by or for any county, township or municipal corporation.

2. Vehicles owned by counties, townships or municipal corporations for persons with disabilities.

3. Beginning with the 1991 registration year, county-owned vehicles operated by or for any county sheriff and designated deputy sheriffs. These registration plates shall contain the specific county code and unit number.

4. All-terrain vehicles owned by counties, townships, or municipal corporations and used for law enforcement purposes when the Manufacturer's Statement of Origin is accompanied with a letter from the original manufacturer or a manufacturer's franchised dealer stating that this all-terrain vehicle has been converted to a street worthy vehicle that meets the equipment requirements set forth in Chapter 12 of this Code.

5. Beginning with the 2001 registration year, municipally owned municipally-owned vehicles operated by or for any police department. These registration plates shall contain the designation "municipal police" and shall be numbered and distributed as prescribed by the Secretary of State.

6. Beginning with the 2014 registration year, municipally owned, fire district owned, or Mutual Aid Box Alarm System (MABAS) owned vehicles operated by or for any fire department, fire protection district, or MABAS. These registration plates shall display the designation "Fire Department" and shall display the specific fire department, fire district, fire unit, or MABAS division number or letter.

7. Beginning with the 2017 registration year, vehicles that do not require a school bus driver permit under Section 6-104 to operate and are not registered under Section 3-617 of this Code, and are owned by a public school district from grades K-12 or a public community college.

8. Beginning with the 2017 registration year, vehicles of the first division or vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds that are owned by a medical facility or hospital of a municipality, county, or township.

9. Beginning with the 2020 registration year, 2-axle motor vehicles that (i) are designed and used as buses in a public system for transporting more than 10 passengers; (ii) are used as common carriers in the general transportation of passengers and not devoted to any specialized purpose; (iii) operate entirely within the territorial limits of a single municipality or a single municipality and contiguous municipalities; and (iv) are subject to the regulation of the Illinois Commerce Commission. The owner of a vehicle under this paragraph is exempt from paying a flat weight tax or a mileage weight tax under this Code.

(b-5) Beginning with the 2016 registration year, permanent vehicle registration plates shall be issued for a one-time fee of $8.00 to a county, township, or municipal corporation that owns or operates vehicles used for the purpose of community workplace commuting as defined by the Secretary of State by administrative rule. The design and color of the plates shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement this subsection (b-5).

(c) Beginning with the 2012 registration year, county-owned vehicles operated by or for any county sheriff and designated deputy sheriffs that have been issued registration plates under subsection (b) of this Section shall be exempt from any fee for the transfer of registration from one vehicle to another vehicle. Each county sheriff shall report to the Secretary of State any transfer of registration plates from one vehicle to another vehicle operated by or for any county sheriff and designated deputy sheriffs. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (c).

(c-5) Beginning with the 2014 registration year, municipally owned, fire district owned, or Mutual Aid Box Alarm System (MABAS) owned vehicles operated by or for any fire department, fire protection district, or MABAS that have been issued registration plates under subsection (b) of this Section shall be exempt from any fee for the transfer of registration from one vehicle to another vehicle. Each fire department, fire protection district, of MABAS shall report to the Secretary of State any transfer of registration plates from one vehicle to another vehicle operated by or for any fire department, fire protection district, or MABAS. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(d) Beginning with the 2013 registration year, municipally owned municipally-owned vehicles operated by or for any police department that have been issued registration plates under subsection (b) of this Section shall be exempt from any fee for the transfer of registration from one vehicle to another vehicle. Each municipal police department shall report to the Secretary of State any transfer of registration plates from one vehicle to another vehicle operated by or for any municipal police department. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (d).

(e) Beginning with the 2016 registration year, any vehicle owned or operated by a county, township, or municipal corporation that has been issued registration plates under this Section is exempt from any fee for the transfer of registration from one vehicle to another vehicle. Each county, township, or municipal corporation shall report to the Secretary of State any transfer of registration plates from one vehicle to another vehicle operated by or for any county, township, or municipal corporation.

(f) Beginning with the 2020 registration year, any vehicle owned or operated by a public school district from grades K-12, a public community college, or a medical facility or hospital of a municipality, county, or township that has been issued registration plates under this Section is exempt from any fee for the transfer of registration from one vehicle to another vehicle. Each school district, public community college, or medical facility or hospital shall report to the Secretary any transfer of registration plates from one vehicle to another vehicle operated by the school district, public community college, or medical facility.

(Source: P.A. 99-166, eff. 7-28-15; 99-707, eff. 7-29-16; 100-956, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-815) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-815)

Sec. 3-815. Flat weight tax; vehicles of the second division.

(a) Except as provided in Section 3-806.3 and 3-804.3, every owner of a vehicle of the second division registered under Section 3-813, and not registered under the mileage weight tax under Section 3-818, shall pay to the Secretary of State, for each registration year, for the use of the public highways, a flat weight tax at the rates set forth in the following table, the rates including the $10 registration fee:

SCHEDULE OF FLAT WEIGHT TAX

REQUIRED BY LAW

Beginning with the 2010 registration year a $1 surcharge shall be collected for vehicles registered in the 8,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate category above to be deposited into the State Police Vehicle Fund.

Beginning with the 2014 registration year, a $2 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for vehicles registered in the 8,000 lb. and less flat weight plate category as described in this subsection (a) to be deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund for the Department of Natural Resources to use for conservation efforts. The monies deposited into the Park and Conservation Fund under this Section shall not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless otherwise authorized by this Act.

All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by Public Act 96-34 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(a-1) A Special Hauling Vehicle is a vehicle or combination of vehicles of the second division registered under Section 3-813 transporting asphalt or concrete in the plastic state or a vehicle or combination of vehicles that are subject to the gross weight limitations in subsection (a) of Section 15-111 for which the owner of the vehicle or combination of vehicles has elected to pay, in addition to the registration fee in subsection (a), $125 to the Secretary of State for each registration year. The Secretary shall designate this class of vehicle as a Special Hauling Vehicle.

(a-5) Beginning January 1, 2015, upon the request of the vehicle owner, a $10 surcharge shall be collected in addition to the above fees for vehicles in the 12,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate categories as described in subsection (a) to be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. The $10 surcharge is to identify vehicles in the 12,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate categories as a covered farm vehicle. The $10 surcharge is an annual, flat fee that shall be based on an applicant's new or existing registration year for each vehicle in the 12,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate categories. A designation as a covered farm vehicle under this subsection (a-5) shall not alter a vehicle's registration as a registration in the 12,000 lbs. or less flat weight category. The Secretary shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection (a-5).

(a-10) Beginning January 1, 2019, upon the request of the vehicle owner, the Secretary of State shall collect a $10 surcharge in addition to the fees for second division vehicles in the 8,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate category described in subsection (a) that are issued a registration plate under Article VI of this Chapter. The $10 surcharge shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund. The $10 surcharge is to identify a vehicle in the 8,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate category as a covered farm vehicle. The $10 surcharge is an annual, flat fee that shall be based on an applicant's new or existing registration year for each vehicle in the 8,000 lbs. and less flat weight plate category. A designation as a covered farm vehicle under this subsection (a-10) shall not alter a vehicle's registration in the 8,000 lbs. or less flat weight category. The Secretary shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection (a-10).

(b) Except as provided in Section 3-806.3, every camping trailer, motor home, mini motor home, travel trailer, truck camper or van camper used primarily for recreational purposes, and not used commercially, nor for hire, nor owned by a commercial business, may be registered for each registration year upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of a registration fee and highway use tax, according to the following table of fees:

MOTOR HOME, MINI MOTOR HOME, TRUCK CAMPER OR VAN CAMPER

CAMPING TRAILER OR TRAVEL TRAILER

Every house trailer must be registered under Section 3-819.

(c) Farm Truck. Any truck used exclusively for the owner's own agricultural, horticultural or livestock raising operations and not-for-hire only, or any truck used only in the transportation for-hire of seasonal, fresh, perishable fruit or vegetables from farm to the point of first processing, may be registered by the owner under this paragraph in lieu of registration under paragraph (a), upon filing of a proper application and the payment of the $10 registration fee and the highway use tax herein specified as follows:

SCHEDULE OF FEES AND TAXES

In the event the Secretary of State revokes a farm truck registration as authorized by law, the owner shall pay the flat weight tax due hereunder before operating such truck.

Any combination of vehicles having 5 axles, with a distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, that are subject to the weight limitations in subsection (a) of Section 15-111 for which the owner of the combination of vehicles has elected to pay, in addition to the registration fee in subsection (c), $125 to the Secretary of State for each registration year shall be designated by the Secretary as a Special Hauling Vehicle.

(d) The number of axles necessary to carry the maximum load provided shall be determined from Chapter 15 of this Code.

(e) An owner may only apply for and receive 5 farm truck registrations, and only 2 of those 5 vehicles shall exceed 59,500 gross weight in pounds per vehicle.

(f) Every person convicted of violating this Section by failure to pay the appropriate flat weight tax to the Secretary of State as set forth in the above tables shall be punished as provided for in Section 3-401.

(Source: P.A. 100-734, eff. 1-1-19; 100-956, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-15-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-109)

Sec. 6-109. Examination of Applicants.

(a) The Secretary of State shall examine every applicant for a driver's license or permit who has not been previously licensed as a driver under the laws of this State or any other state or country, or any applicant for renewal of such driver's license or permit when such license or permit has been expired for more than one year. The Secretary of State shall, subject to the provisions of paragraph (c), examine every licensed driver at least every 8 years, and may examine or re-examine any other applicant or licensed driver, provided that during the years 1984 through 1991 those drivers issued a license for 3 years may be re-examined not less than every 7 years or more than every 10 years.

The Secretary of State shall require the testing of the eyesight of any driver's license or permit applicant who has not been previously licensed as a driver under the laws of this State and shall promulgate rules and regulations to provide for the orderly administration of all the provisions of this Section.

The Secretary of State shall include at least one test question that concerns the provisions of the Pedestrians with Disabilities Safety Act in the question pool used for the written portion of the driver's drivers license examination within one year after July 22, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1167).

The Secretary of State shall include, in the question pool used for the written portion of the driver's license examination, test questions concerning safe driving in the presence of bicycles, of which one may be concerning the Dutch Reach method as described in Section 2-112.

(b) Except as provided for those applicants in paragraph (c), such examination shall include a test of the applicant's eyesight, his or her ability to read and understand official traffic control devices, his or her knowledge of safe driving practices and the traffic laws of this State, and may include an actual demonstration of the applicant's ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable control of the operation of a motor vehicle, and such further physical and mental examination as the Secretary of State finds necessary to determine the applicant's fitness to operate a motor vehicle safely on the highways, except the examination of an applicant 75 years of age or older shall include an actual demonstration of the applicant's ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable control of the operation of a motor vehicle. All portions of written and verbal examinations under this Section, excepting where the English language appears on facsimiles of road signs, may be given in the Spanish language and, at the discretion of the Secretary of State, in any other language as well as in English upon request of the examinee. Deaf persons who are otherwise qualified are not prohibited from being issued a license, other than a commercial driver's license, under this Code.

(c) Re-examination for those applicants who at the time of renewing their driver's license possess a driving record devoid of any convictions of traffic violations or evidence of committing an offense for which mandatory revocation would be required upon conviction pursuant to Section 6-205 at the time of renewal shall be in a manner prescribed by the Secretary in order to determine an applicant's ability to safely operate a motor vehicle, except that every applicant for the renewal of a driver's license who is 75 years of age or older must prove, by an actual demonstration, the applicant's ability to exercise reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle.

(d) In the event the applicant is not ineligible under the provisions of Section 6-103 to receive a driver's license, the Secretary of State shall make provision for giving an examination, either in the county where the applicant resides or at a place adjacent thereto reasonably convenient to the applicant, within not more than 30 days from the date said application is received.

(e) The Secretary of State may adopt rules regarding the use of foreign language interpreters during the application and examination process.

(Source: P.A. 100-770, eff. 1-1-19; 100-962, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-118)

Sec. 6-118. Fees.

(a) The fees fee for licenses and permits under this Article are is as follows:

Original driver's license.............................$30

Original or renewal driver's license

issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 69 through age 80.............................. 5

All driver's licenses for persons

age 81 through age 86.............................. 2

All driver's licenses for persons

age 87 or older.....................................0

Renewal driver's license (except for

applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or

age 69 and older)..................................30

Original instruction permit issued to

persons (except those age 69 and older)

who do not hold or have not previously

held an Illinois instruction permit or

driver's license.................................. 20

Instruction permit issued to any person

holding an Illinois driver's license

who wishes a change in classifications,

other than at the time of renewal.................. 5

Any instruction permit issued to a person

age 69 and older................................... 5

Instruction permit issued to any person,

under age 69, not currently holding a

valid Illinois driver's license or

instruction permit but who has

previously been issued either document

in Illinois....................................... 10

Restricted driving permit.............................. 8

Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8

Duplicate or corrected driver's license

or permit.......................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected restricted

driving permit..................................... 5

Duplicate or corrected monitoring

device driving permit.................................. 5

Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to

an active-duty member of the

United States Armed Forces,

the member's spouse, or

the dependent children living

with the member................................... 0

Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5 SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits under Article V shall be as follows:

Commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund

(Commercial Driver's License Information

System/American Association of Motor Vehicle

Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle

Title Information Service Trust Fund);

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license;

and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60

Renewal commercial driver's license:

$6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

$10 for the driver's license; and

$24 for the CDL:................................. $60

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois driver's license for the

purpose of changing to a

CDL classification: $6 for the

CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;

$20 for the Motor Carrier

Safety Inspection Fund; and

$24 for the CDL classification................... $50

Commercial learner's permit

issued to any person holding a valid

Illinois CDL for the purpose of

making a change in a classification,

endorsement or restriction........................ $5

CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5

In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the Secretary of State is empowered to prorate pro-rate the $24 fee for the commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office with a police report showing that his license or permit was stolen.

The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit has been lost or stolen.

No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license, or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of license who becomes eligible for such license.

The fee for a restricted driving permit under this subsection (a) shall be imposed annually until the expiration of the permit.

(a-5) The fee for a driver's record or data contained therein is $12.

(b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:

Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100

Suspension under Section 11-1431....................$100

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$250

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Other suspension......................................$70

Revocation...........................................$500

However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a reinstatement fee as follows:

Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500

Suspension under Section 11-501.9...................$500

Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500

Revocation...........................................$500

(c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter 6 shall be disbursed under subsection (g) of Section 2-119 of this Code, except as follows:

1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Drivers Education Fund:

(A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's instruction permit;

(B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's license;

(C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's license;

(D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving permit; and

(E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device driving permit.

2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501, 11-501.1, or 11-501.9 of this Code or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 or suspended under Section 11-501.9, and $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention Fund.

3. $6 of the original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license and $6 of the commercial learner's permit fee when the permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.

4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.

5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.

6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund:

(A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a summary suspension under Section 11-501.1 or a suspension under Section 11-501.9;

(B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section; and

(C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a second or subsequent revocation.

8. Fees collected under paragraph (4) of subsection (d) and subsection (h) of Section 6-205 of this Code; subparagraph (C) of paragraph 3 of subsection (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code; and paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 6-206.1 of this Code, shall be paid into the funds set forth in those Sections.

(d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.

(e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after becoming law.

(f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

(Source: P.A. 99-127, eff. 1-1-16; 99-438, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-590, eff. 6-8-18; 100-803, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-24-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-303) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-303)

Sec. 6-303. Driving while driver's license, permit, or privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5) or (a-7), any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle on any highway of this State at a time when such person's driver's license, permit, or privilege to do so or the privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit is revoked or suspended as provided by this Code or the law of another state, except as may be specifically allowed by a judicial driving permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, monitoring device driving permit, family financial responsibility driving permit, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or under the law of another state, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-3) A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony if committed by a person whose driving or operation of a motor vehicle is the proximate cause of a motor vehicle accident that causes personal injury or death to another. For purposes of this subsection, a personal injury includes any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A Type A injury includes severe bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(a-5) Any person who violates this Section as provided in subsection (a) while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege is revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar provision of a law of another state, is guilty of a Class 4 felony. The person shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation, as provided in Section 11-501 of this Code, to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound problem exists and the extent of the problem, and to undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate.

(a-7) Any person who violates this Section as provided in subsection (a) while his or her driver's license or privilege to drive is suspended under Section 6-306.5 or 7-702 of this Code shall receive a Uniform Traffic Citation from the law enforcement officer. A person who receives 3 or more Uniform Traffic Citations under this subsection (a-7) without paying any fees associated with the citations shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(a-10) A person's driver's license, permit, or privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit may be subject to multiple revocations, multiple suspensions, or any combination of both simultaneously. No revocation or suspension shall serve to negate, invalidate, cancel, postpone, or in any way lessen the effect of any other revocation or suspension entered prior or subsequent to any other revocation or suspension.

(b) (Blank).

(b-1) Except for a person under subsection (a-7) of this Section, upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle during the time when the person's driver's license, permit, or privilege was suspended by the Secretary of State or the driver's licensing administrator of another state, except as specifically allowed by a probationary license, judicial driving permit, restricted driving permit, or monitoring device driving permit, the Secretary shall extend the suspension for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension unless the suspension has already expired, in which case the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving privileges for the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension.

(b-2) Except as provided in subsection (b-6) or (a-7), upon receiving a report of the conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle when the person's driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked by the Secretary of State or the driver's license administrator of any other state, except as specifically allowed by a restricted driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or the law of another state, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of one year from the date of such conviction indicating such person was operating a vehicle during such period of revocation.

(b-3) (Blank).

(b-4) When the Secretary of State receives a report of a conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle that was not equipped with an ignition interlock device during a time when the person was prohibited from operating a motor vehicle not equipped with such a device, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license to that person for an additional period of one year from the date of the conviction.

(b-5) Any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 consecutive days or 300 hours of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar provision of a law of another state. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(b-6) Upon receiving a report of a first conviction of operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked where the revocation was for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license for an additional period of 3 three years from the date of such conviction.

(c) Except as provided in subsections (c-3) and (c-4), any person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service when the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof; or

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving personal injury or death; or

(3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

Such sentence of imprisonment or community service shall not be subject to suspension in order to reduce such sentence.

(c-1) Except as provided in subsections (a-7), (c-5), and (d), any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be ordered by the court to serve a minimum of 100 hours of community service. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(c-2) In addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, the court may impose on any person convicted a fourth time of violating this Section any of the following:

(1) Seizure of the license plates of the person's vehicle.

(2) Immobilization of the person's vehicle for a period of time to be determined by the court.

(c-3) Any person convicted of a violation of this Section during a period of summary suspension imposed pursuant to Section 11-501.1 when the person was eligible for a monitoring device driving permit MDDP shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-4) Any person who has been issued a monitoring device driving permit MDDP or a restricted driving permit which requires the person to operate only motor vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device and who is convicted of a violation of this Section as a result of operating or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device at the time of the offense shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.

(c-5) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and shall serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense; and

(2) the prior conviction under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d) Any person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior conviction under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(3) The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(d-1) Except as provided in subsections (a-7), (d-2), (d-2.5), and (d-3), any person convicted of a third or subsequent violation of this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(d-2) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-2.5) Any person convicted of a third violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, if:

(1) the current violation occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of the person's life; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-3) Any person convicted of a fourth, fifth, sixth, seventh, eighth, or ninth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-3.5) Any person convicted of a fourth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory term of imprisonment, and is eligible for an extended term, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(d-4) Any person convicted of a tenth, eleventh, twelfth, thirteenth, or fourteenth violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 3 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(d-5) Any person convicted of a fifteenth or subsequent violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, and is not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if:

(1) the current violation occurred when the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and

(2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred while the person's driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar out-of-state offense.

(e) Any person in violation of this Section who is also in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory insurance requirements, in addition to other penalties imposed under this Section, shall have his or her motor vehicle immediately impounded by the arresting law enforcement officer. The motor vehicle may be released to any licensed driver upon a showing of proof of insurance for the vehicle that was impounded and the notarized written consent for the release by the vehicle owner.

(f) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted as proof of any prior conviction.

(g) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections 36-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person's driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:

(1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

(2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar provision of a law of another state;

(3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a law of another state; or

(4) a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code, relating to the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(Source: P.A. 99-290, eff. 1-1-16; 100-149, eff. 1-1-18; 100-575, eff. 1-8-18; 100-1004, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-525) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-525)

Sec. 6-525. Severability. The provisions of this UCDLA UCLDA shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this UCDLA UCLDA is declared to be contrary to the Constitutions of this State, or of the United States, such unconstitutionality shall not affect the validity of the remainder of this UCDLA.

(Source: P.A. 86-845; revised 10-3-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/8-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 8-101)

Sec. 8-101. Proof of financial responsibility; persons responsibility - Persons who operate motor vehicles in transportation of passengers for hire.

(a) It is unlawful for any person, firm, or corporation to operate any motor vehicle along or upon any public street or highway in any incorporated city, town, or village in this State for the carriage of passengers for hire, accepting and discharging all such persons as may offer themselves for transportation unless such person, firm, or corporation has given, and there is in full force and effect and on file with the Secretary of State of Illinois, proof of financial responsibility provided in this Act.

(b) In addition this Section shall also apply to persons, firms, or corporations who are in the business of providing transportation services for minors to or from educational or recreational facilities, except that this Section shall not apply to public utilities subject to regulation under the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities," approved June 29, 1921, as amended, or to school buses which are operated by public or parochial schools and are engaged solely in the transportation of the pupils who attend such schools.

(c) This Section also applies to a contract carrier transporting employees in the course of their employment on a highway of this State in a vehicle designed to carry 15 or fewer passengers. As part of proof of financial responsibility, a contract carrier transporting employees, including, but not limited to, railroad employees, in the course of their employment is required to verify hit and run and uninsured motor vehicle coverage, as provided in Section 143a of the Illinois Insurance Code, and underinsured motor vehicle coverage, as provided in Section 143a-2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, in a total amount of not less than $250,000 per passenger, except that beginning on January 1, 2017 the total amount shall be not less than $500,000 per passenger. Each rail carrier that contracts with a contract carrier for the transportation of its employees in the course of their employment shall verify that the contract carrier has the minimum insurance coverage required under this subsection (c).

(d) This Section shall not apply to any person participating in a ridesharing arrangement or operating a commuter van, but only during the performance of activities authorized by the Ridesharing Arrangements Act.

(e) If the person operating such motor vehicle is not the owner, then proof of financial responsibility filed hereunder must provide that the owner is primarily liable.

(Source: P.A. 99-799, eff. 8-12-16; 100-458, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-19-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.01)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 11-501.01. Additional administrative sanctions.

(a) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final sentencing or an order for supervision, for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid for by the individual required to undergo the professional evaluation.

(b) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person receiving a disposition of court supervision for violating that Section, may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel offered by, or under contract with, a county State's Attorney's office, a probation and court services department, Mothers Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be determined by the court.

(c) Every person found guilty of violating Section 11-501, whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of that Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of this Section.

(d) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of any person convicted under Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (e), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of Section 6-205 of this Code.

(f) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person placed on court supervision for violating Section 11-501, shall be assessed $750, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money as follows: $350 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest, and $400 shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. If the person has been previously convicted of violating Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the fine shall be $1,000, and the circuit clerk shall distribute $200 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest and $800 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the amount payable to law enforcement agencies shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (f) shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations. Any moneys received by the Department of State Police under this subsection (f) shall be deposited into the State Police DUI Fund and shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State.

(g) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the Secretary of State Police under subsection (f) of this Section shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police DUI Fund and, subject to appropriation, shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including, but not limited to, the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities to assist in the prevention of alcohol-related alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol-related alcohol related crime, including, but not limited to, DUI training; and police officer salaries, including, but not limited to, salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations.

(h) Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor compliance with any remedial education or treatment recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human Services. If the individual is not a resident of Illinois, however, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education program in the individual's state of residence. Programs providing treatment must be licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug treatment licensure standards.

(i) In addition to any other fine or penalty required by law, an individual convicted of a violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be required to make restitution to a public agency for the costs of that emergency response. The restitution may not exceed $1,000 per public agency for each emergency response. As used in this subsection (i), "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department, or an ambulance. With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police DUI Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(j) A person that is subject to a chemical test or tests of blood under subsection (a) of Section 11-501.1 or subdivision (c)(2) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, whether or not that person consents to testing, shall be liable for the expense up to $500 for blood withdrawal by a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist, a licensed paramedic, or a qualified person other than a police officer approved by the Department of State Police to withdraw blood, who responds, whether at a law enforcement facility or a health care facility, to a police department request for the drawing of blood based upon refusal of the person to submit to a lawfully requested breath test or probable cause exists to believe the test would disclose the ingestion, consumption, or use of drugs or intoxicating compounds if:

(1) the person is found guilty of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) the person pleads guilty to or stipulates to facts supporting a violation of Section 11-503 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement in which the person was originally charged with violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 99-289, eff. 8-6-15; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-19-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 11-501.01. Additional administrative sanctions.

(a) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final sentencing or an order for supervision, for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid for by the individual required to undergo the professional evaluation.

(b) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person receiving a disposition of court supervision for violating that Section, may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel offered by, or under contract with, a county State's Attorney's office, a probation and court services department, Mothers Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be determined by the court.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of any person convicted under Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (e), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of Section 6-205 of this Code.

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury and, subject to appropriation, shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including, but not limited to, the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities to assist in the prevention of alcohol-related alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol-related alcohol related crime, including, but not limited to, DUI training; and police officer salaries, including, but not limited to, salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations.

(h) Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor compliance with any remedial education or treatment recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human Services. If the individual is not a resident of Illinois, however, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education program in the individual's state of residence. Programs providing treatment must be licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug treatment licensure standards.

(i) (Blank).

(j) A person that is subject to a chemical test or tests of blood under subsection (a) of Section 11-501.1 or subdivision (c)(2) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, whether or not that person consents to testing, shall be liable for the expense up to $500 for blood withdrawal by a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist, a licensed paramedic, or a qualified person other than a police officer approved by the Department of State Police to withdraw blood, who responds, whether at a law enforcement facility or a health care facility, to a police department request for the drawing of blood based upon refusal of the person to submit to a lawfully requested breath test or probable cause exists to believe the test would disclose the ingestion, consumption, or use of drugs or intoxicating compounds if:

(1) the person is found guilty of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) the person pleads guilty to or stipulates to facts supporting a violation of Section 11-503 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement in which the person was originally charged with violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 99-289, eff. 8-6-15; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-19-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.7) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.7)

Sec. 11-501.7. (a) As a condition of probation or discharge of a person convicted of a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, who was less than 21 years of age at the time of the offense, or a person adjudicated delinquent pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, for violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, the Court may order the offender to participate in the Youthful Intoxicated Drivers' Visitation Program. The Program shall consist of a supervised visitation as provided by this Section by the person to at least one of the following, to the extent that personnel and facilities are available:

(1) A State or private rehabilitation facility that cares for victims of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol.

(2) A facility which cares for advanced alcoholics to observe persons in the terminal stages of alcoholism, under the supervision of appropriately licensed medical personnel.

(3) If approved by the coroner of the county where the person resides, the county coroner's office or the county morgue to observe appropriate victims of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol, under the supervision of the coroner or deputy coroner.

(b) The Program shall be operated by the appropriate probation authorities of the courts of the various circuits. The youthful offender ordered to participate in the Program shall bear all costs associated with participation in the Program. A parent or guardian of the offender may assume the obligation of the offender to pay the costs of the Program. The court may waive the requirement that the offender pay the costs of participation in the Program upon a finding of indigency.

(c) As used in this Section, "appropriate victims" means victims whose condition is determined by the visit supervisor to demonstrate the results of motor vehicle accidents involving persons under the influence of alcohol without being excessively gruesome or traumatic to the observer.

(d) Any visitation shall include, before any observation of victims or persons with disabilities, a comprehensive counseling session with the visitation supervisor at which the supervisor shall explain and discuss the experiences which may be encountered during the visitation in order to ascertain whether the visitation is appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-3-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-610.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-858)

Sec. 12-610.2. Electronic communication devices.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including, but not limited to, a hand-held wireless telephone, hand-held personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer, but does not include a global positioning system or navigation system or a device that is physically or electronically integrated into the motor vehicle.

(b) A person may not operate a motor vehicle on a roadway while using an electronic communication device.

(b-5) A person commits aggravated use of an electronic communication device when he or she violates subsection (b) and in committing the violation he or she is was involved in a motor vehicle accident that results in great bodily harm, permanent disability, disfigurement, or death to another and the violation is was a proximate cause of the injury or death.

(c) A second or subsequent violation of this Section is an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles. A person who violates this Section shall be fined a maximum of $75 for a first offense, $100 for a second offense, $125 for a third offense, and $150 for a fourth or subsequent offense.

(d) This Section does not apply to:

(1) a law enforcement officer or operator of an emergency vehicle while performing his or her official duties;

(1.5) a first responder, including a volunteer first responder responders, while operating his or her own personal motor vehicle using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of receiving information about an emergency situation while en route to performing his or her official duties;

(2) a driver using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of reporting an emergency situation and continued communication with emergency personnel during the emergency situation;

(3) a driver using an electronic communication device in hands-free or voice-operated mode, which may include the use of a headset;

(4) a driver of a commercial motor vehicle reading a message displayed on a permanently installed communication device designed for a commercial motor vehicle with a screen that does not exceed 10 inches tall by 10 inches wide in size;

(5) a driver using an electronic communication device while parked on the shoulder of a roadway;

(6) a driver using an electronic communication device when the vehicle is stopped due to normal traffic being obstructed and the driver has the motor vehicle transmission in neutral or park;

(7) a driver using two-way or citizens band radio services;

(8) a driver using two-way mobile radio transmitters or receivers for licensees of the Federal Communications Commission in the amateur radio service;

(9) a driver using an electronic communication device by pressing a single button to initiate or terminate a voice communication; or

(10) a driver using an electronic communication device capable of performing multiple functions, other than a hand-held wireless telephone or hand-held personal digital assistant (for example, a fleet management system, dispatching device, citizens band radio, or music player) for a purpose that is not otherwise prohibited by this Section.

(e) A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5) commits a Class A misdemeanor if the violation resulted in great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement to another. A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5) commits a Class 4 felony if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(Source: P.A. 100-727, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-15-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-858)

Sec. 12-610.2. Electronic communication devices.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Electronic communication device" means an electronic device, including, but not limited to, a hand-held wireless telephone, hand-held personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer, but does not include a global positioning system or navigation system or a device that is physically or electronically integrated into the motor vehicle.

(b) A person may not operate a motor vehicle on a roadway while using an electronic communication device.

(b-5) A person commits aggravated use of an electronic communication device when he or she violates subsection (b) and in committing the violation he or she is was involved in a motor vehicle accident that results in great bodily harm, permanent disability, disfigurement, or death to another and the violation is was a proximate cause of the injury or death.

(c) A violation of this Section is an offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles. A person who violates this Section shall be fined a maximum of $75 for a first offense, $100 for a second offense, $125 for a third offense, and $150 for a fourth or subsequent offense.

(d) This Section does not apply to:

(1) a law enforcement officer or operator of an emergency vehicle while performing his or her official duties;

(1.5) a first responder, including a volunteer first responder responders, while operating his or her own personal motor vehicle using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of receiving information about an emergency situation while en route to performing his or her official duties;

(2) a driver using an electronic communication device for the sole purpose of reporting an emergency situation and continued communication with emergency personnel during the emergency situation;

(3) a driver using an electronic communication device in hands-free or voice-operated mode, which may include the use of a headset;

(4) a driver of a commercial motor vehicle reading a message displayed on a permanently installed communication device designed for a commercial motor vehicle with a screen that does not exceed 10 inches tall by 10 inches wide in size;

(5) a driver using an electronic communication device while parked on the shoulder of a roadway;

(6) a driver using an electronic communication device when the vehicle is stopped due to normal traffic being obstructed and the driver has the motor vehicle transmission in neutral or park;

(7) a driver using two-way or citizens band radio services;

(8) a driver using two-way mobile radio transmitters or receivers for licensees of the Federal Communications Commission in the amateur radio service;

(9) a driver using an electronic communication device by pressing a single button to initiate or terminate a voice communication; or

(10) a driver using an electronic communication device capable of performing multiple functions, other than a hand-held wireless telephone or hand-held personal digital assistant (for example, a fleet management system, dispatching device, citizens band radio, or music player) for a purpose that is not otherwise prohibited by this Section.

(e) A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5) commits a Class A misdemeanor if the violation resulted in great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement to another. A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5) commits a Class 4 felony if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(Source: P.A. 100-727, eff. 8-3-18; 100-858, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-15-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-806a) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-806a)

Sec. 12-806a. Identification, stop signal arms, and special lighting on school buses used to transport children outside of a school activity or persons in connection with a community based rehabilitation facility.

(a) Subject to the conditions in Subsection (c), a bus which meets any of the special requirements for school buses in Sections Section 12-801, 12-802, 12-803, and 12-805 of this Code may be used for the purpose of transporting persons 18 years of age or less.

(b) Subject to the conditions in subsection (c), a bus which meets any of the special requirements for school buses in Sections 12-801, 12-802, 12-803, and 12-805 of this Code may be used for the purpose of transporting persons recognized as clients of a community based rehabilitation facility which is accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities of Tucson, Arizona, and which is under a contractual agreement with the Department of Human Services.

(c) A bus used for transportation as provided in subsection (a) or (b) shall meet all of the special requirements for school buses in Sections Section 12-801, 12-802, 12-803, and 12-805. A bus which meets all of the special requirements for school buses in Sections Section 12-801, 12-802, 12-803, and 12-805 shall be operated by a person who has a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State and who possesses a valid school bus driver permit or is accompanied and supervised, for the specific purpose of training prior to routine operation of a school bus, by a person who has held a valid school bus driver permit for at least one year.

(Source: P.A. 100-791, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-301)

Sec. 15-301. Permits for excess size and weight.

(a) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction may, in their discretion, upon application and good cause being shown therefor, issue a special permit authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in this Code Act or otherwise not in conformity with this Code Act upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the party granting such permit and for the maintenance of which the party is responsible. Applications and permits other than those in written or printed form may only be accepted from and issued to the company or individual making the movement. Except for an application to move directly across a highway, it shall be the duty of the applicant to establish in the application that the load to be moved by such vehicle or combination cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, the reasonableness of which shall be determined by the Secretary of the Department. For the purpose of over length movements, more than one object may be carried side by side as long as the height, width, and weight laws are not exceeded and the cause for the over length is not due to multiple objects. For the purpose of over height movements, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over height is not due to multiple objects and the length, width, and weight laws are not exceeded. For the purpose of an over width movement, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over width is not due to multiple objects and length, height, and weight laws are not exceeded. Except for transporting fluid milk products, no State or local agency shall authorize the issuance of excess size or weight permits for vehicles and loads that are divisible and that can be carried, when divided, within the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter. Any excess size or weight permit issued in violation of the provisions of this Section shall be void at issue and any movement made thereunder shall not be authorized under the terms of the void permit. In any prosecution for a violation of this Chapter when the authorization of an excess size or weight permit is at issue, it is the burden of the defendant to establish that the permit was valid because the load to be moved could not reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, or was otherwise nondivisible.

(b) The application for any such permit shall: (1) state whether such permit is requested for a single trip or for limited continuous operation; (2) state if the applicant is an authorized carrier under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law, if so, his certificate, registration, or permit number issued by the Illinois Commerce Commission; (3) specifically describe and identify the vehicle or vehicles and load to be operated or moved; (4) state the routing requested, including the points of origin and destination, and may identify and include a request for routing to the nearest certified scale in accordance with the Department's rules and regulations, provided the applicant has approval to travel on local roads; and (5) state if the vehicles or loads are being transported for hire. No permits for the movement of a vehicle or load for hire shall be issued to any applicant who is required under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law to have a certificate, registration, or permit and does not have such certificate, registration, or permit.

(c) The Department or local authority when not inconsistent with traffic safety is authorized to issue or withhold such permit at its discretion; or, if such permit is issued at its discretion to prescribe the route or routes to be traveled, to limit the number of trips, to establish seasonal or other time limitations within which the vehicles described may be operated on the highways indicated, or otherwise to limit or prescribe conditions of operations of such vehicle or vehicles, when necessary to assure against undue damage to the road foundations, surfaces or structures, and may require such undertaking or other security as may be deemed necessary to compensate for any injury to any roadway or road structure. The Department shall maintain a daily record of each permit issued along with the fee and the stipulated dimensions, weights, conditions, and restrictions authorized and this record shall be presumed correct in any case of questions or dispute. The Department shall install an automatic device for recording applications received and permits issued by telephone. In making application by telephone, the Department and applicant waive all objections to the recording of the conversation.

(d) The Department shall, upon application in writing from any local authority, issue an annual permit authorizing the local authority to move oversize highway construction, transportation, utility, and maintenance equipment over roads under the jurisdiction of the Department. The permit shall be applicable only to equipment and vehicles owned by or registered in the name of the local authority, and no fee shall be charged for the issuance of such permits.

(e) As an exception to subsection (a) of this Section, the Department and local authorities, with respect to highways under their respective jurisdictions, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for limited continuous operation, authorizing the applicant to move loads of agricultural commodities on a 2-axle single vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 35%, on a 3-axle or 4-axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 20%, and on a 5-axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State not to exceed 10% above those provided in Section 15-111. The total gross weight of the vehicle, however, may not exceed the maximum gross weight of the registration class of the vehicle allowed under Section 3-815 or 3-818 of this Code.

As used in this Section, "agricultural commodities" means:

(1) cultivated plants or agricultural produce grown, including, but not limited to, corn, soybeans, wheat, oats, grain sorghum, canola, and rice;

(2) livestock, including, but not limited to, hogs, equine, sheep, and poultry;

(3) ensilage; and

(4) fruits and vegetables.

Permits may be issued for a period not to exceed 40 days and moves may be made of a distance not to exceed 50 miles from a field, an on-farm grain storage facility, a warehouse as defined in the Grain Code, or a livestock management facility as defined in the Livestock Management Facilities Act over any highway except the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The operator of the vehicle, however, must abide by posted bridge and posted highway weight limits. All implements of husbandry operating under this Section between sunset and sunrise shall be equipped as prescribed in Section 12-205.1.

(e-1) A special permit shall be issued by the Department under this Section and shall be required from September 1 through December 31 for a vehicle that exceeds the maximum axle weight and gross weight limits under Section 15-111 of this Code or exceeds the vehicle's registered gross weight, provided that the vehicle's axle weight and gross weight do not exceed 10% above the maximum limits under Section 15-111 of this Code and does not exceed the vehicle's registered gross weight by 10%. All other restrictions that apply to permits issued under this Section shall apply during the declared time period and no fee shall be charged for the issuance of those permits. Permits issued by the Department under this subsection (e-1) are only valid on federal and State highways under the jurisdiction of the Department, except interstate highways. With respect to highways under the jurisdiction of local authorities, the local authorities may, at their discretion, waive special permit requirements, and set a divisible load weight limit not to exceed 10% above a vehicle's registered gross weight, provided that the vehicle's axle weight and gross weight do not exceed 10% above the maximum limits specified in Section 15-111. Permits issued under this subsection (e-1) shall apply to all registered vehicles eligible to obtain permits under this Section, including vehicles used in private or for-hire movement of divisible load agricultural commodities during the declared time period.

(f) The form and content of the permit shall be determined by the Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and by local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction. Every permit shall be in written form and carried in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit and no person shall violate any of the terms or conditions of such special permit. Violation of the terms and conditions of the permit shall not be deemed a revocation of the permit; however, any vehicle and load found to be off the route prescribed in the permit shall be held to be operating without a permit. Any off-route off route vehicle and load shall be required to obtain a new permit or permits, as necessary, to authorize the movement back onto the original permit routing. No rule or regulation, nor anything herein, shall be construed to authorize any police officer, court, or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit to remove the permit from the possession of the permittee unless the permittee is charged with a fraudulent permit violation as provided in subsection (i). However, upon arrest for an offense of violation of permit, operating without a permit when the vehicle is off route, or any size or weight offense under this Chapter when the permittee plans to raise the issuance of the permit as a defense, the permittee, or his agent, must produce the permit at any court hearing concerning the alleged offense.

If the permit designates and includes a routing to a certified scale, the permittee, while en route enroute to the designated scale, shall be deemed in compliance with the weight provisions of the permit provided the axle or gross weights do not exceed any of the permitted limits by more than the following amounts:

Single axle 2000 pounds

Tandem axle 3000 pounds

Gross 5000 pounds

(g) The Department is authorized to adopt, amend, and to make available to interested persons a policy concerning reasonable rules, limitations and conditions or provisions of operation upon highways under its jurisdiction in addition to those contained in this Section for the movement by special permit of vehicles, combinations, or loads which cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, including manufactured and modular home sections and portions thereof. All rules, limitations and conditions or provisions adopted in the policy shall have due regard for the safety of the traveling public and the protection of the highway system and shall have been promulgated in conformity with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The requirements of the policy for flagmen and escort vehicles shall be the same for all moves of comparable size and weight. When escort vehicles are required, they shall meet the following requirements:

(1) All operators shall be 18 years of age or over and properly licensed to operate the vehicle.

(2) Vehicles escorting oversized loads more than 12 feet 12-feet wide must be equipped with a rotating or flashing amber light mounted on top as specified under Section 12-215.

The Department shall establish reasonable rules and regulations regarding liability insurance or self insurance for vehicles with oversized loads promulgated under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Police vehicles may be required for escort under circumstances as required by rules and regulations of the Department.

(h) Violation of any rule, limitation or condition or provision of any permit issued in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall not render the entire permit null and void but the violator shall be deemed guilty of violation of permit and guilty of exceeding any size, weight, or load limitations in excess of those authorized by the permit. The prescribed route or routes on the permit are not mere rules, limitations, conditions, or provisions of the permit, but are also the sole extent of the authorization granted by the permit. If a vehicle and load are found to be off the route or routes prescribed by any permit authorizing movement, the vehicle and load are operating without a permit. Any off-route movement shall be subject to the size and weight maximums, under the applicable provisions of this Chapter, as determined by the type or class highway upon which the vehicle and load are being operated.

(i) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made under a fraudulent permit, the permit shall be void, and the person, firm, or corporation to whom such permit was granted, the driver of such vehicle in addition to the person who issued such permit and any accessory, shall be guilty of fraud and either one or all persons may be prosecuted for such violation. Any person, firm, or corporation committing such violation shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm, or corporation convicted of such violation for a period of one year after the date of conviction. Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violation of other Sections of this Code.

(j) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made in violation of a permit issued in accordance with this Section, the person to whom such permit was granted, or the driver of such vehicle, is guilty of such violation and either, but not both, persons may be prosecuted for such violation as stated in this subsection (j). Any person, firm, or corporation convicted of such violation shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined, for the first offense, not less than $50 nor more than $200 and, for the second offense by the same person, firm, or corporation within a period of one year, not less than $200 nor more than $300 and, for the third offense by the same person, firm, or corporation within a period of one year after the date of the first offense, not less than $300 nor more than $500 and the Department may, in its discretion descretion, not issue permits to the person, firm, or corporation convicted of a third offense during a period of one year after the date of conviction or supervision for such third offense. If any violation is the cause or contributing cause in a motor vehicle accident causing damage to property, injury, or death to a person, the Department may, in its discretion, not issue a permit to the person, firm, or corporation for a period of one year after the date of conviction or supervision for the offense.

(k) Whenever any vehicle is operated on local roads under permits for excess width or length issued by local authorities, such vehicle may be moved upon a State highway for a distance not to exceed one-half mile without a permit for the purpose of crossing the State highway.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Department, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, may at their discretion authorize the movement of a vehicle in violation of any size or weight requirement, or both, that would not ordinarily be eligible for a permit, when there is a showing of extreme necessity that the vehicle and load should be moved without unnecessary delay.

For the purpose of this subsection, showing of extreme necessity shall be limited to the following: shipments of livestock, hazardous materials, liquid concrete being hauled in a mobile cement mixer, or hot asphalt.

(m) Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violating any other Section of this Code.

(n) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for continuous limited operation, authorizing the applicant to operate a tow truck that exceeds the weight limits provided for in subsection (a) of Section 15-111, provided:

(1) no rear single axle of the tow truck exceeds 26,000 pounds;

(2) no rear tandem axle of the tow truck exceeds 50,000 pounds;

(2.1) no triple rear axle on a manufactured recovery unit exceeds 60,000 pounds;

(3) neither the disabled vehicle nor the disabled combination of vehicles exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15, or the weight limits imposed under a permit issued by the Department prior to hookup;

(4) the tow truck prior to hookup does not exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15;

(5) during the tow operation the tow truck does not violate any weight restriction sign;

(6) the tow truck is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(7) the tow truck is specifically designed and licensed as a tow truck;

(8) the tow truck has a gross vehicle weight rating of sufficient capacity to safely handle the load;

(9) the tow truck is equipped with air brakes;

(10) the tow truck is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles;

(11) the tow commences at the initial point of wreck or disablement and terminates at a point where the repairs are actually to occur;

(12) the permit issued to the tow truck is carried in the tow truck and exhibited on demand by a police officer; and

(13) the movement shall be valid only on State routes approved by the Department.

(o) (Blank).

(p) In determining whether a load may be reasonably dismantled or disassembled for the purpose of subsection (a), the Department shall consider whether there is a significant negative impact on the condition of the pavement and structures along the proposed route, whether the load or vehicle as proposed causes a safety hazard to the traveling public, whether dismantling or disassembling the load promotes or stifles economic development, and whether the proposed route travels less than 5 miles. A load is not required to be dismantled or disassembled for the purposes of subsection (a) if the Secretary of the Department determines there will be no significant negative impact to pavement or structures along the proposed route, the proposed load or vehicle causes no safety hazard to the traveling public, dismantling or disassembling the load does not promote economic development, and the proposed route travels less than 5 miles. The Department may promulgate rules for the purpose of establishing the divisibility of a load pursuant to subsection (a). Any load determined by the Secretary to be nondivisible shall otherwise comply with the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 99-717, eff. 8-5-16; 100-70, eff. 8-11-17; 100-728, eff. 1-1-19; 100-830, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1090, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/18c-1304) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18c-1304)

Sec. 18c-1304. Orders of Employee Boards. Employee Board orders shall be served, in writing, on all parties to the proceeding in which the order is entered. Such orders shall contain, in addition to the decision of the Board, a statement of findings, conclusions, or other reasons therefor therefore. Employee Board decisions and orders shall have the same force and effect, and may be made, issued, and evidenced in the same manner, as if the decision had been made and the order issued by the Commission itself. The filing of a timely motion for reconsideration shall, unless otherwise provided by the Commission, stay the effect of an Employee Board order pending reconsideration.

(Source: P.A. 84-796; revised 10-2-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/18c-4502) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18c-4502)

Sec. 18c-4502. Collective ratemaking.

(1) Application for approval. Any carrier party to an agreement between or among 2 or more carriers relating to rates, fares, classifications, divisions, allowances, or charges (including charges between carriers and compensation paid or received for the use of facilities and equipment), or rules and regulations pertaining thereto, or procedures for the joint consideration, initiation, or establishment thereof, whether such conference, bureau, committee, or other organization be a "for-profit" or "not-for-profit" corporate entity or whether or not such conference, bureau, committee or other organization is or will be controlled by other businesses may, under such rules and regulations as the Commission may prescribe, apply to the Commission for approval of the agreement, and the Commission shall by order approve any such agreement, if approval thereof is not prohibited by subsection (3), (4), or (5) of this Section, if it finds that, by reason of furtherance of the State transportation policy declared in Section 18c-1103 of this Chapter, the relief provided in subsection (8) should apply with respect to the making and carrying out of such agreement; otherwise the application shall be denied. The approval of the Commission shall be granted only upon such terms and conditions as the Commission may prescribe as necessary to enable it to grant its approval in accordance with the standard above set forth in this paragraph.

(2) Accounts, reporting, and internal procedures. Each conference, bureau, committee, or other organization established or continued pursuant to any agreement approved by the Commission under the provisions of this Section shall maintain such accounts, records, files and memoranda and shall submit to the Commission such reports, as may be prescribed by the Commission, and all such accounts, records, files, and memoranda shall be subject to inspection by the Commission or its duly authorized representatives. Any conference, bureau committee, or other organization described in subsection (1) of this Section shall cause to be published notice of the final disposition of any action taken by such entity together with a concise statement of the reasons therefor therefore. The Commission shall withhold approval of any agreement under this Section unless the agreement specifies a reasonable period of time within which proposals by parties to the agreement will be finally acted upon by the conference, bureau, committee, or other organization.

(3) Matters which may be the subject of agreements approved by the Commission. The Commission shall not approve under this Section any agreement between or among carriers of different classes unless it finds that such agreement is of the character described in subsection (1) of this Section and is limited to matters relating to transportation under joint rates or over through routes. For purposes of this paragraph carriers by railroad and express companies are carriers of one class; carriers by motor vehicle are carriers of one class and carriers by water are carriers of one class.

(4) Non-applicability of Section to transfers. The Commission shall not approve under this Section any agreement which it finds is an agreement with respect to a pooling, division, or other matter or transaction, to which Section 18c-4302 of this Chapter is applicable.

(5) Independent action. The Commission shall not approve under this Section any agreement which establishes a procedure for the determination of any matter through joint consideration unless it finds that under the agreement there is accorded to each party the free and unrestrained right to take independent action either before or after any determination arrived at through such procedures. The Commission shall not find that each party has a free and unrestrained right to take independent action if the conference, bureau, committee, or other organization is granted by the agreement any right to engage in proceedings before the Commission or before any court regarding any action taken by a party to an agreement authorized by this Section, or by any other party providing or seeking authority to provide transportation services.

(6) Investigation of activities. The Commission is authorized, upon complaint or upon its own initiative without complaint, to investigate and determine whether any agreement previously approved by it under this Section or terms and conditions upon which such approval was granted, is not or are not in conformity with the standard, set forth in subsection (1), or whether any such terms and conditions are not necessary for purposes of conformity with such standard, and, after such investigation, the Commission shall by order terminate or modify its approval of such agreement if it finds such action necessary to insure conformity with such standard, and shall modify the terms and conditions upon which such approval was granted to the extent it finds necessary to insure conformity with such standard or to the extent to which it finds such terms and conditions not necessary to insure such conformity. The effective date of any order terminating or modifying approval, or modifying terms and conditions, shall be postponed for such period as the Commission determines to be reasonably necessary to avoid undue hardship.

(7) Hearings and orders. No order shall be entered under this Section except after interested parties have been afforded reasonable opportunity for hearing.

(8) Exemption from State antitrust laws. Parties to any agreement approved by the Commission under this Section and other persons are, if the approval of such agreement is not prohibited by subsection (3), (4), or (5), hereby relieved from the operation of the antitrust laws with respect to the making of such agreement, and with respect to the carrying out of such agreement in conformity with its provisions and in conformity with the terms and conditions prescribed by the Commission.

(9) Other laws not affected. Any action of the Commission under this Section in approving an agreement, or in denying an application for such approval, or in terminating or modifying its approval of an agreement, or in prescribing the terms and conditions upon which its approval is to be granted, or in modifying such terms and conditions, shall be construed as having effect solely with reference to the applicability of the relief provisions of paragraph subsection (8) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 84-796; revised 10-2-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/18c-7401) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 18c-7401)

Sec. 18c-7401. Safety Requirements for Track, Facilities, and Equipment.

(1) General Requirements. Each rail carrier shall, consistent with rules, orders, and regulations of the Federal Railroad Administration, construct, maintain, and operate all of its equipment, track, and other property in this State in such a manner as to pose no undue risk to its employees or the person or property of any member of the public.

(2) Adoption of Federal Standards. The track safety standards and accident/incident standards promulgated by the Federal Railroad Administration shall be safety standards of the Commission. The Commission may, in addition, adopt by reference in its regulations other federal railroad safety standards, whether contained in federal statutes or in regulations adopted pursuant to such statutes.

(3) Railroad Crossings. No public road, highway, or street shall hereafter be constructed across the track of any rail carrier at grade, nor shall the track of any rail carrier be constructed across a public road, highway or street at grade, without having first secured the permission of the Commission; provided, that this Section shall not apply to the replacement of lawfully existing roads, highways, and tracks. No public pedestrian bridge or subway shall be constructed across the track of any rail carrier without having first secured the permission of the Commission. The Commission shall have the right to refuse its permission or to grant it upon such terms and conditions as it may prescribe. The Commission shall have power to determine and prescribe the manner, including the particular point of crossing, and the terms of installation, operation, maintenance, use, and protection of each such crossing.

The Commission shall also have power, after a hearing, to require major alteration of or to abolish any crossing, heretofore or hereafter established, when in its opinion, the public safety requires such alteration or abolition, and, except in cities, villages, and incorporated towns of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants, to vacate and close that part of the highway on such crossing altered or abolished and cause barricades to be erected across such highway in such manner as to prevent the use of such crossing as a highway, when, in the opinion of the Commission, the public convenience served by the crossing in question is not such as to justify the further retention thereof; or to require a separation of grades, at railroad-highway grade crossings; or to require a separation of grades at any proposed crossing where a proposed public highway may cross the tracks of any rail carrier or carriers; and to prescribe, after a hearing of the parties, the terms upon which such separations shall be made and the proportion in which the expense of the alteration or abolition of such crossings or the separation of such grades, having regard to the benefits, if any, accruing to the rail carrier or any party in interest, shall be divided between the rail carrier or carriers affected, or between such carrier or carriers and the State, county, municipality or other public authority in interest. However, a public hearing by the Commission to abolish a crossing shall not be required when the public highway authority in interest vacates the highway. In such instance the rail carrier, following notification to the Commission and the highway authority, shall remove any grade crossing warning devices and the grade crossing surface.

The Commission shall also have power by its order to require the reconstruction, minor alteration, minor relocation, or improvement of any crossing (including the necessary highway approaches thereto) of any railroad across any highway or public road, pedestrian bridge, or pedestrian subway, whether such crossing be at grade or by overhead structure or by subway, whenever the Commission finds after a hearing or without a hearing as otherwise provided in this paragraph that such reconstruction, alteration, relocation, or improvement is necessary to preserve or promote the safety or convenience of the public or of the employees or passengers of such rail carrier or carriers. By its original order or supplemental orders in such case, the Commission may direct such reconstruction, alteration, relocation, or improvement to be made in such manner and upon such terms and conditions as may be reasonable and necessary and may apportion the cost of such reconstruction, alteration, relocation, or improvement and the subsequent maintenance thereof, having regard to the benefits, if any, accruing to the railroad or any party in interest, between the rail carrier or carriers and public utilities affected, or between such carrier or carriers and public utilities and the State, county, municipality or other public authority in interest. The cost to be so apportioned shall include the cost of changes or alterations in the equipment of public utilities affected as well as the cost of the relocation, diversion or establishment of any public highway, made necessary by such reconstruction, alteration, relocation, or improvement of said crossing. A hearing shall not be required in those instances when the Commission enters an order confirming a written stipulation in which the Commission, the public highway authority or other public authority in interest, the rail carrier or carriers affected, and in instances involving the use of the Grade Crossing Protection Fund, the Illinois Department of Transportation, agree on the reconstruction, alteration, relocation, or improvement and the subsequent maintenance thereof and the division of costs of such changes of any grade crossing (including the necessary highway approaches thereto) of any railroad across any highway, pedestrian bridge, or pedestrian subway.

Every rail carrier operating in the State of Illinois shall construct and maintain every highway crossing over its tracks within the State so that the roadway at the intersection shall be as flush with the rails as superelevated curves will allow, and, unless otherwise ordered by the Commission, shall construct and maintain the approaches thereto at a grade of not more than 5% within the right of way for a distance of not less the 6 feet on each side of the centerline of such tracks; provided, that the grades at the approaches may be maintained in excess of 5% only when authorized by the Commission.

Every rail carrier operating within this State shall remove from its right of way at all railroad-highway grade crossings within the State, such brush, shrubbery, and trees as is reasonably practical for a distance of not less than 500 feet in either direction from each grade crossing. The Commission shall have power, upon its own motion, or upon complaint, and after having made proper investigation, to require the installation of adequate and appropriate luminous reflective warning signs, luminous flashing signals, crossing gates illuminated at night, or other protective devices in order to promote and safeguard the health and safety of the public. Luminous flashing signal or crossing gate devices installed at grade crossings, which have been approved by the Commission, shall be deemed adequate and appropriate. The Commission shall have authority to determine the number, type, and location of such signs, signals, gates, or other protective devices which, however, shall conform as near as may be with generally recognized national standards, and the Commission shall have authority to prescribe the division of the cost of the installation and subsequent maintenance of such signs, signals, gates, or other protective devices between the rail carrier or carriers, the public highway authority or other public authority in interest, and in instances involving the use of the Grade Crossing Protection Fund, the Illinois Department of Transportation. Except where train crews provide flagging of the crossing to road users, yield signs shall be installed at all highway intersections with every grade crossing in this State that is not equipped with automatic warning devices, such as luminous flashing signals or crossing gate devices. A stop sign may be used in lieu of the yield sign when an engineering study conducted in cooperation with the highway authority and the Illinois Department of Transportation has determined that a stop sign is warranted. If the Commission has ordered the installation of luminous flashing signal or crossing gate devices at a grade crossing not equipped with active warning devices, the Commission shall order the installation of temporary stop signs at the highway intersection with the grade crossing unless an engineering study has determined that a stop sign is not appropriate. If a stop sign is not appropriate, the Commission may order the installation of other appropriate supplemental signing as determined by an engineering study. The temporary signs shall remain in place until the luminous flashing signal or crossing gate devices have been installed. The rail carrier is responsible for the installation and subsequent maintenance of any required signs. The permanent signs shall be in place by July 1, 2011.

No railroad may change or modify the warning device system at a railroad-highway grade crossing, including warning systems interconnected with highway traffic control signals, without having first received the approval of the Commission. The Commission shall have the further power, upon application, upon its own motion, or upon complaint and after having made proper investigation, to require the interconnection of grade crossing warning devices with traffic control signals at highway intersections located at or near railroad crossings within the distances described by the State Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices adopted pursuant to Section 11-301 of this Code. In addition, State and local authorities may not install, remove, modernize, or otherwise modify traffic control signals at a highway intersection that is interconnected or proposed to be interconnected with grade crossing warning devices when the change affects the number, type, or location of traffic control devices on the track approach leg or legs of the intersection or the timing of the railroad preemption sequence of operation until the Commission has approved the installation, removal, modernization, or modification. Commission approval shall be limited to consideration of issues directly affecting the public safety at the railroad-highway grade crossing. The electrical circuit devices, alternate warning devices, and preemption sequences shall conform as nearly as possible, considering the particular characteristics of the crossing and intersection area, to the State manual adopted by the Illinois Department of Transportation pursuant to Section 11-301 of this Code and such federal standards as are made applicable by subsection (2) of this Section. In order to carry out this authority, the Commission shall have the authority to determine the number, type, and location of traffic control devices on the track approach leg or legs of the intersection and the timing of the railroad preemption sequence of operation. The Commission shall prescribe the division of costs for installation and maintenance of all devices required by this paragraph between the railroad or railroads and the highway authority in interest and in instances involving the use of the Grade Crossing Protection Fund or a State highway, the Illinois Department of Transportation.

Any person who unlawfully or maliciously removes, throws down, damages or defaces any sign, signal, gate, or other protective device, located at or near any public grade crossing, shall be guilty of a petty offense and fined not less than $50 nor more than $200 for each offense. In addition to fines levied under the provisions of this Section a person adjudged guilty hereunder may also be directed to make restitution for the costs of repair or replacement, or both, necessitated by his misconduct.

It is the public policy of the State of Illinois to enhance public safety by establishing safe grade crossings. In order to implement this policy, the Illinois Commerce Commission is directed to conduct public hearings and to adopt specific criteria by July 1, 1994, that shall be adhered to by the Illinois Commerce Commission in determining if a grade crossing should be opened or abolished. The following factors shall be considered by the Illinois Commerce Commission in developing the specific criteria for opening and abolishing grade crossings:

(a) timetable speed of passenger trains;

(b) distance to an alternate crossing;

(c) accident history for the last 5 years;

(d) number of vehicular traffic and posted speed limits;

(e) number of freight trains and their timetable speeds;

(f) the type of warning device present at the grade crossing;

(g) alignments of the roadway and railroad, and the angle of intersection of those alignments;

(h) use of the grade crossing by trucks carrying hazardous materials, vehicles carrying passengers for hire, and school buses; and

(i) use of the grade crossing by emergency vehicles.

The Illinois Commerce Commission, upon petition to open or abolish a grade crossing, shall enter an order opening or abolishing the crossing if it meets the specific criteria adopted by the Commission.

Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (3), in no instance shall a grade crossing be permanently closed without public hearing first being held and notice of such hearing being published in an area newspaper of local general circulation.

(4) Freight Trains; Radio Trains - Radio Communications. The Commission shall after hearing and order require that every main line railroad freight train operating on main tracks outside of yard limits within this State shall be equipped with a radio communication system. The Commission after notice and hearing may grant exemptions from the requirements of this Section as to secondary and branch lines.

(5) Railroad Bridges and Trestles; Walkway Trestles - Walkway and Handrail. In cases in which the Commission finds the same to be practical and necessary for safety of railroad employees, bridges and trestles, over and upon which railroad trains are operated, shall include as a part thereof, a safe and suitable walkway and handrail on one side only of such bridge or trestle, and such handrail shall be located at the outer edge of the walkway and shall provide a clearance of not less than 8 feet, 6 inches, from the center line of the nearest track, measured at right angles thereto.

(6) Packages Containing Articles for First Aid to Injured on Trains.

(a) All rail carriers shall provide a first aid kit that contains, at a minimum, those articles prescribed by the Commission, on each train or engine, for first aid to persons who may be injured in the course of the operation of such trains.

(b) A vehicle, excluding a taxi cab used in an emergency situation, operated by a contract carrier transporting railroad employees in the course of their employment shall be equipped with a readily available first aid kit that contains, as a minimum, the same articles that are required on each train or engine.

(7) Abandoned Bridges, Crossings, and Other Rail Plant. The Commission shall have authority, after notice and hearing, to order:

(a) the The removal of any abandoned railroad tracks from roads, streets or other thoroughfares in this State; and

(b) the The removal of abandoned overhead railroad structures crossing highways, waterways, or railroads.

The Commission may equitably apportion the cost of such actions between the rail carrier or carriers, public utilities, and the State, county, municipality, township, road district, or other public authority in interest.

(8) Railroad-Highway Bridge Clearance. A vertical clearance of not less than 23 feet above the top of rail shall be provided for all new or reconstructed highway bridges constructed over a railroad track. The Commission may permit a lesser clearance if it determines that the 23-foot 23 foot clearance standard cannot be justified based on engineering, operational, and economic conditions.

(9) Right of Access To Railroad Property.

(a) A community antenna television company franchised by a municipality or county pursuant to the Illinois Municipal Code or the Counties Code, respectively, shall not enter upon any real estate or rights-of-way in the possession or control of a railroad subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission unless the community antenna television company first complies with the applicable provisions of subparagraph (f) of Section 11-42-11.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or subparagraph (f) of Section 5-1096 of the Counties Code.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, this subsection (9) applies to all entries of railroad rights-of-way involving a railroad subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission by a community antenna television company and shall govern in the event of any conflict with any other provision of law.

(c) This subsection (9) applies to any entry upon any real estate or right-of-way in the possession or control of a railroad subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission for the purpose of or in connection with the construction, or installation of a community antenna television company's system or facilities commenced or renewed on or after August 22, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-251) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(d) Nothing in Public Act 100-251 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall be construed to prevent a railroad from negotiating other terms and conditions or the resolution of any dispute in relation to an entry upon or right of access as set forth in this subsection (9).

(e) For purposes of this subsection (9):

"Broadband service", "cable operator", and "holder" have the meanings given to those terms under Section 21-201 of the Public Utilities Act.

"Community antenna television company" includes, in the case of real estate or rights-of-way in possession of or in control of a railroad, a holder, cable operator, or broadband service provider.

(f) Beginning on August 22, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-251) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Transportation Division of the Illinois Commerce Commission shall include in its annual Crossing Safety Improvement Program report a brief description of the number of cases decided by the Illinois Commerce Commission and the number of cases that remain pending before the Illinois Commerce Commission under this subsection (9) for the period covered by the report.

(Source: P.A. 100-251, eff. 8-22-17; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 680. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 2-4b, 2-17, 5-410, and 6-1 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/2-4b)

Sec. 2-4b. Family Support Program services; hearing.

(a) Any minor who is placed in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services under Article II of this Act on the basis of a petition alleging that the minor is dependent because the minor was left at a psychiatric hospital beyond medical necessity, and for whom an application for the Family Support Program was pending with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services or an active application was being reviewed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services at the time the petition was filed, shall continue to be considered eligible for services if all other eligibility criteria are met.

(b) The court shall conduct a hearing within 14 days upon notification to all parties that an application for the Family Support Program services has been approved and services are available. At the hearing, the court shall determine whether to vacate the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services and return the minor to the custody of the respondent with Family Support Program services or whether the minor shall continue to be in the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services and decline the Family Support Program services. In making its determination, the court shall consider the minor's best interest, the involvement of the respondent in proceedings under this Act, the involvement of the respondent in the minor's treatment, the relationship between the minor and the respondent, and any other factor the court deems relevant. If the court vacates the custody or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services and returns the minor to the custody of the respondent with Family Support Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall become fiscally responsible for providing services to the minor. If the court determines that the minor shall continue in the custody of the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Children and Family Services shall remain fiscally responsible for providing services to the minor, the Family Support Services shall be declined, and the minor shall no longer be eligible for Family Support Services.

(c) This Section does not apply to a minor:

(1) for whom a petition has been filed under this Act alleging that he or she is an abused or neglected minor;

(2) for whom the court has made a finding that he or she is an abused or neglected minor under this Act; or

(3) who is in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services and the minor has been the subject of an indicated allegation of abuse or neglect, other than for psychiatric lockout lock-out, where a respondent was the perpetrator within 5 years of the filing of the pending petition.

(Source: P.A. 100-978, eff. 8-19-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-17) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-17)

Sec. 2-17. Guardian ad litem.

(1) Immediately upon the filing of a petition alleging that the minor is a person described in Sections 2-3 or 2-4 of this Article, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) such petition alleges that the minor is an abused or neglected child; or

(b) such petition alleges that charges alleging the commission of any of the sex offenses defined in Article 11 or in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, have been filed against a defendant in any court and that such minor is the alleged victim of the acts of defendant in the commission of such offense.

Unless the guardian ad litem appointed pursuant to this paragraph (1) is an attorney at law, he shall be represented in the performance of his duties by counsel. The guardian ad litem shall represent the best interests of the minor and shall present recommendations to the court consistent with that duty.

(2) Before proceeding with the hearing, the court shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor if:

(a) no parent, guardian, custodian or relative of the minor appears at the first or any subsequent hearing of the case;

(b) the petition prays for the appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption; or

(c) the petition for which the minor is before the court resulted from a report made pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(3) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor whenever it finds that there may be a conflict of interest between the minor and his parents or other custodian or that it is otherwise in the minor's best interest to do so.

(4) Unless the guardian ad litem is an attorney, he shall be represented by counsel.

(5) The reasonable fees of a guardian ad litem appointed under this Section shall be fixed by the court and charged to the parents of the minor, to the extent they are able to pay. If the parents are unable to pay those fees, they shall be paid from the general fund of the county.

(6) A guardian ad litem appointed under this Section, shall receive copies of any and all classified reports of child abuse and neglect made under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act in which the minor who is the subject of a report under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, is also the minor for whom the guardian ad litem is appointed under this Section.

(6.5) A guardian ad litem appointed under this Section or attorney appointed under this Act, shall receive a copy of each significant event report that involves the minor no later than 3 days after the Department learns of an event requiring a significant event report to be written, or earlier as required by Department rule.

(7) The appointed guardian ad litem shall remain the child's guardian ad litem throughout the entire juvenile trial court proceedings, including permanency hearings and termination of parental rights proceedings, unless there is a substitution entered by order of the court.

(8) The guardian ad litem or an agent of the guardian ad litem shall have a minimum of one in-person contact with the minor and one contact with one of the current foster parents or caregivers prior to the adjudicatory hearing, and at least one additional in-person contact with the child and one contact with one of the current foster parents or caregivers after the adjudicatory hearing but prior to the first permanency hearing and one additional in-person contact with the child and one contact with one of the current foster parents or caregivers each subsequent year. For good cause shown, the judge may excuse face-to-face interviews required in this subsection.

(9) In counties with a population of 100,000 or more but less than 3,000,000, each guardian ad litem must successfully complete a training program approved by the Department of Children and Family Services. The Department of Children and Family Services shall provide training materials and documents to guardians ad litem who are not mandated to attend the training program. The Department of Children and Family Services shall develop and distribute to all guardians ad litem a bibliography containing information including but not limited to the juvenile court process, termination of parental rights, child development, medical aspects of child abuse, and the child's need for safety and permanence.

(Source: P.A. 100-689, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-410)

Sec. 5-410. Non-secure custody or detention.

(1) Any minor arrested or taken into custody pursuant to this Act who requires care away from his or her home but who does not require physical restriction shall be given temporary care in a foster family home or other shelter facility designated by the court.

(2) (a) Any minor 10 years of age or older arrested pursuant to this Act where there is probable cause to believe that the minor is a delinquent minor and that (i) secure secured custody is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another, (ii) the minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, or (iii) the minor was taken into custody under a warrant, may be kept or detained in an authorized detention facility. A minor under 13 years of age shall not be admitted, kept, or detained in a detention facility unless a local youth service provider, including a provider through the Comprehensive Community Based Youth Services network, has been contacted and has not been able to accept the minor. No minor under 12 years of age shall be detained in a county jail or a municipal lockup for more than 6 hours.

(a-5) For a minor arrested or taken into custody for vehicular hijacking or aggravated vehicular hijacking, a previous finding of delinquency for vehicular hijacking or aggravated vehicular hijacking shall be given greater weight in determining whether secured custody of a minor is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another.

(b) The written authorization of the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) constitutes authority for the superintendent of any juvenile detention home to detain and keep a minor for up to 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated holidays. These records shall be available to the same persons and pursuant to the same conditions as are law enforcement records as provided in Section 5-905.

(b-4) The consultation required by paragraph subsection (b-5) shall not be applicable if the probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) utilizes a scorable detention screening instrument, which has been developed with input by the State's Attorney, to determine whether a minor should be detained, however, paragraph subsection (b-5) shall still be applicable where no such screening instrument is used or where the probation officer, detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) deviates from the screening instrument.

(b-5) Subject to the provisions of paragraph subsection (b-4), if a probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) does not intend to detain a minor for an offense which constitutes one of the following offenses he or she shall consult with the State's Attorney's Office prior to the release of the minor: first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated or heinous battery involving permanent disability or disfigurement or great bodily harm, robbery, aggravated robbery, armed robbery, vehicular hijacking, aggravated vehicular hijacking, vehicular invasion, arson, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated kidnapping, home invasion, burglary, or residential burglary.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), (d), or (e), no minor shall be detained in a county jail or municipal lockup for more than 12 hours, unless the offense is a crime of violence in which case the minor may be detained up to 24 hours. For the purpose of this paragraph, "crime of violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(i) The period of detention is deemed to have begun once the minor has been placed in a locked room or cell or handcuffed to a stationary object in a building housing a county jail or municipal lockup. Time spent transporting a minor is not considered to be time in detention or secure custody.

(ii) Any minor so confined shall be under periodic supervision and shall not be permitted to come into or remain in contact with adults in custody in the building.

(iii) Upon placement in secure custody in a jail or lockup, the minor shall be informed of the purpose of the detention, the time it is expected to last and the fact that it cannot exceed the time specified under this Act.

(iv) A log shall be kept which shows the offense which is the basis for the detention, the reasons and circumstances for the decision to detain, and the length of time the minor was in detention.

(v) Violation of the time limit on detention in a county jail or municipal lockup shall not, in and of itself, render inadmissible evidence obtained as a result of the violation of this time limit. Minors under 18 years of age shall be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to criminal law. Persons 18 years of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed against them may be confined in an adult detention facility. In making a determination whether to confine a person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among other matters, shall be considered:

(A) the The age of the person;

(B) any Any previous delinquent or criminal history of the person;

(C) any Any previous abuse or neglect history of the person; and

(D) any Any mental health or educational history of the person, or both.

(d) (i) If a minor 12 years of age or older is confined in a county jail in a county with a population below 3,000,000 inhabitants, then the minor's confinement shall be implemented in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound, or otherwise between the minor and adult prisoners. Minors 12 years of age or older must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with confined adults. This paragraph (d)(i) shall only apply to confinement pending an adjudicatory hearing and shall not exceed 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and court-designated court designated holidays. To accept or hold minors during this time period, county jails shall comply with all monitoring standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(ii) To accept or hold minors, 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in paragraph (d)(i) of this subsection (2) of this Section but not exceeding 7 days including Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays pending an adjudicatory hearing, county jails shall comply with all temporary detention standards adopted by the Department of Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board.

(iii) To accept or hold minors 12 years of age or older, after the time period prescribed in paragraphs (d)(i) and (d)(ii) of this subsection (2) of this Section, county jails shall comply with all county juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(e) When a minor who is at least 15 years of age is prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State, the court may enter an order directing that the juvenile be confined in the county jail. However, any juvenile confined in the county jail under this provision shall be separated from adults who are confined in the county jail in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound or otherwise between the juvenile and adult prisoners.

(f) For purposes of appearing in a physical lineup, the minor may be taken to a county jail or municipal lockup under the direct and constant supervision of a juvenile police officer. During such time as is necessary to conduct a lineup, and while supervised by a juvenile police officer, the sight and sound separation provisions shall not apply.

(g) For purposes of processing a minor, the minor may be taken to a county jail County Jail or municipal lockup under the direct and constant supervision of a law enforcement officer or correctional officer. During such time as is necessary to process the minor, and while supervised by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer, the sight and sound separation provisions shall not apply.

(3) If the probation officer or State's Attorney (or such other public officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) determines that the minor may be a delinquent minor as described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105, and should be retained in custody but does not require physical restriction, the minor may be placed in non-secure custody for up to 40 hours pending a detention hearing.

(4) Any minor taken into temporary custody, not requiring secure detention, may, however, be detained in the home of his or her parent or guardian subject to such conditions as the court may impose.

(5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 99-254, eff. 1-1-16; 100-745, eff. 8-10-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(705 ILCS 405/6-1) (from Ch. 37, par. 806-1)

Sec. 6-1. Probation departments; functions and duties.

(1) The chief judge of each circuit shall make provision for probation services for each county in his or her circuit. The appointment of officers to probation or court services departments and the administration of such departments shall be governed by the provisions of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(2) Every county or every group of counties constituting a probation district shall maintain a court services or probation department subject to the provisions of the Probation and Probation Officers Act. For the purposes of this Act, such a court services or probation department has, but is not limited to, the following powers and duties:

(a) When authorized or directed by the court, to receive, investigate and evaluate complaints indicating dependency, requirement of authoritative intervention, addiction or delinquency within the meaning of Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3, 4-3, or 5-105, respectively; to determine or assist the complainant in determining whether a petition should be filed under Sections 2-13, 3-15, 4-12, or 5-520 or whether referral should be made to an agency, association or other person or whether some other action is advisable; and to see that the indicating filing, referral or other action is accomplished. However, no such investigation, evaluation or supervision by such court services or probation department is to occur with regard to complaints indicating only that a minor may be a chronic or habitual truant.

(a-1) To confer in a preliminary conference, with a view to adjusting suitable cases without the filing of a petition as provided for in Section 2-12 or Section 5-305.

(b) When a petition is filed under Section 2-13, 3-15, 4-15, or 5-520, to make pre-adjudicatory investigations and formulate recommendations to the court when the court has authorized or directed the department to do so.

(b-1) When authorized or directed by the court, and with the consent of the party respondents and the State's Attorney, to confer in a pre-adjudicatory conference, with a view to adjusting suitable cases as provided for in Section 2-12 or Section 5-305.

(c) To counsel and, by order of the court, to supervise minors referred to the court; to conduct indicated programs of casework, including referrals for medical and mental health service, organized recreation and job placement for wards of the court and, when appropriate, for members of the family of a ward; to act as liaison officer between the court and agencies or associations to which minors are referred or through which they are placed; when so appointed, to serve as guardian of the person of a ward of the court; to provide probation supervision and protective supervision ordered by the court; and to provide like services to wards and probationers of courts in other counties or jurisdictions who have lawfully become local residents.

(d) To arrange for placements pursuant to court order.

(e) To assume administrative responsibility for such detention, shelter care and other institutions for minors as the court may operate.

(f) To maintain an adequate system of case records, statistical records, and financial records related to juvenile detention and shelter care and to make reports to the court and other authorized persons, and to the Supreme Court pursuant to the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(g) To perform such other services as may be appropriate to effectuate the purposes of this Act or as may be directed by any order of court made under this Act.

(3) The court services or probation department in any probation district or county having less than 1,000,000 inhabitants, or any personnel of the department, may be required by the circuit court to render services to the court in other matters as well as proceedings under this Act.

(4) In any county or probation district, a probation department may be established as a separate division of a more inclusive department of court services, with any appropriate divisional designation. The organization of any such department of court services and the appointment of officers and other personnel must comply with the Probation and Probation Probations Officers Act.

(5) For purposes of this Act only, probation officers appointed to probation or court services departments shall be considered peace officers. In the exercise of their official duties, probation officers, sheriffs, and police officers may, anywhere within the State, arrest any minor who is in violation of any of the conditions of his or her probation, continuance under supervision, or informal supervision, and it shall be the duty of the officer making the arrest to take the minor before the court having jurisdiction over the minor for further action.

(Source: P.A. 98-892, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 685. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 3-6, 11-9.2, and 33G-6 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/3-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 3-6)

Sec. 3-6. Extended limitations. The period within which a prosecution must be commenced under the provisions of Section 3-5 or other applicable statute is extended under the following conditions:

(a) A prosecution for theft involving a breach of a fiduciary obligation to the aggrieved person may be commenced as follows:

(1) If the aggrieved person is a minor or a person under legal disability, then during the minority or legal disability or within one year after the termination thereof.

(2) In any other instance, within one year after the discovery of the offense by an aggrieved person, or by a person who has legal capacity to represent an aggrieved person or has a legal duty to report the offense, and is not himself or herself a party to the offense; or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b) A prosecution for any offense based upon misconduct in office by a public officer or employee may be commenced within one year after discovery of the offense by a person having a legal duty to report such offense, or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b-5) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons and related offenses under Section 10-9 of this Code may be commenced within 25 years of the victim attaining the age of 18 years.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A prosecution for child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, or promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, where the defendant was within a professional or fiduciary relationship or a purported professional or fiduciary relationship with the victim at the time of the commission of the offense may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim.

(f) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 44 of the Environmental Protection Act may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of such an offense by a person or agency having the legal duty to report the offense or in the absence of such discovery, within 5 years after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense.

(f-5) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 16-30 of this Code may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if the victim reported the offense to law enforcement authorities within 3 years after the commission of the offense. If the victim consented to the collection of evidence using an Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit under the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, it shall constitute reporting for purposes of this Section.

Nothing in this subdivision (i) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(i-5) A prosecution for armed robbery, home invasion, kidnapping, or aggravated kidnaping may be commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if it arises out of the same course of conduct and meets the criteria under one of the offenses in subsection (i) of this Section.

(j) (1) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse may be commenced at any time.

(2) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for failure of a person who is required to report an alleged or suspected commission of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act may be commenced within 20 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

(3) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for misdemeanor criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

(4) Nothing in this subdivision (j) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(j-5) A prosecution for armed robbery, home invasion, kidnapping, or aggravated kidnaping may be commenced at any time if it arises out of the same course of conduct and meets the criteria under one of the offenses in subsection (j) of this Section.

(k) (Blank).

(l) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 26-4 of this Code may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(l-5) A prosecution for any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, in which the victim was 18 years of age or older at the time of the offense, may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim when corroborating physical evidence is available. The charging document shall state that the statute of limitations is extended under this subsection (l-5) and shall state the circumstances justifying the extension. Nothing in this subsection (l-5) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section or Section 3-5 of this Code.

(m) The prosecution shall not be required to prove at trial facts which extend the general limitations in Section 3-5 of this Code when the facts supporting extension of the period of general limitations are properly pled in the charging document. Any challenge relating to the extension of the general limitations period as defined in this Section shall be exclusively conducted under Section 114-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(n) A prosecution for any offense set forth in subsection (a), (b), or (c) of Section 8A-3 or Section 8A-13 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, in which the total amount of money involved is $5,000 or more, including the monetary value of food stamps and the value of commodities under Section 16-1 of this Code may be commenced within 5 years of the last act committed in furtherance of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 99-234, eff. 8-3-15; 99-820, eff. 8-15-16; 100-80, eff. 8-11-17; 100-318, eff. 8-24-17; 100-434, eff. 1-1-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-998, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1010, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1087, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.2)

Sec. 11-9.2. Custodial sexual misconduct.

(a) A person commits custodial sexual misconduct when: (1) he or she is an employee of a penal system and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of that penal system; (2) he or she is an employee of a treatment and detention facility and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of that treatment and detention facility; or (3) he or she is an employee of a law enforcement agency and engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a person who is in the custody of a law enforcement agency or employee.

(b) A probation or supervising officer, surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist commits custodial sexual misconduct when the probation or supervising officer, surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist engages in sexual conduct or sexual penetration with a probationer, parolee, or releasee or person serving a term of conditional release who is under the supervisory, disciplinary, or custodial authority of the officer or agent or employee so engaging in the sexual conduct or sexual penetration.

(c) Custodial sexual misconduct is a Class 3 felony.

(d) Any person convicted of violating this Section immediately shall forfeit his or her employment with a law enforcement agency, a penal system, a treatment and detention facility, or a conditional release program.

(e) In this Section, the consent of the probationer, parolee, releasee, inmate in custody of the penal system or person detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, or a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency or employee shall not be a defense to a prosecution under this Section. A person is deemed incapable of consent, for purposes of this Section, when he or she is a probationer, parolee, releasee, inmate in custody of a penal system or person detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act, or a person in the custody of a law enforcement agency or employee.

(f) This Section does not apply to:

(1) Any employee, probation or supervising officer, surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist who is lawfully married to a person in custody if the marriage occurred before the date of custody.

(2) Any employee, probation or supervising officer, surveillance agent, or aftercare specialist who has no knowledge, and would have no reason to believe, that the person with whom he or she engaged in custodial sexual misconduct was a person in custody.

(g) In this Section:

(0.5) "Aftercare specialist" means any person employed by the Department of Juvenile Justice to supervise and facilitate services for persons placed on aftercare release.

(1) "Custody" means:

(i) pretrial incarceration or detention;

(ii) incarceration or detention under a sentence or commitment to a State or local penal institution;

(iii) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release;

(iv) electronic monitoring or home detention;

(v) probation;

(vi) detention or civil commitment either in secure care or in the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act; or

(vii) detention detained or under arrest by a law enforcement agency or employee.

(2) "Penal system" means any system which includes institutions as defined in Section 2-14 of this Code or a county shelter care or detention home established under Section 1 of the County Shelter Care and Detention Home Act.

(2.1) "Treatment and detention facility" means any Department of Human Services facility established for the detention or civil commitment of persons under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(2.2) "Conditional release" means a program of treatment and services, vocational services, and alcohol or other drug abuse treatment provided to any person civilly committed and conditionally released to the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(3) "Employee" means:

(i) an employee of any governmental agency of this State or any county or municipal corporation that has by statute, ordinance, or court order the responsibility for the care, control, or supervision of pretrial or sentenced persons in a penal system or persons detained or civilly committed under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;

(ii) a contractual employee of a penal system as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this Section who works in a penal institution as defined in Section 2-14 of this Code;

(iii) a contractual employee of a "treatment and detention facility" as defined in paragraph (g)(2.1) of this Code or a contractual employee of the Department of Human Services who provides supervision of persons serving a term of conditional release as defined in paragraph (g)(2.2) of this Code; or

(iv) an employee of a law enforcement agency.

(3.5) "Law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or of a unit of local government charged with enforcement of State, county, or municipal laws or with managing custody of detained persons in the State, but not including a State's Attorney.

(4) "Sexual conduct" or "sexual penetration" means any act of sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

(5) "Probation officer" means any person employed in a probation or court services department as defined in Section 9b of the Probation and Probation Officers Act.

(6) "Supervising officer" means any person employed to supervise persons placed on parole or mandatory supervised release with the duties described in Section 3-14-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) "Surveillance agent" means any person employed or contracted to supervise persons placed on conditional release in the community under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-431, eff. 8-25-17; 100-693, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-9-18.)

(720 ILCS 5/33G-6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 11, 2022)

Sec. 33G-6. Remedial proceedings, procedures, and forfeiture. Under this Article:

(a) Under this Article, the The circuit court shall have jurisdiction to prevent and restrain violations of this Article by issuing appropriate orders, including:

(1) ordering any person to disgorge illicit proceeds obtained by a violation of this Article or divest himself or herself of any interest, direct or indirect, in any enterprise or real or personal property of any character, including money, obtained, directly or indirectly, by a violation of this Article;

(2) imposing reasonable restrictions on the future activities or investments of any person or enterprise, including prohibiting any person or enterprise from engaging in the same type of endeavor as the person or enterprise engaged in, that violated this Article; or

(3) ordering dissolution or reorganization of any enterprise, making due provision for the rights of innocent persons.

(b) Any violation of this Article is subject to the remedies, procedures, and forfeiture as set forth in Article 29B of this Code.

(c) Property seized or forfeited under this Article is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-699, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 690. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 316, 320, and 411.2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/316)

Sec. 316. Prescription Monitoring Program.

(a) The Department must provide for a Prescription Monitoring Program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances that includes the following components and requirements:

(1) The dispenser must transmit to the central repository, in a form and manner specified by the Department, the following information:

(A) The recipient's name and address.

(B) The recipient's date of birth and gender.

(C) The national drug code number of the controlled substance dispensed.

(D) The date the controlled substance is dispensed.

(E) The quantity of the controlled substance dispensed and days supply.

(F) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(G) The prescriber's United States Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.

(H) The dates the controlled substance prescription is filled.

(I) The payment type used to purchase the controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party insurance).

(J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances other than those filled at a retail pharmacy.

(K) Any additional information that may be required by the department by administrative rule, including but not limited to information required for compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or its successor.

(2) The information required to be transmitted under this Section must be transmitted not later than the end of the next business day after the date on which a controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time as may be required by the Department by administrative rule.

(3) A dispenser must transmit the information required under this Section by:

(A) an electronic device compatible with the receiving device of the central repository;

(B) a computer diskette;

(C) a magnetic tape; or

(D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy Inventory Control form. ;

(4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to $100 per day for willful failure to report controlled substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the number of days from the time the report was required to be made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program.

(b) The Department, by rule, may include in the Prescription Monitoring Program certain other select drugs that are not included in Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The Prescription Monitoring Program does not apply to controlled substance prescriptions as exempted under Section 313.

(c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently as established by administrative rule.

(d) The Department of Human Services shall appoint a full-time Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Within one year of January 1, 2008 (the effective date of 100-564) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department shall adopt rules requiring all Electronic Health Records Systems to interface with the Prescription Monitoring Program application program on or before January 1, 2021 to ensure that all providers have access to specific patient records during the treatment of their patients. These rules shall also address the electronic integration of pharmacy records with the Prescription Monitoring Program to allow for faster transmission of the information required under this Section. The Department shall establish actions to be taken if a prescriber's Electronic Health Records System does not effectively interface with the Prescription Monitoring Program within the required timeline.

(g) The Department, in consultation with the Advisory Committee, shall adopt rules allowing licensed prescribers or pharmacists who have registered to access the Prescription Monitoring Program to authorize a licensed or non-licensed designee employed in that licensed prescriber's office or a licensed designee in a licensed pharmacist's pharmacy, and who has received training in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act to consult the Prescription Monitoring Program on their behalf. The rules shall include reasonable parameters concerning a practitioner's authority to authorize a designee, and the eligibility of a person to be selected as a designee. In this subsection (g), "pharmacist" shall include a clinical pharmacist employed by and designated by a Medicaid Managed Care Organization providing services under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code under a contract with the Department of Healthcare Health and Family Services for the sole purpose of clinical review of services provided to persons covered by the entity under the contract to determine compliance with subsections (a) and (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. A managed care entity pharmacist shall notify prescribers of review activities.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-564, eff. 1-1-18; 100-861, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1005, eff. 8-21-18; 100-1093, eff. 8-26-18; revised 10-9-18.)

(720 ILCS 570/320)

Sec. 320. Advisory committee.

(a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to assist the Department of Human Services in implementing the Prescription Monitoring Program created by this Article and to advise the Department on the professional performance of prescribers and dispensers and other matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence.

(b) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall consist of 16 members appointed by the Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program composed of prescribers and dispensers licensed to practice medicine in his or her respective profession as follows: one family or primary care physician; one pain specialist physician; 4 other physicians, one of whom may be an ophthalmologist; 2 advanced practice registered nurses; one physician assistant; one optometrist; one dentist; one veterinarian; one clinical representative from a statewide organization representing hospitals; and 3 pharmacists. The Advisory Committee members serving on August 26, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-1093) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall continue to serve until January 1, 2019. Prescriber and dispenser nominations for membership on the Committee shall be submitted by their respective professional associations. If there are more nominees than membership positions for a prescriber or dispenser category, as provided in this subsection (b), the Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall appoint a member or members for each profession as provided in this subsection (b), from the nominations to serve on the advisory committee. At the first meeting of the Committee in 2019 members shall draw lots for initial terms and 6 members shall serve 3 years, 5 members shall serve 2 years, and 5 members shall serve one year. Thereafter, members shall serve 3-year 3 year terms. Members may serve more than one term but no more than 3 terms. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program may appoint a representative of an organization representing a profession required to be appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall serve as the Secretary of the committee.

(c) The advisory committee may appoint a chairperson and other officers as it deems appropriate.

(d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their services as members of the advisory committee, unless appropriated by the General Assembly, but may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in serving on the advisory committee.

(e) The advisory committee shall:

(1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in order to determine whether changes should be recommended to the General Assembly;

(2) review current drug schedules in order to manage changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the utilization of this Act;

(3) review the following: current clinical guidelines developed by health care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances; accredited continuing education programs related to prescribing and dispensing; programs or information developed by health care professional organizations that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant medical studies; and other publications which involve the prescription of controlled substances;

(4) make recommendations for inclusion of these materials or other studies which may be effective resources for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of the inquiry system established under Section 318;

(5) semi-annually review the content of the Internet website of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has the most current available information;

(6) semi-annually review opportunities for federal grants and other forms of funding to support projects which will increase the number of pilot programs which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health records; and

(7) semi-annually review communication to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318, including recommendations for relevant accredited continuing education and information regarding prescribing and dispensing.

(f) The Advisory Committee shall select from its members 11 members of the Peer Review Committee composed of: 6, and one dentist,

(1) 3 physicians;

(2) 3 pharmacists;

(3) one dentist;

(4) one advanced practice registered nurse;

(4.5) one veterinarian;

(5) one physician assistant; and

(6) one optometrist.

The purpose of the Peer Review Committee is to establish a formal peer review of professional performance of prescribers and dispensers. The deliberations, information, and communications of the Peer Review Committee are privileged and confidential and shall not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with current law.

(1) The Peer Review Committee shall periodically review the data contained within the prescription monitoring program to identify those prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the currently accepted standard and practice of their profession. The Peer Review Committee member, whose profession is the same as the prescriber or dispenser being reviewed, shall prepare a preliminary report and recommendation for any non-action or action. The Prescription Monitoring Program Clinical Director and staff shall provide the necessary assistance and data as required.

(2) The Peer Review Committee may identify prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside the currently accepted medical standards in the course of their professional practice and send the identified prescriber or dispenser a request for information regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This request for information shall be sent via certified mail, return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall have 30 days to respond to the request for information.

(3) The Peer Review Committee shall refer a prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the following situations:

(i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond to three successive requests for information;

(ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of the Peer Review Committee, the prescriber or dispenser does not have a satisfactory explanation for the practices identified by the Peer Review Committee in its request for information; or

(iii) following communications with the Peer Review Committee, the prescriber or dispenser does not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in the request for information in the opinion of a majority of the members of the Peer Review Committee.

(4) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber or dispenser referred by the Peer Review Committee peer review subcommittee.

(5) The Peer Review Committee shall prepare an annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall contain the following information: the number of times the Peer Review Committee was convened; the number of prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the Peer Review Committee; the number of requests for information sent out by the Peer Review Committee; and the number of prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to the General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct. The report prepared by the Peer Review Committee shall not identify any prescriber, dispenser, or patient.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-861, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1093, eff. 8-26-18; revised 10-3-18.)

(720 ILCS 570/411.2)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 411.2. (a) Every person convicted of a violation of this Act, and every person placed on probation, conditional discharge, supervision or probation under Section 410 of this Act, shall be assessed for each offense a sum fixed at:

(1) $3,000 for a Class X felony;

(2) $2,000 for a Class 1 felony;

(3) $1,000 for a Class 2 felony;

(4) $500 for a Class 3 or Class 4 felony;

(5) $300 for a Class A misdemeanor;

(6) $200 for a Class B or Class C misdemeanor.

(b) The assessment under this Section is in addition to and not in lieu of any fines, restitution costs, forfeitures or other assessments authorized or required by law.

(c) As a condition of the assessment, the court may require that payment be made in specified installments or within a specified period of time. If the assessment is not paid within the period of probation, conditional discharge or supervision to which the defendant was originally sentenced, the court may extend the period of probation, conditional discharge or supervision pursuant to Section 5-6-2 or 5-6-3.1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as applicable, until the assessment is paid or until successful completion of public or community service set forth in subsection (e) or the successful completion of the substance abuse intervention or treatment program set forth in subsection (f). If a term of probation, conditional discharge or supervision is not imposed, the assessment shall be payable upon judgment or as directed by the court.

(d) If an assessment for a violation of this Act is imposed on an organization, it is the duty of each individual authorized to make disbursements of the assets of the organization to pay the assessment from assets of the organization.

(e) A defendant who has been ordered to pay an assessment may petition the court to convert all or part of the assessment into court-approved public or community service. One hour of public or community service shall be equivalent to $4 of assessment. The performance of this public or community service shall be a condition of the probation, conditional discharge or supervision and shall be in addition to the performance of any other period of public or community service ordered by the court or required by law.

(f) The court may suspend the collection of the assessment imposed under this Section; provided the defendant agrees to enter a substance abuse intervention or treatment program approved by the court; and further provided that the defendant agrees to pay for all or some portion of the costs associated with the intervention or treatment program. In this case, the collection of the assessment imposed under this Section shall be suspended during the defendant's participation in the approved intervention or treatment program. Upon successful completion of the program, the defendant may apply to the court to reduce the assessment imposed under this Section by any amount actually paid by the defendant for his or her participation in the program. The court shall not reduce the penalty under this subsection unless the defendant establishes to the satisfaction of the court that he or she has successfully completed the intervention or treatment program. If the defendant's participation is for any reason terminated before his or her successful completion of the intervention or treatment program, collection of the entire assessment imposed under this Section shall be enforced. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to affect or suspend any other fines, restitution costs, forfeitures or assessments imposed under this or any other Act.

(g) The court shall not impose more than one assessment per complaint, indictment or information. If the person is convicted of more than one offense in a complaint, indictment or information, the assessment shall be based on the highest class offense for which the person is convicted.

(h) In counties under 3,000,000, all moneys collected under this Section shall be forwarded by the clerk of the circuit court to the State Treasurer for deposit in the Drug Treatment Fund, which is hereby established as a special fund within the State Treasury. The Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund for the treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances and for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or a county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment, or intervention, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(i) In counties over 3,000,000, all moneys collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the County Treasurer for deposit into the County Health Fund. The County Treasurer shall, no later than the 15th day of each month, forward to the State Treasurer 30 percent of all moneys collected under this Act and received into the County Health Fund since the prior remittance to the State Treasurer. Funds retained by the County shall be used for community-based treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances or for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of these women. Funds forwarded to the State Treasurer shall be deposited into the State Drug Treatment Fund maintained by the State Treasurer from which the Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund, provided that the moneys collected from each county be returned proportionately to the counties through grants to licensees located within the county from which the assessment was received and moneys in the State Drug Treatment Fund shall not supplant other local, State or federal funds. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children or women undergoing residential drug treatment, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 411.2. Drug Treatment Fund; drug treatment grants.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) The Drug Treatment Fund is hereby established as a special fund within the State Treasury. The Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund for the treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances and for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or a county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment, or intervention, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(i) (Blank). Substance Use Disorder Act

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-22-18.)

Section 695. The Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is amended by changing Section 80 as follows:

(720 ILCS 646/80)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 80. Assessment.

(a) Every person convicted of a violation of this Act, and every person placed on probation, conditional discharge, supervision, or probation under this Act, shall be assessed for each offense a sum fixed at:

(1) $3,000 for a Class X felony;

(2) $2,000 for a Class 1 felony;

(3) $1,000 for a Class 2 felony;

(4) $500 for a Class 3 or Class 4 felony.

(b) The assessment under this Section is in addition to and not in lieu of any fines, restitution, costs, forfeitures, or other assessments authorized or required by law.

(c) As a condition of the assessment, the court may require that payment be made in specified installments or within a specified period of time. If the assessment is not paid within the period of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision to which the defendant was originally sentenced, the court may extend the period of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision pursuant to Section 5-6-2 or 5-6-3.1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, as applicable, until the assessment is paid or until successful completion of public or community service set forth in subsection (e) or the successful completion of the substance abuse intervention or treatment program set forth in subsection (f). If a term of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision is not imposed, the assessment shall be payable upon judgment or as directed by the court.

(d) If an assessment for a violation of this Act is imposed on an organization, it is the duty of each individual authorized to make disbursements of the assets of the organization to pay the assessment from assets of the organization.

(e) A defendant who has been ordered to pay an assessment may petition the court to convert all or part of the assessment into court-approved public or community service. One hour of public or community service shall be equivalent to $4 of assessment. The performance of this public or community service shall be a condition of the probation, conditional discharge, or supervision and shall be in addition to the performance of any other period of public or community service ordered by the court or required by law.

(f) The court may suspend the collection of the assessment imposed under this Section if the defendant agrees to enter a substance abuse intervention or treatment program approved by the court and the defendant agrees to pay for all or some portion of the costs associated with the intervention or treatment program. In this case, the collection of the assessment imposed under this Section shall be suspended during the defendant's participation in the approved intervention or treatment program. Upon successful completion of the program, the defendant may apply to the court to reduce the assessment imposed under this Section by any amount actually paid by the defendant for his or her participation in the program. The court shall not reduce the penalty under this subsection unless the defendant establishes to the satisfaction of the court that he or she has successfully completed the intervention or treatment program. If the defendant's participation is for any reason terminated before his or her successful completion of the intervention or treatment program, collection of the entire assessment imposed under this Section shall be enforced. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to affect or suspend any other fines, restitution costs, forfeitures, or assessments imposed under this or any other Act.

(g) The court shall not impose more than one assessment per complaint, indictment, or information. If the person is convicted of more than one offense in a complaint, indictment, or information, the assessment shall be based on the highest class offense for which the person is convicted.

(h) In counties with a population under 3,000,000, all moneys collected under this Section shall be forwarded by the clerk of the circuit court to the State Treasurer for deposit in the Drug Treatment Fund. The Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund for the treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances and for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or a county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment, or intervention, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(i) In counties with a population of 3,000,000 or more, all moneys collected under this Section shall be forwarded to the County Treasurer for deposit into the County Health Fund. The County Treasurer shall, no later than the 15th day of each month, forward to the State Treasurer 30 percent of all moneys collected under this Act and received into the County Health Fund since the prior remittance to the State Treasurer. Funds retained by the County shall be used for community-based treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances or for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of these women. Funds forwarded to the State Treasurer shall be deposited into the State Drug Treatment Fund maintained by the State Treasurer from which the Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund, provided that the moneys collected from each county be returned proportionately to the counties through grants to licensees located within the county from which the assessment was received and moneys in the State Drug Treatment Fund shall not supplant other local, State or federal funds. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children or women undergoing residential drug treatment, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 80. Drug treatment grants.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) (Blank).

(h) The Department of Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under Section 15-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act or to municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the Department from the Drug Treatment Fund for the treatment of pregnant women who are addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances and for the needed care of minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment. If the Department of Human Services grants funds to a municipality or a county that the Department determines is not experiencing a problem with pregnant women addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children of women undergoing residential drug treatment, or intervention, the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants.

(i) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-12-18.)

Section 700. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 110-17, 112A-4.5, and 112A-14 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-17) (from Ch. 38, par. 110-17)

Sec. 110-17. Unclaimed bail deposits. Any sum of money deposited by any person to secure his or her release from custody which remains unclaimed by the person entitled to its return for 3 years after the conditions of the bail bond have been performed and the accused has been discharged from all obligations in the cause shall be presumed to be abandoned and subject to disposition under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-929, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-4.5)

Sec. 112A-4.5. Who may file petition.

(a) A petition for a domestic violence order of protection may be filed:

(1) by a named victim who has been abused by a family or household member;

(2) by any person or by the State's Attorney on behalf of a named victim who is a minor child or an adult who has been abused by a family or household member and who, because of age, health, disability, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition; or

(3) by a State's Attorney on behalf of any minor child or dependent adult in the care of the named victim, if the named victim does not file a petition or request the State's Attorney file the petition; or

(4) (3) any of the following persons if the person is abused by a family or household member of a child:

(i) a foster parent of that child if the child has been placed in the foster parent's home by the Department of Children and Family Services or by another state's public child welfare agency;

(ii) a legally appointed guardian or legally appointed custodian of that child;

(iii) an adoptive parent of that child;

(iv) a prospective adoptive parent of that child if the child has been placed in the prospective adoptive parent's home pursuant to the Adoption Act or pursuant to another state's law.

For purposes of this paragraph (a)(4) (3), individuals who would have been considered "family or household members" of the child under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of Section 112A-3 before a termination of the parental rights with respect to the child continue to meet the definition of "family or household members" of the child.

(b) A petition for a civil no contact order may be filed:

(1) by any person who is a named victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration, including a single incident of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration;

(2) by a person or by the State's Attorney on behalf of a named victim who is a minor child or an adult who is a victim of non-consensual sexual conduct or non-consensual sexual penetration but, because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition; or

(3) by a State's Attorney on behalf of any minor child who is a family or household member of the named victim, if the named victim does not file a petition or request the State's Attorney file the petition.

(c) A petition for a stalking no contact order may be filed:

(1) by any person who is a named victim of stalking;

(2) by a person or by the State's Attorney on behalf of a named victim who is a minor child or an adult who is a victim of stalking but, because of age, disability, health, or inaccessibility, cannot file the petition; or

(3) by a State's Attorney on behalf of any minor child who is a family or household member of the named victim, if the named victim does not file a petition or request the State's Attorney file the petition.

(d) The State's Attorney shall file a petition on behalf of any person who may file a petition under subsections (a), (b), or (c) of this Section if the person requests the State's Attorney to file a petition on the person's behalf, unless the State's Attorney has a good faith basis to delay filing the petition. The State's Attorney shall inform the person that the State's Attorney will not be filing the petition at that time and that the person may file a petition or may retain an attorney to file the petition. The State's Attorney may file the petition at a later date.

(d-5) (1) A person eligible to file a petition under subsection (a), (b), or (c) of this Section may retain an attorney to represent the petitioner on the petitioner's request for a protective order. The attorney's representation is limited to matters related to the petition and relief authorized under this Article.

(2) Advocates shall be allowed to accompany the petitioner and confer with the victim, unless otherwise directed by the court. Advocates are not engaged in the unauthorized practice of law when providing assistance to the petitioner.

(e) Any petition properly filed under this Article may seek protection for any additional persons protected by this Article.

(Source: P.A. 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-597, eff. 6-29-18; 100-639, eff. 1-1-19; revised 8-20-18.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)

Sec. 112A-14. Domestic violence order of protection; remedies.

(a) (Blank).

(b) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this subsection (b). The remedies listed in this subsection (b) shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in subsection (c-2) of Section 501 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the domestic violence order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If a domestic violence order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing a domestic violence order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. If the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers, or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities and significant decision-making responsibilities. Award temporary significant decision-making responsibility to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3 of this Code) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary significant decision-making responsibility to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Parenting time. Determine the parenting time, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary significant decision-making responsibility of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's parenting time with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following:

(i) abuse or endanger the minor child during parenting time;

(ii) use the parenting time as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members;

(iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or

(iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child.

The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 603.10 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants parenting time, the order shall specify dates and times for the parenting time to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for parenting time shall refer merely to the term "reasonable parenting time". Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for parenting time, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner. If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for parenting time, and the petitioner and respondent shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for parenting time. A person may be approved to supervise parenting time only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner, or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the petitioner and respondent own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging, or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the petitioner and respondent own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or over whom the petitioner has been allocated parental responsibility, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care of a child, prior to entry of an order allocating significant decision-making responsibility. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order allocating parental responsibility differently and vacating petitioner's significant decision-making responsibility unless otherwise provided in the order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support, or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including, but not limited to, legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(A) A person who is subject to an existing domestic violence order of protection issued under this Code may not lawfully possess weapons under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(B) Any firearms in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (14.5), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to a person with a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card for safekeeping. The court shall issue an order that the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card be turned over to the local law enforcement agency, which in turn shall immediately mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the domestic violence order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request be returned to the respondent at expiration of the domestic violence order of protection.

(C) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the domestic violence order of protection.

(D) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If a domestic violence order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5 of this Code, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(18) Telephone services.

(A) Unless a condition described in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph exists, the court may, upon request by the petitioner, order a wireless telephone service provider to transfer to the petitioner the right to continue to use a telephone number or numbers indicated by the petitioner and the financial responsibility associated with the number or numbers, as set forth in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph. In this paragraph (18), the term "wireless telephone service provider" means a provider of commercial mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332. The petitioner may request the transfer of each telephone number that the petitioner, or a minor child in his or her custody, uses. The clerk of the court shall serve the order on the wireless telephone service provider's agent for service of process provided to the Illinois Commerce Commission. The order shall contain all of the following:

(i) The name and billing telephone number of the account holder including the name of the wireless telephone service provider that serves the account.

(ii) Each telephone number that will be transferred.

(iii) A statement that the provider transfers to the petitioner all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph.

(B) A wireless telephone service provider shall terminate the respondent's use of, and shall transfer to the petitioner use of, the telephone number or numbers indicated in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph unless it notifies the petitioner, within 72 hours after it receives the order, that one of the following applies:

(i) The account holder named in the order has terminated the account.

(ii) A difference in network technology would prevent or impair the functionality of a device on a network if the transfer occurs.

(iii) The transfer would cause a geographic or other limitation on network or service provision to the petitioner.

(iv) Another technological or operational issue would prevent or impair the use of the telephone number if the transfer occurs.

(C) The petitioner assumes all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph. In this paragraph, "financial responsibility" includes monthly service costs and costs associated with any mobile device associated with the number.

(D) A wireless telephone service provider may apply to the petitioner its routine and customary requirements for establishing an account or transferring a number, including requiring the petitioner to provide proof of identification, financial information, and customer preferences.

(E) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a wireless telephone service provider is immune from civil liability for its actions taken in compliance with a court order issued under this paragraph.

(F) All wireless service providers that provide services to residential customers shall provide to the Illinois Commerce Commission the name and address of an agent for service of orders entered under this paragraph (18). Any change in status of the registered agent must be reported to the Illinois Commerce Commission within 30 days of such change.

(G) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall maintain the list of registered agents for service for each wireless telephone service provider on the Commission's website. The Commission may consult with wireless telephone service providers and the Circuit Court Clerks on the manner in which this information is provided and displayed.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern, and consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly relocated from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State, or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location, and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church, and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection (c), the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (c).

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1975, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other statute of this State, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the federal Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996, or when both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, no putative father shall be granted temporary allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(6) petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent; or

(7) conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-388, eff. 1-1-18; 100-597, eff. 6-29-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-923, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-18-18.)

Section 705. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act is amended by changing Sections 4.5 and 6 as follows:

(725 ILCS 120/4.5)

Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement, prosecutors, judges, and corrections will provide information, as appropriate, of the following procedures:

(a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is closed.

(a-5) When law enforcement authorities reopen re-open a closed case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the reopening re-opening of the case, except where the State's Attorney determines that disclosure of such information would unreasonably interfere with the investigation.

(b) The office of the State's Attorney:

(1) shall provide notice of the filing of an information, the return of an indictment, or the filing of a petition to adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(2) shall provide timely notice of the date, time, and place of court proceedings; of any change in the date, time, and place of court proceedings; and of any cancellation of court proceedings. Notice shall be provided in sufficient time, wherever possible, for the victim to make arrangements to attend or to prevent an unnecessary appearance at court proceedings;

(3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information of social services and financial assistance available for victims of crime, including information of how to apply for these services and assistance;

(3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide information about available victim services, including referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;

(4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal property held by law enforcement authorities for evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;

(5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;

(6) shall provide, whenever possible, a secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not require victims to be in close proximity to defendants or juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families and friends;

(7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the right to have a translator present at all court proceedings and, in compliance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications access through a sign language interpreter or by other means;

(8) (blank);

(8.5) shall inform the victim of the right to be present at all court proceedings, unless the victim is to testify and the court determines that the victim's testimony would be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial;

(9) shall inform the victim of the right to have present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of evidence and confidentiality, an advocate and other support person of the victim's choice;

(9.3) shall inform the victim of the right to retain an attorney, at the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to receive copies of all notices, motions, and court orders filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the victim were a named party in the case;

(9.5) shall inform the victim of (A) the victim's right under Section 6 of this Act to make a statement at the sentencing hearing; (B) the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent, and other immediate family and household members under Section 6 of this Act to present a statement at sentencing; and (C) if a presentence report is to be prepared, the right of the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent, and other immediate family and household members to submit information to the preparer of the presentence report about the effect the offense has had on the victim and the person;

(10) at the sentencing shall make a good faith attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice information concerning the release of the defendant;

(11) shall request restitution at sentencing and as part of a plea agreement if the victim requests restitution;

(12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the notification services available from the Department of Human Services, including the statewide telephone number, under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section;

(13) shall provide notice within a reasonable time after receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release from detention of a minor who has been detained;

(14) shall explain in nontechnical language the details of any plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a juvenile as a delinquent;

(15) shall make all reasonable efforts to consult with the crime victim before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement, and shall consider the written statement, if prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement. The right to consult with the prosecutor does not include the right to veto a plea agreement or to insist the case go to trial. If the State's Attorney has not consulted with the victim prior to making an offer or entering into plea negotiations with the defendant, the Office of the State's Attorney shall notify the victim of the offer or the negotiations within 2 business days and confer with the victim;

(16) shall provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for a violent crime;

(17) shall provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant and information on how to contact the appropriate agency handling the appeal, and how to request notice of any hearing, oral argument, or decision of an appellate court;

(18) shall provide timely notice of any request for post-conviction review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever possible, notice of the hearing shall be given within 48 hours of the court's scheduling of the hearing; and

(19) shall forward a copy of any statement presented under Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice to be considered in making a determination under Section 3-2.5-85 or subsection (b) of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(c) The court shall ensure that the rights of the victim are afforded.

(c-5) The following procedures shall be followed to afford victims the rights guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution:

(1) Written notice. A victim may complete a written notice of intent to assert rights on a form prepared by the Office of the Attorney General and provided to the victim by the State's Attorney. The victim may at any time provide a revised written notice to the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall file the written notice with the court. At the beginning of any court proceeding in which the right of a victim may be at issue, the court and prosecutor shall review the written notice to determine whether the victim has asserted the right that may be at issue.

(2) Victim's retained attorney. A victim's attorney shall file an entry of appearance limited to assertion of the victim's rights. Upon the filing of the entry of appearance and service on the State's Attorney and the defendant, the attorney is to receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders filed thereafter in the case.

(3) Standing. The victim has standing to assert the rights enumerated in subsection (a) of Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and the statutory rights under Section 4 of this Act in any court exercising jurisdiction over the criminal case. The prosecuting attorney, a victim, or the victim's retained attorney may assert the victim's rights. The defendant in the criminal case has no standing to assert a right of the victim in any court proceeding, including on appeal.

(4) Assertion of and enforcement of rights.

(A) The prosecuting attorney shall assert a victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury. The prosecuting attorney shall consult with the victim and the victim's attorney regarding the assertion or enforcement of a right. If the prosecuting attorney decides not to assert or enforce a victim's right, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the victim or the victim's attorney in sufficient time to allow the victim or the victim's attorney to assert the right or to seek enforcement of a right.

(B) If the prosecuting attorney elects not to assert a victim's right or to seek enforcement of a right, the victim or the victim's attorney may assert the victim's right or request enforcement of a right by filing a motion or by orally asserting the right or requesting enforcement in open court in the criminal case outside the presence of the jury.

(C) If the prosecuting attorney asserts a victim's right or seeks enforcement of a right, and the court denies the assertion of the right or denies the request for enforcement of a right, the victim or victim's attorney may file a motion to assert the victim's right or to request enforcement of the right within 10 days of the court's ruling. The motion need not demonstrate the grounds for a motion for reconsideration. The court shall rule on the merits of the motion.

(D) The court shall take up and decide any motion or request asserting or seeking enforcement of a victim's right without delay, unless a specific time period is specified by law or court rule. The reasons for any decision denying the motion or request shall be clearly stated on the record.

(5) Violation of rights and remedies.

(A) If the court determines that a victim's right has been violated, the court shall determine the appropriate remedy for the violation of the victim's right by hearing from the victim and the parties, considering all factors relevant to the issue, and then awarding appropriate relief to the victim.

(A-5) Consideration of an issue of a substantive nature or an issue that implicates the constitutional or statutory right of a victim at a court proceeding labeled as a status hearing shall constitute a per se violation of a victim's right.

(B) The appropriate remedy shall include only actions necessary to provide the victim the right to which the victim was entitled and may include reopening previously held proceedings; however, in no event shall the court vacate a conviction. Any remedy shall be tailored to provide the victim an appropriate remedy without violating any constitutional right of the defendant. In no event shall the appropriate remedy be a new trial, damages, or costs.

(6) Right to be heard. Whenever a victim has the right to be heard, the court shall allow the victim to exercise the right in any reasonable manner the victim chooses.

(7) Right to attend trial. A party must file a written motion to exclude a victim from trial at least 60 days prior to the date set for trial. The motion must state with specificity the reason exclusion is necessary to protect a constitutional right of the party, and must contain an offer of proof. The court shall rule on the motion within 30 days. If the motion is granted, the court shall set forth on the record the facts that support its finding that the victim's testimony will be materially affected if the victim hears other testimony at trial.

(8) Right to have advocate and support person present at court proceedings.

(A) A party who intends to call an advocate as a witness at trial must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The party must file a written motion at least 90 days before trial that sets forth specifically the issues on which the advocate's testimony is sought and an offer of proof regarding (i) the content of the anticipated testimony of the advocate; and (ii) the relevance, admissibility, and materiality of the anticipated testimony. The court shall consider the motion and make findings within 30 days of the filing of the motion. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that: (i) the anticipated testimony is not protected by an absolute privilege; and (ii) the anticipated testimony contains relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring the advocate to appear to testify at an in camera hearing. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 15 days to seek appellate review before the advocate is required to testify at an ex parte in camera proceeding.

The prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney shall be allowed to be present at the ex parte in camera proceeding. If, after conducting the ex parte in camera hearing, the court determines that due process requires any testimony regarding confidential or privileged information or communications, the court shall provide to the prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney a written memorandum on the substance of the advocate's testimony. The prosecuting attorney, the victim, and the advocate's attorney shall have 15 days to seek appellate review before a subpoena may be issued for the advocate to testify at trial. The presence of the prosecuting attorney at the ex parte in camera proceeding does not make the substance of the advocate's testimony that the court has ruled inadmissible subject to discovery.

(B) If a victim has asserted the right to have a support person present at the court proceedings, the victim shall provide the name of the person the victim has chosen to be the victim's support person to the prosecuting attorney, within 60 days of trial. The prosecuting attorney shall provide the name to the defendant. If the defendant intends to call the support person as a witness at trial, the defendant must seek permission of the court before a subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion at least 45 days prior to trial that sets forth specifically the issues on which the support person will testify and an offer of proof regarding: (i) the content of the anticipated testimony of the support person; and (ii) the relevance, admissibility, and materiality of the anticipated testimony.

If the prosecuting attorney intends to call the support person as a witness during the State's case-in-chief, the prosecuting attorney shall inform the court of this intent in the response to the defendant's written motion. The victim may choose a different person to be the victim's support person. The court may allow the defendant to inquire about matters outside the scope of the direct examination during cross-examination cross examination. If the court allows the defendant to do so, the support person shall be allowed to remain in the courtroom after the support person has testified. A defendant who fails to question the support person about matters outside the scope of direct examination during the State's case-in-chief waives the right to challenge the presence of the support person on appeal. The court shall allow the support person to testify if called as a witness in the defendant's case-in-chief or the State's rebuttal.

If the court does not allow the defendant to inquire about matters outside the scope of the direct examination, the support person shall be allowed to remain in the courtroom after the support person has been called by the defendant or the defendant has rested. The court shall allow the support person to testify in the State's rebuttal.

If the prosecuting attorney does not intend to call the support person in the State's case-in-chief, the court shall verify with the support person whether the support person, if called as a witness, would testify as set forth in the offer of proof. If the court finds that the support person would testify as set forth in the offer of proof, the court shall rule on the relevance, materiality, and admissibility of the anticipated testimony. If the court rules the anticipated testimony is admissible, the court shall issue the subpoena. The support person may remain in the courtroom after the support person testifies and shall be allowed to testify in rebuttal.

If the court excludes the victim's support person during the State's case-in-chief, the victim shall be allowed to choose another support person to be present in court.

If the victim fails to designate a support person within 60 days of trial and the defendant has subpoenaed the support person to testify at trial, the court may exclude the support person from the trial until the support person testifies. If the court excludes the support person the victim may choose another person as a support person.

(9) Right to notice and hearing before disclosure of confidential or privileged information or records. A defendant who seeks to subpoena records of or concerning the victim that are confidential or privileged by law must seek permission of the court before the subpoena is issued. The defendant must file a written motion and an offer of proof regarding the relevance, admissibility and materiality of the records. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that: (A) the records are not protected by an absolute privilege and (B) the records contain relevant, admissible, and material evidence that is not available through other witnesses or evidence, the court shall issue a subpoena requiring a sealed copy of the records be delivered to the court to be reviewed in camera. If, after conducting an in camera review of the records, the court determines that due process requires disclosure of any portion of the records, the court shall provide copies of what it intends to disclose to the prosecuting attorney and the victim. The prosecuting attorney and the victim shall have 30 days to seek appellate review before the records are disclosed to the defendant. The disclosure of copies of any portion of the records to the prosecuting attorney does not make the records subject to discovery.

(10) Right to notice of court proceedings. If the victim is not present at a court proceeding in which a right of the victim is at issue, the court shall ask the prosecuting attorney whether the victim was notified of the time, place, and purpose of the court proceeding and that the victim had a right to be heard at the court proceeding. If the court determines that timely notice was not given or that the victim was not adequately informed of the nature of the court proceeding, the court shall not rule on any substantive issues, accept a plea, or impose a sentence and shall continue the hearing for the time necessary to notify the victim of the time, place and nature of the court proceeding. The time between court proceedings shall not be attributable to the State under Section 103-5 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(11) Right to timely disposition of the case. A victim has the right to timely disposition of the case so as to minimize the stress, cost, and inconvenience resulting from the victim's involvement in the case. Before ruling on a motion to continue trial or other court proceeding, the court shall inquire into the circumstances for the request for the delay and, if the victim has provided written notice of the assertion of the right to a timely disposition, and whether the victim objects to the delay. If the victim objects, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the victim's objections. If the prosecutor has not conferred with the victim about the continuance, the prosecutor shall inform the court of the attempts to confer. If the court finds the attempts of the prosecutor to confer with the victim were inadequate to protect the victim's right to be heard, the court shall give the prosecutor at least 3 but not more than 5 business days to confer with the victim. In ruling on a motion to continue, the court shall consider the reasons for the requested continuance, the number and length of continuances that have been granted, the victim's objections and procedures to avoid further delays. If a continuance is granted over the victim's objection, the court shall specify on the record the reasons for the continuance and the procedures that have been or will be taken to avoid further delays.

(12) Right to Restitution.

(A) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is known at the time of sentencing, the court shall enter the judgment of restitution at the time of sentencing.

(B) If the victim has asserted the right to restitution and the amount of restitution is not known at the time of sentencing, the prosecutor shall, within 5 days after sentencing, notify the victim what information and documentation related to restitution is needed and that the information and documentation must be provided to the prosecutor within 45 days after sentencing. Failure to timely provide information and documentation related to restitution shall be deemed a waiver of the right to restitution. The prosecutor shall file and serve within 60 days after sentencing a proposed judgment for restitution and a notice that includes information concerning the identity of any victims or other persons seeking restitution, whether any victim or other person expressly declines restitution, the nature and amount of any damages together with any supporting documentation, a restitution amount recommendation, and the names of any co-defendants and their case numbers. Within 30 days after receipt of the proposed judgment for restitution, the defendant shall file any objection to the proposed judgment, a statement of grounds for the objection, and a financial statement. If the defendant does not file an objection, the court may enter the judgment for restitution without further proceedings. If the defendant files an objection and either party requests a hearing, the court shall schedule a hearing.

(13) Access to presentence reports.

(A) The victim may request a copy of the presentence report prepared under the Unified Code of Corrections from the State's Attorney. The State's Attorney shall redact the following information before providing a copy of the report:

(i) the defendant's mental history and condition;

(ii) any evaluation prepared under subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 5-3-2; and

(iii) the name, address, phone number, and other personal information about any other victim.

(B) The State's Attorney or the defendant may request the court redact other information in the report that may endanger the safety of any person.

(C) The State's Attorney may orally disclose to the victim any of the information that has been redacted if there is a reasonable likelihood that the information will be stated in court at the sentencing.

(D) The State's Attorney must advise the victim that the victim must maintain the confidentiality of the report and other information. Any dissemination of the report or information that was not stated at a court proceeding constitutes indirect criminal contempt of court.

(14) Appellate relief. If the trial court denies the relief requested, the victim, the victim's attorney, or the prosecuting attorney may file an appeal within 30 days of the trial court's ruling. The trial or appellate court may stay the court proceedings if the court finds that a stay would not violate a constitutional right of the defendant. If the appellate court denies the relief sought, the reasons for the denial shall be clearly stated in a written opinion. In any appeal in a criminal case, the State may assert as error the court's denial of any crime victim's right in the proceeding to which the appeal relates.

(15) Limitation on appellate relief. In no case shall an appellate court provide a new trial to remedy the violation of a victim's right.

(16) The right to be reasonably protected from the accused throughout the criminal justice process and the right to have the safety of the victim and the victim's family considered in denying or fixing the amount of bail, determining whether to release the defendant, and setting conditions of release after arrest and conviction. A victim of domestic violence, a sexual offense, or stalking may request the entry of a protective order under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(d)(1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the prisoner's release on parole, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian, other than the Department of Juvenile Justice, of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a crime from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the most recent information as to victim's or other concerned citizen's residence or other location available to the notifying authority.

(2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may request to be notified by the releasing authority of the approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility; conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims to make notification requests under these provisions and shall publicize this telephone number on its website and to the State's Attorney of each county.

(3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim. The notification shall be based upon the most recent information as to the victim's residence or other location available to the Board. When no such information is available, the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the information and make the notification. When the escapee is apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board and the Board shall notify the victim.

(4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than 30 days prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date and may submit, in writing, on film, videotape, or other electronic means or in the form of a recording prior to the parole hearing or target aftercare release date or in person at the parole hearing or aftercare release protest hearing or if a victim of a violent crime, by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f) of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of parole decisions, established under subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject to the Open Parole Hearings Act.

(5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall inform the victim of any order of discharge pursuant to Section 3-2.5-85 or 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(6) At the written or oral request of the victim of the crime for which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board or Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare release or mandatory supervised release.

(7) When a defendant who has been committed to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the Department of Human Services such information that would allow the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.

(8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work release, international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge from county custody. The notification shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever possible, before release of the sex offender.

(e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or all of their obligations to provide notices and other information through participation in a statewide victim and witness notification system established by the Attorney General under Section 8.5 of this Act.

(f) To permit a crime victim of a violent crime to provide information to the Prisoner Review Board or the Department of Juvenile Justice for consideration by the Board or Department at a parole hearing or before an aftercare release decision of a person who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a violent crime to present that information to the Board.

(Source: P.A. 99-413, eff. 8-20-15; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17; 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-961, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(725 ILCS 120/6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1406)

Sec. 6. Right to be heard at sentencing.

(a) A crime victim shall be allowed to present an oral or written statement in any case in which a defendant has been convicted of a violent crime or a juvenile has been adjudicated delinquent for a violent crime after a bench or jury trial, or a defendant who was charged with a violent crime and has been convicted under a plea agreement of a crime that is not a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of Section 3 of this Act. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral statement. An oral statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. The court shall consider any statement presented along with all other appropriate factors in determining the sentence of the defendant or disposition of such juvenile.

(a-1) In any case where a defendant has been convicted of a violation of any statute, ordinance, or regulation relating to the operation or use of motor vehicles, the use of streets and highways by pedestrians or the operation of any other wheeled or tracked vehicle, except parking violations, if the violation resulted in great bodily harm or death, the person who suffered great bodily harm, the injured person's representative, or the representative of a deceased person shall be entitled to notice of the sentencing hearing. "Representative" includes the spouse, guardian, grandparent, or other immediate family or household member of an injured or deceased person. The injured person or his or her representative and a representative of the deceased person shall have the right to address the court regarding the impact that the defendant's criminal conduct has had upon them. If more than one representative of an injured or deceased person is present in the courtroom at the time of sentencing, the court has discretion to permit one or more of the representatives to present an oral impact statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. The court shall consider any impact statement presented along with all other appropriate factors in determining the sentence of the defendant.

(a-5) A crime victim shall be allowed to present an oral and written victim impact statement at a hearing ordered by the court under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine if the defendant is: (1) in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; (2) in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis; or (3) not in need of mental health services, unless the defendant was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral impact statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral statement. An oral statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written impact statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of this Act, to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. The court may only consider the impact statement along with all other appropriate factors in determining the: (1) threat of serious physical harm posed poised by the respondent to himself or herself, or to another person; (2) location of inpatient or outpatient mental health services ordered by the court, but only after complying with all other applicable administrative, rule, and statutory requirements; (3) maximum period of commitment for inpatient mental health services; and (4) conditions of release for outpatient mental health services ordered by the court.

(b) The crime victim has the right to prepare a victim impact statement and present it to the Office of the State's Attorney at any time during the proceedings. Any written victim impact statement submitted to the Office of the State's Attorney shall be considered by the court during its consideration of aggravation and mitigation in plea proceedings under Supreme Court Rule 402.

(c) This Section shall apply to any victims during any dispositional hearing under Section 5-705 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 which takes place pursuant to an adjudication or trial or plea of delinquency for any such offense.

(d) If any provision of this Section or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision does not affect any other provision or application of this Section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

(Source: P.A. 99-413, eff. 8-20-15; 100-961, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 710. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-12, 3-5-3.1, 3-6-2, 3-10-2, 5-2-4, 5-2-6, 5-4-1, 5-5-3, 5-5-6, and 5-7-1 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-12)

Sec. 3-2-12. Report of violence in Department of Corrections institutions and facilities; public safety reports.

(a) The Department of Corrections shall collect and report:

(1) data on a rate per 100 of committed persons regarding violence within Department institutions and facilities as defined under the terms, if applicable, in 20 Ill. Adm. Code 504 as follows:

(A) committed person on committed person assaults;

(B) committed person on correctional staff assaults;

(C) dangerous contraband, including weapons, explosives, dangerous chemicals, or other dangerous weapons;

(D) committed person on committed person fights;

(E) multi-committed person on single committed person fights;

(F) committed person use of a weapon on correctional staff;

(G) committed person use of a weapon on committed person;

(H) sexual assault committed by a committed person against another committed person, correctional staff, or visitor;

(I) sexual assault committed by correctional staff against another correctional staff, committed person, or visitor;

(J) correctional staff use of physical force;

(K) forced cell extraction;

(L) use of oleoresin capsaicin (pepper spray), 2-chlorobenzalmalononitrile (CS gas), or other control agents or implements;

(M) committed person suicide and attempted suicide;

(N) requests and placements in protective custody; and

(O) committed persons in segregation, secured housing, and restrictive housing; and

(2) data on average length of stay in segregation, secured housing, and restrictive housing.

(b) The Department of Corrections shall collect and report:

(1) data on a rate per 100 of committed persons regarding public safety as follows:

(A) committed persons released directly from segregation secured housing and restrictive housing to the community;

(B) the types type of housing facilities facility, whether a private residences residence, transitional housing, homeless shelters, shelter or other, to which committed persons are released to from Department correctional institutions and facilities;

(C) committed persons in custody who have completed evidence-based programs, including:

(i) educational;

(ii) vocational;

(iii) chemical dependency;

(iv) sex offender treatment; or

(v) cognitive behavioral;

(D) committed persons who are being held in custody past their mandatory statutory release date and the reasons for their continued confinement;

(E) parole and mandatory supervised release revocation rate by county and reasons for revocation; and

(F) committed persons on parole or mandatory supervised release who have completed evidence-based programs, including:

(A) educational;

(B) vocational;

(C) chemical dependency;

(D) sex offender treatment; or

(E) cognitive behavioral; and

(2) data on the average daily population and vacancy rate of each Adult Transition Center and work camp.

(c) The data provided under subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be included in the Department of Corrections quarterly report to the General Assembly under Section 3-5-3.1 of this Code and shall include an aggregate chart at the agency level and individual reports by each correctional institution or facility of the Department of Corrections.

(d) The Director of Corrections shall ensure that the agency level data is reviewed by the Director's executive team on a quarterly basis. The correctional institution or facility's executive team and each chief administrative officer of the correctional institution or facility shall examine statewide and local data at least quarterly. During these reviews, each chief administrative officer shall:

(1) identify trends;

(2) develop action items to mitigate the root causes of violence; and

(3) establish committees at each correctional institution or facility which shall review the violence data on a quarterly basis and develop action plans to reduce violence. These plans shall include a wide range of strategies to incentivize good conduct.

(Source: P.A. 100-907, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-5-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-5-3.1)

Sec. 3-5-3.1. Report to the General Assembly.

(a) As used in this Section, "facility" includes any facility of the Department of Corrections.

(b) (a) The Department of Corrections shall, by January 1st, April 1st, July 1st, and October 1st of each year, electronically transmit to the General Assembly, a report which shall include the following information reflecting the period ending 30 days prior to the submission of the report:

(1) the number of residents in all Department facilities indicating the number of residents in each listed facility;

(2) a classification of each facility's residents by the nature of the offense for which each resident was committed to the Department;

(3) the number of residents in maximum, medium, and minimum security facilities indicating the classification of each facility's residents by the nature of the offense for which each resident was committed to the Department;

(4) the educational and vocational programs provided at each facility and the number of residents participating in each such program;

(5) the present design and rated capacity levels in each facility;

(6) the projected design and rated capacity of each facility six months and one year following each reporting date;

(7) the ratio of the security staff to residents in each facility;

(8) the ratio of total employees to residents in each facility;

(9) the number of residents in each facility that are single-celled and the number in each facility that are double-celled;

(10) information indicating the distribution of residents in each facility by the allocated floor space per resident;

(11) a status of all capital projects currently funded by the Department, location of each capital project, the projected on-line dates for each capital project, including phase-in dates and full occupancy dates;

(12) the projected adult prison facility populations of the Department for each of the succeeding twelve months following each reporting date, indicating all assumptions built into such population estimates;

(13) the projected exits and projected admissions in each facility for each of the succeeding twelve months following each reporting date, indicating all assumptions built into such population estimate;

(14) the locations of all Department-operated or contractually operated community correctional centers, including the present design and rated capacity and population levels at each facility;

(15) the number of reported assaults on employees at each facility;

(16) the number of reported incidents of resident sexual aggression towards employees at each facility including sexual assault, residents exposing themselves, sexual touching, and sexually offensive language; and

(17) the number of employee injuries resulting from resident violence at each facility including descriptions of the nature of the injuries, the number of injuries requiring medical treatment at the facility, the number of injuries requiring outside medical treatment, and the number of days off work per injury.

For purposes of this Section, the definition of assault on staff includes, but is not limited to, kicking, punching, knocking down, harming or threatening to harm with improvised weapons, or throwing urine or feces at staff.

The report shall also include the data collected under Section 3-2-12 of this Code in the manner required under that Section. The report to the General Assembly shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the Secretary shall direct.

(c) A copy of the report required under this Section shall be posted to the Department's Internet website at the time the report is submitted to the General Assembly.

(d) (b) The requirements in subsection (b) (a) do not relieve the Department from the recordkeeping requirements of the Occupational Safety and Health Act.

(e) (c) The Department shall:

(1) establish a reasonable procedure for employees to report work-related assaults and injuries. A procedure is not reasonable if it would deter or discourage a reasonable employee from accurately reporting a workplace assault or injury;

(2) inform each employee:

(A) of the procedure for reporting work-related assaults and injuries;

(B) of the right to report work-related assaults and injuries; and

(C) that the Department is prohibited from discharging or in any manner discriminating against employees for reporting work-related assaults and injuries; and

(3) not discharge, discipline, or in any manner discriminate against any employee for reporting a work-related assault or injury.

(Source: P.A. 99-255, eff. 1-1-16; 100-907, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1075, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-18-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-6-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-6-2)

Sec. 3-6-2. Institutions and facility administration.

(a) Each institution and facility of the Department shall be administered by a chief administrative officer appointed by the Director. A chief administrative officer shall be responsible for all persons assigned to the institution or facility. The chief administrative officer shall administer the programs of the Department for the custody and treatment of such persons.

(b) The chief administrative officer shall have such assistants as the Department may assign.

(c) The Director or Assistant Director shall have the emergency powers to temporarily transfer individuals without formal procedures to any State, county, municipal or regional correctional or detention institution or facility in the State, subject to the acceptance of such receiving institution or facility, or to designate any reasonably secure place in the State as such an institution or facility and to make transfers thereto. However, transfers made under emergency powers shall be reviewed as soon as practicable under Article 8, and shall be subject to Section 5-905 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This Section shall not apply to transfers to the Department of Human Services which are provided for under Section 3-8-5 or Section 3-10-5.

(d) The Department shall provide educational programs for all committed persons so that all persons have an opportunity to attain the achievement level equivalent to the completion of the twelfth grade in the public school system in this State. Other higher levels of attainment shall be encouraged and professional instruction shall be maintained wherever possible. The Department may establish programs of mandatory education and may establish rules and regulations for the administration of such programs. A person committed to the Department who, during the period of his or her incarceration, participates in an educational program provided by or through the Department and through that program is awarded or earns the number of hours of credit required for the award of an associate, baccalaureate, or higher degree from a community college, college, or university located in Illinois shall reimburse the State, through the Department, for the costs incurred by the State in providing that person during his or her incarceration with the education that qualifies him or her for the award of that degree. The costs for which reimbursement is required under this subsection shall be determined and computed by the Department under rules and regulations that it shall establish for that purpose. However, interest at the rate of 6% per annum shall be charged on the balance of those costs from time to time remaining unpaid, from the date of the person's parole, mandatory supervised release, or release constituting a final termination of his or her commitment to the Department until paid.

(d-5) A person committed to the Department is entitled to confidential testing for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and to counseling in connection with such testing, with no copay to the committed person. A person committed to the Department who has tested positive for infection with HIV is entitled to medical care while incarcerated, counseling, and referrals to support services, in connection with that positive test result. Implementation of this subsection (d-5) is subject to appropriation.

(e) A person committed to the Department who becomes in need of medical or surgical treatment but is incapable of giving consent thereto shall receive such medical or surgical treatment by the chief administrative officer consenting on the person's behalf. Before the chief administrative officer consents, he or she shall obtain the advice of one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in this State. If such physician or physicians advise:

(1) that immediate medical or surgical treatment is required relative to a condition threatening to cause death, damage or impairment to bodily functions, or disfigurement; and

(2) that the person is not capable of giving consent to such treatment; the chief administrative officer may give consent for such medical or surgical treatment, and such consent shall be deemed to be the consent of the person for all purposes, including, but not limited to, the authority of a physician to give such treatment.

(e-5) If a physician providing medical care to a committed person on behalf of the Department advises the chief administrative officer that the committed person's mental or physical health has deteriorated as a result of the cessation of ingestion of food or liquid to the point where medical or surgical treatment is required to prevent death, damage, or impairment to bodily functions, the chief administrative officer may authorize such medical or surgical treatment.

(f) In the event that the person requires medical care and treatment at a place other than the institution or facility, the person may be removed therefrom under conditions prescribed by the Department. The Department shall require the committed person receiving medical or dental services on a non-emergency basis to pay a $5 co-payment to the Department for each visit for medical or dental services. The amount of each co-payment shall be deducted from the committed person's individual account. A committed person who has a chronic illness, as defined by Department rules and regulations, shall be exempt from the $5 co-payment for treatment of the chronic illness. A committed person shall not be subject to a $5 co-payment for follow-up visits ordered by a physician, who is employed by, or contracts with, the Department. A committed person who is indigent is exempt from the $5 co-payment and is entitled to receive medical or dental services on the same basis as a committed person who is financially able to afford the co-payment. For purposes of this Section only, "indigent" means a committed person who has $20 or less in his or her Inmate Trust Fund at the time of such services and for the 30 days prior to such services. Notwithstanding any other provision in this subsection (f) to the contrary, any person committed to any facility operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice, as set forth in Section 3-2.5-15 of this Code, is exempt from the co-payment requirement for the duration of confinement in those facilities.

(f-5) The Department shall comply with the Health Care Violence Prevention Act.

(g) Any person having sole custody of a child at the time of commitment or any woman giving birth to a child after her commitment, may arrange through the Department of Children and Family Services for suitable placement of the child outside of the Department of Corrections. The Director of the Department of Corrections may determine that there are special reasons why the child should continue in the custody of the mother until the child is 6 years old.

(h) The Department may provide Family Responsibility Services which may consist of, but not be limited to the following:

(1) family advocacy counseling;

(2) parent self-help group;

(3) parenting skills training;

(4) parent and child overnight program;

(5) parent and child reunification counseling, either separately or together, preceding the inmate's release; and

(6) a prerelease reunification staffing involving the family advocate, the inmate and the child's counselor, or both and the inmate.

(i) (Blank).

(j) Any person convicted of a sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to receive a sex offender evaluation prior to release into the community from the Department of Corrections. The sex offender evaluation shall be conducted in conformance with the standards and guidelines developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act and by an evaluator approved by the Board.

(k) Any minor committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice for a sex offense as defined by the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to undergo sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(l) Prior to the release of any inmate committed to a facility of the Department or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department must provide the inmate with appropriate information verbally, in writing, by video, or other electronic means, concerning HIV and AIDS. The Department shall develop the informational materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the Department must also offer the committed person the option of testing for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), with no copayment for the test. Pre-test information shall be provided to the committed person and informed consent obtained as required in subsection (d) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Department may conduct opt-out HIV testing as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The Department shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other information may be provided by committed persons who have received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test result is available to the Department electronically. The testing provided under this subsection (l) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

Prior to the release of an inmate who the Department knows has tested positive for infection with HIV, the Department in a timely manner shall offer the inmate transitional case management, including referrals to other support services.

(m) The chief administrative officer of each institution or facility of the Department shall make a room in the institution or facility available for substance use disorder services to be provided to committed persons on a voluntary basis. The services shall be provided for one hour once a week at a time specified by the chief administrative officer of the institution or facility if the following conditions are met:

(1) the substance use disorder service contacts the chief administrative officer to arrange the meeting;

(2) the committed person may attend the meeting for substance use disorder services only if the committed person uses pre-existing free time already available to the committed person;

(3) all disciplinary and other rules of the institution or facility remain in effect;

(4) the committed person is not given any additional privileges to attend substance use disorder services;

(5) if the substance use disorder service does not arrange for scheduling a meeting for that week, no substance use disorder services shall be provided to the committed person in the institution or facility for that week;

(6) the number of committed persons who may attend a substance use disorder meeting shall not exceed 40 during any session held at the correctional institution or facility;

(7) a volunteer seeking to provide substance use disorder services under this subsection (m) must submit an application to the Department of Corrections under existing Department rules and the Department must review the application within 60 days after submission of the application to the Department; and

(8) each institution and facility of the Department shall manage the substance use disorder services program according to its own processes and procedures.

For the purposes of this subsection (m), "substance use disorder services" means recovery services for persons with substance use disorders provided by volunteers of recovery support services recognized by the Department of Human Services.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-1051, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-2)

Sec. 3-10-2. Examination of persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(a) A person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice shall be examined in regard to his medical, psychological, social, educational and vocational condition and history, including the use of alcohol and other drugs, the circumstances of his offense and any other information as the Department of Juvenile Justice may determine.

(a-5) Upon admission of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must provide the person with appropriate information concerning HIV and AIDS in writing, verbally, or by video or other electronic means. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall develop the informational materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the Department of Juvenile Justice also must offer the person the option of being tested, at no charge to the person, for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Pre-test information shall be provided to the committed person and informed consent obtained as required in subsection (q) of Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The Department of Juvenile Justice may conduct opt-out HIV testing as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The Department shall follow procedures established by the Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other information may be provided by committed persons who have received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test result is available to the Department electronically. The testing provided under this subsection (a-5) shall consist of a test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall be administered.

Also, upon the admission of a person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must inform the person of the Department's obligation to provide the person with medical care.

(b) Based on its examination, the Department of Juvenile Justice may exercise the following powers in developing a treatment program of any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice:

(1) Require participation by him in vocational, physical, educational and corrective training and activities to return him to the community.

(2) Place him in any institution or facility of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(3) Order replacement or referral to the Parole and Pardon Board as often as it deems desirable. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall refer the person to the Parole and Pardon Board as required under Section 3-3-4.

(4) Enter into agreements with the Secretary of Human Services and the Director of Children and Family Services, with courts having probation officers, and with private agencies or institutions for separate care or special treatment of persons subject to the control of the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall make periodic reexamination of all persons under the control of the Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether existing orders in individual cases should be modified or continued. This examination shall be made with respect to every person at least once annually.

(d) A record of the treatment decision, including any modification thereof and the reason therefor, shall be part of the committed person's master record file.

(e) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall by regular mail and telephone or electronic message notify the parent, guardian, or nearest relative of any person committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice of his or her physical location and any change of his or her physical location.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-19, eff. 1-1-18; 100-700, eff. 8-3-18; revised 10-9-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-2-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-2-4)

Sec. 5-2-4. Proceedings after acquittal by reason of insanity.

(a) After a finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity under Sections 104-25, 115-3, or 115-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the defendant shall be ordered to the Department of Human Services for an evaluation as to whether he is in need of mental health services. The order shall specify whether the evaluation shall be conducted on an inpatient or outpatient basis. If the evaluation is to be conducted on an inpatient basis, the defendant shall be placed in a secure setting. With the court order for evaluation shall be sent a copy of the arrest report, criminal charges, arrest record, jail record, any report prepared under Section 115-6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and any statement prepared under Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The clerk of the circuit court shall transmit this information to the Department within 5 days. If the court orders that the evaluation be done on an inpatient basis, the Department shall evaluate the defendant to determine to which secure facility the defendant shall be transported and, within 20 days of the transmittal by the clerk of the circuit court of the placement court order, notify the sheriff of the designated facility. Upon receipt of that notice, the sheriff shall promptly transport the defendant to the designated facility. During the period of time required to determine the appropriate placement, the defendant shall remain in jail. If, within 20 days of the transmittal by the clerk of the circuit court of the placement court order, the Department fails to notify the sheriff of the identity of the facility to which the defendant shall be transported, the sheriff shall contact a designated person within the Department to inquire about when a placement will become available at the designated facility and bed availability at other facilities. If, within 20 days of the transmittal by the clerk of the circuit court of the placement court order, the Department fails to notify the sheriff of the identity of the facility to which the defendant shall be transported, the sheriff shall notify the Department of its intent to transfer the defendant to the nearest secure mental health facility operated by the Department and inquire as to the status of the placement evaluation and availability for admission to the facility operated by the Department by contacting a designated person within the Department. The Department shall respond to the sheriff within 2 business days of the notice and inquiry by the sheriff seeking the transfer and the Department shall provide the sheriff with the status of the placement evaluation, information on bed and placement availability, and an estimated date of admission for the defendant and any changes to that estimated date of admission. If the Department notifies the sheriff during the 2 business day period of a facility operated by the Department with placement availability, the sheriff shall promptly transport the defendant to that facility. Individualized placement evaluations by the Department of Human Services determine the most appropriate setting for forensic treatment based upon a number of factors including mental health diagnosis, proximity to surviving victims, security need, age, gender, and proximity to family.

The Department shall provide the Court with a report of its evaluation within 30 days of the date of this order. The Court shall hold a hearing as provided under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine if the individual is: (a) in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; (b) in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis; (c) a person not in need of mental health services. The court shall afford the victim the opportunity to make a written or oral statement as guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral statement. An oral statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of the this Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. The court shall consider any statement presented along with all other appropriate factors in determining the sentence of the defendant or disposition of the juvenile. All statements shall become part of the record of the court.

If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall order the defendant to the Department of Human Services. The defendant shall be placed in a secure setting. Such defendants placed in a secure setting shall not be permitted outside the facility's housing unit unless escorted or accompanied by personnel of the Department of Human Services or with the prior approval of the Court for unsupervised on-grounds privileges as provided herein. Any defendant placed in a secure setting pursuant to this Section, transported to court hearings or other necessary appointments off facility grounds by personnel of the Department of Human Services, shall be placed in security devices or otherwise secured during the period of transportation to assure secure transport of the defendant and the safety of Department of Human Services personnel and others. These security measures shall not constitute restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services, but not on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall conditionally release the defendant, under such conditions as set forth in this Section as will reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress and participation in treatment or rehabilitation and the safety of the defendant, the victim, the victim's family members, and others. If the Court finds the person not in need of mental health services, then the Court shall order the defendant discharged from custody.

(a-1) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(A) (Blank).

(B) "In need of mental health services on an inpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity but who, due to mental illness, is reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another and who would benefit from inpatient care or is in need of inpatient care.

(C) "In need of mental health services on an outpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity who is not in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, but is in need of outpatient care, drug and/or alcohol rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, or family therapy, or chemotherapy.

(D) "Conditional Release" means: the release from either the custody of the Department of Human Services or the custody of the Court of a person who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity under such conditions as the Court may impose which reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment or habilitation and the safety of the defendant, the victim, the victim's family, and others. The Court shall consider such terms and conditions which may include, but need not be limited to, outpatient care, alcoholic and drug rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, family, and chemotherapy, random testing to ensure the defendant's timely and continuous taking of any medicines prescribed to control or manage his or her conduct or mental state, and periodic checks with the legal authorities and/or the Department of Human Services. The Court may order as a condition of conditional release that the defendant not contact the victim of the offense that resulted in the finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity or any other person. The Court may order the Department of Human Services to provide care to any person conditionally released under this Section. The Department may contract with any public or private agency in order to discharge any responsibilities imposed under this Section. The Department shall monitor the provision of services to persons conditionally released under this Section and provide periodic reports to the Court concerning the services and the condition of the defendant. Whenever a person is conditionally released pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney for the county in which the hearing is held shall designate in writing the name, telephone number, and address of a person employed by him or her who shall be notified in the event that either the reporting agency or the Department decides that the conditional release of the defendant should be revoked or modified pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section. Such conditional release shall be for a period of five years. However, the defendant, the person or facility rendering the treatment, therapy, program or outpatient care, the Department, or the State's Attorney may petition the Court for an extension of the conditional release period for an additional 5 years. Upon receipt of such a petition, the Court shall hold a hearing consistent with the provisions of paragraph (a), this paragraph (a-1), and paragraph (f) of this Section, shall determine whether the defendant should continue to be subject to the terms of conditional release, and shall enter an order either extending the defendant's period of conditional release for an additional 5-year period or discharging the defendant. Additional 5-year periods of conditional release may be ordered following a hearing as provided in this Section. However, in no event shall the defendant's period of conditional release continue beyond the maximum period of commitment ordered by the Court pursuant to paragraph (b) of this Section. These provisions for extension of conditional release shall only apply to defendants conditionally released on or after August 8, 2003. However, the extension provisions of Public Act 83-1449 apply only to defendants charged with a forcible felony.

(E) "Facility director" means the chief officer of a mental health or developmental disabilities facility or his or her designee or the supervisor of a program of treatment or habilitation or his or her designee. "Designee" may include a physician, clinical psychologist, social worker, nurse, or clinical professional counselor.

(b) If the Court finds the defendant in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, the admission, detention, care, treatment or habilitation, treatment plans, review proceedings, including review of treatment and treatment plans, and discharge of the defendant after such order shall be under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, except that the initial order for admission of a defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity shall be for an indefinite period of time. Such period of commitment shall not exceed the maximum length of time that the defendant would have been required to serve, less credit for good behavior as provided in Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, before becoming eligible for release had he been convicted of and received the maximum sentence for the most serious crime for which he has been acquitted by reason of insanity. The Court shall determine the maximum period of commitment by an appropriate order. During this period of time, the defendant shall not be permitted to be in the community in any manner, including, but not limited to, off-grounds privileges, with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services, unsupervised on-grounds privileges, discharge or conditional or temporary release, except by a plan as provided in this Section. In no event shall a defendant's continued unauthorized absence be a basis for discharge. Not more than 30 days after admission and every 90 days thereafter so long as the initial order remains in effect, the facility director shall file a treatment plan report in writing with the court and forward a copy of the treatment plan report to the clerk of the court, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney, if the defendant is represented by counsel, or to a person authorized by the defendant under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to be sent a copy of the report. The report shall include an opinion as to whether the defendant is currently in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis or in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis. The report shall also summarize the basis for those findings and provide a current summary of the following items from the treatment plan: (1) an assessment of the defendant's treatment needs, (2) a description of the services recommended for treatment, (3) the goals of each type of element of service, (4) an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and (5) a designation of the qualified professional responsible for the implementation of the plan. The report may also include unsupervised on-grounds privileges, off-grounds privileges (with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services), home visits and participation in work programs, but only where such privileges have been approved by specific court order, which order may include such conditions on the defendant as the Court may deem appropriate and necessary to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and the safety of the defendant and others.

(c) Every defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity and subsequently found to be in need of mental health services shall be represented by counsel in all proceedings under this Section and under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(1) The Court shall appoint as counsel the public defender or an attorney licensed by this State.

(2) Upon filing with the Court of a verified statement of legal services rendered by the private attorney appointed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Court shall determine a reasonable fee for such services. If the defendant is unable to pay the fee, the Court shall enter an order upon the State to pay the entire fee or such amount as the defendant is unable to pay from funds appropriated by the General Assembly for that purpose.

(d) When the facility director determines that:

(1) the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; and

(2) the defendant may be conditionally released because he or she is still in need of mental health services or that the defendant may be discharged as not in need of any mental health services; or

(3) (blank);

the facility director shall give written notice to the Court, State's Attorney and defense attorney. Such notice shall set forth in detail the basis for the recommendation of the facility director, and specify clearly the recommendations, if any, of the facility director, concerning conditional release. Any recommendation for conditional release shall include an evaluation of the defendant's need for psychotropic medication, what provisions should be made, if any, to ensure that the defendant will continue to receive psychotropic medication following discharge, and what provisions should be made to assure the safety of the defendant and others in the event the defendant is no longer receiving psychotropic medication. Within 30 days of the notification by the facility director, the Court shall set a hearing and make a finding as to whether the defendant is:

(i) (blank); or

(ii) in need of mental health services in the form of inpatient care; or

(iii) in need of mental health services but not subject to inpatient care; or

(iv) no longer in need of mental health services; or

(v) (blank).

A crime victim shall be allowed to present an oral and written statement. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral statement. An oral statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. All statements shall become part of the record of the court.

Upon finding by the Court, the Court shall enter its findings and such appropriate order as provided in subsections (a) and (a-1) of this Section.

(e) A defendant admitted pursuant to this Section, or any person on his behalf, may file a petition for treatment plan review or discharge or conditional release under the standards of this Section in the Court which rendered the verdict. Upon receipt of a petition for treatment plan review or discharge or conditional release, the Court shall set a hearing to be held within 120 days. Thereafter, no new petition may be filed for 180 days without leave of the Court.

(f) The Court shall direct that notice of the time and place of the hearing be served upon the defendant, the facility director, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney. If requested by either the State or the defense or if the Court feels it is appropriate, an impartial examination of the defendant by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code who is not in the employ of the Department of Human Services shall be ordered, and the report considered at the time of the hearing.

(g) The findings of the Court shall be established by clear and convincing evidence. The burden of proof and the burden of going forth with the evidence rest with the defendant or any person on the defendant's behalf when a hearing is held to review a petition filed by or on behalf of the defendant. The evidence shall be presented in open Court with the right of confrontation and cross-examination. Such evidence may include, but is not limited to:

(1) whether the defendant appreciates the harm caused by the defendant to others and the community by his or her prior conduct that resulted in the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity;

(2) Whether the person appreciates the criminality of conduct similar to the conduct for which he or she was originally charged in this matter;

(3) the current state of the defendant's illness;

(4) what, if any, medications the defendant is taking to control his or her mental illness;

(5) what, if any, adverse physical side effects the medication has on the defendant;

(6) the length of time it would take for the defendant's mental health to deteriorate if the defendant stopped taking prescribed medication;

(7) the defendant's history or potential for alcohol and drug abuse;

(8) the defendant's past criminal history;

(9) any specialized physical or medical needs of the defendant;

(10) any family participation or involvement expected upon release and what is the willingness and ability of the family to participate or be involved;

(11) the defendant's potential to be a danger to himself, herself, or others;

(11.5) a written or oral statement made by the victim; and

(12) any other factor or factors the Court deems appropriate.

(h) Before the court orders that the defendant be discharged or conditionally released, it shall order the facility director to establish a discharge plan that includes a plan for the defendant's shelter, support, and medication. If appropriate, the court shall order that the facility director establish a program to train the defendant in self-medication under standards established by the Department of Human Services. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services it shall order the facility director to discharge the defendant. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is in need of mental health services, and no longer in need of inpatient care, it shall order the facility director to release the defendant under such conditions as the Court deems appropriate and as provided by this Section. Such conditional release shall be imposed for a period of 5 years as provided in paragraph (D) of subsection (a-1) and shall be subject to later modification by the Court as provided by this Section. If the Court finds consistent with the provisions in this Section that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall order the facility director not to discharge or release the defendant in accordance with paragraph (b) of this Section.

(i) If within the period of the defendant's conditional release the State's Attorney determines that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of his or her release, the State's Attorney may petition the Court to revoke or modify the conditional release of the defendant. Upon the filing of such petition the defendant may be remanded to the custody of the Department, or to any other mental health facility designated by the Department, pending the resolution of the petition. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the emergency admission of a defendant pursuant to Article VI of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the voluntary admission of the defendant pursuant to Article IV of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the Court determines, after hearing evidence, that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of release, the Court shall order a hearing to be held consistent with the provisions of paragraph (f) and (g) of this Section. At such hearing, if the Court finds that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall enter an order remanding him or her to the Department of Human Services or other facility. If the defendant is remanded to the Department of Human Services, he or she shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons that such placement is not necessary. If the Court finds that the defendant continues to be in need of mental health services but not on an inpatient basis, it may modify the conditions of the original release in order to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and his or her safety and the safety of others in accordance with the standards established in paragraph (D) of subsection (a-1). Nothing in this Section shall limit a Court's contempt powers or any other powers of a Court.

(j) An order of admission under this Section does not affect the remedy of habeas corpus.

(k) In the event of a conflict between this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the provisions of this Section shall govern.

(l) Public Act 90-593 shall apply to all persons who have been found not guilty by reason of insanity and who are presently committed to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (now the Department of Human Services).

(m) The Clerk of the Court shall transmit a certified copy of the order of discharge or conditional release to the Department of Human Services, to the sheriff of the county from which the defendant was admitted, to the Illinois Department of State Police, to the proper law enforcement agency for the municipality where the offense took place, and to the sheriff of the county into which the defendant is conditionally discharged. The Illinois Department of State Police shall maintain a centralized record of discharged or conditionally released defendants while they are under court supervision for access and use of appropriate law enforcement agencies.

(n) The provisions in this Section which allows a crime victim to make a written and oral statement do not apply if the defendant was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed.

(o) If any provision of this Section or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision does not affect any other provision or application of this Section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

(Source: P.A. 100-27, eff. 1-1-18; 100-424, eff. 1-1-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-961, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-2-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-2-6)

Sec. 5-2-6. Sentencing and treatment of defendant found guilty but mentally ill.

(a) After a plea or verdict of guilty but mentally ill under Section Sections 115-2, 115-3, or 115-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the court shall order a presentence investigation and report pursuant to Sections 5-3-1 and 5-3-2 of this Act, and shall set a date for a sentencing hearing. The court may impose any sentence upon the defendant which could be imposed pursuant to law upon a defendant who had been convicted of the same offense without a finding of mental illness.

(b) If the court imposes a sentence of imprisonment upon a defendant who has been found guilty but mentally ill, the defendant shall be committed to the Department of Corrections, which shall cause periodic inquiry and examination to be made concerning the nature, extent, continuance, and treatment of the defendant's mental illness. The Department of Corrections shall provide such psychiatric, psychological, or other counseling and treatment for the defendant as it determines necessary.

(c) The Department of Corrections may transfer the defendant's custody to the Department of Human Services in accordance with the provisions of Section 3-8-5 of this Act.

(d) (1) The Department of Human Services shall return to the Department of Corrections any person committed to it pursuant to this Section whose sentence has not expired and whom the Department of Human Services deems no longer requires hospitalization for mental treatment, an intellectual disability, or a substance use disorder as defined in Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act..

(2) The Department of Corrections shall notify the Secretary of Human Services of the expiration of the sentence of any person transferred to the Department of Human Services under this Section. If the Department of Human Services determines that any such person requires further hospitalization, it shall file an appropriate petition for involuntary commitment pursuant to the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(e) (1) All persons found guilty but mentally ill, whether by plea or by verdict, who are placed on probation or sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment or a period of conditional discharge shall be required to submit to a course of mental treatment prescribed by the sentencing court.

(2) The course of treatment prescribed by the court shall reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment or habilitation and for the safety of the defendant and others. The court shall consider terms, conditions and supervision which may include, but need not be limited to, notification and discharge of the person to the custody of his family, community adjustment programs, periodic checks with legal authorities and outpatient care and utilization of local mental health or developmental disabilities facilities.

(3) Failure to continue treatment, except by agreement with the treating person or agency and the court, shall be a basis for the institution of probation revocation proceedings.

(4) The period of probation shall be in accordance with Article 4.5 of Chapter V of this Code and shall not be shortened without receipt and consideration of such psychiatric or psychological report or reports as the court may require.

(Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-4-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-4-1)

Sec. 5-4-1. Sentencing hearing.

(a) Except when the death penalty is sought under hearing procedures otherwise specified, after a determination of guilt, a hearing shall be held to impose the sentence. However, prior to the imposition of sentence on an individual being sentenced for an offense based upon a charge for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the individual must undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol or other drug abuse problem exists and the extent of such a problem. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. However, if the individual is not a resident of Illinois, the court may, in its discretion, accept an evaluation from a program in the state of such individual's residence. The court may in its sentencing order approve an eligible defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections impact incarceration program as provided in Section 5-8-1.1 or 5-8-1.3. The court may in its sentencing order recommend a defendant for placement in a Department of Corrections substance abuse treatment program as provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of Section 3-2-2 conditioned upon the defendant being accepted in a program by the Department of Corrections. At the hearing the court shall:

(1) consider the evidence, if any, received upon the trial;

(2) consider any presentence reports;

(3) consider the financial impact of incarceration based on the financial impact statement filed with the clerk of the court by the Department of Corrections;

(4) consider evidence and information offered by the parties in aggravation and mitigation;

(4.5) consider substance abuse treatment, eligibility screening, and an assessment, if any, of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(5) hear arguments as to sentencing alternatives;

(6) afford the defendant the opportunity to make a statement in his own behalf;

(7) afford the victim of a violent crime or a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the opportunity to present an oral or written statement, as guaranteed by Article I, Section 8.1 of the Illinois Constitution and provided in Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The court shall allow a victim to make an oral statement if the victim is present in the courtroom and requests to make an oral or written statement. An oral or written statement includes the victim or a representative of the victim reading the written statement. The court may allow persons impacted by the crime who are not victims under subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act to present an oral or written statement. A victim and any person making an oral statement shall not be put under oath or subject to cross-examination. All statements offered under this paragraph (7) shall become part of the record of the court. In this paragraph (7), "victim of a violent crime" means a person who is a victim of a violent crime for which the defendant has been convicted after a bench or jury trial or a person who is the victim of a violent crime with which the defendant was charged and the defendant has been convicted under a plea agreement of a crime that is not a violent crime as defined in subsection (c) of 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act;

(7.5) afford a qualified person affected by: (i) a violation of Section 405, 405.1, 405.2, or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or a violation of Section 55 or Section 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or (ii) a Class 4 felony violation of Section 11-14, 11-14.3 except as described in subdivisions (a)(2)(A) and (a)(2)(B), 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, or 11-19 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, committed by the defendant the opportunity to make a statement concerning the impact on the qualified person and to offer evidence in aggravation or mitigation; provided that the statement and evidence offered in aggravation or mitigation shall first be prepared in writing in conjunction with the State's Attorney before it may be presented orally at the hearing. Sworn testimony offered by the qualified person is subject to the defendant's right to cross-examine. All statements and evidence offered under this paragraph (7.5) shall become part of the record of the court. In this paragraph (7.5), "qualified person" means any person who: (i) lived or worked within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place; or (ii) is familiar with various public places within the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place. "Qualified person" includes any peace officer or any member of any duly organized State, county, or municipal peace officer unit assigned to the territorial jurisdiction where the offense took place when the offense took place;

(8) in cases of reckless homicide afford the victim's spouse, guardians, parents or other immediate family members an opportunity to make oral statements;

(9) in cases involving a felony sex offense as defined under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, consider the results of the sex offender evaluation conducted pursuant to Section 5-3-2 of this Act; and

(10) make a finding of whether a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced.

(b) All sentences shall be imposed by the judge based upon his independent assessment of the elements specified above and any agreement as to sentence reached by the parties. The judge who presided at the trial or the judge who accepted the plea of guilty shall impose the sentence unless he is no longer sitting as a judge in that court. Where the judge does not impose sentence at the same time on all defendants who are convicted as a result of being involved in the same offense, the defendant or the State's Attorney may advise the sentencing court of the disposition of any other defendants who have been sentenced.

(b-1) In imposing a sentence of imprisonment or periodic imprisonment for a Class 3 or Class 4 felony for which a sentence of probation or conditional discharge is an available sentence, if the defendant has no prior sentence of probation or conditional discharge and no prior conviction for a violent crime, the defendant shall not be sentenced to imprisonment before review and consideration of a presentence report and determination and explanation of why the particular evidence, information, factor in aggravation, factual finding, or other reasons support a sentencing determination that one or more of the factors under subsection (a) of Section 5-6-1 of this Code apply and that probation or conditional discharge is not an appropriate sentence.

(c) In imposing a sentence for a violent crime or for an offense of operating or being in physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other drug or any combination thereof, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, when such offense resulted in the personal injury to someone other than the defendant, the trial judge shall specify on the record the particular evidence, information, factors in mitigation and aggravation or other reasons that led to his sentencing determination. The full verbatim record of the sentencing hearing shall be filed with the clerk of the court and shall be a public record.

(c-1) In imposing a sentence for the offense of aggravated kidnapping for ransom, home invasion, armed robbery, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated discharge of a firearm, or armed violence with a category I weapon or category II weapon, the trial judge shall make a finding as to whether the conduct leading to conviction for the offense resulted in great bodily harm to a victim, and shall enter that finding and the basis for that finding in the record.

(c-2) If the defendant is sentenced to prison, other than when a sentence of natural life imprisonment or a sentence of death is imposed, at the time the sentence is imposed the judge shall state on the record in open court the approximate period of time the defendant will serve in custody according to the then current statutory rules and regulations for sentence credit found in Section 3-6-3 and other related provisions of this Code. This statement is intended solely to inform the public, has no legal effect on the defendant's actual release, and may not be relied on by the defendant on appeal.

The judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, other than when the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(4) of Section 3-6-3, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, assuming the defendant receives all of his or her sentence credit, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months, less up to 180 days additional earned sentence credit. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations, does not receive those credits, the actual time served in prison will be longer. The defendant may also receive an additional one-half day sentence credit for each day of participation in vocational, industry, substance abuse, and educational programs as provided for by Illinois statute."

When the sentence is imposed for one of the offenses enumerated in paragraph (a)(2) of Section 3-6-3, other than first degree murder, and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, and when the sentence is imposed for reckless homicide as defined in subsection (e) of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the offense was committed on or after January 1, 1999, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated arson if the offense was committed on or after July 27, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-176), and when the sentence is imposed for aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof as defined in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed on or after January 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1230), the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is entitled to no more than 4 1/2 days of sentence credit for each month of his or her sentence of imprisonment. Therefore, this defendant will serve at least 85% of his or her sentence. Assuming the defendant receives 4 1/2 days credit for each month of his or her sentence, the period of estimated actual custody is ... years and ... months. If the defendant, because of his or her own misconduct or failure to comply with the institutional regulations receives lesser credit, the actual time served in prison will be longer."

When a sentence of imprisonment is imposed for first degree murder and the offense was committed on or after June 19, 1998, the judge's statement, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant is not entitled to sentence credit. Therefore, this defendant will serve 100% of his or her sentence."

When the sentencing order recommends placement in a substance abuse program for any offense that results in incarceration in a Department of Corrections facility and the crime was committed on or after September 1, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-354), the judge's statement, in addition to any other judge's statement required under this Section, to be given after pronouncing the sentence, shall include the following:

"The purpose of this statement is to inform the public of the actual period of time this defendant is likely to spend in prison as a result of this sentence. The actual period of prison time served is determined by the statutes of Illinois as applied to this sentence by the Illinois Department of Corrections and the Illinois Prisoner Review Board. In this case, the defendant shall receive no earned sentence credit under clause (3) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3 until he or she participates in and completes a substance abuse treatment program or receives a waiver from the Director of Corrections pursuant to clause (4.5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3."

(c-4) Before the sentencing hearing and as part of the presentence investigation under Section 5-3-1, the court shall inquire of the defendant whether the defendant is currently serving in or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States. If the defendant is currently serving in the Armed Forces of the United States or is a veteran of the Armed Forces of the United States and has been diagnosed as having a mental illness by a qualified psychiatrist or clinical psychologist or physician, the court may:

(1) order that the officer preparing the presentence report consult with the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs, or another agency or person with suitable knowledge or experience for the purpose of providing the court with information regarding treatment options available to the defendant, including federal, State, and local programming; and

(2) consider the treatment recommendations of any diagnosing or treating mental health professionals together with the treatment options available to the defendant in imposing sentence.

For the purposes of this subsection (c-4), "qualified psychiatrist" means a reputable physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all its branches, who has specialized in the diagnosis and treatment of mental and nervous disorders for a period of not less than 5 years.

(c-6) In imposing a sentence, the trial judge shall specify, on the record, the particular evidence and other reasons which led to his or her determination that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense.

(d) When the defendant is committed to the Department of Corrections, the State's Attorney shall and counsel for the defendant may file a statement with the clerk of the court to be transmitted to the department, agency or institution to which the defendant is committed to furnish such department, agency or institution with the facts and circumstances of the offense for which the person was committed together with all other factual information accessible to them in regard to the person prior to his commitment relative to his habits, associates, disposition and reputation and any other facts and circumstances which may aid such department, agency or institution during its custody of such person. The clerk shall within 10 days after receiving any such statements transmit a copy to such department, agency or institution and a copy to the other party, provided, however, that this shall not be cause for delay in conveying the person to the department, agency or institution to which he has been committed.

(e) The clerk of the court shall transmit to the department, agency or institution, if any, to which the defendant is committed, the following:

(1) the sentence imposed;

(2) any statement by the court of the basis for imposing the sentence;

(3) any presentence reports;

(3.5) any sex offender evaluations;

(3.6) any substance abuse treatment eligibility screening and assessment of the defendant by an agent designated by the State of Illinois to provide assessment services for the Illinois courts;

(4) the number of days, if any, which the defendant has been in custody and for which he is entitled to credit against the sentence, which information shall be provided to the clerk by the sheriff;

(4.1) any finding of great bodily harm made by the court with respect to an offense enumerated in subsection (c-1);

(5) all statements filed under subsection (d) of this Section;

(6) any medical or mental health records or summaries of the defendant;

(7) the municipality where the arrest of the offender or the commission of the offense has occurred, where such municipality has a population of more than 25,000 persons;

(8) all statements made and evidence offered under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of this Section; and

(9) all additional matters which the court directs the clerk to transmit.

(f) In cases in which the court finds that a motor vehicle was used in the commission of the offense for which the defendant is being sentenced, the clerk of the court shall, within 5 days thereafter, forward a report of such conviction to the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 99-861, eff. 1-1-17; 99-938, eff. 1-1-18; 100-961, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-3)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing fentanyl or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) (Blank).

(F) A Class 1 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 1 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 1 or greater felony) classified as a Class 1 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(F-3) A Class 2 or greater felony sex offense or felony firearm offense if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) (Blank).

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(EE) A conviction for a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 24-3B of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of this the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of this the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of high school equivalency testing. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional earned sentence credit as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person has a substance use disorder, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, to a treatment program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-885, eff. 8-23-16; 99-938, eff. 1-1-18; 100-575, eff. 1-8-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-12-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-987)

Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.

(a) (Blank).

(b) (Blank).

(c) (1) (Blank).

(2) A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with such term of imprisonment:

(A) First degree murder where the death penalty is not imposed.

(B) Attempted first degree murder.

(C) A Class X felony.

(D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of subdivision (c)(1.5) of Section 401 of that Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance containing fentanyl or an analog thereof.

(D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing heroin or an analog thereof.

(E) (Blank).

(F) A Class 1 or greater felony if the offender had been convicted of a Class 1 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 1 or greater felony) classified as a Class 1 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(F-3) A Class 2 or greater felony sex offense or felony firearm offense if the offender had been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony, including any state or federal conviction for an offense that contained, at the time it was committed, the same elements as an offense now (the date of the offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, within 10 years of the date on which the offender committed the offense for which he or she is being sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in those Sections.

(G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise provided in Section 40-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act.

(H) Criminal sexual assault.

(I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to the activities of an organized gang.

Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that encourages members of the association to perpetrate crimes or provides support to the members of the association who do commit crimes.

Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(K) Vehicular hijacking.

(L) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated assault or felony mob action.

(M) A second or subsequent conviction for the offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the property exceeds $300.

(N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(S) (Blank).

(T) (Blank).

(U) A second or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of another state.

(V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c) of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13 years of age and the defendant has previously been convicted under the laws of this State or any other state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault, indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated indecent liberties with a child where the victim was under the age of 18 years or an offense that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition.

(Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was serving a term of probation or conditional discharge for a felony.

(AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not exceeding $1,000,000 in value.

(BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of a value exceeding $500,000.

(CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or counterfeit items having a retail value in the aggregate of $500,000 or more.

(DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the firearm is being used.

(EE) A conviction for a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 24-3B of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(3) (Blank).

(4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.1) (Blank).

(4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8) of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6), and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of community service hours for participation in activities and treatment as determined by court services.

(4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service, shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (b-5) of that Section.

(4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date of his or her release from prison.

(4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of his or her life.

(5) The court may sentence a corporation or unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:

(A) a period of conditional discharge;

(B) a fine;

(C) make restitution to the victim under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.

(5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted in damage to the property of another person.

(5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted in injury to another person.

(5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another person.

(5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a previous violation of that Section shall have his or her driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an additional 6 months after the expiration of the original 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.

(6) (Blank).

(7) (Blank).

(8) (Blank).

(9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.

(10) (Blank).

(11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision for battery when the individual harmed was a sports official or coach at any level of competition and the act causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred within an athletic facility or within the immediate vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports official or coach was an active participant of the athletic contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest, such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that conducted the sporting event.

(12) A person may not receive a disposition of court supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously received a disposition of court supervision for a violation of that Section.

(13) A person convicted of or placed on court supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the victim and the offender are family or household members as defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes shall be paid by the offender.

(d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of this the Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of this the Unified Code of Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State files notice of its intention to again seek the extended sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.

(e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence of probation only where:

(1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

(A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2 years; or

(B) the defendant is willing to participate in a court approved plan including but not limited to the defendant's:

(i) removal from the household;

(ii) restricted contact with the victim;

(iii) continued financial support of the family;

(iv) restitution for harm done to the victim; and

(v) compliance with any other measures that the court may deem appropriate; and

(2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court finds, after considering the defendant's income and assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age at the time the offense was committed and requires counseling as a result of the offense.

Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section 5-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation restricting contact with the victim or other family members or commits another offense with the victim or other family members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and impose a term of imprisonment.

For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and "victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually transmissible disease, including a test for infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test results. The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.

(h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the public, the judge shall have the discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of a positive test showing an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against the convicted defendant.

(i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act.

(j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9, 11-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to the appropriate regional superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any notification under this subsection.

(j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program offered by the Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the educational training required by his or her sentence during the term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a condition of mandatory supervised release, require the defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of study toward a high school diploma or passage of high school equivalency testing. The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney, hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent to be deported when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as provided in this Chapter V.

(B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his or her designated agent when:

(1) a final order of deportation has been issued against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

(2) the deportation of the defendant would not deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.

(C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.

(D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to the custody of the county from which he or she was sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be eligible for additional earned sentence credit as provided under Section 3-6-3.

(m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup, removal, or painting over the defacement.

(n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service, or (iii) if the person has a substance use disorder, as defined in the Substance Use Disorder Act, to a treatment program licensed under that Act.

(o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of license renewal established by the Secretary of State.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-885, eff. 8-23-16; 99-938, eff. 1-1-18; 100-575, eff. 1-8-18; 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-12-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-5-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-6)

Sec. 5-5-6. In all convictions for offenses in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code in which the person received any injury to his or her person or damage to his or her real or personal property as a result of the criminal act of the defendant, the court shall order restitution as provided in this Section. In all other cases, except cases in which restitution is required under this Section, the court must at the sentence hearing determine whether restitution is an appropriate sentence to be imposed on each defendant convicted of an offense. If the court determines that an order directing the offender to make restitution is appropriate, the offender may be sentenced to make restitution. The court may consider restitution an appropriate sentence to be imposed on each defendant convicted of an offense in addition to a sentence of imprisonment. The sentence of the defendant to a term of imprisonment is not a mitigating factor that prevents the court from ordering the defendant to pay restitution. If the offender is sentenced to make restitution the Court shall determine the restitution as hereinafter set forth:

(a) At the sentence hearing, the court shall determine whether the property may be restored in kind to the possession of the owner or the person entitled to possession thereof; or whether the defendant is possessed of sufficient skill to repair and restore property damaged; or whether the defendant should be required to make restitution in cash, for out-of-pocket expenses, damages, losses, or injuries found to have been proximately caused by the conduct of the defendant or another for whom the defendant is legally accountable under the provisions of Article 5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) In fixing the amount of restitution to be paid in cash, the court shall allow credit for property returned in kind, for property damages ordered to be repaired by the defendant, and for property ordered to be restored by the defendant; and after granting the credit, the court shall assess the actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, and injuries suffered by the victim named in the charge and any other victims who may also have suffered out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, and injuries proximately caused by the same criminal conduct of the defendant, and insurance carriers who have indemnified the named victim or other victims for the out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, provided that in no event shall restitution be ordered to be paid on account of pain and suffering. When a victim's out-of-pocket expenses have been paid pursuant to the Crime Victims Compensation Act, the court shall order restitution be paid to the compensation program. If a defendant is placed on supervision for, or convicted of, domestic battery, the defendant shall be required to pay restitution to any domestic violence shelter in which the victim and any other family or household members lived because of the domestic battery. The amount of the restitution shall equal the actual expenses of the domestic violence shelter in providing housing and any other services for the victim and any other family or household members living at the shelter. If a defendant fails to pay restitution in the manner or within the time period specified by the court, the court may enter an order directing the sheriff to seize any real or personal property of a defendant to the extent necessary to satisfy the order of restitution and dispose of the property by public sale. All proceeds from such sale in excess of the amount of restitution plus court costs and the costs of the sheriff in conducting the sale shall be paid to the defendant. The defendant convicted of domestic battery, if a person under 18 years of age was present and witnessed the domestic battery of the victim, is liable to pay restitution for the cost of any counseling required for the child at the discretion of the court.

(c) In cases where more than one defendant is accountable for the same criminal conduct that results in out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, each defendant shall be ordered to pay restitution in the amount of the total actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries to the victim proximately caused by the conduct of all of the defendants who are legally accountable for the offense.

(1) In no event shall the victim be entitled to recover restitution in excess of the actual out-of-pocket expenses, losses, damages, or injuries, proximately caused by the conduct of all of the defendants.

(2) As between the defendants, the court may apportion the restitution that is payable in proportion to each co-defendant's culpability in the commission of the offense.

(3) In the absence of a specific order apportioning the restitution, each defendant shall bear his pro rata share of the restitution.

(4) As between the defendants, each defendant shall be entitled to a pro rata reduction in the total restitution required to be paid to the victim for amounts of restitution actually paid by co-defendants, and defendants who shall have paid more than their pro rata share shall be entitled to refunds to be computed by the court as additional amounts are paid by co-defendants.

(d) In instances where a defendant has more than one criminal charge pending against him in a single case, or more than one case, and the defendant stands convicted of one or more charges, a plea agreement negotiated by the State's Attorney and the defendants may require the defendant to make restitution to victims of charges that have been dismissed or which it is contemplated will be dismissed under the terms of the plea agreement, and under the agreement, the court may impose a sentence of restitution on the charge or charges of which the defendant has been convicted that would require the defendant to make restitution to victims of other offenses as provided in the plea agreement.

(e) The court may require the defendant to apply the balance of the cash bond, after payment of court costs, and any fine that may be imposed to the payment of restitution.

(f) Taking into consideration the ability of the defendant to pay, including any real or personal property or any other assets of the defendant, the court shall determine whether restitution shall be paid in a single payment or in installments, and shall fix a period of time not in excess of 5 years, except for violations of Sections 16-1.3 and 17-56 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or the period of time specified in subsection (f-1), not including periods of incarceration, within which payment of restitution is to be paid in full. Complete restitution shall be paid in as short a time period as possible. However, if the court deems it necessary and in the best interest of the victim, the court may extend beyond 5 years the period of time within which the payment of restitution is to be paid. If the defendant is ordered to pay restitution and the court orders that restitution is to be paid over a period greater than 6 months, the court shall order that the defendant make monthly payments; the court may waive this requirement of monthly payments only if there is a specific finding of good cause for waiver.

(f-1)(1) In addition to any other penalty prescribed by law and any restitution ordered under this Section that did not include long-term physical health care costs, the court may, upon conviction of any misdemeanor or felony, order a defendant to pay restitution to a victim in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (f-1) if the victim has suffered physical injury as a result of the offense that is reasonably probable to require or has required long-term physical health care for more than 3 months. As used in this subsection (f-1), "long-term physical health care" includes mental health care.

(2) The victim's estimate of long-term physical health care costs may be made as part of a victim impact statement under Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or made separately. The court shall enter the long-term physical health care restitution order at the time of sentencing. An order of restitution made under this subsection (f-1) shall fix a monthly amount to be paid by the defendant for as long as long-term physical health care of the victim is required as a result of the offense. The order may exceed the length of any sentence imposed upon the defendant for the criminal activity. The court shall include as a special finding in the judgment of conviction its determination of the monthly cost of long-term physical health care.

(3) After a sentencing order has been entered, the court may from time to time, on the petition of either the defendant or the victim, or upon its own motion, enter an order for restitution for long-term physical care or modify the existing order for restitution for long-term physical care as to the amount of monthly payments. Any modification of the order shall be based only upon a substantial change of circumstances relating to the cost of long-term physical health care or the financial condition of either the defendant or the victim. The petition shall be filed as part of the original criminal docket.

(g) In addition to the sentences provided for in Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, and 12-16, and subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, the court may order any person who is convicted of violating any of those Sections or who was charged with any of those offenses and which charge was reduced to another charge as a result of a plea agreement under subsection (d) of this Section to meet all or any portion of the financial obligations of treatment, including but not limited to medical, psychiatric, or rehabilitative treatment or psychological counseling, prescribed for the victim or victims of the offense.

The payments shall be made by the defendant to the clerk of the circuit court and transmitted by the clerk to the appropriate person or agency as directed by the court. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f-1), the order may require such payments to be made for a period not to exceed 5 years after sentencing, not including periods of incarceration.

(h) The judge may enter an order of withholding to collect the amount of restitution owed in accordance with Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(i) A sentence of restitution may be modified or revoked by the court if the offender commits another offense, or the offender fails to make restitution as ordered by the court, but no sentence to make restitution shall be revoked unless the court shall find that the offender has had the financial ability to make restitution, and he has wilfully refused to do so. When the offender's ability to pay restitution was established at the time an order of restitution was entered or modified, or when the offender's ability to pay was based on the offender's willingness to make restitution as part of a plea agreement made at the time the order of restitution was entered or modified, there is a rebuttable presumption that the facts and circumstances considered by the court at the hearing at which the order of restitution was entered or modified regarding the offender's ability or willingness to pay restitution have not materially changed. If the court shall find that the defendant has failed to make restitution and that the failure is not wilful, the court may impose an additional period of time within which to make restitution. The length of the additional period shall not be more than 2 years. The court shall retain all of the incidents of the original sentence, including the authority to modify or enlarge the conditions, and to revoke or further modify the sentence if the conditions of payment are violated during the additional period.

(j) The procedure upon the filing of a Petition to Revoke a sentence to make restitution shall be the same as the procedures set forth in Section 5-6-4 of this Code governing violation, modification, or revocation of Probation, of Conditional Discharge, or of Supervision.

(k) Nothing contained in this Section shall preclude the right of any party to proceed in a civil action to recover for any damages incurred due to the criminal misconduct of the defendant.

(l) Restitution ordered under this Section shall not be subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act.

(m) A restitution order under this Section is a judgment lien in favor of the victim that:

(1) Attaches to the property of the person subject to the order;

(2) May be perfected in the same manner as provided in Part 3 of Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code;

(3) May be enforced to satisfy any payment that is delinquent under the restitution order by the person in whose favor the order is issued or the person's assignee; and

(4) Expires in the same manner as a judgment lien created in a civil proceeding.

When a restitution order is issued under this Section, the issuing court shall send a certified copy of the order to the clerk of the circuit court in the county where the charge was filed. Upon receiving the order, the clerk shall enter and index the order in the circuit court judgment docket.

(n) An order of restitution under this Section does not bar a civil action for:

(1) Damages that the court did not require the person to pay to the victim under the restitution order but arise from an injury or property damages that is the basis of restitution ordered by the court; and

(2) Other damages suffered by the victim.

The restitution order is not discharged by the completion of the sentence imposed for the offense.

A restitution order under this Section is not discharged by the liquidation of a person's estate by a receiver. A restitution order under this Section may be enforced in the same manner as judgment liens are enforced under Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

The provisions of Section 2-1303 of the Code of Civil Procedure, providing for interest on judgments, apply to judgments for restitution entered under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-7-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-7-1)

Sec. 5-7-1. Sentence of periodic imprisonment.

(a) A sentence of periodic imprisonment is a sentence of imprisonment during which the committed person may be released for periods of time during the day or night or for periods of days, or both, or if convicted of a felony, other than first degree murder, a Class X or Class 1 felony, committed to any county, municipal, or regional correctional or detention institution or facility in this State for such periods of time as the court may direct. Unless the court orders otherwise, the particular times and conditions of release shall be determined by the Department of Corrections, the sheriff, or the Superintendent of the house of corrections, who is administering the program.

(b) A sentence of periodic imprisonment may be imposed to permit the defendant to:

(1) seek employment;

(2) work;

(3) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation including housekeeping;

(4) attend to family needs;

(5) attend an educational institution, including vocational education;

(6) obtain medical or psychological treatment;

(7) perform work duties at a county, municipal, or regional correctional or detention institution or facility;

(8) continue to reside at home with or without supervision involving the use of an approved electronic monitoring device, subject to Article 8A of Chapter V; or

(9) for any other purpose determined by the court.

(c) Except where prohibited by other provisions of this Code, the court may impose a sentence of periodic imprisonment for a felony or misdemeanor on a person who is 17 years of age or older. The court shall not impose a sentence of periodic imprisonment if it imposes a sentence of imprisonment upon the defendant in excess of 90 days.

(d) A sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be for a definite term of from 3 to 4 years for a Class 1 felony, 18 to 30 months for a Class 2 felony, and up to 18 months, or the longest sentence of imprisonment that could be imposed for the offense, whichever is less, for all other offenses; however, no person shall be sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment longer than one year if he is committed to a county correctional institution or facility, and in conjunction with that sentence participate in a county work release program comparable to the work and day release program provided for in Article 13 of Chapter III of this Code the Unified Code of Corrections in State facilities. The term of the sentence shall be calculated upon the basis of the duration of its term rather than upon the basis of the actual days spent in confinement. No sentence of periodic imprisonment shall be subject to the good time credit provisions of Section 3-6-3 of this Code.

(e) When the court imposes a sentence of periodic imprisonment, it shall state:

(1) the term of such sentence;

(2) the days or parts of days which the defendant is to be confined;

(3) the conditions.

(f) The court may issue an order of protection pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 as a condition of a sentence of periodic imprisonment. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 shall govern the issuance, enforcement and recording of orders of protection issued under this Section. A copy of the order of protection shall be transmitted to the person or agency having responsibility for the case.

(f-5) An offender sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment for a felony sex offense as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall be required to undergo and successfully complete sex offender treatment by a treatment provider approved by the Board and conducted in conformance with the standards developed under the Sex Offender Management Board Act.

(g) An offender sentenced to periodic imprisonment who undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved electronic monitoring, of all offenders with a sentence of periodic imprisonment. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court, except as provided in an administrative order of the Chief Judge of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001 or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.

(h) All fees and costs imposed under this Section for any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under the Criminal and Traffic Assessment Act.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court of the county may by administrative order establish a program for electronic monitoring of offenders, in which a vendor supplies and monitors the operation of the electronic monitoring device, and collects the fees on behalf of the county. The program shall include provisions for indigent offenders and the collection of unpaid fees. The program shall not unduly burden the offender and shall be subject to review by the Chief Judge.

The Chief Judge of the circuit court may suspend any additional charges or fees for late payment, interest, or damage to any device.

(i) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted of a misdemeanor or felony in a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a misdemeanor or a felony and who is sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment may as a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school diploma and to work toward receiving a high school diploma or to work toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work toward completing a vocational training program approved by the court. The defendant sentenced to periodic imprisonment must attend a public institution of education to obtain the educational or vocational training required by this subsection (i). The defendant sentenced to a term of periodic imprisonment shall be required to pay for the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The court shall revoke the sentence of periodic imprisonment of the defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this subsection (i). The court shall resentence the defendant whose sentence of periodic imprisonment has been revoked as provided in Section 5-7-2. This subsection (i) does not apply to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This subsection (i) does not apply to a defendant who is determined by the court to be a person with a developmental disability or otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational program.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-797, eff. 8-12-16; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19; revised 10-3-18.)

Section 715. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 21-103 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/21-103) (from Ch. 110, par. 21-103)

Sec. 21-103. Notice by publication.

(a) Previous notice shall be given of the intended application by publishing a notice thereof in some newspaper published in the municipality in which the person resides if the municipality is in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if the person does not reside in a municipality in a county with a population under 2,000,000, or if no newspaper is published in the municipality or if the person resides in a county with a population of 2,000,000 or more, then in some newspaper published in the county where the person resides, or if no newspaper is published in that county, then in some convenient newspaper published in this State. The notice shall be inserted for 3 consecutive weeks after filing, the first insertion to be at least 6 weeks before the return day upon which the petition is to be heard, and shall be signed by the petitioner or, in case of a minor, the minor's parent or guardian, and shall set forth the return day of court on which the petition is to be heard and the name sought to be assumed.

(b) The publication requirement of subsection (a) shall not be required in any application for a change of name involving a minor if, before making judgment under this Article, reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to any parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated and to any person who has physical custody of the child. If any of these persons are outside this State, notice and opportunity to be heard shall be given under Section 21-104.

(b-5) Upon motion, the court may issue an order directing that the notice and publication requirement be waived for a change of name involving a person who files with the court a written declaration that the person believes that publishing notice of the name change would put the person at risk of physical harm or discrimination. The person must provide evidence to support the claim that publishing notice of the name change would put the person at risk of physical harm or discrimination.

(c) The Director of State Police or his or her designee may apply to the circuit court for an order directing that the notice and publication requirements of this Section be waived if the Director or his or her designee certifies that the name change being sought is intended to protect a witness during and following a criminal investigation or proceeding.

(c-1) The court may enter a written order waiving the publication requirement of subsection (a) if:

(i) the petitioner is 18 years of age or older; and

(ii) concurrent with the petition, the petitioner files with the court a statement, verified under oath as provided under Section 1-109 of this Code, attesting that the petitioner is or has been a person protected under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, the Stalking No Contact Order Act, the Civil No Contact Order Act, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, a condition of bail under subsections (b) through (d) of Section 110-10 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, or a similar provision of a law in another state or jurisdiction.

The petitioner may attach to the statement any supporting documents, including relevant court orders.

(c-2) If the petitioner files a statement attesting that disclosure of the petitioner's address would put the petitioner or any member of the petitioner's family or household at risk or reveal the confidential address of a shelter for domestic violence victims, that address may be omitted from all documents filed with the court, and the petitioner may designate an alternative address for service.

(c-3) Court administrators may allow domestic abuse advocates, rape crisis advocates, and victim advocates to assist petitioners in the preparation of name changes under subsection (c-1).

(c-4) If the publication requirements of subsection (a) have been waived, the circuit court shall enter an order impounding the case.

(d) The maximum rate charged for publication of a notice under this Section may not exceed the lowest classified rate paid by commercial users for comparable space in the newspaper in which the notice appears and shall include all cash discounts, multiple insertion discounts, and similar benefits extended to the newspaper's regular customers.

(Source: P.A. 100-520, eff. 1-1-18 (see Section 5 of P.A. 100-565 for the effective date of P.A. 100-520); 100-788, eff. 1-1-19; 100-966, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 720. The Illinois Antitrust Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(740 ILCS 10/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 60-5)

Sec. 5. No provisions of this Act shall be construed to make illegal:

(1) the activities of any labor organization or of individual members thereof which are directed solely to labor objectives which are legitimate under the laws of either the State of Illinois or the United States;

(2) the activities of any agricultural or horticultural cooperative organization, whether incorporated or unincorporated, or of individual members thereof, which are directed solely to objectives of such cooperative organizations which are legitimate under the laws of either the State of Illinois or the United States;

(3) the activities of any public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent that such activities are subject to a clearly articulated and affirmatively expressed State policy to replace competition with regulation, where the conduct to be exempted is actively supervised by the State itself;

(4) the activities of a telecommunications carrier, as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, to the extent those activities relate to the provision of noncompetitive telecommunications services under the Public Utilities Act and are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission or to the activities of telephone mutual concerns referred to in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent those activities relate to the provision and maintenance of telephone service to owners and customers;

(5) the activities (including, but not limited to, the making of or participating in joint underwriting or joint reinsurance arrangement) of any insurer, insurance agent, insurance broker, independent insurance adjuster or rating organization to the extent that such activities are subject to regulation by the Director of Insurance of this State under, or are permitted or are authorized by, the Illinois Insurance Code or any other law of this State;

(6) the religious and charitable activities of any not-for-profit corporation, trust or organization established exclusively for religious or charitable purposes, or for both purposes;

(7) the activities of any not-for-profit corporation organized to provide telephone service on a mutual or cooperative co-operative basis or electrification on a cooperative co-operative basis, to the extent such activities relate to the marketing and distribution of telephone or electrical service to owners and customers;

(8) the activities engaged in by securities dealers who are (i) licensed by the State of Illinois or (ii) members of the National Association of Securities Dealers or (iii) members of any National Securities Exchange registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, in the course of their business of offering, selling, buying and selling, or otherwise trading in or underwriting securities, as agent, broker, or principal, and activities of any National Securities Exchange so registered, including the establishment of commission rates and schedules of charges;

(9) the activities of any board of trade designated as a "contract market" by the Secretary of Agriculture of the United States pursuant to Section 5 of the Commodity Exchange Act, as amended;

(10) the activities of any motor carrier, rail carrier, or common carrier by pipeline, as defined in the Common Carrier by Pipeline Law of the Public Utilities Act, to the extent that such activities are permitted or authorized by the Act or are subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission;

(11) the activities of any state or national bank to the extent that such activities are regulated or supervised by officers of the state or federal government under the banking laws of this State or the United States;

(12) the activities of any state or federal savings and loan association to the extent that such activities are regulated or supervised by officers of the state or federal government under the savings and loan laws of this State or the United States;

(13) the activities of any bona fide not-for-profit association, society or board, of attorneys, practitioners of medicine, architects, engineers, land surveyors or real estate brokers licensed and regulated by an agency of the State of Illinois, in recommending schedules of suggested fees, rates or commissions for use solely as guidelines in determining charges for professional and technical services;

(14) conduct involving trade or commerce (other than import trade or import commerce) with foreign nations unless:

(a) such conduct has a direct, substantial, and reasonably foreseeable effect:

(i) on trade or commerce which is not trade or commerce with foreign nations, or on import trade or import commerce with foreign nations; or

(ii) on export trade or export commerce with foreign nations of a person engaged in such trade or commerce in the United States; and

(b) such effect gives rise to a claim under the provisions of this Act, other than this subsection (14).

If this Act applies to conduct referred to in this subsection (14) only because of the provisions of paragraph (a)(ii), then this Act shall apply to such conduct only for injury to export business in the United States which affects this State; or

(15) the activities of a unit of local government or school district and the activities of the employees, agents and officers of a unit of local government or school district; or

(16) the activities of a manufacturer, manufacturer clearinghouse, or any entity developing, implementing, operating, participating in, or performing any other activities related to a manufacturer e-waste program approved pursuant to the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act, to the extent that such activities are permitted or authorized by this Act or are subject to regulation by the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act and are subject to the jurisdiction of and regulation by the Illinois Pollution Control Board or the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency; this paragraph does not limit, preempt, or exclude the jurisdiction of any other commission, agency, or court system to adjudicate personal injury or workers' compensation claims.

(Source: P.A. 100-592, eff. 6-22-18; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 725. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(740 ILCS 45/2) (from Ch. 70, par. 72)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Applicant" means any person who applies for compensation under this Act or any person the Court of Claims finds is entitled to compensation, including the guardian of a minor or of a person under legal disability. It includes any person who was a dependent of a deceased victim of a crime of violence for his or her support at the time of the death of that victim.

(b) "Court of Claims" means the Court of Claims created by the Court of Claims Act.

(c) "Crime of violence" means and includes any offense defined in Sections 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-11, 11-19.2, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-23, 11-23.5, 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.3, 12-3.4, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-5, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-20.5, 12-30, 20-1 or 20-1.1, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision (a)(4) or (g)(1), or subdivision (a)(4) of Section 11-14.4, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Sections 1(a) and 1(a-5) of the Cemetery Protection Act, Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, driving under the influence as defined in Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, provided the victim was a pedestrian or was operating a vehicle moved solely by human power or a mobility device at the time of contact, and a violation of Section 11-204.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; so long as the offense did not occur during a civil riot, insurrection or rebellion. "Crime of violence" does not include any other offense or accident involving a motor vehicle except those vehicle offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph. "Crime of violence" does include all of the offenses specifically provided for in this paragraph that occur within this State but are subject to federal jurisdiction and crimes involving terrorism as defined in 18 U.S.C. 2331.

(d) "Victim" means (1) a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against him or her, (2) the spouse or parent of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence perpetrated or attempted against the person, (3) a person killed or injured in this State while attempting to assist a person against whom a crime of violence is being perpetrated or attempted, if that attempt of assistance would be expected of a reasonable person under the circumstances, (4) a person killed or injured in this State while assisting a law enforcement official apprehend a person who has perpetrated a crime of violence or prevent the perpetration of any such crime if that assistance was in response to the express request of the law enforcement official, (5) a person who personally witnessed a violent crime, (5.05) a person who will be called as a witness by the prosecution to establish a necessary nexus between the offender and the violent crime, (5.1) solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, any other person under the age of 18 who is the brother, sister, half brother, half sister, child, or stepchild of a person killed or injured in this State as a result of a crime of violence, (6) an Illinois resident who is a victim of a "crime of violence" as defined in this Act except, if the crime occurred outside this State, the resident has the same rights under this Act as if the crime had occurred in this State upon a showing that the state, territory, country, or political subdivision of a country in which the crime occurred does not have a compensation of victims of crimes law for which that Illinois resident is eligible, (7) a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence, or (8) solely for the purpose of compensating for pecuniary loss incurred for psychological treatment of a mental or emotional condition caused or aggravated by the crime, any parent, spouse, or child under the age of 18 of a deceased person whose body is dismembered or whose remains are desecrated as the result of a crime of violence.

(e) "Dependent" means a relative of a deceased victim who was wholly or partially dependent upon the victim's income at the time of his or her death and shall include the child of a victim born after his or her death.

(f) "Relative" means a spouse, parent, grandparent, stepfather, stepmother, child, grandchild, brother, brother-in-law, sister, sister-in-law, half brother, half sister, spouse's parent, nephew, niece, uncle or aunt.

(g) "Child" means an unmarried son or daughter who is under 18 years of age and includes a stepchild, an adopted child or a child born out of wedlock.

(h) "Pecuniary loss" means, in the case of injury, appropriate medical expenses and hospital expenses including expenses of medical examinations, rehabilitation, medically required nursing care expenses, appropriate psychiatric care or psychiatric counseling expenses, appropriate expenses for care or counseling by a licensed clinical psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, licensed professional counselor, or licensed clinical professional counselor and expenses for treatment by Christian Science practitioners and nursing care appropriate thereto; transportation expenses to and from medical and counseling treatment facilities; prosthetic appliances, eyeglasses, and hearing aids necessary or damaged as a result of the crime; costs associated with trafficking tattoo removal by a person authorized or licensed to perform the specific removal procedure; replacement costs for clothing and bedding used as evidence; costs associated with temporary lodging or relocation necessary as a result of the crime, including, but not limited to, the first month's rent and security deposit of the dwelling that the claimant relocated to and other reasonable relocation expenses incurred as a result of the violent crime; locks or windows necessary or damaged as a result of the crime; the purchase, lease, or rental of equipment necessary to create usability of and accessibility to the victim's real and personal property, or the real and personal property which is used by the victim, necessary as a result of the crime; the costs of appropriate crime scene clean-up; replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1,250 per month; dependents replacement services loss, to a maximum of $1,250 per month; loss of tuition paid to attend grammar school or high school when the victim had been enrolled as a student prior to the injury, or college or graduate school when the victim had been enrolled as a day or night student prior to the injury when the victim becomes unable to continue attendance at school as a result of the crime of violence perpetrated against him or her; loss of earnings, loss of future earnings because of disability resulting from the injury, and, in addition, in the case of death, expenses for funeral, burial, and travel and transport for survivors of homicide victims to secure bodies of deceased victims and to transport bodies for burial all of which may not exceed a maximum of $7,500 and loss of support of the dependents of the victim; in the case of dismemberment or desecration of a body, expenses for funeral and burial, all of which may not exceed a maximum of $7,500. Loss of future earnings shall be reduced by any income from substitute work actually performed by the victim or by income he or she would have earned in available appropriate substitute work he or she was capable of performing but unreasonably failed to undertake. Loss of earnings, loss of future earnings and loss of support shall be determined on the basis of the victim's average net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the injury or on $1,250 per month, whichever is less or, in cases where the absences commenced more than 3 years from the date of the crime, on the basis of the net monthly earnings for the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the first absence, not to exceed $1,250 per month. If a divorced or legally separated applicant is claiming loss of support for a minor child of the deceased, the amount of support for each child shall be based either on the amount of support pursuant to the judgment prior to the date of the deceased victim's injury or death, or, if the subject of pending litigation filed by or on behalf of the divorced or legally separated applicant prior to the injury or death, on the result of that litigation. Real and personal property includes, but is not limited to, vehicles, houses, apartments, town houses, or condominiums. Pecuniary loss does not include pain and suffering or property loss or damage.

(i) "Replacement services loss" means expenses reasonably incurred in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the injured person would have performed, not for income, but for the benefit of himself or herself or his or her family, if he or she had not been injured.

(j) "Dependents replacement services loss" means loss reasonably incurred by dependents or private legal guardians of minor dependents after a victim's death in obtaining ordinary and necessary services in lieu of those the victim would have performed, not for income, but for their benefit, if he or she had not been fatally injured.

(k) "Survivor" means immediate family including a parent, stepfather step-father, stepmother step-mother, child, brother, sister, or spouse.

(l) "Parent" means a natural parent, adopted parent, stepparent step-parent, or permanent legal guardian of another person.

(m) "Trafficking tattoo" is a tattoo which is applied to a victim in connection with the commission of a violation of Section 10-9 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 99-671, eff. 1-1-17; 100-690, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 730. The Parental Rights for the Blind Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(750 ILCS 85/20)

Sec. 20. Prohibitions; burden of proof.

(a) A person's blindness shall not serve as a basis for denial or restriction of parenting time or the allocation of parental responsibilities if the parenting time or the allocation of parental responsibilities is determined to be otherwise in the best interests of the child.

(b) A person's blindness shall not serve as a basis for denial of participation in public or private adoption when the adoption is determined to be otherwise in the best interests of the child.

(c) A person's blindness shall not serve as a basis for denial of foster care or guardianship when the appointment is determined to be otherwise in the best interests of the child.

(d) The Department of Children and Family Services shall develop and implement procedures that ensure and provide equal access to child welfare services, programs, and activities in a nondiscriminatory manner. Services, programs, and activities include, but are not limited to, investigations, assessments, provision of in-home services, out-of-home placements, case planning and service planning, visitation, guardianship, adoption, foster care, and reunification services. Such services, programs, and activities may also extend to proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and proceedings to terminate parental rights. The Department of Children and Family Services shall provide training to child welfare investigators and caseworkers on these procedures.

(e) If the court determines that the right of a person with blindness to the allocation of parental responsibilities, parenting time, foster care, guardianship, or adoption should be denied or limited in any manner, the court shall make specific written findings stating the basis for such a determination and why supportive parenting services cannot prevent the denial or limitation.

(Source: P.A. 100-75, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 735. The Frail Elderly Individual Family Visitation Protection Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(750 ILCS 95/15)

Sec. 15. Notice of hospitalization, change in or residence, or death of frail elderly individual. If the court grants the petition of a family member for visitation in accordance with Section 10, the court may also order the family caregiver to use reasonable efforts to notify the petitioner of the frail elderly individual's hospitalization, admission to a healthcare facility, change in permanent residence, or death.

(Source: P.A. 100-850, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 740. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended by changing Section 4-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 45/4-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 804-10)

Sec. 4-10. Statutory short form power of attorney for health care.

(a) The form prescribed in this Section (sometimes also referred to in this Act as the "statutory health care power") may be used to grant an agent powers with respect to the principal's own health care; but the statutory health care power is not intended to be exclusive nor to cover delegation of a parent's power to control the health care of a minor child, and no provision of this Article shall be construed to invalidate or bar use by the principal of any other or different form of power of attorney for health care. Nonstatutory health care powers must be executed by the principal, designate the agent and the agent's powers, and comply with the limitations in Section 4-5 of this Article, but they need not be witnessed or conform in any other respect to the statutory health care power.

No specific format is required for the statutory health care power of attorney other than the notice must precede the form. The statutory health care power may be included in or combined with any other form of power of attorney governing property or other matters.

(b) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Health Care shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO THE INDIVIDUAL SIGNING

THE POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE

No one can predict when a serious illness or accident might occur. When it does, you may need someone else to speak or make health care decisions for you. If you plan now, you can increase the chances that the medical treatment you get will be the treatment you want.

In Illinois, you can choose someone to be your "health care agent". Your agent is the person you trust to make health care decisions for you if you are unable or do not want to make them yourself. These decisions should be based on your personal values and wishes.

It is important to put your choice of agent in writing. The written form is often called an "advance directive". You may use this form or another form, as long as it meets the legal requirements of Illinois. There are many written and on-line resources to guide you and your loved ones in having a conversation about these issues. You may find it helpful to look at these resources while thinking about and discussing your advance directive.

WHAT ARE THE THINGS I WANT MY

HEALTH CARE AGENT TO KNOW?

The selection of your agent should be considered carefully, as your agent will have the ultimate decision-making decision making authority once this document goes into effect, in most instances after you are no longer able to make your own decisions. While the goal is for your agent to make decisions in keeping with your preferences and in the majority of circumstances that is what happens, please know that the law does allow your agent to make decisions to direct or refuse health care interventions or withdraw treatment. Your agent will need to think about conversations you have had, your personality, and how you handled important health care issues in the past. Therefore, it is important to talk with your agent and your family about such things as:

(i) What is most important to you in your life?

(ii) How important is it to you to avoid pain and suffering?

(iii) If you had to choose, is it more important to you to live as long as possible, or to avoid prolonged suffering or disability?

(iv) Would you rather be at home or in a hospital for the last days or weeks of your life?

(v) Do you have religious, spiritual, or cultural beliefs that you want your agent and others to consider?

(vi) Do you wish to make a significant contribution to medical science after your death through organ or whole body donation?

(vii) Do you have an existing advance advanced directive, such as a living will, that contains your specific wishes about health care that is only delaying your death? If you have another advance directive, make sure to discuss with your agent the directive and the treatment decisions contained within that outline your preferences. Make sure that your agent agrees to honor the wishes expressed in your advance directive.

WHAT KIND OF DECISIONS CAN MY AGENT MAKE?

If there is ever a period of time when your physician determines that you cannot make your own health care decisions, or if you do not want to make your own decisions, some of the decisions your agent could make are to:

(i) talk with physicians and other health care providers about your condition.

(ii) see medical records and approve who else can see them.

(iii) give permission for medical tests, medicines, surgery, or other treatments.

(iv) choose where you receive care and which physicians and others provide it.

(v) decide to accept, withdraw, or decline treatments designed to keep you alive if you are near death or not likely to recover. You may choose to include guidelines and/or restrictions to your agent's authority.

(vi) agree or decline to donate your organs or your whole body if you have not already made this decision yourself. This could include donation for transplant, research, and/or education. You should let your agent know whether you are registered as a donor in the First Person Consent registry maintained by the Illinois Secretary of State or whether you have agreed to donate your whole body for medical research and/or education.

(vii) decide what to do with your remains after you have died, if you have not already made plans.

(viii) talk with your other loved ones to help come to a decision (but your designated agent will have the final say over your other loved ones).

Your agent is not automatically responsible for your health care expenses.

WHOM SHOULD I CHOOSE TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT?

You can pick a family member, but you do not have to. Your agent will have the responsibility to make medical treatment decisions, even if other people close to you might urge a different decision. The selection of your agent should be done carefully, as he or she will have ultimate decision-making authority for your treatment decisions once you are no longer able to voice your preferences. Choose a family member, friend, or other person who:

(i) is at least 18 years old;

(ii) knows you well;

(iii) you trust to do what is best for you and is willing to carry out your wishes, even if he or she may not agree with your wishes;

(iv) would be comfortable talking with and questioning your physicians and other health care providers;

(v) would not be too upset to carry out your wishes if you became very sick; and

(vi) can be there for you when you need it and is willing to accept this important role.

WHAT IF MY AGENT IS NOT AVAILABLE OR IS

UNWILLING TO MAKE DECISIONS FOR ME?

If the person who is your first choice is unable to carry out this role, then the second agent you chose will make the decisions; if your second agent is not available, then the third agent you chose will make the decisions. The second and third agents are called your successor agents and they function as back-up agents to your first choice agent and may act only one at a time and in the order you list them.

WHAT WILL HAPPEN IF I DO NOT

CHOOSE A HEALTH CARE AGENT?

If you become unable to make your own health care decisions and have not named an agent in writing, your physician and other health care providers will ask a family member, friend, or guardian to make decisions for you. In Illinois, a law directs which of these individuals will be consulted. In that law, each of these individuals is called a "surrogate".

There are reasons why you may want to name an agent rather than rely on a surrogate:

(i) The person or people listed by this law may not be who you would want to make decisions for you.

(ii) Some family members or friends might not be able or willing to make decisions as you would want them to.

(iii) Family members and friends may disagree with one another about the best decisions.

(iv) Under some circumstances, a surrogate may not be able to make the same kinds of decisions that an agent can make.

WHAT IF THERE IS NO ONE AVAILABLE

WHOM I TRUST TO BE MY AGENT?

In this situation, it is especially important to talk to your physician and other health care providers and create written guidance about what you want or do not want, in case you are ever critically ill and cannot express your own wishes. You can complete a living will. You can also write your wishes down and/or discuss them with your physician or other health care provider and ask him or her to write it down in your chart. You might also want to use written or on-line resources to guide you through this process.

WHAT DO I DO WITH THIS FORM ONCE I COMPLETE IT?

Follow these instructions after you have completed the form:

(i) Sign the form in front of a witness. See the form for a list of who can and cannot witness it.

(ii) Ask the witness to sign it, too.

(iii) There is no need to have the form notarized.

(iv) Give a copy to your agent and to each of your successor agents.

(v) Give another copy to your physician.

(vi) Take a copy with you when you go to the hospital.

(vii) Show it to your family and friends and others who care for you.

WHAT IF I CHANGE MY MIND?

You may change your mind at any time. If you do, tell someone who is at least 18 years old that you have changed your mind, and/or destroy your document and any copies. If you wish, fill out a new form and make sure everyone you gave the old form to has a copy of the new one, including, but not limited to, your agents and your physicians.

WHAT IF I DO NOT WANT TO USE THIS FORM?

In the event you do not want to use the Illinois statutory form provided here, any document you complete must be executed by you, designate an agent who is over 18 years of age and not prohibited from serving as your agent, and state the agent's powers, but it need not be witnessed or conform in any other respect to the statutory health care power.

If you have questions about the use of any form, you may want to consult your physician, other health care provider, and/or an attorney.

MY POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE

THIS POWER OF ATTORNEY REVOKES ALL PREVIOUS POWERS OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE. (You must sign this form and a witness must also sign it before it is valid)

My name (Print your full name):.......... My address:..................................................

I WANT THE FOLLOWING PERSON TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT

(an agent is your personal representative under state and federal law): (Agent name)................. (Agent address)............. (Agent phone number).........................................

(Please check box if applicable) .... If a guardian of my person is to be appointed, I nominate the agent acting under this power of attorney as guardian.

SUCCESSOR HEALTH CARE AGENT(S) (optional):

If the agent I selected is unable or does not want to make health care decisions for me, then I request the person(s) I name below to be my successor health care agent(s). Only one person at a time can serve as my agent (add another page if you want to add more successor agent names):

.....................

(Successor agent #1 name, address and phone number)

..........

(Successor agent #2 name, address and phone number)

MY AGENT CAN MAKE HEALTH CARE DECISIONS FOR ME, INCLUDING:

(i) Deciding to accept, withdraw or decline treatment for any physical or mental condition of mine, including life-and-death decisions.

(ii) Agreeing to admit me to or discharge me from any hospital, home, or other institution, including a mental health facility.

(iii) Having complete access to my medical and mental health records, and sharing them with others as needed, including after I die.

(iv) Carrying out the plans I have already made, or, if I have not done so, making decisions about my body or remains, including organ, tissue or whole body donation, autopsy, cremation, and burial.

The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as possible so that my agent will have the authority to make any decision I could make to obtain or terminate any type of health care, including withdrawal of nutrition and hydration and other life-sustaining measures.

I AUTHORIZE MY AGENT TO (please check any one box):

.... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine when I lack this ability.

(If no box is checked, then the box above shall be implemented.) OR

.... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine when I lack this ability. Starting now, for the purpose of assisting me with my health care plans and decisions, my agent shall have complete access to my medical and mental health records, the authority to share them with others as needed, and the complete ability to communicate with my personal physician(s) and other health care providers, including the ability to require an opinion of my physician as to whether I lack the ability to make decisions for myself. OR

.... Make decisions for me starting now and continuing after I am no longer able to make them for myself. While I am still able to make my own decisions, I can still do so if I want to.

The subject of life-sustaining treatment is of particular importance. Life-sustaining treatments may include tube feedings or fluids through a tube, breathing machines, and CPR. In general, in making decisions concerning life-sustaining treatment, your agent is instructed to consider the relief of suffering, the quality as well as the possible extension of your life, and your previously expressed wishes. Your agent will weigh the burdens versus benefits of proposed treatments in making decisions on your behalf.

Additional statements concerning the withholding or removal of life-sustaining treatment are described below. These can serve as a guide for your agent when making decisions for you. Ask your physician or health care provider if you have any questions about these statements.

SELECT ONLY ONE STATEMENT BELOW THAT BEST EXPRESSES YOUR WISHES (optional):

.... The quality of my life is more important than the length of my life. If I am unconscious and my attending physician believes, in accordance with reasonable medical standards, that I will not wake up or recover my ability to think, communicate with my family and friends, and experience my surroundings, I do not want treatments to prolong my life or delay my death, but I do want treatment or care to make me comfortable and to relieve me of pain.

.... Staying alive is more important to me, no matter how sick I am, how much I am suffering, the cost of the procedures, or how unlikely my chances for recovery are. I want my life to be prolonged to the greatest extent possible in accordance with reasonable medical standards.

SPECIFIC LIMITATIONS TO MY AGENT'S DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY:

The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as possible so that your agent will have the authority to make any decision you could make to obtain or terminate any type of health care. If you wish to limit the scope of your agent's powers or prescribe special rules or limit the power to authorize autopsy or dispose of remains, you may do so specifically in this form. ..................................

..............................

My signature:.................. Today's date:................................................

HAVE YOUR WITNESS AGREE TO WHAT IS WRITTEN BELOW, AND THEN COMPLETE THE SIGNATURE PORTION:

I am at least 18 years old. (check one of the options below):

.... I saw the principal sign this document, or

.... the principal told me that the signature or mark on the principal signature line is his or hers.

I am not the agent or successor agent(s) named in this document. I am not related to the principal, the agent, or the successor agent(s) by blood, marriage, or adoption. I am not the principal's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, psychologist, or a relative of one of those individuals. I am not an owner or operator (or the relative of an owner or operator) of the health care facility where the principal is a patient or resident. Witness printed name:............ Witness address:.............. Witness signature:............... Today's date:................................................

(c) The statutory short form power of attorney for health care (the "statutory health care power") authorizes the agent to make any and all health care decisions on behalf of the principal which the principal could make if present and under no disability, subject to any limitations on the granted powers that appear on the face of the form, to be exercised in such manner as the agent deems consistent with the intent and desires of the principal. The agent will be under no duty to exercise granted powers or to assume control of or responsibility for the principal's health care; but when granted powers are exercised, the agent will be required to use due care to act for the benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the statutory health care power and will be liable for negligent exercise. The agent may act in person or through others reasonably employed by the agent for that purpose but may not delegate authority to make health care decisions. The agent may sign and deliver all instruments, negotiate and enter into all agreements and do all other acts reasonably necessary to implement the exercise of the powers granted to the agent. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the statutory health care power shall include the following powers, subject to any limitations appearing on the face of the form:

(1) The agent is authorized to give consent to and authorize or refuse, or to withhold or withdraw consent to, any and all types of medical care, treatment or procedures relating to the physical or mental health of the principal, including any medication program, surgical procedures, life-sustaining treatment or provision of food and fluids for the principal.

(2) The agent is authorized to admit the principal to or discharge the principal from any and all types of hospitals, institutions, homes, residential or nursing facilities, treatment centers and other health care institutions providing personal care or treatment for any type of physical or mental condition. The agent shall have the same right to visit the principal in the hospital or other institution as is granted to a spouse or adult child of the principal, any rule of the institution to the contrary notwithstanding.

(3) The agent is authorized to contract for any and all types of health care services and facilities in the name of and on behalf of the principal and to bind the principal to pay for all such services and facilities, and to have and exercise those powers over the principal's property as are authorized under the statutory property power, to the extent the agent deems necessary to pay health care costs; and the agent shall not be personally liable for any services or care contracted for on behalf of the principal.

(4) At the principal's expense and subject to reasonable rules of the health care provider to prevent disruption of the principal's health care, the agent shall have the same right the principal has to examine and copy and consent to disclosure of all the principal's medical records that the agent deems relevant to the exercise of the agent's powers, whether the records relate to mental health or any other medical condition and whether they are in the possession of or maintained by any physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, therapist, hospital, nursing home or other health care provider. The authority under this paragraph (4) applies to any information governed by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 ("HIPAA") and regulations thereunder. The agent serves as the principal's personal representative, as that term is defined under HIPAA and regulations thereunder.

(5) The agent is authorized: to direct that an autopsy be made pursuant to Section 2 of the Autopsy Act "An Act in relation to autopsy of dead bodies", approved August 13, 1965, including all amendments; to make a disposition of any part or all of the principal's body pursuant to the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act, as now or hereafter amended; and to direct the disposition of the principal's remains.

(6) At any time during which there is no executor or administrator appointed for the principal's estate, the agent is authorized to continue to pursue an application or appeal for government benefits if those benefits were applied for during the life of the principal.

(d) A physician may determine that the principal is unable to make health care decisions for himself or herself only if the principal lacks decisional capacity, as that term is defined in Section 10 of the Health Care Surrogate Act.

(e) If the principal names the agent as a guardian on the statutory short form, and if a court decides that the appointment of a guardian will serve the principal's best interests and welfare, the court shall appoint the agent to serve without bond or security.

(Source: P.A. 99-328, eff. 1-1-16; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 745. The Trusts and Trustees Act is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(760 ILCS 5/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Transfer of property to trust. (a) The transfer of real property to a trust requires a transfer of legal title to the trustee evidenced by a written instrument of conveyance.

(b) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-743, eff. 1-1-17; 100-786, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 750. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/30) (from Ch. 30, par. 330)

Sec. 30. Conversion condominiums; notice; recording.

(a)(1) No real estate may be submitted to the provisions of the Act as a conversion condominium unless (i) a notice of intent to submit the real estate to this Act (notice of intent) has been given to all persons who were tenants of the building located on the real estate on the date the notice is given. Such notice shall be given at least 30 days, and not more than one 1 year prior to the recording of the declaration which submits the real estate to this Act; and (ii) the developer executes and acknowledges a certificate which shall be attached to and made a part of the declaration and which provides that the developer, prior to the execution by him or his agent of any agreement for the sale of a unit, has given a copy of the notice of intent to all persons who were tenants of the building located on the real estate on the date the notice of intent was given.

(2) If the owner fails to provide a tenant with notice of the intent to convert as defined in this Section, the tenant permanently vacates the premises as a direct result of non-renewal of his or her lease by the owner, and the tenant's unit is converted to a condominium by the filing of a declaration submitting a property to this Act without having provided the required notice, then the owner is liable to the tenant for the following:

(A) the tenant's actual moving expenses incurred when moving from the subject property, not to exceed $1,500;

(B) 3 months' three month's rent at the subject property; and

(C) reasonable attorney's fees and court costs.

(b) Any developer of a conversion condominium must, upon issuing the notice of intent, publish and deliver along with such notice of intent, a schedule of selling prices for all units subject to the condominium instruments and offer to sell such unit to the current tenants, except for units to be vacated for rehabilitation subsequent to such notice of intent. Such offer shall not expire earlier than 30 days after receipt of the offer by the current tenant, unless the tenant notifies the developer in writing of his election not to purchase the condominium unit.

(c) Any tenant who was a tenant as of the date of the notice of intent and whose tenancy expires (other than for cause) prior to the expiration of 120 days from the date on which a copy of the notice of intent was given to the tenant shall have the right to extend his tenancy on the same terms and conditions and for the same rental until the expiration of such 120-day 120 day period by the giving of written notice thereof to the developer within 30 days of the date upon which a copy of the notice of intent was given to the tenant by the developer.

(d) Each lessee in a conversion condominium shall be informed by the developer at the time the notice of intent is given whether his tenancy will be renewed or terminated upon its expiration. If the tenancy is to be renewed, the tenant shall be informed of all charges, rental or otherwise, in connection with the new tenancy and the length of the term of occupancy proposed in conjunction therewith.

(e) For a period of 120 days following his receipt of the notice of intent, any tenant who was a tenant on the date the notice of intent was given shall be given the right to purchase his unit on substantially the same terms and conditions as set forth in a duly executed contract to purchase the unit, which contract shall conspicuously disclose the existence of, and shall be subject to, the right of first refusal. The tenant may exercise the right of first refusal by giving notice thereof to the developer prior to the expiration of 30 days from the giving of notice by the developer to the tenant of the execution of the contract to purchase the unit. The tenant may exercise such right of first refusal within 30 days from the giving of notice by the developer of the execution of a contract to purchase the unit, notwithstanding the expiration of the 120-day 120 day period following the tenant's receipt of the notice of intent, if such contract was executed prior to the expiration of the 120-day 120 day period. The recording of the deed conveying the unit to the purchaser which contains a statement to the effect that the tenant of the unit either waived or failed to exercise the right of first refusal or option or had no right of first refusal or option with respect to the unit shall extinguish any legal or equitable right or interest to the possession or acquisition of the unit which the tenant may have or claim with respect to the unit arising out of the right of first refusal or option provided for in this Section. The foregoing provision shall not affect any claim which the tenant may have against the landlord for damages arising out of the right of first refusal provided for in this Section.

(f) During the 30-day 30 day period after the giving of notice of an executed contract in which the tenant may exercise the right of first refusal, the developer shall grant to such tenant access to any portion of the building to inspect any of its features or systems and access to any reports, warranties, or other documents in the possession of the developer which reasonably pertain to the condition of the building. Such access shall be subject to reasonable limitations, including as to hours. The refusal of the developer to grant such access is a business offense punishable by a fine of $500. Each refusal to an individual lessee who is a potential purchaser is a separate violation.

(g) Any notice provided for in this Section shall be deemed given when a written notice is delivered in person or mailed, certified or registered mail, return receipt requested to the party who is being given the notice.

(h) Prior to their initial sale, units offered for sale in a conversion condominium and occupied by a tenant at the time of the offer shall be shown to prospective purchasers only a reasonable number of times and at appropriate hours. Units may only be shown to prospective purchasers during the last 90 days of any expiring tenancy.

(i) Any provision in any lease or other rental agreement, or any termination of occupancy on account of condominium conversion, not authorized herein, or contrary to or waiving the foregoing provisions, shall be deemed to be void as against public policy.

(j) A tenant is entitled to injunctive relief to enforce the provisions of subsections (a) and (c) of this Section.

(k) A non-profit housing organization, suing on behalf of an aggrieved tenant under this Section, may also recover compensation for reasonable attorney's fees and court costs necessary for filing such action.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall affect any provision in any lease or rental agreement in effect before this Act becomes law.

(m) Nothing in this amendatory Act of 1978 shall be construed to imply that there was previously a requirement to record the notice provided for in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 95-221, eff. 1-1-08; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 755. The Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 15-1002.1 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1026/15-1002.1)

Sec. 15-1002.1. Examination of State-regulated financial organizations.

(a) Notwithstanding Section 15-1002 of this Act, for any financial organization for which the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation is the primary prudential regulator, the administrator shall not examine such financial institution unless the administrator has consulted with the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation has not examined such financial organization for compliance with this Act within the past 5 years. The Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation may waive in writing the provisions of this subsection (a) in order to permit the administrator to examine a financial organization or group of financial organizations for compliance with this Act.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the administrator from examining a financial organization for which the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation is not the primary prudential regulator. Further, nothing in is this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation to examine financial organizations.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-566, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 760. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Sections 1-103 and 8-102 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/1-103) (from Ch. 68, par. 1-103)

Sec. 1-103. General definitions. When used in this Act, unless the context requires otherwise, the term:

(A) Age. "Age" means the chronological age of a person who is at least 40 years old, except with regard to any practice described in Section 2-102, insofar as that practice concerns training or apprenticeship programs. In the case of training or apprenticeship programs, for the purposes of Section 2-102, "age" means the chronological age of a person who is 18 but not yet 40 years old.

(B) Aggrieved party. "Aggrieved party" means a person who is alleged or proved to have been injured by a civil rights violation or believes he or she will be injured by a civil rights violation under Article 3 that is about to occur.

(C) Charge. "Charge" means an allegation filed with the Department by an aggrieved party or initiated by the Department under its authority.

(D) Civil rights violation. "Civil rights violation" includes and shall be limited to only those specific acts set forth in Sections 2-102, 2-103, 2-105, 3-102, 3-102.1, 3-103, 3-104, 3-104.1, 3-105, 3-105.1, 4-102, 4-103, 5-102, 5A-102, 6-101, and 6-102 of this Act.

(E) Commission. "Commission" means the Human Rights Commission created by this Act.

(F) Complaint. "Complaint" means the formal pleading filed by the Department with the Commission following an investigation and finding of substantial evidence of a civil rights violation.

(G) Complainant. "Complainant" means a person including the Department who files a charge of civil rights violation with the Department or the Commission.

(H) Department. "Department" means the Department of Human Rights created by this Act.

(I) Disability. "Disability" means a determinable physical or mental characteristic of a person, including, but not limited to, a determinable physical characteristic which necessitates the person's use of a guide, hearing or support dog, the history of such characteristic, or the perception of such characteristic by the person complained against, which may result from disease, injury, congenital condition of birth or functional disorder and which characteristic:

(1) For purposes of Article 2, is unrelated to the person's ability to perform the duties of a particular job or position and, pursuant to Section 2-104 of this Act, a person's illegal use of drugs or alcohol is not a disability;

(2) For purposes of Article 3, is unrelated to the person's ability to acquire, rent, or maintain a housing accommodation;

(3) For purposes of Article 4, is unrelated to a person's ability to repay;

(4) For purposes of Article 5, is unrelated to a person's ability to utilize and benefit from a place of public accommodation;

(5) For purposes of Article 5, also includes any mental, psychological, or developmental disability, including autism spectrum disorders.

(J) Marital status. "Marital status" means the legal status of being married, single, separated, divorced, or widowed.

(J-1) Military status. "Military status" means a person's status on active duty in or status as a veteran of the armed forces of the United States, status as a current member or veteran of any reserve component of the armed forces of the United States, including the United States Army Reserve, United States Marine Corps Reserve, United States Navy Reserve, United States Air Force Reserve, and United States Coast Guard Reserve, or status as a current member or veteran of the Illinois Army National Guard or Illinois Air National Guard.

(K) National origin. "National origin" means the place in which a person or one of his or her ancestors was born.

(K-5) "Order of protection status" means a person's status as being a person protected under an order of protection issued pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or the Civil No Contact Order Act, or an order of protection issued by a court of another state.

(L) Person. "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, associations or organizations, labor organizations, labor unions, joint apprenticeship committees, or union labor associations, corporations, the State of Illinois and its instrumentalities, political subdivisions, units of local government, legal representatives, trustees in bankruptcy or receivers.

(L-5) Pregnancy. "Pregnancy" means pregnancy, childbirth, or medical or common conditions related to pregnancy or childbirth.

(M) Public contract. "Public contract" includes every contract to which the State, any of its political subdivisions, or any municipal corporation is a party.

(N) Religion. "Religion" includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as well as belief, except that with respect to employers, for the purposes of Article 2, "religion" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (F) of Section 2-101.

(O) Sex. "Sex" means the status of being male or female.

(O-1) Sexual orientation. "Sexual orientation" means actual or perceived heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, or gender-related identity, whether or not traditionally associated with the person's designated sex at birth. "Sexual orientation" does not include a physical or sexual attraction to a minor by an adult.

(P) Unfavorable military discharge. "Unfavorable military discharge" includes discharges from the Armed Forces of the United States, their Reserve components, or any National Guard or Naval Militia which are classified as RE-3 or the equivalent thereof, but does not include those characterized as RE-4 or "Dishonorable".

(Q) Unlawful discrimination. "Unlawful discrimination" means discrimination against a person because of his or her race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex, marital status, order of protection status, disability, military status, sexual orientation, pregnancy, or unfavorable discharge from military service as those terms are defined in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-714, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-4-18.)

(775 ILCS 5/8-102) (from Ch. 68, par. 8-102)

Sec. 8-102. Powers and duties. In addition to the other powers and duties prescribed in this Act, the Commission shall have the following powers and duties:

(A) Meetings. To meet and function at any place within the State.

(B) Offices. To establish and maintain offices in Springfield and Chicago.

(C) Employees. To select and fix the compensation of such technical advisors and employees as it may deem necessary pursuant to the provisions of the "The Personnel Code".

(D) Hearing Officers. To select and fix the compensation of hearing officers who shall be attorneys duly licensed to practice law in this State and full-time full time employees of the Commission.

A formal and unbiased training program for hearing officers shall be implemented. The training program shall include the following:

(1) substantive and procedural aspects of the hearing officer position;

(2) current issues in human rights law and practice;

(3) lectures by specialists in substantive areas related to human rights matters;

(4) orientation to each operational unit of the Department and Commission;

(5) observation of experienced hearing officers conducting hearings of cases, combined with the opportunity to discuss evidence presented and rulings made;

(6) the use of hypothetical cases requiring the hearing officer to issue judgments as a means to evaluating knowledge and writing ability;

(7) writing skills;

(8) computer skills, including, but not limited to, word processing and document management.

A formal, unbiased and ongoing professional development program including, but not limited to, the above-noted areas shall be implemented to keep hearing officers informed of recent developments and issues and to assist them in maintaining and enhancing their professional competence.

(E) Rules and Regulations. To adopt, promulgate, amend, and rescind rules and regulations not inconsistent with the provisions of this Act pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(F) Compulsory Process. To issue and authorize requests for enforcement of subpoenas and other compulsory process established by this Act.

(G) Decisions. Through a panel of 3 three members designated by the Chairperson on a random basis, to hear and decide by majority vote complaints filed in conformity with this Act and to approve proposed settlements. Decisions by commissioners must be based strictly on neutral interpretations of the law and the facts.

(H) Rehearings. To order, by a vote of 3 members, rehearing of its decisions by the entire Commission in conformity with this Act.

(I) Judicial Enforcement. To authorize requests for judicial enforcement of its orders in conformity with this Act.

(J) Opinions. To publish each decision within 180 days of the decision to assure a consistent source of precedent. Published decisions shall be subject to the Personal Information Protection Act.

(K) Public Grants; Private Gifts. To accept public grants and private gifts as may be authorized.

(L) Interpreters. To appoint at the expense of the Commission a qualified sign language interpreter whenever a hearing impaired person is a party or witness at a public hearing.

(M) Automated Processing Plan. To prepare an electronic data processing and telecommunications plan jointly with the Department in accordance with Section 7-112.

(N) The provisions of Public Act 89-370 this amendatory Act of 1995 amending subsection (G) of this Section apply to causes of action filed on or after January 1, 1996.

(Source: P.A. 100-1066, eff. 8-24-18; revised 10-4-18.)

Section 765. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended by changing Sections 50-10 and 50-50 as follows:

(805 ILCS 180/50-10)

Sec. 50-10. Fees.

(a) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under its authority all of the following:

(1) Fees for filing documents.

(2) Miscellaneous charges.

(3) Fees for the sale of lists of filings and for copies of any documents.

(b) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect for all of the following:

(1) Filing articles of organization (domestic), application for admission (foreign), and restated articles of organization (domestic), $150. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the fee for filing articles of organization (domestic), application for admission (foreign), and restated articles of organization (domestic) in connection with a limited liability company with a series or the ability to establish a series pursuant to Section 37-40 of this Act is $400.

(2) Filing amendments (domestic or foreign), $50.

(3) Filing a statement of termination or application for withdrawal, $5.

(4) Filing an application to reserve a name, $25.

(5) Filing a notice of cancellation of a reserved name, $5.

(6) Filing a notice of a transfer of a reserved name, $25.

(7) Registration of a name, $50.

(8) Renewal of registration of a name, $50.

(9) Filing an application for use of an assumed name under Section 1-20 of this Act, $150 for each year or part thereof ending in 0 or 5, $120 for each year or part thereof ending in 1 or 6, $90 for each year or part thereof ending in 2 or 7, $60 for each year or part thereof ending in 3 or 8, $30 for each year or part thereof ending in 4 or 9, and a renewal for each assumed name, $150.

(9.5) Filing an application for change of an assumed name, $25.

(10) Filing an application for cancellation of an assumed name, $5.

(11) Filing an annual report of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, $75, if filed as required by this Act, plus a penalty if delinquent. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the fee for filing an annual report of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company is $75 plus $50 for each series for which a certificate of designation has been filed pursuant to Section 37-40 of this Act and is in effect on the last day of the third month preceding the company's anniversary month, plus a penalty if delinquent.

(12) Filing an application for reinstatement of a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, $200.

(13) Filing articles of merger, $100 plus $50 for each party to the merger in excess of the first 2 parties.

(14) (Blank).

(15) Filing a statement of change of address of registered office or change of registered agent, or both, or filing a statement of correction, $25.

(16) Filing a petition for refund, $5.

(17) Filing a certificate of designation of a limited liability company with a series pursuant to Section 37-40 of this Act, $50.

(18) Filing articles of domestication, $100.

(19) Filing, amending, or cancelling a statement of authority, $50.

(20) Filing, amending, or cancelling a statement of denial, $10.

(21) Filing any other document, $5.

(c) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect all of the following:

(1) For furnishing a copy or certified copy of any document, instrument, or paper relating to a limited liability company or foreign limited liability company, or for a certificate, $25.

(2) For the transfer of information by computer process media to any purchaser, fees established by rule.

(Source: P.A. 99-637, eff. 7-1-17; 100-561, eff. 7-1-18; 100-571, eff. 12-20-17; revised 9-13-18.)

(805 ILCS 180/50-50)

Sec. 50-50. Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund.

(a) A special fund in the State treasury is created and shall be known as the Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Business Services of the Office of the Secretary of State, hereinafter "Department", to create and maintain the capability to perform expedited services in response to special requests made by the public for same-day or 24-hour service. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used for, but not limited to, expenditures for personal services, retirement, Social Security, contractual services, equipment, electronic data processing, and telecommunications.

(b) The balance in the Fund at the end of any fiscal year shall not exceed $600,000, and any amount in excess thereof shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(c) All fees payable to the Secretary of State under this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. No other fees or charges collected under this Act shall be deposited into the Fund.

(d) "Expedited services" means services rendered within the same day, or within 24 hours from the time, the request therefor is submitted by the filer, law firm, service company, or messenger physically in person or, at the Secretary of State's discretion, by electronic means, to the Department's Springfield Office and includes requests for certified copies, photocopies, and certificates of good standing made to the Department's Springfield Office in person or by telephone, or requests for certificates of good standing made in person or by telephone to the Department's Chicago Office. A request submitted by electronic means may not be considered a request for expedited services solely because of its submission by electronic means, unless expedited service is requested by the filer.

(e) Fees for expedited services shall be as follows:

Restated articles of organization, $200;

Merger, $200;

Articles of organization, $100;

Articles of amendment, $100;

Reinstatement, $100;

Application for admission to transact business, $100;

Certificate of good standing or abstract of computer record, $20;

All other filings, copies of documents, annual reports, and copies of documents of dissolved or revoked limited liability companies, $50.

(Source: P.A. 100-186, eff. 7-1-18; 100-561, eff. 7-1-18; revised 9-13-18.)

Section 770. The Uniform Limited Partnership Act (2001) is amended by changing Section 1308 as follows:

(805 ILCS 215/1308)

Sec. 1308. Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund.

(a) A special fund in the State Treasury is created and shall be known as the Department of Business Services Special Operations Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Department of Business Services of the Office of the Secretary of State, hereinafter "Department", to create and maintain the capability to perform expedited services in response to special requests made by the public for same day or 24 hour service. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall be used for, but not limited to, expenditures for personal services, retirement, Social Security, contractual services, equipment, electronic data processing, and telecommunications.

(b) The balance in the Fund at the end of any fiscal year shall not exceed $600,000 and any amount in excess thereof shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(c) All fees payable to the Secretary of State under this Section shall be deposited into the Fund. No other fees or charges collected under this Act shall be deposited into the Fund.

(d) "Expedited services" means services rendered within the same day, or within 24 hours from the time the request therefor is submitted by the filer, law firm, service company, or messenger physically in person or, at the Secretary of State's discretion, by electronic means, to the Department's Springfield Office or Chicago Office and includes requests for certified copies, photocopies, and certificates of existence or abstracts of computer record made to the Department's Springfield Office in person or by telephone, or requests for certificates of existence or abstracts of computer record made in person or by telephone to the Department's Chicago Office. A request submitted by electronic means may not be considered a request for expedited services solely because of its submission by electronic means, unless expedited service is requested by the filer.

(e) Fees for expedited services shall be as follows:

Merger, $200;

Certificate of limited partnership, $100;

Certificate of amendment, $100;

Reinstatement, $100;

Application for admission to transact business, $100;

Certificate of existence or abstract of computer record, $20;

All other filings, copies of documents, annual renewal reports, and copies of documents of canceled limited partnerships, $50.

(Source: P.A. 100-186, eff. 7-1-18; 100-561, eff. 7-1-18; revised 9-13-18.)

Section 775. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2VVV as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2VVV)

Sec. 2VVV. Deceptive marketing, advertising, and sale of mental health disorder and substance use disorder treatment.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Facility" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

"Hospital affiliate" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 10.8 of the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Mental health disorder" has the same meaning as "mental illness" under Section 1-129 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Program" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

"Substance use disorder" has the same meaning as "substance abuse" under Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

"Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to that term in Section 1-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.

(b) It is an unlawful practice for any person to engage in misleading or false advertising or promotion that misrepresents the need to seek mental health disorder or substance use disorder treatment outside of the State of Illinois.

(c) Any marketing, advertising, promotional, or sales materials directed to Illinois residents concerning mental health disorder or substance use disorder treatment must:

(1) prominently display or announce the full physical address of the treatment program or facility;

(2) display whether the treatment program or facility is licensed in the State of Illinois;

(3) display whether the treatment program or facility has locations in Illinois;

(4) display whether the services provided by the treatment program or facility are covered by an insurance policy issued to an Illinois resident;

(5) display whether the treatment program or facility is an in-network or out-of-network provider;

(6) include a link to the Internet website for the Department of Human Services' Division of Mental Health and Division of Substance Use Prevention and Recovery Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, or any successor State agency that provides information regarding licensed providers of services; and

(7) disclose that mental health disorder and substance use disorder treatment may be available at a reduced cost or for free for Illinois residents within the State of Illinois.

(d) It is an unlawful practice for any person to enter into an arrangement under which a patient seeking mental health disorder or substance use disorder treatment is referred to a mental health disorder or substance use disorder treatment program or facility in exchange for a fee, a percentage of the treatment program's or facility's revenues that are related to the patient, or any other remuneration that takes into account the volume or value of the referrals to the treatment program or facility. Such practice shall also be considered a violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987 and a violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act. This Section does not apply to health insurance companies, health maintenance organizations, managed care plans, or organizations, including hospitals and hospital affiliates licensed in Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 100-1058, eff. 1-1-19; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 780. The Beer Industry Fair Dealing Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(815 ILCS 720/3) (from Ch. 43, par. 303)

Sec. 3. Termination and notice of cancellation.

(1) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this Section, no brewer or beer wholesaler may cancel, fail to renew, or otherwise terminate an agreement unless the brewer or wholesaler furnishes prior notification to the affected party in accordance with subsection (2).

(2) The notification required under subsection (1) shall be in writing and sent to the affected party by certified mail not less than 90 days before the date on which the agreement will be cancelled, not renewed, or otherwise terminated. The notification shall contain (a) a statement of intention to cancel, failure to renew, or otherwise terminate an agreement, (b) a complete statement of reasons therefor therefore, including all data and documentation necessary to fully apprise the wholesaler of the reasons for the action, and (c) the date on which the action shall take effect.

(3) A brewer may cancel, fail to renew, or otherwise terminate an agreement without furnishing any prior notification for any of the following reasons:

(A) Wholesaler's failure to pay any account when due and upon demand by the brewer for such payment, in accordance with agreed payment terms.

(B) Wholesaler's assignment for the benefit of creditors, or similar disposition, of substantially all of the assets of such party's business.

(C) Insolvency of wholesaler, or the institution of proceedings in bankruptcy by or against the wholesaler.

(D) Dissolution or liquidation of the wholesaler.

(E) Wholesaler's conviction of, or plea of guilty or no contest, to a charge of violating a law or regulation, in this State which materially and adversely affects the ability of either party to continue to sell beer in this State, or the revocation or suspension of a license or permit to sell beer in this State.

(F) Any attempted transfer of business assets of the wholesaler, voting stock of the wholesaler, voting stock of any parent corporation of the wholesaler, or any change in the beneficial ownership or control of any entity without obtaining the prior consent or approval as provided for under Section 6 unless the brewer neither approves, consents to, nor objects to the transfer within 60 days after receiving all requested information from the wholesaler regarding the proposed purchase, in which event the brewer shall be deemed to have consented to the proposed transaction.

(G) Fraudulent conduct by the wholesaler in its dealings with the brewer.

(Source: P.A. 88-410; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 785. The Civil Air Patrol Leave Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 148/10)

Sec. 10. Civil air patrol leave requirement.

(a) Any employer, as defined in Section 5 of this Act, that employs between 15 and 50 employees shall provide up to 15 days of unpaid civil air patrol leave to an employee performing a civil air patrol mission, subject to the conditions set forth in this Section. Civil air patrol leave granted under this Act may consist of unpaid leave.

(b) An employer, as defined in Section 5 of this Act, that employs more than 50 employees shall provide up to 30 days of unpaid civil air patrol leave to an employee performing a civil air patrol mission, subject to the conditions set forth in this Section. Civil air patrol leave granted under this Act may consist of unpaid leave.

(c) The employee shall give at least 14 days' notice of the intended date upon which the civil air patrol leave will commence if leave will consist of 5 or more consecutive work days. When able, the employee shall consult with the employer to schedule the leave so as to not unduly disrupt the operations of the employer. Employees taking civil air patrol leave for less than 5 consecutive days shall give the employer advance advanced notice as is practical. The employer may require certification from the proper civil air patrol authority to verify the employee's eligibility for the civil air patrol leave requested.

(d) An employee taking leave as provided under this Act shall not be required to have exhausted all accrued vacation leave, personal leave, compensatory leave, sick leave, disability leave, and any other leave that may be granted to the employee.

(Source: P.A. 95-763, eff. 1-1-09; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 790. The Family Military Leave Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(820 ILCS 151/10)

Sec. 10. Family Military Leave Requirement.

(a) Any employer, as defined in Section 5 of this Act, that employs between 15 and 50 employees shall provide up to 15 days of unpaid family military leave to an employee during the time federal or State deployment orders are in effect, subject to the conditions set forth in this Section. Family military leave granted under this Act may consist of unpaid leave.

(b) An employer, as defined in Section 5 of this Act, that employs more than 50 employees shall provide up to 30 days of unpaid family military leave to an employee during the time federal or State deployment orders are in effect, subject to the conditions set forth in this Section. Family military leave granted under this Act may consist of unpaid leave. The number of days of leave provided to an employee under this subsection (b) because the employee's spouse or child is called to military service shall be reduced by the number of days of leave provided to the employee under subdivision (a)(1)(E) of Section 102 of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 because of any qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that the employee's spouse or child is on covered active duty as defined in that Act (or has been notified of an impending call or order to covered active duty) in the Armed Forces.

(c) The employee shall give at least 14 days' days notice of the intended date upon which the family military leave will commence if leave will consist of 5 or more consecutive work days. Where able, the employee shall consult with the employer to schedule the leave so as to not unduly disrupt the operations of the employer. Employees taking military family leave for less than 5 consecutive days shall give the employer advance advanced notice as is practicable. The employer may require certification from the proper military authority to verify the employee's eligibility for the family military leave requested.

(d) An employee shall not take leave as provided under this Act unless he or she has exhausted all accrued vacation leave, personal leave, compensatory leave, and any other leave that may be granted to the employee, except sick leave and disability leave.

(Source: P.A. 96-1417, eff. 1-1-11; revised 10-9-18.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.