HB5447enr 100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

HB5447 Enrolled LRB100 16294 AMC 31417 b

AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments and making technical corrections.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Nature of this Act.

(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2018 General Revisory Act.

(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical corrections and revisions in the law.

This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain Sections that have been added or amended by more than one Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section. The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to include the different versions of the Section found in the Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not include other versions of the Section to be found in Public Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources is not a part of the text of the Section.

(d) Public Acts 99-920 through 100-534 were considered in the preparation of the combining revisories included in this Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or underscoring because no additional changes are being made in the material that is being combined.

Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.30 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.30)

Sec. 4.30. Acts repealed on January 1, 2020. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2020:

The Auction License Act.

The Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989.

The Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989.

The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989.

The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act.

The Perfusionist Practice Act.

The Pharmacy Practice Act.

The Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

The Real Estate License Act of 2000.

The Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.

(Source: P.A. 100-497, eff. 9-8-17; 100-534, eff. 9-22-17; revised 10-18-17.)

Section 10. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-512 and 100-517)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) (ff) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) (ff) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) (ff) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; 99-863, eff. 8-19-16; 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; 100-464, eff. 8-28-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 11-2-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-517 but before amendment by P.A. 100-512)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) (ff) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) (ff) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) (ff) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) (ff) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; 99-863, eff. 8-19-16; 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; 100-464, eff. 8-28-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-517, eff. 6-1-18; revised 11-2-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-512)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions. To the extent provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying library users with specific materials under the Library Records Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by carriers under the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or driver identification information compiled by a law enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential health care facility resident sexual assault and death review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans, investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified health information in the form of health data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the Registry established under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(z) Records and information provided to a fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.

(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.

(bb) Information which is or was prohibited from disclosure by the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(cc) Recordings made under the Law Enforcement Officer-Worn Body Camera Act, except to the extent authorized under that Act.

(dd) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 45 of the Condominium and Common Interest Community Ombudsperson Act.

(ee) Information that is exempted from disclosure under Section 30.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ff) Information that is exempted from disclosure under the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(gg) (ff) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed under Section 7-603.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(hh) (ff) Records that are exempt from disclosure under Section 1A-16.7 of the Election Code.

(ii) (ff) Information which is exempted from disclosure under Section 2505-800 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(jj) (ff) Information and reports that are required to be submitted to the Department of Labor by registering day and temporary labor service agencies but are exempt from disclosure under subsection (a-1) of Section 45 of the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

(kk) (ff) Information prohibited from disclosure under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-776, eff. 8-12-16; 99-863, eff. 8-19-16; 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; 100-464, eff. 8-28-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; 100-517, eff. 6-1-18; revised 11-2-17.)

Section 15. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11)

Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance Code requirements. The program of health benefits shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits shall provide the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.22, and 356z.25, and 356z.26 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The program of health benefits must comply with Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 25. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 1-2, 1A-8, 1A-16, 2A-30, 3-5, 12-5, 21-2, and 28-7 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/1-2) (from Ch. 46, par. 1-2)

Sec. 1-2. The provisions of this Act, so far as they are the same as those of any prior statute, shall be construed as a continuation of such prior provisions, and not as a new enactment.

If in any other statute reference is made to an Act of the General Assembly, or a Section section of such an Act, which is continued in this election Code, such reference shall be held to refer to the Act or Section section thereof so continued in this Code.

(Source: Laws 1943, vol. 2, p. 1; revised 9-22-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-8) (from Ch. 46, par. 1A-8)

Sec. 1A-8. The State Board of Elections shall exercise the following powers and perform the following duties in addition to any powers or duties otherwise provided for by law:

(1) Assume all duties and responsibilities of the State Electoral Board and the Secretary of State as heretofore provided in this Code Act;

(2) Disseminate information to and consult with election authorities concerning the conduct of elections and registration in accordance with the laws of this State and the laws of the United States;

(3) Furnish to each election authority prior to each primary and general election and any other election it deems necessary, a manual of uniform instructions consistent with the provisions of this Code Act which shall be used by election authorities in the preparation of the official manual of instruction to be used by the judges of election in any such election. In preparing such manual, the State Board shall consult with representatives of the election authorities throughout the State. The State Board may provide separate portions of the uniform instructions applicable to different election jurisdictions which administer elections under different options provided by law. The State Board may by regulation require particular portions of the uniform instructions to be included in any official manual of instructions published by election authorities. Any manual of instructions published by any election authority shall be identical with the manual of uniform instructions issued by the Board, but may be adapted by the election authority to accommodate special or unusual local election problems, provided that all manuals published by election authorities must be consistent with the provisions of this Code Act in all respects and must receive the approval of the State Board of Elections prior to publication; provided further that if the State Board does not approve or disapprove of a proposed manual within 60 days of its submission, the manual shall be deemed approved.

(4) Prescribe and require the use of such uniform forms, notices, and other supplies not inconsistent with the provisions of this Code Act as it shall deem advisable which shall be used by election authorities in the conduct of elections and registrations;

(5) Prepare and certify the form of ballot for any proposed amendment to the Constitution of the State of Illinois, or any referendum to be submitted to the electors throughout the State or, when required to do so by law, to the voters of any area or unit of local government of the State;

(6) Require such statistical reports regarding the conduct of elections and registration from election authorities as may be deemed necessary;

(7) Review and inspect procedures and records relating to conduct of elections and registration as may be deemed necessary, and to report violations of election laws to the appropriate State's Attorney or the Attorney General;

(8) Recommend to the General Assembly legislation to improve the administration of elections and registration;

(9) Adopt, amend or rescind rules and regulations in the performance of its duties provided that all such rules and regulations must be consistent with the provisions of this Article 1A or issued pursuant to authority otherwise provided by law;

(10) Determine the validity and sufficiency of petitions filed under Article XIV, Section 3, of the Constitution of the State of Illinois of 1970;

(11) Maintain in its principal office a research library that includes, but is not limited to, abstracts of votes by precinct for general primary elections and general elections, current precinct maps and current precinct poll lists from all election jurisdictions within the State. The research library shall be open to the public during regular business hours. Such abstracts, maps and lists shall be preserved as permanent records and shall be available for examination and copying at a reasonable cost;

(12) Supervise the administration of the registration and election laws throughout the State;

(13) Obtain from the Department of Central Management Services, under Section 405-250 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-250), such use of electronic data processing equipment as may be required to perform the duties of the State Board of Elections and to provide election-related information to candidates, public and party officials, interested civic organizations and the general public in a timely and efficient manner;

(14) To take such action as may be necessary or required to give effect to directions of the national committee or State central committee of an established political party under Sections 7-8, 7-11, and 7-14.1 or such other provisions as may be applicable pertaining to the selection of delegates and alternate delegates to an established political party's national nominating conventions or, notwithstanding any candidate certification schedule contained within this the Election Code, the certification of the Presidential and Vice Presidential candidate selected by the established political party's national nominating convention;

(15) To post all early voting sites separated by election authority and hours of operation on its website at least 5 business days before the period for early voting begins; and

(16) To post on its website the statewide totals, and totals separated by each election authority, for each of the counts received pursuant to Section 1-9.2.

The Board may by regulation delegate any of its duties or functions under this Article, except that final determinations and orders under this Article shall be issued only by the Board.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader, and the Clerk of the House of Representatives, and the President, the Minority Leader, and the Secretary of the Senate, and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act "An Act to revise the law in relation to the General Assembly", approved February 25, 1874, as amended, and filing such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 9-21-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/1A-16)

Sec. 1A-16. Voter registration information; Internet posting; processing of voter registration forms; content of such forms. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the following provisions shall apply to voter registration under this Code.

(a) Voter registration information; Internet posting of voter registration form. Within 90 days after August 21, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-574) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the State Board of Elections shall post on its World Wide Web site the following information:

(1) A comprehensive list of the names, addresses, phone numbers, and websites, if applicable, of all county clerks and boards of election commissioners in Illinois.

(2) A schedule of upcoming elections and the deadline for voter registration.

(3) A downloadable, printable voter registration form, in at least English and in Spanish versions, that a person may complete and mail or submit to the State Board of Elections or the appropriate county clerk or board of election commissioners.

Any forms described under paragraph (3) must state the following:

If you do not have a driver's license or social security number, and this form is submitted by mail, and you have never registered to vote in the jurisdiction you are now registering in, then you must send, with this application, either (i) a copy of a current and valid photo identification, or (ii) a copy of a current utility bill, bank statement, government check, paycheck, or other government document that shows the name and address of the voter. If you do not provide the information required above, then you will be required to provide election officials with either (i) or (ii) described above the first time you vote at a voting place.

(b) Acceptance of registration forms by the State Board of Elections and county clerks and board of election commissioners. The State Board of Elections, county clerks, and board of election commissioners shall accept all completed voter registration forms described in subsection (a)(3) of this Section and Sections 1A-17 and 1A-30 that are:

(1) postmarked on or before the day that voter registration is closed under this the Election Code;

(2) not postmarked, but arrives no later than 5 days after the close of registration;

(3) submitted in person by a person using the form on or before the day that voter registration is closed under this the Election Code; or

(4) submitted in person by a person who submits one or more forms on behalf of one or more persons who used the form on or before the day that voter registration is closed under this the Election Code.

Upon the receipt of a registration form, the State Board of Elections shall mark the date on which the form was received and send the form via first class mail to the appropriate county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, within 2 business days based upon the home address of the person submitting the registration form. The county clerk and board of election commissioners shall accept and process any form received from the State Board of Elections.

(c) Processing of registration forms by county clerks and boards of election commissioners. The county clerk or board of election commissioners shall promulgate procedures for processing the voter registration form.

(d) Contents of the voter registration form. The State Board shall create a voter registration form, which must contain the following content:

(1) Instructions for completing the form.

(2) A summary of the qualifications to register to vote in Illinois.

(3) Instructions for mailing in or submitting the form in person.

(4) The phone number for the State Board of Elections should a person submitting the form have questions.

(5) A box for the person to check that explains one of 3 reasons for submitting the form:

(a) new registration;

(b) change of address; or

(c) change of name.

(6) a box for the person to check yes or no that asks, "Are you a citizen of the United States?", a box for the person to check yes or no that asks, "Will you be 18 years of age on or before election day?", and a statement of "If you checked 'no' in response to either of these questions, then do not complete this form.".

(7) A space for the person to fill in his or her home telephone number.

(8) Spaces for the person to fill in his or her first, middle, and last names, street address (principal place of residence), county, city, state, and zip code.

(9) Spaces for the person to fill in his or her mailing address, city, state, and zip code if different from his or her principal place of residence.

(10) A space for the person to fill in his or her Illinois driver's license number if the person has a driver's license.

(11) A space for a person without a driver's license to fill in the last four digits of his or her social security number if the person has a social security number.

(12) A space for a person without an Illinois driver's license to fill in his or her identification number from his or her State Identification card issued by the Secretary of State.

(13) A space for the person to fill the name appearing on his or her last voter registration, the street address of his or her last registration, including the city, county, state, and zip code.

(14) A space where the person swears or affirms the following under penalty of perjury with his or her signature:

(a) "I am a citizen of the United States.";

(b) "I will be at least 18 years old on or before the next election.";

(c) "I will have lived in the State of Illinois and in my election precinct at least 30 days as of the date of the next election."; and

(d) "The information I have provided is true to the best of my knowledge under penalty of perjury. If I have provided false information, then I may be fined, imprisoned, or, if I am not a U.S. citizen, deported from or refused entry into the United States.".

(15) A space for the person to fill in his or her e-mail address if he or she chooses to provide that information.

(d-5) Compliance with federal law; rulemaking authority. The voter registration form described in this Section shall be consistent with the form prescribed by the Federal Election Commission under the National Voter Registration Act of 1993, P.L. 103-31, as amended from time to time, and the Help America Vote Act of 2002, P.L. 107-252, in all relevant respects. The State Board of Elections shall periodically update the form based on changes to federal or State law. The State Board of Elections shall promulgate any rules necessary for the implementation of this Section; provided that the rules comport with the letter and spirit of the National Voter Registration Act of 1993 and Help America Vote Act of 2002 and maximize the opportunity for a person to register to vote.

(e) Forms available in paper form. The State Board of Elections shall make the voter registration form available in regular paper stock and form in sufficient quantities for the general public. The State Board of Elections may provide the voter registration form to the Secretary of State, county clerks, boards of election commissioners, designated agencies of the State of Illinois, and any other person or entity designated to have these forms by this the Election Code in regular paper stock and form or some other format deemed suitable by the Board. Each county clerk or board of election commissioners has the authority to design and print its own voter registration form so long as the form complies with the requirements of this Section. The State Board of Elections, county clerks, boards of election commissioners, or other designated agencies of the State of Illinois required to have these forms under this the Election Code shall provide a member of the public with any reasonable number of forms that he or she may request. Nothing in this Section shall permit the State Board of Elections, county clerk, board of election commissioners, or other appropriate election official who may accept a voter registration form to refuse to accept a voter registration form because the form is printed on photocopier or regular paper stock and form.

(f) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 10-1-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; revised 9-22-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/2A-30) (from Ch. 46, par. 2A-30)

Sec. 2A-30. Villages and incorporated towns with population of less than 50,000; president; trustees; clerk Incorporated Towns with Population of Less than 50,000 - President - Trustees - Clerk. In villages and incorporated towns with a population of less than 50,000, a president shall be elected at the consolidated election in every other odd-numbered year when the president is elected for a 4-year 4 year term, and in each odd-numbered year when the president is elected for a 2-year 2 year term.

Except as provided in Section 2A-30a, in villages and incorporated towns with a population of less than 50,000, 3 trustees shall be elected at the consolidated election in each odd-numbered year when trustees are elected for 4-year 4 year terms, and at the consolidated election in each odd-numbered year and at the general primary election in each even-numbered year when trustees are elected for 2-year 2 year terms. A primary to nominate candidates for the office of trustee to be elected at the general primary election shall be held on the Tuesday 6 weeks preceding that election.

In villages and incorporated towns with a population of less than 50,000, a clerk shall be elected at the consolidated election in every other odd-numbered year when the clerk is elected for a 4-year 4 year term, and in each odd-numbered year when the clerk is elected for a 2-year 2 year term.

(Source: P.A. 80-1495; revised 9-22-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/3-5) (from Ch. 46, par. 3-5)

Sec. 3-5. No person who has been legally convicted, in this or another state or in any federal court, of any crime, and is serving a sentence of confinement in any penal institution, or who has been convicted under any Section of this Code Act and is serving a sentence of confinement in any penal institution, shall vote, offer to vote, attempt to vote or be permitted to vote at any election until his release from confinement.

Confinement for purposes of this Section shall include any person convicted and imprisoned but granted a furlough as provided by Section 3-11-1 of the "Unified Code of Corrections", or admitted to a work release program as provided by Section 3-13-2 of the "Unified Code of Corrections". Confinement shall not include any person convicted and imprisoned but released on parole.

Confinement or detention in a jail pending acquittal or conviction of a crime is not a disqualification for voting.

(Source: P.A. 94-637, eff. 1-1-06; revised 9-22-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/12-5) (from Ch. 46, par. 12-5)

Sec. 12-5. Notice for public questions.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), for all elections held after July 1, 1999, notice of public questions shall be required only as set forth in this Section or as set forth in Section 17-3 or 19-3 of the School Code. Not more than 60 days nor less than 10 days before the date of a regular election at which a public question is to be submitted to the voters of a political or governmental subdivision, and at least 20 days before an emergency referendum, the election authority shall publish notice of the referendum. The notice shall be published once in a local, community newspaper having general circulation in the political or governmental subdivision. The notice shall also be given at least 10 days before the date of the election by posting a copy of the notice at the principal office of the election authority. The local election official shall also post a copy of the notice at the principal office of the political or governmental subdivision, or if there is no principal office at the building in which the governing body of the political or governmental subdivision held its first meeting of the calendar year in which the referendum is being held. The election authority and the political or governmental subdivision may, but are not required to, post the notice electronically on their World Wide Web pages. The notice, which shall appear over the name or title of the election authority, shall be substantially in the following form:

NOTICE IS HEREBY GIVEN that at the election to be held on (insert day of the week), (insert date of election), the following proposition will be submitted to the voters of (name of political or governmental subdivision):

(insert the public question as it will appear on the ballot)

The polls at the election will be open at 6:00 o'clock A.M. and will continue to be open until 7:00 o'clock P.M. of that day.

Dated (date of notice)

(Name or title of the election authority)

The notice shall also include any additional information required by the statute authorizing the public question. The notice may include an explanation, in neutral and plain language, of the question and its purposes supplied by the governing body of the political or governmental subdivision to whose voters the question is to be submitted. The notice shall set forth the precincts and polling places at which the referendum will be conducted only in the case of emergency referenda.

(b) Notice of any public question published in a local, community newspaper having general circulation in the political or governmental subdivision to which such public question relates more than 30 days but not more than 35 days prior to the general election held on November 8, 2016 that otherwise complies with the requirements of this Section is sufficient notice to satisfy the newspaper publication requirement of this Section, such notice shall for all purposes be deemed to have been given in accordance with this Section, any bonds approved by the voters at such election are hereby authorized to be issued in accordance with applicable law without further referendum approval and taxes to be levied pursuant to any limiting rate increases approved by the voters at such election are hereby authorized to be levied and extended without further referendum approval.

(Source: P.A. 99-935, eff. 2-17-17; 100-298, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/21-2) (from Ch. 46, par. 21-2)

Sec. 21-2. The county clerks of the several counties shall, within 21 days next after holding the election named in subsection (1) of Section 2A-1.2 and Section 2A-2, make 2 copies of the abstract of the votes cast for electors by each political party or group, as indicated by the voter, as aforesaid, by a cross in the square to the left of the bracket aforesaid, or as indicated by a cross in the appropriate place preceding the appellation or title of the particular political party or group, and transmit by mail one of the copies to the office of the State Board of Elections and retain the other in his office, to be sent for by the electoral board in case the other should be mislaid. Within 31 days after the holding of such election, and sooner if all the returns are received by the State Board of Elections, the State Board of Elections Election, shall proceed to open and canvass said election returns and to declare which set of candidates for President and Vice-President received, as aforesaid, the highest number of votes cast at such election as aforesaid; and the electors of that party whose candidates for President and Vice-President received the highest number of votes so cast shall be taken and deemed to be elected as electors of President and Vice-President, but should 2 or more sets of candidates for President and Vice-President be returned with an equal and the highest vote, the State Board of Elections shall cause a notice of the same to be published, which notice shall name some day and place, not less than 5 days from the time of such publication of such notice, upon which the State Board of Elections will decide by lot which of the sets of candidates for President and Vice-President so equal and highest shall be declared to be highest. And upon the day and at the place so appointed in the notice, the board shall so decide by lot and declare which is deemed highest of the sets of candidates for President and Vice-President so equal and highest, thereby determining only that the electors chosen as aforesaid by such candidates' party or group are thereby elected by general ticket to be such electors.

(Source: P.A. 93-847, eff. 7-30-04; revised 9-22-17.)

(10 ILCS 5/28-7) (from Ch. 46, par. 28-7)

Sec. 28-7. In any case in which Article VII or paragraph (a) of Section 5 of the Transition Schedule of the Constitution authorizes any action to be taken by or with respect to any unit of local government, as defined in Section 1 of Article VII of the Constitution, by or subject to approval by referendum, any such public question shall be initiated in accordance with this Section.

Any such public question may be initiated by the governing body of the unit of local government by resolution or by the filing with the clerk or secretary of the governmental unit of a petition signed by a number of qualified electors equal to or greater than at least 8% of the total votes cast for candidates for Governor in the preceding gubernatorial election, requesting the submission of the proposal for such action to the voters of the governmental unit at a regular election.

If the action to be taken requires a referendum involving 2 or more units of local government, the proposal shall be submitted to the voters of such governmental units by the election authorities with jurisdiction over the territory of the governmental units. Such multi-unit proposals may be initiated by appropriate resolutions by the respective governing bodies or by petitions of the voters of the several governmental units filed with the respective clerks or secretaries.

This Section is intended to provide a method of submission to referendum in all cases of proposals for actions which are authorized by Article VII of the Constitution by or subject to approval by referendum and supersedes any conflicting statutory provisions except those contained in Division 2-5 of the Counties Code the "County Executive Act".

Referenda provided for in this Section may not be held more than once in any 23-month period on the same proposition, provided that in any municipality a referendum to elect not to be a home rule unit may be held only once within any 47-month period.

(Source: P.A. 97-81, eff. 7-5-11; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 30. The State Treasurer Act is amended by changing Section 16.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 505/16.5)

Sec. 16.5. College Savings Pool. The State Treasurer may establish and administer a College Savings Pool to supplement and enhance the investment opportunities otherwise available to persons seeking to finance the costs of higher education. The State Treasurer, in administering the College Savings Pool, may receive moneys paid into the pool by a participant and may serve as the fiscal agent of that participant for the purpose of holding and investing those moneys.

"Participant", as used in this Section, means any person who has authority to withdraw funds, change the designated beneficiary, or otherwise exercise control over an account. "Donor", as used in this Section, means any person who makes investments in the pool. "Designated beneficiary", as used in this Section, means any person on whose behalf an account is established in the College Savings Pool by a participant. Both in-state and out-of-state persons may be participants, donors, and designated beneficiaries in the College Savings Pool. The College Savings Pool must be available to any individual with a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number for the benefit of any individual with a valid social security number or taxpayer identification number, unless a contract in effect on August 1, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-233) does not allow for taxpayer identification numbers, in which case taxpayer identification numbers must be allowed upon the expiration of the contract.

New accounts in the College Savings Pool may be processed through participating financial institutions. "Participating financial institution", as used in this Section, means any financial institution insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois and any credit union approved by the State Treasurer and lawfully doing business in the State of Illinois that agrees to process new accounts in the College Savings Pool. Participating financial institutions may charge a processing fee to participants to open an account in the pool that shall not exceed $30 until the year 2001. Beginning in 2001 and every year thereafter, the maximum fee limit shall be adjusted by the Treasurer based on the Consumer Price Index for the North Central Region as published by the United States Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics for the immediately preceding calendar year. Every contribution received by a financial institution for investment in the College Savings Pool shall be transferred from the financial institution to a location selected by the State Treasurer within one business day following the day that the funds must be made available in accordance with federal law. All communications from the State Treasurer to participants and donors shall reference the participating financial institution at which the account was processed.

The Treasurer may invest the moneys in the College Savings Pool in the same manner and in the same types of investments provided for the investment of moneys by the Illinois State Board of Investment. To enhance the safety and liquidity of the College Savings Pool, to ensure the diversification of the investment portfolio of the pool, and in an effort to keep investment dollars in the State of Illinois, the State Treasurer may make a percentage of each account available for investment in participating financial institutions doing business in the State. The State Treasurer may deposit with the participating financial institution at which the account was processed the following percentage of each account at a prevailing rate offered by the institution, provided that the deposit is federally insured or fully collateralized and the institution accepts the deposit: 10% of the total amount of each account for which the current age of the beneficiary is less than 7 years of age, 20% of the total amount of each account for which the beneficiary is at least 7 years of age and less than 12 years of age, and 50% of the total amount of each account for which the current age of the beneficiary is at least 12 years of age. The Treasurer shall develop, publish, and implement an investment policy covering the investment of the moneys in the College Savings Pool. The policy shall be published each year as part of the audit of the College Savings Pool by the Auditor General, which shall be distributed to all participants. The Treasurer shall notify all participants in writing, and the Treasurer shall publish in a newspaper of general circulation in both Chicago and Springfield, any changes to the previously published investment policy at least 30 calendar days before implementing the policy. Any investment policy adopted by the Treasurer shall be reviewed and updated if necessary within 90 days following the date that the State Treasurer takes office.

Participants shall be required to use moneys distributed from the College Savings Pool for qualified expenses at eligible educational institutions. "Qualified expenses", as used in this Section, means the following: (i) tuition, fees, and the costs of books, supplies, and equipment required for enrollment or attendance at an eligible educational institution; (ii) expenses for special needs services, in the case of a special needs beneficiary, which are incurred in connection with such enrollment or attendance; (iii) certain expenses for the purchase of computer or peripheral equipment, as defined in Section 168 of the federal Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 168), computer software, as defined in Section 197 of the federal Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 197), or Internet internet access and related services, if such equipment, software, or services are to be used primarily by the beneficiary during any of the years the beneficiary is enrolled at an eligible educational institution, except that, such expenses shall not include expenses for computer software designed for sports, games, or hobbies, unless the software is predominantly educational in nature; and (iv) certain room and board expenses incurred while attending an eligible educational institution at least half-time. "Eligible educational institutions", as used in this Section, means public and private colleges, junior colleges, graduate schools, and certain vocational institutions that are described in Section 481 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1088) and that are eligible to participate in Department of Education student aid programs. A student shall be considered to be enrolled at least half-time if the student is enrolled for at least half the full-time academic work load for the course of study the student is pursuing as determined under the standards of the institution at which the student is enrolled. Distributions made from the pool for qualified expenses shall be made directly to the eligible educational institution, directly to a vendor, in the form of a check payable to both the beneficiary and the institution or vendor, or directly to the designated beneficiary in a manner that is permissible under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code. Any moneys that are distributed in any other manner or that are used for expenses other than qualified expenses at an eligible educational institution shall be subject to a penalty of 10% of the earnings unless the beneficiary dies, becomes a person with a disability, or receives a scholarship that equals or exceeds the distribution. Penalties shall be withheld at the time the distribution is made.

The Treasurer shall limit the contributions that may be made on behalf of a designated beneficiary based on the limitations established by the Internal Revenue Service. The contributions made on behalf of a beneficiary who is also a beneficiary under the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program shall be further restricted to ensure that the contributions in both programs combined do not exceed the limit established for the College Savings Pool. The Treasurer shall provide the Illinois Student Assistance Commission each year at a time designated by the Commission, an electronic report of all participant accounts in the Treasurer's College Savings Pool, listing total contributions and disbursements from each individual account during the previous calendar year. As soon thereafter as is possible following receipt of the Treasurer's report, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission shall, in turn, provide the Treasurer with an electronic report listing those College Savings Pool participants who also participate in the State's prepaid tuition program, administered by the Commission. The Commission shall be responsible for filing any combined tax reports regarding State qualified savings programs required by the United States Internal Revenue Service. The Treasurer shall work with the Illinois Student Assistance Commission to coordinate the marketing of the College Savings Pool and the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Program when considered beneficial by the Treasurer and the Director of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission. The Treasurer's office shall not publicize or otherwise market the College Savings Pool or accept any moneys into the College Savings Pool prior to March 1, 2000. The Treasurer shall provide a separate accounting for each designated beneficiary to each participant, the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, and the participating financial institution at which the account was processed. No interest in the program may be pledged as security for a loan. Moneys held in an account invested in the Illinois College Savings Pool shall be exempt from all claims of the creditors of the participant, donor, or designated beneficiary of that account, except for the non-exempt College Savings Pool transfers to or from the account as defined under subsection (j) of Section 12-1001 of the Code of Civil Procedure (735 ILCS 5/12-1001(j)).

The assets of the College Savings Pool and its income and operation shall be exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and any of its subdivisions. The accrued earnings on investments in the Pool once disbursed on behalf of a designated beneficiary shall be similarly exempt from all taxation by the State of Illinois and its subdivisions, so long as they are used for qualified expenses. Contributions to a College Savings Pool account during the taxable year may be deducted from adjusted gross income as provided in Section 203 of the Illinois Income Tax Act. The provisions of this paragraph are exempt from Section 250 of the Illinois Income Tax Act.

The Treasurer shall adopt rules he or she considers necessary for the efficient administration of the College Savings Pool. The rules shall provide whatever additional parameters and restrictions are necessary to ensure that the College Savings Pool meets all of the requirements for a qualified state tuition program under Section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 529). The rules shall provide for the administration expenses of the pool to be paid from its earnings and for the investment earnings in excess of the expenses and all moneys collected as penalties to be credited or paid monthly to the several participants in the pool in a manner which equitably reflects the differing amounts of their respective investments in the pool and the differing periods of time for which those amounts were in the custody of the pool. Also, the rules shall require the maintenance of records that enable the Treasurer's office to produce a report for each account in the pool at least annually that documents the account balance and investment earnings. Notice of any proposed amendments to the rules and regulations shall be provided to all participants prior to adoption. Amendments to rules and regulations shall apply only to contributions made after the adoption of the amendment.

Upon creating the College Savings Pool, the State Treasurer shall give bond with 2 or more sufficient sureties, payable to and for the benefit of the participants in the College Savings Pool, in the penal sum of $1,000,000, conditioned upon the faithful discharge of his or her duties in relation to the College Savings Pool.

(Source: P.A. 91-607, eff. 1-1-00; 91-829, eff. 1-1-01; 91-943, eff. 2-9-01; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-439, eff. 8-17-01; 92-626, eff 7-11-02; 93-812, eff. 1-1-05; 95-23, eff. 8-3-07; 95-306, eff. 1-1-08; 95-521, eff. 8-28-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 97-233, eff. 8-1-11; 97-537, eff. 8-23-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-161, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 35. The Personnel Code is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 415/17) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b117)

Sec. 17. Status of present employees. Employees holding positions in the State service herein shall continue under the following conditions:

(1) Employees who have been appointed as a result of having passed examinations in existing merit systems, and who have satisfactorily passed their probationary period, or who have been promoted in accordance with the rules thereunder, shall be continued without further examination, but shall be otherwise subject to the provisions of this Act and the rules made pursuant to it.

(2) All other such employees shall be continued in their respective positions if they pass a qualifying examination prescribed by the Director prior to October 1, 1958, and satisfactorily complete their respective probationary periods. Employees in federally aided programs, which on July 1, 1956, were subject to Federal merit system standards, who have not been appointed from registers established as a result of merit system examinations shall qualify through open competitive examinations for their positions and certification from the resulting registers. Those who fail to qualify as provided herein shall be dismissed from their positions. Nothing herein precludes the reclassification or reallocation as provided by this Act of any position held by any such incumbent.

(Source: P.A. 76-628; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 40. The Children and Family Services Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 35.7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)

Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare services when not available through other public or private child care or program facilities.

(a) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "Children" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes persons under age 21 who:

(A) were committed to the Department pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or

(B) were accepted for care, service and training by the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best interest in the discretion of the Department would be served by continuing that care, service and training because of severe emotional disturbances, physical disability, social adjustment or any combination thereof, or because of the need to complete an educational or vocational training program.

(2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their families.

(3) "Child welfare services" means public social services which are directed toward the accomplishment of the following purposes:

(A) protecting and promoting the health, safety and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent or neglected children;

(B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse, exploitation or delinquency of children;

(C) preventing the unnecessary separation of children from their families by identifying family problems, assisting families in resolving their problems, and preventing the breakup of the family where the prevention of child removal is desirable and possible when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(D) restoring to their families children who have been removed, by the provision of services to the child and the families when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health and safety;

(E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes, in cases where restoration to the biological family is not safe, possible or appropriate;

(F) assuring safe and adequate care of children away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At the time of placement, the Department shall consider concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1) of this Section so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child;

(G) (blank);

(H) (blank); and

(I) placing and maintaining children in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the last year of high school education or vocational training, in an approved individual or group treatment program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure child care facility. The Department is not required to place or maintain children:

(i) who are in a foster home, or

(ii) who are persons with a developmental disability, as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or

(iii) who are female children who are pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or

(iv) who are siblings, in facilities that provide separate living quarters for children 18 years of age and older and for children under 18 years of age.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing abortions.

(c) The Department shall establish and maintain tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end that services and care shall be available on an equal basis throughout the State to children requiring such services.

(d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and the installment amount shall then be deducted from future bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under Section 17a-4.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals of child safety and protection, family preservation, family reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:

(1) adoption;

(2) foster care;

(3) family counseling;

(4) protective services;

(5) (blank);

(6) homemaker service;

(7) return of runaway children;

(8) (blank);

(9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and

(10) interstate services.

Rules and regulations established by the Department shall include provisions for training Department staff and the staff of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies or resources, in alcohol and drug abuse screening techniques approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the purpose of identifying children and adults who should be referred to an alcohol and drug abuse treatment program for professional evaluation.

(h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate program or facility within or available to the Department for a youth in care and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and appropriate program or none agrees to accept the youth in care, the Department shall create an appropriate individualized, program-oriented plan for such youth in care. The plan may be developed within the Department or through purchase of services by the Department to the extent that it is within its statutory authority to do.

(i) Service programs shall be available throughout the State and shall include but not be limited to the following services:

(1) case management;

(2) homemakers;

(3) counseling;

(4) parent education;

(5) day care; and

(6) emergency assistance and advocacy.

In addition, the following services may be made available to assess and meet the needs of children and families:

(1) comprehensive family-based services;

(2) assessments;

(3) respite care; and

(4) in-home health services.

The Department shall provide transportation for any of the services it makes available to children or families or for which it refers children or families.

(j) The Department may provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and grants, to persons who adopt children with physical or mental disabilities, children who are older, or other hard-to-place children who (i) immediately prior to their adoption were youth in care or (ii) were determined eligible for financial assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become available for adoption because the prior adoption has been dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have died. The Department may continue to provide financial assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was determined eligible for financial assistance under this subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or parents. The Department may also provide categories of financial assistance and education assistance grants, and shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children who were youth in care for 12 months immediately prior to the appointment of the guardian.

The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are allowed where the child requires special service but such costs may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian of the child.

Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment, garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of a judgment or debt.

(j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement of a child for adoption if an approved family is available either outside of the Department region handling the case, or outside of the State of Illinois.

(k) The Department shall accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(l) The Department shall offer family preservation services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and extended families. Family preservation services shall be offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute care when the children can be cared for at home or in the custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare, (ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the children's health or safety. With respect to children who are in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a private right of action or claim on the part of any individual or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set out in the plan, if those services are not provided with reasonable promptness and if those services are available.

The Department shall notify the child and his family of the Department's responsibility to offer and provide family preservation services as identified in the service plan. The child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed, prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's or family's willingness to accept services shall not be considered in the investigation. The Department may also provide services to any child or family who is the subject of any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer such child or family to services available from other agencies in the community, even if the report is determined to be unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide services to any child or family after completion of a family assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided under the "differential response program" provided for in subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

The Department may, at its discretion except for those children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted, as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall be committed to the Department by any court without the approval of the Department. On and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 16 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. On and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except (i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency. The Department shall assign a caseworker to attend any hearing involving a youth in the care and custody of the Department who is placed on aftercare release, including hearings involving sanctions for violation of aftercare release conditions and aftercare release revocation hearings.

As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and implement a special program of family preservation services to support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive developmental disorder if the Department determines that those services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the child. The Department may offer services to any family whether or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or family to services available from other agencies in the community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop and implement a public information campaign to alert health and social service providers and the general public about these special family preservation services. The nature and scope of the services offered and the number of families served under the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be determined by the level of funding that the Department annually allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition, including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism, as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association.

(l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of the child require that the child be placed in the most permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the Department of Children and Family Services to conduct concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of the family when the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.

When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the paramount concern.

When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the Department believes that further reunification services would be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is not required to provide further reunification services after such a finding.

A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the placement made is the best available placement to provide permanency for the child.

The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent planning for reunification and permanency. The Department shall consider the following factors when determining appropriateness of concurrent planning:

(1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;

(2) the past history of the family;

(3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by the family;

(4) the level of cooperation of the family;

(5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the family to reunite;

(6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;

(7) the age of the child;

(8) placement of siblings.

(m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any child if:

(1) it has received a written consent to such temporary custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent having custody of the child if the parents are not living together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if the child is not in the custody of either parent, or

(2) the child is found in the State and neither a parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.

If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent, guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary custody, place an authorized representative of the Department in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's health and safety and assume charge of the child until a parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

The Department shall ensure that any child taken into custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical examination.

A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary custody of the Department who would have custody of the child if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the receipt of the request, during which period the Department may cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain temporary custody of the child until the court orders otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10-day 10 day period, the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of the 10-day 10 day period, at which time the authority and duties of the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the child shall terminate.

(m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department that cares for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a determination is made by the facility director and the Director or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the child is a youth in care who was placed in the care of the Department before being subject to placement in a correctional facility and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of the child in a secure care facility.

(n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the Department and the parents or guardians, except that no payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care, training and supervision of such a child that exceed the average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a child in institutions for dependent or neglected children operated by the Department. However, such restriction on payments does not apply in cases where children require specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement of such children are not available at payment rates within the limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.

(n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed, provided that the minor consents to such services and has not yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have responsibility for the development and delivery of services under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under this Section through the Department of Children and Family Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services. Youth participating in services under this Section shall cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The Department shall continue child welfare services under this Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear, readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child welfare services under this Section and how such services may be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations describing services intended to assist minors in achieving sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.

(o) The Department shall establish an administrative review and appeal process for children and families who request or receive child welfare services from the Department. Youth in care who are placed by private child welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those youth are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal rights as children and families in the case of placement by the Department, including the right to an initial review of a private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall ensure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts youth in care for placement, affords those rights to children and foster families. The Department shall accept for administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by (i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent, involving a change of placement decision.

(p) (Blank).

(q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety, for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of money or other property which is received on behalf of such children, or any financial benefits to which such children are or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of the Department.

The Department shall set up and administer no-cost, interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial institutions for children for whom the Department is legally responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans' Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this subsection.

In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the Department shall:

(1) Establish standards in accordance with State and federal laws for disbursing money from children's accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must approve disbursements from children's accounts. The Department shall be responsible for keeping complete records of all disbursements for each account for any purpose.

(2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from State funds for the child's board and care, medical care not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly, disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2). The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.

(r) The Department shall promulgate regulations encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a hard-to-place child or child with a disability and the names of such children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.

(s) The Department of Children and Family Services may establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services for damages sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such purposes.

(t) The Department shall perform home studies and investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:

(1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically directs the Department to perform such services; and

(2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance with Department rules, or has determined that neither party is financially able to pay.

The Department shall provide written notification to the court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order. The Department shall send to the court information related to the costs incurred except in cases where the court has determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.

(u) In addition to other information that must be provided, whenever the Department places a child with a prospective adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker:

(1) available detailed information concerning the child's educational and health history, copies of immunization records (including insurance and medical card information), a history of the child's previous placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes excluding any information that identifies or reveals the location of any previous caretaker;

(2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and

(3) information containing details of the child's individualized educational plan when the child is receiving special education services.

The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or behavioral information (including, but not limited to, criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of the information required by this paragraph, which may be provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency placement, casework staff shall at least provide known information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently provide the information in writing as required by this subsection.

The information described in this subsection shall be provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection of written information, the Department shall provide such information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall obtain from the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a signed verification of receipt of the information provided. Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory level.

(u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995, were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code 335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster family home may continue to receive foster care payments only until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a foster family home or that their application for licensure is denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.

(v) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for interactive computerized communication and processing equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the Department of State Police's central criminal history data repository. The Department shall comply with all certification requirements and provide certified operators who have been trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator shall have training in the use of the criminal history information access system and have access to the terminal. The Department of Children and Family Services and its employees shall abide by rules and regulations established by the Department of State Police relating to the access and dissemination of this information.

(v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within the past 5 years.

(v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for information concerning prospective foster and adoptive parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the Department shall request a check of that other state's child abuse and neglect registry.

(w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for the development of in-state licensed secure child care facilities that care for children who are in need of secure living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being. For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such facilities.

(x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history checks to determine the financial history of children placed under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting when a youth in care turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if financial exploitation of the child's personal information has occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the Attorney General.

(y) Beginning on July 22, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1189) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, a child with a disability who receives residential and educational services from the Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of 14.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's residential services arrangement. For purposes of this subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a disability as defined by the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.

(z) The Department shall access criminal history record information as defined as "background information" in this subsection and criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Department of State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive identification, all Illinois conviction information to the Department of Children and Family Services.

For purposes of this subsection:

"Background information" means all of the following:

(i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and Family Services, conviction information obtained from the Department of State Police as a result of a fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(ii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Department of State Police's Sex Offender Database, as authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.

(iii) Information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services after performing a check of the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS) operated and maintained by the Department.

"Department employee" means a full-time or temporary employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois Personnel System.

"Department applicant" means an individual who has conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff, an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into contact with Department clients or client records.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; 100-522, eff. 9-22-17; revised 1-22-18.)

(20 ILCS 505/35.7)

Sec. 35.7. Error Reduction Implementations Plans; Inspector General.

(a) The Inspector General of the Department of Children and Family Services shall develop Error Reduction Implementation Plans, as necessary, to remedy patterns of errors or problematic practices that compromise or threaten the safety of children as identified in the DCFS Office of the Inspector General (OIG) death or serious injury investigations and Child Death Review Teams recommendations. The Error Reduction Implementation Plans shall include both training and on-site components. The Inspector General shall submit proposed Error Reduction Implementation Plans to the Director for review. The Director may approve the plans submitted, or approve plans amended by the Office of the Inspector General, taking into consideration policies polices and procedures that govern the function and performance of any affected frontline staff. The Director shall document the basis for disapproval of any submitted or amended plan. The Department shall deploy Error Reduction Safety Teams to implement the Error Reduction Implementation Plans. The Error Reduction Safety Teams shall be composed of Quality Assurance and Division of Training staff to implement hands-on training and Error Reduction Implementation Plans. The teams shall work in the offices of the Department or of agencies, or both, as required by the Error Reduction Implementation Plans, and shall work to ensure that systems are in place to continue reform efforts after the departure of the teams. The Director shall develop a method to ensure consistent compliance with any Error Reduction Implementation Plans, the provisions of which shall be incorporated into the plan.

(b) Quality Assurance shall prepare public reports annually detailing the following: the substance of any Error Reduction Implementation Plan approved; any deviations from the Error Reduction Plan; whether adequate staff was available to perform functions necessary to the Error Reduction Implementation Plan, including identification and reporting of any staff needs; other problems noted or barriers to implementing the Error Reduction Implementation Plan; and recommendations for additional training, amendments to rules and procedures, or other systemic reform identified by the teams. Quality Assurance shall work with affected frontline staff to implement provisions of the approved Error Reduction Implementation Plans related to staff function and performance.

(c) The Error Reduction Teams shall implement training and reform protocols through incubating change in each region, Department office, or purchase of service office, as required. The teams shall administer hands-on assistance, supervision, and management while ensuring that the office, region, or agency develops the skills and systems necessary to incorporate changes on a permanent basis. For each Error Reduction Implementation Plan, the Team shall determine whether adequate staff is available to fulfill the Error Reduction Implementation Plan, provide case-by-case supervision to ensure that the plan is implemented, and ensure that management puts systems in place to enable the reforms to continue. Error Reduction Teams shall work with affected frontline staff to ensure that provisions of the approved Error Reduction Implementation Plans relating to staff functions and performance are achieved to effect necessary reforms.

(d) The OIG shall develop and submit new Error Reduction Implementation Plans as necessary. To implement each Error Reduction Implementation Plan, as approved by the Director, the OIG shall work with Quality Assurance members of the Error Reduction Teams designated by the Department. The teams shall be comprised of staff from Quality Assurance and Training. Training shall work with the OIG and with the child death review teams to develop a curriculum to address errors identified that compromise the safety of children. Following the training roll-out, the Teams shall work on-site in identified offices. The Teams shall review and supervise all work relevant to the Error Reduction Implementation Plan. Quality Assurance shall identify outcome measures and track compliance with the training curriculum. Each quarter, Quality Assurance shall prepare a report detailing compliance with the Error Reduction Implementation Plan and alert the Director to staffing needs or other needs to accomplish the goals of the Error Reduction Implementation Plan. The report shall be transmitted to the Director, the OIG, and all management staff involved in the Error Reduction Implementation Plan.

(e) The Director shall review quarterly Quality Assurance reports and determine adherence to the Error Reduction Implementation Plan using criteria and standards developed by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 95-527, eff. 6-1-08; revised 9-27-17.)

Section 45. The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 605-1020 as follows:

(20 ILCS 605/605-1020)

Sec. 605-1020. Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program.

(a) Subject to appropriation, there is hereby established an Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program that shall be administered by the Department beginning on July 1 of the first fiscal year for which an appropriation of State moneys is made for that purpose and continuing for the next 2 immediately succeeding fiscal years; however, the Department is not required to administer the program in any fiscal year for which such an appropriation has not been made. The purpose of the program shall be to encourage and assist beginning entrepreneurs in starting new information services, biotechnology, and green technology businesses by providing reimbursements to those entrepreneurs for any State filing, permitting, or licensing fees associated with the formation of such a business in the State.

(b) Applicants for participation in the Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program shall apply to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, prior to the formation of the business for which the entrepreneur seeks reimbursement of those fees. The Department shall adopt rules for the review and approval of applications, provided that it (1) shall give priority to applicants who are women female or minority persons, or both, and (2) shall not approve any application by a person who will not be a beginning entrepreneur. Reimbursements under this Section shall be provided in the manner determined by the Department. In no event shall an applicant apply for participation in the program more than 3 times.

(c) The aggregate amount of all reimbursements provided by the Department pursuant to this Section shall not exceed $500,000 in any State fiscal year.

(d) On or before February 1 of the last calendar year during which the pilot program is in effect, the Department shall submit a report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the cumulative effectiveness of the Entrepreneur Learner's Permit pilot program. The review shall include, but not be limited to, the number and type of businesses that were formed in connection with the pilot program, the current status of each business formed in connection with the pilot program, the number of employees employed by each such business, the economic impact to the State from the pilot program, the satisfaction of participants in the pilot program, and a recommendation as to whether the program should be continued.

(e) As used in this Section:

"Beginning entrepreneur" means an individual who, at the time he or she applies for participation in the program, has less than 5 years of experience as a business owner and is not a current business owner.

"Woman" "Female" and "minority person" have the meanings given to those terms in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-541, eff. 11-7-17; revised 12-14-17.)

Section 50. The Illinois Emergency Employment Development Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 630/17)

Sec. 17. Work incentive demonstration project. The coordinator and members of the Advisory Committee shall explore available resources to leverage in combination with the wage subsidies in this Act to develop a Transitional Jobs program. This Transitional Jobs program would prioritize services for individuals with limited experience in the labor market and barriers to employment, including, but not limited to, recipients of Temporary Assistance for to Needy Families, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, or other related public assistance, and people with criminal records.

(Source: P.A. 97-581, eff. 8-26-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 55. The Rural Diversification Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 690/2) (from Ch. 5, par. 2252)

Sec. 2. Findings and declaration of policy. The General Assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares:

(a) That Illinois is a state of diversified economic strength and that an important economic strength in Illinois is derived from rural business production and the agribusiness industry;

(b) That the Illinois rural economy is in a state of transition, which presents a unique opportunity for the State to act on its growth and development;

(c) That full and continued growth and development of Illinois' rural economy, especially in the small towns and farm communities, is vital for Illinois;

(d) That by encouraging the development of diversified rural business and agricultural production, nonproduction and processing activities in Illinois, the State creates a beneficial climate for new and improved job opportunities for its citizens and expands jobs and job training opportunities;

(e) That in order to cultivate strong rural economic growth and development in Illinois, it is necessary to proceed with a plan which encourages Illinois rural businesses and agribusinesses to expand business employment opportunities through diversification of business and industries, offers managerial, technical, and financial assistance to or on behalf of rural businesses and agribusiness, and works in a cooperative venture and spirit with Illinois' business, labor, local government, educational, and scientific communities;

(f) That dedication of State resources over a multi-year period targeted to promoting the growth and development of one or more classes of diversified rural products, particularly new agricultural products, is an effective use of State funds;

(g) That the United States Congress, having identified similar needs and purposes has enacted legislation creating the United States Department of Agriculture/Farmers Home Administration Non-profit National Finance Corporations Loan and Grant Program and made funding available to the states consistent with the purposes of this Act; .

(h) That the Illinois General Assembly has enacted "Rural Revival" and a series of "Harvest the Heartland" initiatives which create within the Illinois Finance Authority a "Seed Capital Fund" to provide venture capital for emerging new agribusinesses, and to help coordinate cooperative research and development on new agriculture technologies in conjunction with the Agricultural Research and Development Consortium in Peoria, the United States Department of Agriculture Northern Regional Research Laboratory in Peoria, the institutions of higher learning in Illinois, and the agribusiness community of this State, identify the need for enhanced efforts by the State to promote the use of fuels utilizing ethanol made from Illinois grain, and promote forestry development in this State; and

(i) That there is a need to coordinate the many programs offered by the State of Illinois Departments of Agriculture, Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and Natural Resources, and the Illinois Finance Authority that are targeted to agriculture and the rural community with those offered by the federal government. Therefore it is desirable that the fullest measure of coordination and integration of the programs offered by the various state agencies and the federal government be achieved.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 60. The Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 805-45 as follows:

(20 ILCS 805/805-45)

Sec. 805-45. Adopt-a-Trail program.

(a) The Department shall establish an "Adopt-a-Trail" program that will allow volunteer groups to assist in maintaining and enhancing trails on State owned land.

(b) Subject to subsection (c) of this Section, volunteer groups in the Adopt-a-Trail program may adopt any available trail or trail segment and may choose any one or more of the following volunteer activities:

(1) spring cleanups;

(2) accessibility projects;

(3) special events;

(4) trail maintenance, enhancement, or realignment;

(5) public information and assistance; or

(6) training.

The Department shall designate and approve specific activities to be performed by a volunteer group in the Adopt-a-Trail program which shall be executed with an approved Adopt-a-Trail agreement. Volunteer services shall not include work historically performed by Department employees, including services that result in a reduction of hours or compensation or that may be performed by an employee on layoff, ; nor shall volunteer services be inconsistent with the terms of a collective bargaining agreement. The Department may provide for more than one volunteer group to adopt an eligible trail or trail segment.

(c) If the Department operates other programs in the vicinity of the trail that allows volunteers to participate in the Department's Adopt-A-Park Adopt-a-park program or other resource, the Department shall coordinate these programs to provide for efficient and effective volunteer programs in the area.

(d) A volunteer group that wishes to participate in the Adopt-a-Trail program shall submit an application to the Department on a form provided by the Department. Volunteer groups shall agree to the following:

(1) volunteer groups shall participate in the program for at least a 2-year period;

(2) volunteer groups shall consist of at least 6 people who are 18 years of age or older, unless the volunteer group is a school or scout organization, in which case the volunteers may be under 18 years of age, but supervised by someone over the age of 18;

(3) volunteer groups shall contribute a total of at least 200 service hours over a 2-year period;

(4) volunteer groups shall only execute Adopt-a-Trail projects and activities after a volunteer project agreement has been completed and approved by the Department; and

(5) volunteer groups shall comply with all reasonable requirements of the Department.

(Source: P.A. 100-180, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 65. The Department of Human Services Act is amended by changing Section 1-17 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 1-65 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1305/1-17)

Sec. 1-17. Inspector General.

(a) Nature and purpose. It is the express intent of the General Assembly to ensure the health, safety, and financial condition of individuals receiving services in this State due to mental illness, developmental disability, or both by protecting those persons from acts of abuse, neglect, or both by service providers. To that end, the Office of the Inspector General for the Department of Human Services is created to investigate and report upon allegations of the abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals receiving services within mental health facilities, developmental disabilities facilities, and community agencies operated, licensed, funded or certified by the Department of Human Services, but not licensed or certified by any other State agency.

(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to this Section:

"Adult student with a disability" means an adult student, age 18 through 21, inclusive, with an Individual Education Program, other than a resident of a facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services in accordance with the Child Care Act of 1969. For purposes of this definition, "through age 21, inclusive", means through the day before the student's 22nd birthday.

"Agency" or "community agency" means (i) a community agency licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service, or (ii) a program licensed, funded, or certified by the Department, but not licensed or certified by any other human services agency of the State, to provide mental health service or developmental disabilities service.

"Aggravating circumstance" means a factor that is attendant to a finding and that tends to compound or increase the culpability of the accused.

"Allegation" means an assertion, complaint, suspicion, or incident involving any of the following conduct by an employee, facility, or agency against an individual or individuals: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Day" means working day, unless otherwise specified.

"Deflection" means a situation in which an individual is presented for admission to a facility or agency, and the facility staff or agency staff do not admit the individual. "Deflection" includes triage, redirection, and denial of admission.

"Department" means the Department of Human Services.

"Developmental disability" means "developmental disability" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Egregious neglect" means a finding of neglect as determined by the Inspector General that (i) represents a gross failure to adequately provide for, or a callused indifference to, the health, safety, or medical needs of an individual and (ii) results in an individual's death or other serious deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition.

"Employee" means any person who provides services at the facility or agency on-site or off-site. The service relationship can be with the individual or with the facility or agency. Also, "employee" includes any employee or contractual agent of the Department of Human Services or the community agency involved in providing or monitoring or administering mental health or developmental disability services. This includes but is not limited to: owners, operators, payroll personnel, contractors, subcontractors, and volunteers.

"Facility" or "State-operated facility" means a mental health facility or developmental disabilities facility operated by the Department.

"Financial exploitation" means taking unjust advantage of an individual's assets, property, or financial resources through deception, intimidation, or conversion for the employee's, facility's, or agency's own advantage or benefit.

"Finding" means the Office of Inspector General's determination regarding whether an allegation is substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

"Health Care Worker Registry" or "Registry" means the Health Care Worker Registry under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act.

"Individual" means any person receiving mental health service, developmental disabilities service, or both from a facility or agency, while either on-site or off-site.

"Mental abuse" means the use of demeaning, intimidating, or threatening words, signs, gestures, or other actions by an employee about an individual and in the presence of an individual or individuals that results in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, or could have resulted in emotional distress or maladaptive behavior, for any individual present.

"Mental illness" means "mental illness" as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mentally ill" means having a mental illness.

"Mitigating circumstance" means a condition that (i) is attendant to a finding, (ii) does not excuse or justify the conduct in question, but (iii) may be considered in evaluating the severity of the conduct, the culpability of the accused, or both the severity of the conduct and the culpability of the accused.

"Neglect" means an employee's, agency's, or facility's failure to provide adequate medical care, personal care, or maintenance and that, as a consequence, (i) causes an individual pain, injury, or emotional distress, (ii) results in either an individual's maladaptive behavior or the deterioration of an individual's physical condition or mental condition, or (iii) places the individual's health or safety at substantial risk.

"Person with a developmental disability" means a person having a developmental disability.

"Physical abuse" means an employee's non-accidental and inappropriate contact with an individual that causes bodily harm. "Physical abuse" includes actions that cause bodily harm as a result of an employee directing an individual or person to physically abuse another individual.

"Recommendation" means an admonition, separate from a finding, that requires action by the facility, agency, or Department to correct a systemic issue, problem, or deficiency identified during an investigation.

"Required reporter" means any employee who suspects, witnesses, or is informed of an allegation of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.

"Secretary" means the Chief Administrative Officer of the Department.

"Sexual abuse" means any sexual contact or intimate physical contact between an employee and an individual, including an employee's coercion or encouragement of an individual to engage in sexual behavior that results in sexual contact, intimate physical contact, sexual behavior, or intimate physical behavior. Sexual abuse also includes (i) an employee's actions that result in the sending or showing of sexually explicit images to an individual via computer, cellular phone, electronic mail, portable electronic device, or other media with or without contact with the individual or (ii) an employee's posting of sexually explicit images of an individual online or elsewhere whether or not there is contact with the individual.

"Sexually explicit images" includes, but is not limited to, any material which depicts nudity, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse, or which contains explicit and detailed verbal descriptions or narrative accounts of sexual excitement, sexual conduct, or sado-masochistic abuse.

"Substantiated" means there is a preponderance of the evidence to support the allegation.

"Unfounded" means there is no credible evidence to support the allegation.

"Unsubstantiated" means there is credible evidence, but less than a preponderance of evidence to support the allegation.

(c) Appointment. The Governor shall appoint, and the Senate shall confirm, an Inspector General. The Inspector General shall be appointed for a term of 4 years and shall function within the Department of Human Services and report to the Secretary and the Governor.

(d) Operation and appropriation. The Inspector General shall function independently within the Department with respect to the operations of the Office, including the performance of investigations and issuance of findings and recommendations. The appropriation for the Office of Inspector General shall be separate from the overall appropriation for the Department.

(e) Powers and duties. The Inspector General shall investigate reports of suspected mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of individuals in any mental health or developmental disabilities facility or agency and shall have authority to take immediate action to prevent any one or more of the following from happening to individuals under its jurisdiction: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Upon written request of an agency of this State, the Inspector General may assist another agency of the State in investigating reports of the abuse, neglect, or abuse and neglect of persons with mental illness, persons with developmental disabilities, or persons with both. To comply with the requirements of subsection (k) of this Section, the Inspector General shall also review all reportable deaths for which there is no allegation of abuse or neglect. Nothing in this Section shall preempt any duties of the Medical Review Board set forth in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The Inspector General shall have no authority to investigate alleged violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. Allegations of misconduct under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act shall be referred to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector General for investigation.

(f) Limitations. The Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation within an agency or facility if that investigation would be redundant to or interfere with an investigation conducted by another State agency. The Inspector General shall have no supervision over, or involvement in, the routine programmatic, licensing, funding, or certification operations of the Department. Nothing in this subsection limits investigations by the Department that may otherwise be required by law or that may be necessary in the Department's capacity as central administrative authority responsible for the operation of the State's mental health and developmental disabilities facilities.

(g) Rulemaking authority. The Inspector General shall promulgate rules establishing minimum requirements for reporting allegations as well as for initiating, conducting, and completing investigations based upon the nature of the allegation or allegations. The rules shall clearly establish that if 2 or more State agencies could investigate an allegation, the Inspector General shall not conduct an investigation that would be redundant to, or interfere with, an investigation conducted by another State agency. The rules shall further clarify the method and circumstances under which the Office of Inspector General may interact with the licensing, funding, or certification units of the Department in preventing further occurrences of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, and financial exploitation.

(h) Training programs. The Inspector General shall (i) establish a comprehensive program to ensure that every person authorized to conduct investigations receives ongoing training relative to investigation techniques, communication skills, and the appropriate means of interacting with persons receiving treatment for mental illness, developmental disability, or both mental illness and developmental disability, and (ii) establish and conduct periodic training programs for facility and agency employees concerning the prevention and reporting of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to prevent the Office of Inspector General from conducting any other training as determined by the Inspector General to be necessary or helpful.

(i) Duty to cooperate.

(1) The Inspector General shall at all times be granted access to any facility or agency for the purpose of investigating any allegation, conducting unannounced site visits, monitoring compliance with a written response, or completing any other statutorily assigned duty. The Inspector General shall conduct unannounced site visits to each facility at least annually for the purpose of reviewing and making recommendations on systemic issues relative to preventing, reporting, investigating, and responding to all of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation.

(2) Any employee who fails to cooperate with an Office of the Inspector General investigation is in violation of this Act. Failure to cooperate with an investigation includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) creating and transmitting a false report to the Office of the Inspector General hotline, (ii) providing false information to an Office of the Inspector General Investigator during an investigation, (iii) colluding with other employees to cover up evidence, (iv) colluding with other employees to provide false information to an Office of the Inspector General investigator, (v) destroying evidence, (vi) withholding evidence, or (vii) otherwise obstructing an Office of the Inspector General investigation. Additionally, any employee who, during an unannounced site visit or written response compliance check, fails to cooperate with requests from the Office of the Inspector General is in violation of this Act.

(j) Subpoena powers. The Inspector General shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and compel the production of all documents and physical evidence relating to his or her investigations and any hearings authorized by this Act. This subpoena power shall not extend to persons or documents of a labor organization or its representatives insofar as the persons are acting in a representative capacity to an employee whose conduct is the subject of an investigation or the documents relate to that representation. Any person who otherwise fails to respond to a subpoena or who knowingly provides false information to the Office of the Inspector General by subpoena during an investigation is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(k) Reporting allegations and deaths.

(1) Allegations. If an employee witnesses, is told of, or has reason to believe an incident of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation has occurred, the employee, agency, or facility shall report the allegation by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline according to the agency's or facility's procedures, but in no event later than 4 hours after the initial discovery of the incident, allegation, or suspicion of any one or more of the following: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A required reporter as defined in subsection (b) of this Section who knowingly or intentionally fails to comply with these reporting requirements is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(2) Deaths. Absent an allegation, a required reporter shall, within 24 hours after initial discovery, report by phone to the Office of the Inspector General hotline each of the following:

(i) Any death of an individual occurring within 14 calendar days after discharge or transfer of the individual from a residential program or facility.

(ii) Any death of an individual occurring within 24 hours after deflection from a residential program or facility.

(iii) Any other death of an individual occurring at an agency or facility or at any Department-funded site.

(3) Retaliation. It is a violation of this Act for any employee or administrator of an agency or facility to take retaliatory action against an employee who acts in good faith in conformance with his or her duties as a required reporter.

(l) Reporting to law enforcement.

(1) Reporting criminal acts. Within 24 hours after determining that there is credible evidence indicating that a criminal act may have been committed or that special expertise may be required in an investigation, the Inspector General shall notify the Department of State Police or other appropriate law enforcement authority, or ensure that such notification is made. The Department of State Police shall investigate any report from a State-operated facility indicating a possible murder, sexual assault, or other felony by an employee. All investigations conducted by the Inspector General shall be conducted in a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for possible use in a criminal prosecution.

(2) Reporting allegations of adult students with disabilities. Upon receipt of a reportable allegation regarding an adult student with a disability, the Department's Office of the Inspector General shall determine whether the allegation meets the criteria for the Domestic Abuse Program under the Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act. If the allegation is reportable to that program, the Office of the Inspector General shall initiate an investigation. If the allegation is not reportable to the Domestic Abuse Program, the Office of the Inspector General shall make an expeditious referral to the respective law enforcement entity. If the alleged victim is already receiving services from the Department, the Office of the Inspector General shall also make a referral to the respective Department of Human Services' Division or Bureau.

(m) Investigative reports. Upon completion of an investigation, the Office of Inspector General shall issue an investigative report identifying whether the allegations are substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded. Within 10 business days after the transmittal of a completed investigative report substantiating an allegation, finding an allegation is unsubstantiated, or if a recommendation is made, the Inspector General shall provide the investigative report on the case to the Secretary and to the director of the facility or agency where any one or more of the following occurred: mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation. The director of the facility or agency shall be responsible for maintaining the confidentiality of the investigative report consistent with State and federal law. In a substantiated case, the investigative report shall include any mitigating or aggravating circumstances that were identified during the investigation. If the case involves substantiated neglect, the investigative report shall also state whether egregious neglect was found. An investigative report may also set forth recommendations. All investigative reports prepared by the Office of the Inspector General shall be considered confidential and shall not be released except as provided by the law of this State or as required under applicable federal law. Unsubstantiated and unfounded reports shall not be disclosed except as allowed under Section 6 of the Abused and Neglected Long Term Care Facility Residents Reporting Act. Raw data used to compile the investigative report shall not be subject to release unless required by law or a court order. "Raw data used to compile the investigative report" includes, but is not limited to, any one or more of the following: the initial complaint, witness statements, photographs, investigator's notes, police reports, or incident reports. If the allegations are substantiated, the accused shall be provided with a redacted copy of the investigative report. Death reports where there was no allegation of abuse or neglect shall only be released pursuant to applicable State or federal law or a valid court order.

(n) Written responses and reconsideration requests.

(1) Written responses. Within 30 calendar days from receipt of a substantiated investigative report or an investigative report which contains recommendations, absent a reconsideration request, the facility or agency shall file a written response that addresses, in a concise and reasoned manner, the actions taken to: (i) protect the individual; (ii) prevent recurrences; and (iii) eliminate the problems identified. The response shall include the implementation and completion dates of such actions. If the written response is not filed within the allotted 30 calendar day period, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate corrective action to be taken.

(2) Reconsideration requests. The facility, agency, victim or guardian, or the subject employee may request that the Office of Inspector General reconsider or clarify its finding based upon additional information.

(o) Disclosure of the finding by the Inspector General. The Inspector General shall disclose the finding of an investigation to the following persons: (i) the Governor, (ii) the Secretary, (iii) the director of the facility or agency, (iv) the alleged victims and their guardians, (v) the complainant, and (vi) the accused. This information shall include whether the allegations were deemed substantiated, unsubstantiated, or unfounded.

(p) Secretary review. Upon review of the Inspector General's investigative report and any agency's or facility's written response, the Secretary shall accept or reject the written response and notify the Inspector General of that determination. The Secretary may further direct that other administrative action be taken, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following: (i) additional site visits, (ii) training, (iii) provision of technical assistance relative to administrative needs, licensure or certification, or (iv) the imposition of appropriate sanctions.

(q) Action by facility or agency. Within 30 days of the date the Secretary approves the written response or directs that further administrative action be taken, the facility or agency shall provide an implementation report to the Inspector General that provides the status of the action taken. The facility or agency shall be allowed an additional 30 days to send notice of completion of the action or to send an updated implementation report. If the action has not been completed within the additional 30-day 30 day period, the facility or agency shall send updated implementation reports every 60 days until completion. The Inspector General shall conduct a review of any implementation plan that takes more than 120 days after approval to complete, and shall monitor compliance through a random review of approved written responses, which may include, but are not limited to: (i) site visits, (ii) telephone contact, and (iii) requests for additional documentation evidencing compliance.

(r) Sanctions. Sanctions, if imposed by the Secretary under Subdivision (p)(iv) of this Section, shall be designed to prevent further acts of mental abuse, physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, egregious neglect, or financial exploitation or some combination of one or more of those acts at a facility or agency, and may include any one or more of the following:

(1) Appointment of on-site monitors.

(2) Transfer or relocation of an individual or individuals.

(3) Closure of units.

(4) Termination of any one or more of the following: (i) Department licensing, (ii) funding, or (iii) certification.

The Inspector General may seek the assistance of the Illinois Attorney General or the office of any State's Attorney in implementing sanctions.

(s) Health Care Worker Registry.

(1) Reporting to the Registry. The Inspector General shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry, a public registry, the identity and finding of each employee of a facility or agency against whom there is a final investigative report containing a substantiated allegation of physical or sexual abuse, financial exploitation, or egregious neglect of an individual.

(2) Notice to employee. Prior to reporting the name of an employee, the employee shall be notified of the Department's obligation to report and shall be granted an opportunity to request an administrative hearing, the sole purpose of which is to determine if the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. Notice to the employee shall contain a clear and concise statement of the grounds on which the report to the Registry is based, offer the employee an opportunity for a hearing, and identify the process for requesting such a hearing. Notice is sufficient if provided by certified mail to the employee's last known address. If the employee fails to request a hearing within 30 days from the date of the notice, the Inspector General shall report the name of the employee to the Registry. Nothing in this subdivision (s)(2) shall diminish or impair the rights of a person who is a member of a collective bargaining unit under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act or under any other federal labor statute.

(3) Registry hearings. If the employee requests an administrative hearing, the employee shall be granted an opportunity to appear before an administrative law judge to present reasons why the employee's name should not be reported to the Registry. The Department shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the substantiated finding warrants reporting to the Registry. After considering all the evidence presented, the administrative law judge shall make a recommendation to the Secretary as to whether the substantiated finding warrants reporting the name of the employee to the Registry. The Secretary shall render the final decision. The Department and the employee shall have the right to request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(4) Testimony at Registry hearings. A person who makes a report or who investigates a report under this Act shall testify fully in any judicial proceeding resulting from such a report, as to any evidence of abuse or neglect, or the cause thereof. No evidence shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect, or the individual alleged as the victim in the report, and the person making or investigating the report. Testimony at hearings is exempt from the confidentiality requirements of subsection (f) of Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act.

(5) Employee's rights to collateral action. No reporting to the Registry shall occur and no hearing shall be set or proceed if an employee notifies the Inspector General in writing, including any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally contesting an adverse employment action resulting from a substantiated finding by complaint filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission, or which otherwise seeks to enforce the employee's rights pursuant to any applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an employer against an employee as a result of a finding of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or egregious neglect is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective bargaining agreement and if that employee's name has already been sent to the Registry, the employee's name shall be removed from the Registry.

(6) Removal from Registry. At any time after the report to the Registry, but no more than once in any 12-month period, an employee may petition the Department in writing to remove his or her name from the Registry. Upon receiving notice of such request, the Inspector General shall conduct an investigation into the petition. Upon receipt of such request, an administrative hearing will be set by the Department. At the hearing, the employee shall bear the burden of presenting evidence that establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that removal of the name from the Registry is in the public interest. The parties may jointly request that the administrative law judge consider a stipulated disposition of these proceedings.

(t) Review of Administrative Decisions. The Department shall preserve a record of all proceedings at any formal hearing conducted by the Department involving Health Care Worker Registry hearings. Final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to provisions of the Administrative Review Law.

(u) Quality Care Board. There is created, within the Office of the Inspector General, a Quality Care Board to be composed of 7 members appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. One of the members shall be designated as chairman by the Governor. Of the initial appointments made by the Governor, 4 Board members shall each be appointed for a term of 4 years and 3 members shall each be appointed for a term of 2 years. Upon the expiration of each member's term, a successor shall be appointed for a term of 4 years. In the case of a vacancy in the office of any member, the Governor shall appoint a successor for the remainder of the unexpired term.

Members appointed by the Governor shall be qualified by professional knowledge or experience in the area of law, investigatory techniques, or in the area of care of the mentally ill or care of persons with developmental disabilities. Two members appointed by the Governor shall be persons with a disability or a parent of a person with a disability. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for expenses incurred in connection with the performance of their duties as members.

The Board shall meet quarterly, and may hold other meetings on the call of the chairman. Four members shall constitute a quorum allowing the Board to conduct its business. The Board may adopt rules and regulations it deems necessary to govern its own procedures.

The Board shall monitor and oversee the operations, policies, and procedures of the Inspector General to ensure the prompt and thorough investigation of allegations of neglect and abuse. In fulfilling these responsibilities, the Board may do the following:

(1) Provide independent, expert consultation to the Inspector General on policies and protocols for investigations of alleged abuse, neglect, or both abuse and neglect.

(2) Review existing regulations relating to the operation of facilities.

(3) Advise the Inspector General as to the content of training activities authorized under this Section.

(4) Recommend policies concerning methods for improving the intergovernmental relationships between the Office of the Inspector General and other State or federal offices.

(v) Annual report. The Inspector General shall provide to the General Assembly and the Governor, no later than January 1 of each year, a summary of reports and investigations made under this Act for the prior fiscal year with respect to individuals receiving mental health or developmental disabilities services. The report shall detail the imposition of sanctions, if any, and the final disposition of any corrective or administrative action directed by the Secretary. The summaries shall not contain any confidential or identifying information of any individual, but shall include objective data identifying any trends in the number of reported allegations, the timeliness of the Office of the Inspector General's investigations, and their disposition, for each facility and Department-wide, for the most recent 3-year time period. The report shall also identify, by facility, the staff-to-patient ratios taking account of direct care staff only. The report shall also include detailed recommended administrative actions and matters for consideration by the General Assembly.

(w) Program audit. The Auditor General shall conduct a program audit of the Office of the Inspector General on an as-needed basis, as determined by the Auditor General. The audit shall specifically include the Inspector General's compliance with the Act and effectiveness in investigating reports of allegations occurring in any facility or agency. The Auditor General shall conduct the program audit according to the provisions of the Illinois State Auditing Act and shall report its findings to the General Assembly no later than January 1 following the audit period.

(x) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to mean that an individual is a victim of abuse or neglect because of health care services appropriately provided or not provided by health care professionals.

(y) Nothing in this Section shall require a facility, including its employees, agents, medical staff members, and health care professionals, to provide a service to an individual in contravention of that individual's stated or implied objection to the provision of that service on the ground that that service conflicts with the individual's religious beliefs or practices, nor shall the failure to provide a service to an individual be considered abuse under this Section if the individual has objected to the provision of that service based on his or her religious beliefs or practices.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-323, eff. 8-7-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-313, eff. 8-24-17; 100-432, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-27-17.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-65)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2019)

Sec. 1-65. Intellectual and Developmental Disability Home and Community-Based Services Task Force.

(a) The Secretary of Human Services shall appoint a task force to review current and potential federal funds for home and community-based service options for individuals with intellectual or developmental disabilities. The task force shall consist of all of the following persons:

(1) The Secretary of Human Services, or his or her designee, who shall serve as chairperson of the task force.

(2) One representative of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(3) Six persons selected from recommendations of organizations whose membership consists of providers within the intellectual and developmental disabilities service delivery system.

(4) Two persons who are guardians or family members of individuals with intellectual or developmental disabilities and who do not have responsibility for management or formation of policy regarding the programs subject to review.

(5) Two persons selected from the recommendations of consumer organizations that engage in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of individuals with intellectual or developmental disabilities.

(6) Three persons who self-identify as individuals with intellectual or developmental disabilities and who are engaged in advocacy for the rights of individuals with disabilities. If these persons require supports in the form of reasonable accommodations in order to participate, such supports shall be provided.

The task force shall also consist of the following members appointed as follows:

(A) One member of the Senate appointed by the President of the Senate.

(B) One member of the Senate appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(C) One member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(D) One member of the House of Representatives appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(b) The task force shall review: the current federal Medicaid matching funds for services provided in the State; ways to maximize federal supports for the current services provided, including attendant services, housing, and other services to promote independent living; options that require federal approval and federal funding; ways to minimize the impact of constituents awaiting services; and all avenues to utilize federal funding involving home and community-based services identified by the task force. The Department shall provide administrative support to the task force.

(c) The appointments to the task force must be made by July 1, 2017. Task force members shall receive no compensation. The task force must hold at least 4 hearings. The task force shall report its findings to the Governor and General Assembly no later than July 1, 2018, and, upon filing its report, the task force is dissolved.

(d) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2019.

(Source: P.A. 100-79, eff. 8-11-17.)

(20 ILCS 1305/1-70)

Sec. 1-70 1-65. Uniform demographic data collection.

(a) The Department shall collect and publicly report statistical data on the racial and ethnic demographics of program participants for each program administered by the Department. Except as provided in subsection (b), when collecting the data required under this Section, the Department shall use the same racial and ethnic classifications for each program, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) American Indian and Alaska Native alone.

(2) Asian alone.

(3) Black or African American alone.

(4) Hispanic or Latino of any race.

(5) Native Hawaiian and Other Pacific Islander alone.

(6) White alone.

(7) Some other race alone.

(8) Two or more races.

The Department may further define, by rule, the racial and ethnic classifications provided in this Section.

(b) If a program administered by the Department is subject to federal reporting requirements that include the collection and public reporting of statistical data on the racial and ethnic demographics of program participants, the Department may maintain the same racial and ethnic classifications used under the federal requirements if such classifications differ from the classifications listed in subsection (a).

(c) The Department shall make all demographic information collected under this Section available to the public which at a minimum shall include posting the information for each program in a timely manner on the Department's official website. If the Department already has a mechanism or process in place to report information about program participation for any program administered by the Department, then the Department shall use that mechanism or process to include the demographic information collected under this Section. If the Department does not have a mechanism or process in place to report information about program participation for any program administered by the Department, then the Department shall create a mechanism or process to disseminate the demographic information collected under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-275, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 70. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section 15.4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/15.4)

Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit direct care staff to administer medications.

(a) This Section applies to (i) all residential programs for persons with a developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or fewer that are funded or licensed by the Department of Human Services and that distribute or administer medications, (ii) all intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities with 16 beds or fewer that are licensed by the Department of Public Health, and (iii) all day programs certified to serve persons with developmental disabilities by the Department of Human Services. The Department of Human Services shall develop a training program for authorized direct care staff to administer medications under the supervision and monitoring of a registered professional nurse. The training program for authorized direct care staff shall include educational and oversight components for staff who work in day programs that are similar to those for staff who work in residential programs. This training program shall be developed in consultation with professional associations representing (i) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) registered professional nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons who have successfully completed a medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a nurse-trainer. This authorization is specific to an individual receiving service in a specific agency and does not transfer to another agency.

"Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes, utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged specifically for an identified individual.

"Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer. Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully completed a Department-approved advanced training program specific to insulin administration developed in consultation with professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse, prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or (ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed to do so by the registered nurse.

"Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized, competency-based medication administration train-the-trainer program provided by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a Department of Human Services master nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the supervision and monitoring of the nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, and a curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal aspects of supervising those administering medications.

"Self-administration of medications" means an individual administers his or her own medications. To be considered capable to self-administer their own medication, individuals must, at a minimum, be able to identify their medication by size, shape, or color, know when they should take the medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each time.

"Training program" means a standardized medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a registered professional nurse for the purpose of training persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, curriculum overview, including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized competency-based evaluations on administration of medications and self-administration of medication training programs.

(c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care staff by nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this subsection.

(1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to administer medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the following for each individual to whom medication will be administered by non-licensed direct care staff:

(A) An assessment of the individual's health history and physical and mental status.

(B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.

(2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall meet the following criteria:

(A) Be 18 years of age or older.

(B) Have completed high school or have a high school equivalency certificate.

(C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.

(D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and Safety component of a Department of Human Services authorized direct care staff training program.

(E) Have successfully completed the training program, pass the written portion of the comprehensive exam, and score 100% on the competency-based assessment specific to the individual and his or her medications.

(F) Have received additional competency-based assessment by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by the nurse-trainer whenever a change of medication occurs or a new individual that requires medication administration enters the program.

(3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated by a nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse. Any necessary retraining shall be to the extent that is necessary to ensure competency of the authorized direct care staff to administer medication.

(4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer medication shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the registered professional nurse, the authorized direct care staff is no longer competent to administer medication.

(5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an individual's health status at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse.

(d) Medication self-administration shall meet the following requirements:

(1) As part of the normalization process, in order for each individual to attain the highest possible level of independent functioning, all individuals shall be permitted to participate in their total health care program. This program shall include, but not be limited to, individual training in preventive health and self-medication procedures.

(A) Every program shall adopt written policies and procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining preventative health and self-medication skills in consultation with a registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine their ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer through the use of the Department's required, standardized screening and assessment instruments.

(C) When the results of the screening and assessment indicate an individual not to be capable to self-administer his or her own medications, programs shall be developed in consultation with the Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team to provide individuals with self-medication administration.

(2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent to self-administer medications if:

(A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant; and

(B) approved to self-administer medication by the individual's Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse.

(e) Quality Assurance.

(1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician assistant, or pharmacist shall review the following for all individuals:

(A) Medication orders.

(B) Medication labels, including medications listed on the medication administration record for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure the labels match the orders issued by the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(C) Medication administration records for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure that the records are completed appropriately for:

(i) medication administered as prescribed;

(ii) refusal by the individual; and

(iii) full signatures provided for all initials used.

(2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be done more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse or advanced practice registered nurse.

(3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and data collection for the purpose of monitoring and recommending corrective action shall be conducted within 7 days and included in the required annual review.

(f) Programs using authorized direct care staff to administer medications are responsible for documenting and maintaining records on the training that is completed.

(g) The absence of this training program constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, and welfare and necessitates emergency rulemaking by the Departments of Human Services and Public Health under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated authority to administer medications pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall be given additional education and testing to meet criteria for delegation authority to administer medications. Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify as an authorized direct care staff after initial training and testing must within 3 months be given another opportunity for retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails to meet criteria for delegated authority to administer medication, including, but not limited to, failure of the written test on 2 occasions shall be given consideration for shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee shall be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time period following initial testing. Refusal to complete training and testing required by this Section may be grounds for immediate dismissal.

(i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to administer medication shall be subject to suspension or discharge for errors resulting from the staff person's acts or omissions when performing the functions unless the staff person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton conduct. Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede paragraph (4) of subsection (c).

(j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistant shall be on duty or on call at all times in any program covered by this Section.

(k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining liability insurance for any program covered by this Section.

(l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as authorized direct care staff pursuant to this Section shall be granted consideration for a one-time additional salary differential. The Department shall determine and provide the necessary funding for the differential in the base. This subsection (l) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2000.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 100-50, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 75. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2105-15 and 2105-207 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)

Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.

(a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and duties:

(1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise the profession, trade, or occupation for which the examination is held.

(2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to exercise the respective professions, trades, or occupations.

(3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.

(4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what shall constitute a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, and to determine the reputability and good standing of a school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided, that no school, college, or university, or department of a university, or other institution that refuses admittance to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, sexual orientation, or national origin shall be considered reputable and in good standing.

(5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons exercising the respective professions, trades, or occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or authorities.

The Department shall issue a monthly disciplinary report.

The Department shall deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other appropriate governmental agency of this State. Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by the Department may be suspended or revoked if the Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to, or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who, after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or warrant relating to a paternity or child support proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.

The Department, without further process or hearings, shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in complying with a child support order or who is certified by a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however, issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is determined by the court to be in compliance with the Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety, and welfare.

(6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the control of the Department to any other department of the State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.

(7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.

(8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services information that may be necessary for the enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any person for any disclosure of information to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for any other action taken in good faith to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (8).

(8.5) To accept continuing education credit for mandated reporter training on how to recognize and report child abuse offered by the Department of Children and Family Services and completed by any person who holds a professional license issued by the Department and who is a mandated reporter under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this paragraph.

(9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.

(a-5) Except in cases involving default on an educational loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State or in cases involving delinquency in complying with a child support order or violation of the Non-Support Punishment Act and notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing Act or administrative rule, no person or entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after the effective date of the revocation.

(b) (Blank).

(c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities, recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled substances, including those activities set forth in Sections 504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest. Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any State banking corporation or corporations organized under or subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management Services for approval.

(d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by law to consider some aspect of criminal history record information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400), the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish, pursuant to positive identification, the information contained in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

(e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.

(f) (Blank).

(g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the Department shall deny any license application or renewal authorized under any licensing Act administered by the Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.

In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification, signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was not filed, or both, is prima facie evidence of the licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that certification, the Department shall, without a hearing, immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee. Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60 days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order to the licensee's address of record or emailing a copy of the order to the licensee's email address of record. The notice shall advise the licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.

Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be terminated by the Department upon notification from the Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department may promulgate rules for the administration of this subsection (g).

(h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. For individuals licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the title "Retired" may be used in the profile required by the Patients' Right to Know Act. The use of the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person without an active license, registration, or certificate in a profession that requires licensure, registration, or certification shall not be permitted to practice that profession.

(i) Within 180 days after December 23, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-852), the Department shall promulgate rules which permit a person with a criminal record, who seeks a license or certificate in an occupation for which a criminal record is not expressly a per se bar, to apply to the Department for a non-binding, advisory opinion to be provided by the Board or body with the authority to issue the license or certificate as to whether his or her criminal record would bar the individual from the licensure or certification sought, should the individual meet all other licensure requirements including, but not limited to, the successful completion of the relevant examinations.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 99-330, eff. 8-10-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-262, eff. 8-22-17; revised 10-4-17.)

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-207)

Sec. 2105-207. Records of Department actions.

(a) Any licensee subject to a licensing Act administered by the Division of Professional Regulation and who has been subject to disciplinary action by the Department may file an application with the Department on forms provided by the Department, along with the required fee of $175, to have the records classified as confidential, not for public release, and considered expunged for reporting purposes if:

(1) the application is submitted more than 3 years after the disciplinary offense or offenses occurred or after restoration of the license, whichever is later;

(2) the licensee has had no incidents of discipline under the licensing Act since the disciplinary offense or offenses identified in the application occurred;

(3) the Department has no pending investigations against the licensee; and

(4) the licensee is not currently in a disciplinary status.

(b) An application to make disciplinary records confidential shall only be considered by the Department for an offense or action relating to:

(1) failure to pay taxes or student loans;

(2) continuing education;

(3) failure to renew a license on time;

(4) failure to obtain or renew a certificate of registration or ancillary license;

(5) advertising;

(5.1) discipline based on criminal charges or convictions:

(A) that did not arise from the licensed activity and was unrelated to the licensed activity; or

(B) that were dismissed or for which records have been sealed or expunged; .

(5.2) past probationary status of a license issued to new applicants on the sole or partial basis of prior convictions; or

(6) any grounds for discipline removed from the licensing Act.

(c) An application shall be submitted to and considered by the Director of the Division of Professional Regulation upon submission of an application and the required non-refundable fee. The Department may establish additional requirements by rule. The Department is not required to report the removal of any disciplinary record to any national database. Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the Department from using a previous discipline for any regulatory purpose or from releasing records of a previous discipline upon request from law enforcement, or other governmental body as permitted by law. Classification of records as confidential shall result in removal of records of discipline from records kept pursuant to Sections 2105-200 and 2105-205 of this Act.

(d) Any applicant for licensure or a licensee whose petition for review is granted by the Department pursuant to subsection (a-1) of Section 2105-165 of this Law may file an application with the Department on forms provided by the Department to have records relating to his or her permanent denial or permanent revocation classified as confidential and not for public release and considered expunged for reporting purposes in the same manner and under the same terms as is provided in this Section for the offenses listed in subsection (b) of this Section, except that the requirements of a 7-year waiting period and the $200 application fee do not apply.

(Source: P.A. 100-262, eff. 8-22-17; 100-286, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 80. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2310-676 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-676)

Sec. 2310-676. Advisory council on pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome.

(a) There is established an advisory council on pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome to advise the Director of Public Health on research, diagnosis, treatment, and education relating to the disorder and syndrome.

(b) The advisory council shall consist of the following members, who shall be appointed by the Director of Public Health within 60 days after August 7, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-320) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly:

(1) An immunologist licensed and practicing in this State who has experience treating persons with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome and the use of intravenous immunoglobulin.

(2) A health care provider licensed and practicing in this State who has expertise in treating persons with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome and autism.

(3) A representative of PANDAS/PANS Advocacy & Support.

(4) An osteopathic physician licensed and practicing in this State who has experience treating persons with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome.

(5) A medical researcher with experience conducting research concerning pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections, pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome, obsessive-compulsive disorder, tic disorder, and other neurological disorders.

(6) A certified dietitian-nutritionist practicing in this State who provides services to children with autism spectrum disorder, attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, and other neuro-developmental conditions.

(7) A representative of a professional organization in this State for school psychologists.

(8) A child psychiatrist who has experience treating persons with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome.

(9) A representative of a professional organization in this State for school nurses.

(10) A pediatrician who has experience treating persons with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome.

(11) A representative of an organization focused on autism.

(12) A parent with a child who has been diagnosed with pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorder associated with streptococcal infections or pediatric acute neuropsychiatric syndrome and autism.

(13) A social worker licensed and practicing in this State.

(14) A representative of the Special Education Services division of the State Board of Education.

(15) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(16) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the President of the Senate.

(17) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(18) One member of the General Assembly appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(c) The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee, shall be an ex officio ex-officio, nonvoting member and shall attend all meetings of the advisory council. Any member of the advisory council appointed under this Section may be a member of the General Assembly. Members shall receive no compensation for their services.

(d) The Director of Public Health shall schedule the first meeting of the advisory council, which shall be held not later than 90 days after August 7, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-320) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. A majority of the council members shall constitute a quorum. A majority vote of a quorum shall be required for any official action of the advisory council. The advisory council shall meet upon the call of the chairperson or upon the request of a majority of council members.

(e) Not later than January 1, 2017, and annually thereafter, the advisory council shall issue a report to the General Assembly with recommendations concerning:

(1) practice guidelines for the diagnosis and treatment of the disorder and syndrome;

(2) mechanisms to increase clinical awareness and education regarding the disorder and syndrome among physicians, including pediatricians, school-based health centers, and providers of mental health services;

(3) outreach to educators and parents to increase awareness of the disorder and syndrome; and

(4) development of a network of volunteer experts on the diagnosis and treatment of the disorder and syndrome to assist in education and outreach.

(Source: P.A. 99-320, eff. 8-7-15; revised 9-27-17.)

Section 85. The Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2405/3) (from Ch. 23, par. 3434)

Sec. 3. Powers and duties. The Department shall have the powers and duties enumerated herein:

(a) To co-operate with the federal government in the administration of the provisions of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended, of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act, and of the federal Social Security Act to the extent and in the manner provided in these Acts.

(b) To prescribe and supervise such courses of vocational training and provide such other services as may be necessary for the habilitation and rehabilitation of persons with one or more disabilities, including the administrative activities under subsection (e) of this Section, and to co-operate with State and local school authorities and other recognized agencies engaged in habilitation, rehabilitation and comprehensive rehabilitation services; and to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services regarding the care and education of children with one or more disabilities.

(c) (Blank).

(d) To report in writing, to the Governor, annually on or before the first day of December, and at such other times and in such manner and upon such subjects as the Governor may require. The annual report shall contain (1) a statement of the existing condition of comprehensive rehabilitation services, habilitation and rehabilitation in the State; (2) a statement of suggestions and recommendations with reference to the development of comprehensive rehabilitation services, habilitation and rehabilitation in the State; and (3) an itemized statement of the amounts of money received from federal, State and other sources, and of the objects and purposes to which the respective items of these several amounts have been devoted.

(e) (Blank).

(f) To establish a program of services to prevent the unnecessary institutionalization of persons in need of long term care and who meet the criteria for blindness or disability as defined by the Social Security Act, thereby enabling them to remain in their own homes. Such preventive services include any or all of the following:

(1) personal assistant services;

(2) homemaker services;

(3) home-delivered meals;

(4) adult day care services;

(5) respite care;

(6) home modification or assistive equipment;

(7) home health services;

(8) electronic home response;

(9) brain injury behavioral/cognitive services;

(10) brain injury habilitation;

(11) brain injury pre-vocational services; or

(12) brain injury supported employment.

The Department shall establish eligibility standards for such services taking into consideration the unique economic and social needs of the population for whom they are to be provided. Such eligibility standards may be based on the recipient's ability to pay for services; provided, however, that any portion of a person's income that is equal to or less than the "protected income" level shall not be considered by the Department in determining eligibility. The "protected income" level shall be determined by the Department, shall never be less than the federal poverty standard, and shall be adjusted each year to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index For All Urban Consumers as determined by the United States Department of Labor. The standards must provide that a person may not have more than $10,000 in assets to be eligible for the services, and the Department may increase or decrease the asset limitation by rule. The Department may not decrease the asset level below $10,000.

The services shall be provided, as established by the Department by rule, to eligible persons to prevent unnecessary or premature institutionalization, to the extent that the cost of the services, together with the other personal maintenance expenses of the persons, are reasonably related to the standards established for care in a group facility appropriate to their condition. These non-institutional services, pilot projects or experimental facilities may be provided as part of or in addition to those authorized by federal law or those funded and administered by the Illinois Department on Aging. The Department shall set rates and fees for services in a fair and equitable manner. Services identical to those offered by the Department on Aging shall be paid at the same rate.

Personal assistants shall be paid at a rate negotiated between the State and an exclusive representative of personal assistants under a collective bargaining agreement. In no case shall the Department pay personal assistants an hourly wage that is less than the federal minimum wage. Within 30 days after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the hourly wage paid to personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers shall be increased by $0.48 per hour.

Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, personal assistants providing services under the Department's Home Services Program shall be considered to be public employees and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be their employer as of July 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-204) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, but not before. Solely for the purposes of coverage under the Illinois Public Labor Relations Act, home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also provide services under the Department's Home Services Program shall be considered to be public employees, no matter whether the State provides such services through direct fee-for-service arrangements, with the assistance of a managed care organization or other intermediary, or otherwise, and the State of Illinois shall be considered to be the employer of those persons as of January 29, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-1158), but not before except as otherwise provided under this subsection (f). The State shall engage in collective bargaining with an exclusive representative of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers working under the Home Services Program concerning their terms and conditions of employment that are within the State's control. Nothing in this paragraph shall be understood to limit the right of the persons receiving services defined in this Section to hire and fire home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers working under the Home Services Program or to supervise them within the limitations set by the Home Services Program. The State shall not be considered to be the employer of home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers working under the Home Services Program for any purposes not specifically provided in Public Act 93-204 or Public Act 97-1158, including but not limited to, purposes of vicarious liability in tort and purposes of statutory retirement or health insurance benefits. Home care and home health workers who function as personal assistants and individual maintenance home health workers and who also provide services under the Department's Home Services Program shall not be covered by the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

The Department shall execute, relative to nursing home prescreening, as authorized by Section 4.03 of the Illinois Act on the Aging, written inter-agency agreements with the Department on Aging and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, to effect the intake procedures and eligibility criteria for those persons who may need long term care. On and after July 1, 1996, all nursing home prescreenings for individuals 18 through 59 years of age shall be conducted by the Department, or a designee of the Department.

The Department is authorized to establish a system of recipient cost-sharing for services provided under this Section. The cost-sharing shall be based upon the recipient's ability to pay for services, but in no case shall the recipient's share exceed the actual cost of the services provided. Protected income shall not be considered by the Department in its determination of the recipient's ability to pay a share of the cost of services. The level of cost-sharing shall be adjusted each year to reflect changes in the "protected income" level. The Department shall deduct from the recipient's share of the cost of services any money expended by the recipient for disability-related expenses.

To the extent permitted under the federal Social Security Act, the Department, or the Department's authorized representative, may recover the amount of moneys expended for services provided to or in behalf of a person under this Section by a claim against the person's estate or against the estate of the person's surviving spouse, but no recovery may be had until after the death of the surviving spouse, if any, and then only at such time when there is no surviving child who is under age 21 or blind or who has a permanent and total disability. This paragraph, however, shall not bar recovery, at the death of the person, of moneys for services provided to the person or in behalf of the person under this Section to which the person was not entitled; provided that such recovery shall not be enforced against any real estate while it is occupied as a homestead by the surviving spouse or other dependent, if no claims by other creditors have been filed against the estate, or, if such claims have been filed, they remain dormant for failure of prosecution or failure of the claimant to compel administration of the estate for the purpose of payment. This paragraph shall not bar recovery from the estate of a spouse, under Sections 1915 and 1924 of the Social Security Act and Section 5-4 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, who precedes a person receiving services under this Section in death. All moneys for services paid to or in behalf of the person under this Section shall be claimed for recovery from the deceased spouse's estate. "Homestead", as used in this paragraph, means the dwelling house and contiguous real estate occupied by a surviving spouse or relative, as defined by the rules and regulations of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, regardless of the value of the property.

The Department shall submit an annual report on programs and services provided under this Section. The report shall be filed with the Governor and the General Assembly on or before March 30 each year.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act, and filing additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act.

(g) To establish such subdivisions of the Department as shall be desirable and assign to the various subdivisions the responsibilities and duties placed upon the Department by law.

(h) To cooperate and enter into any necessary agreements with the Department of Employment Security for the provision of job placement and job referral services to clients of the Department, including job service registration of such clients with Illinois Employment Security offices and making job listings maintained by the Department of Employment Security available to such clients.

(i) To possess all powers reasonable and necessary for the exercise and administration of the powers, duties and responsibilities of the Department which are provided for by law.

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) To establish, operate, and maintain a Statewide Housing Clearinghouse of information on available, government subsidized housing accessible to persons with disabilities and available privately owned housing accessible to persons with disabilities. The information shall include, but not be limited to, the location, rental requirements, access features and proximity to public transportation of available housing. The Clearinghouse shall consist of at least a computerized database for the storage and retrieval of information and a separate or shared toll free telephone number for use by those seeking information from the Clearinghouse. Department offices and personnel throughout the State shall also assist in the operation of the Statewide Housing Clearinghouse. Cooperation with local, State, and federal housing managers shall be sought and extended in order to frequently and promptly update the Clearinghouse's information.

(m) To assure that the names and case records of persons who received or are receiving services from the Department, including persons receiving vocational rehabilitation, home services, or other services, and those attending one of the Department's schools or other supervised facility shall be confidential and not be open to the general public. Those case records and reports or the information contained in those records and reports shall be disclosed by the Director only to proper law enforcement officials, individuals authorized by a court, the General Assembly or any committee or commission of the General Assembly, and other persons and for reasons as the Director designates by rule. Disclosure by the Director may be only in accordance with other applicable law.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-477, eff. 9-8-17; revised 9-27-17.)

Section 90. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is amended by changing Section 55 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2407/55)

Sec. 55. Dissemination of reports. (a) On or before April 1 of each year, in conjunction with their annual report, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in cooperation with the other involved agencies, shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly on the implementation of this Act and include, at a minimum, the following data: (i) a description of any interagency agreements, fiscal payment mechanisms or methodologies developed under this Act that effectively support choice; (ii) information concerning the dollar amounts of State Medicaid long-term care expenditures and the percentage of such expenditures that were for institutional long-term care services or were for home and community-based long-term care services; and (iii) documentation that the Departments have met the requirements under Section 54(a) to assure the health and welfare of eligible individuals receiving home and community-based long-term care services. This report must be made available to the general public, including via the Departmental websites.

(Source: P.A. 95-438, eff. 1-1-08; revised 9-27-17.)

Section 95. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by changing Section 5.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)

Sec. 5.2. Expungement, sealing, and immediate sealing.

(a) General Provisions.

(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a particular context clearly requires a different meaning.

(A) The following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections, 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:

(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),

(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),

(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),

(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),

(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),

(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),

(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),

(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),

(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),

(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),

(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),

(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),

(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),

(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and

(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).

(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct result of the charge.

(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury. An order of supervision successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) successfully completed by the petitioner is not a conviction. An order of supervision or an order of qualified probation that is terminated unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is reversed or vacated.

(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense, business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal ordinance violation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not be considered a criminal offense.

(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records or return them to the petitioner and to obliterate the petitioner's name from any official index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the circuit court file, but such records relating to arrests or charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and (d)(9)(B)(ii).

(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means the sentence, order of supervision, or order of qualified probation (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner has included the criminal offense for which the sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation was imposed in his or her petition. If multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders of qualified probation terminate on the same day and are last in time, they shall be collectively considered the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were ordered to run concurrently.

(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense, business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a municipal or local ordinance.

(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under this Section.

(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as those provisions existed before their deletion by Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful completion" of an order of qualified probation under Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the probation was terminated satisfactorily and the judgment of conviction was vacated.

(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically maintain the records, unless the records would otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the records unavailable without a court order, subject to the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.

(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor" includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.

(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or order of supervision or qualified probation includes either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this Section.

(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records pursuant to this Section.

(2.5) Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the law enforcement agency issuing the citation shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the law enforcement records of a person found to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the law enforcement agency's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for that offense. The law enforcement agency shall provide by rule the process for access, review, and to confirm the automatic expungement by the law enforcement agency issuing the citation. Commencing 180 days after July 29, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-697), the clerk of the circuit court shall expunge, upon order of the court, or in the absence of a court order on or before January 1 and July 1 of each year, the court records of a person found in the circuit court to have committed a civil law violation of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Cannabis Control Act or subsection (c) of Section 3.5 of the Drug Paraphernalia Control Act in the clerk's possession or control and which contains the final satisfactory disposition which pertain to the person issued a citation for any of those offenses.

(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6) of this Section, the court shall not order:

(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i) any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii) Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii) Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)), unless the petitioner was arrested and released without charging.

(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or charges not initiated by arrest which result in an order of supervision or a conviction for the following offenses:

(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except Section 11-14 and a misdemeanor violation of Section 11-30 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30, 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;

(iv) Class A misdemeanors or felony offenses under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or

(v) any offense or attempted offense that would subject a person to registration under the Sex Offender Registration Act.

(D) (blank).

(b) Expungement.

(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not initiated by arrest when each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal, dismissal, or the petitioner's release without charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of supervision and such supervision was successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of qualified probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully completed by the petitioner.

(1.5) When a petitioner seeks to have a record of arrest expunged under this Section, and the offender has been convicted of a criminal offense, the State's Attorney may object to the expungement on the grounds that the records contain specific relevant information aside from the mere fact of the arrest.

(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.

(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal, dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging, or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is no waiting period to petition for the expungement of such records.

(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner, the following time frames will apply:

(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or under Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not be eligible for expungement until the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in orders of supervision for any other offenses shall not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the supervision.

(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of qualified probation, successfully completed by the petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for expungement until 5 years have passed following the satisfactory termination of the probation.

(3) Those records maintained by the Department for persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization, upon learning of the person having been arrested using his or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and all official records of the arresting authority, the Department, other criminal justice agencies, the prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if any, by removing his or her name from all such records in connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section shall limit the Department of State Police or other criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing under an offender's name the false names he or she has used.

(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the victim of that offense may request that the State's Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that offense. However, the records of the arresting authority and the Department of State Police concerning the offense shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown, shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in connection with the proceedings of the trial court concerning the offense available for public inspection.

(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the Department of State Police from maintaining all records of any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.

(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of innocence shall also enter an order expunging the conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults. Subsection (g) of this Section provides for immediate sealing of certain records.

(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be sealed:

(A) All arrests resulting in release without charging;

(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);

(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of supervision, including orders of supervision for municipal ordinance violations, successfully completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in convictions, including convictions on municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3);

(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in orders of first offender probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of Corrections; and

(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in felony convictions unless otherwise excluded by subsection (a) paragraph (3) of this Section.

(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be sealed as follows:

(A) Records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any time.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed 2 years after the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)).

(C) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3), records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be sealed 3 years after the termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)). Convictions requiring public registration under the Arsonist Registration Act, the Sex Offender Registration Act, or the Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Registration Act may not be sealed until the petitioner is no longer required to register under that relevant Act.

(D) Records identified in subsection (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.

(E) Records identified as eligible under subsections (c)(2)(C), (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), or (c)(2)(F) may be sealed upon termination of the petitioner's last sentence if the petitioner earned a high school diploma, associate's degree, career certificate, vocational technical certification, or bachelor's degree, or passed the high school level Test of General Educational Development, during the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. This subparagraph shall apply only to a petitioner who has not completed the same educational goal prior to the period of his or her sentence, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised release. If a petition for sealing eligible records filed under this subparagraph is denied by the court, the time periods under subparagraph (B) or (C) shall apply to any subsequent petition for sealing filed by the petitioner.

(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction records previously ordered sealed by the court.

(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the sealing of the records.

(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing under subsections (c) and (e-5):

(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to petition for the expungement or sealing of records under this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner shall pay the applicable fee, except no fee shall be required if the petitioner has obtained a court order waiving fees under Supreme Court Rule 298 or it is otherwise waived.

(1.5) County fee waiver pilot program. In a county of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, no fee shall be required to be paid by a petitioner if the records sought to be expunged or sealed were arrests resulting in release without charging or arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the conviction was reversed or vacated, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B). The provisions of this paragraph (1.5), other than this sentence, are inoperative on and after January 1, 2019 or one year after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-881), whichever is later.

(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of the arresting authority, and such other information as the court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding, the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court clerk of any change of his or her address. If the petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the petition.

(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing the absence within his or her body of all illegal substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she is petitioning to:

(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);

(B) seal felony records for a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);

(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or

(D) expunge felony records of a qualified probation under clause (b)(1)(iv).

(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest.

(5) Objections.

(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition may file an objection to the petition. All objections shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis of the objection. Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an objection to the petition may not be filed.

(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of the petition.

(6) Entry of order.

(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the charge was brought, any judge of that circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this subsection (d)(6).

(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or the chief legal officer files an objection to the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the date of service of the petition, the court shall enter an order granting or denying the petition.

(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence presented at the hearing. The court may consider the following:

(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the defendant's conviction;

(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction records by the State;

(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history, and employment history;

(D) the period of time between the petitioner's arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and the filing of the petition under this Section; and

(E) the specific adverse consequences the petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.

(8) Service of order. After entering an order to expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of the order to the Department, in a form and manner prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the chief legal officer of the unit of local government effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice agencies as may be ordered by the court.

(9) Implementation of order.

(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency, the Department, and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order; and

(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for such records from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records under subsection (e-6):

(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency and any other agency as ordered by the court, within 60 days of the date of service of the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk shall be impounded until further order of the court upon good cause shown and the name of the petitioner obliterated on the official index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;

(iii) the records shall be impounded by the Department within 60 days of the date of service of the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;

(iv) records impounded by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by law or to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or a similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the Department of Corrections upon conviction for any offense; and

(v) in response to an inquiry for these records from anyone not authorized by law to access the records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court shall seal the records (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records, from anyone not authorized by law to access such records, the court, the Department, or the agency receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in response to inquiries when no records ever existed.

(D) The Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the date of service of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the order resolving the motion, if that order requires the Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department shall send written notice to the petitioner of its compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not required while any motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, or any appeal or petition for discretionary appellate review, is pending.

(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall collect and forward the Department of State Police portion of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund.

(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties entitled to notice of the petition.

(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of any error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d).

(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order even if a party is seeking relief from the order through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order.

(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the order granting the petition to expunge through a motion filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.

(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).

(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was pardoned.

(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for sealing.

(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official records of the arresting authority and order that the records of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall have access to all expunged records of the Department pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for expungement.

(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing, especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not disclose any data in a manner that would allow the identification of any particular individual or employing unit. The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no later than September 1, 2010.

(g) Immediate Sealing.

(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights to expungement or sealing of criminal records, this subsection authorizes the immediate sealing of criminal records of adults and of minors prosecuted as adults.

(2) Eligible Records. Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest resulting in acquittal or dismissal with prejudice, except as excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B), that occur on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, may be sealed immediately if the petition is filed with the circuit court clerk on the same day and during the same hearing in which the case is disposed.

(3) When Records are Eligible to be Immediately Sealed. Eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) may be sealed immediately after entry of the final disposition of a case, notwithstanding the disposition of other charges in the same case.

(4) Notice of Eligibility for Immediate Sealing. Upon entry of a disposition for an eligible record under this subsection (g), the defendant shall be informed by the court of his or her right to have eligible records immediately sealed and the procedure for the immediate sealing of these records.

(5) Procedure. The following procedures apply to immediate sealing under this subsection (g).

(A) Filing the Petition. Upon entry of the final disposition of the case, the defendant's attorney may immediately petition the court, on behalf of the defendant, for immediate sealing of eligible records under paragraph (2) of this subsection (g) that are entered on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-282) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. The immediate sealing petition may be filed with the circuit court clerk during the hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered. If the defendant's attorney does not file the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing, the defendant may file a petition for sealing at any time as authorized under subsection (c)(3)(A).

(B) Contents of Petition. The immediate sealing petition shall be verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of birth, current address, and for each eligible record, the case number, the date of arrest if applicable, the identity of the arresting authority if applicable, and other information as the court may require.

(C) Drug Test. The petitioner shall not be required to attach proof that he or she has passed a drug test.

(D) Service of Petition. A copy of the petition shall be served on the State's Attorney in open court. The petitioner shall not be required to serve a copy of the petition on any other agency.

(E) Entry of Order. The presiding trial judge shall enter an order granting or denying the petition for immediate sealing during the hearing in which it is filed. Petitions for immediate sealing shall be ruled on in the same hearing in which the final disposition of the case is entered.

(F) Hearings. The court shall hear the petition for immediate sealing on the same day and during the same hearing in which the disposition is rendered.

(G) Service of Order. An order to immediately seal eligible records shall be served in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(H) Implementation of Order. An order to immediately seal records shall be implemented in conformance with subsections (d)(9)(C) and (d)(9)(D).

(I) Fees. The fee imposed by the circuit court clerk and the Department of State Police shall comply with paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section.

(J) Final Order. No court order issued under this subsection (g) shall become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after service of the order on the petitioner and all parties entitled to service of the order in conformance with subsection (d)(8).

(K) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the petitioner, State's Attorney, or the Department of State Police may file a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order denying the petition to immediately seal within 60 days of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(L) Effect of Order. An order granting an immediate sealing petition shall not be considered void because it fails to comply with the provisions of this Section or because of an error asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether the order is voidable, and to vacate, modify, or reconsider its terms based on a motion filed under subparagraph (L) of this subsection (g).

(M) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order granting a petition to immediately seal, all parties entitled to service of the order must fully comply with the terms of the order within 60 days of service of the order.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-378, eff. 1-1-16; 99-385, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16; 99-881, eff. 1-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-282, eff. 1-1-18; 100-284, eff. 8-24-17; 100-287, eff. 8-24-17; revised 10-13-17.)

Section 100. The Department of Veterans' Affairs Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2805/20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2018)

Sec. 20. Illinois Discharged Servicemember Task Force. The Illinois Discharged Servicemember Task Force is hereby created within the Department of Veterans' Affairs. The Task Force shall investigate the re-entry process for service members who return to civilian life after being engaged in an active theater. The investigation shall include the effects of post-traumatic stress disorder, homelessness, disabilities, and other issues the Task Force finds relevant to the re-entry process. For fiscal year 2012, the Task Force shall include the availability of prosthetics in its investigation. For fiscal year 2014, the Task Force shall include the needs of women veterans with respect to issues including, but not limited to, compensation, rehabilitation, outreach, health care, and issues facing women veterans in the community, and to offer recommendations on how best to alleviate these needs which shall be included in the Task Force Annual Report for 2014. The Task Force shall include the following members:

(a) a representative of the Department of Veterans' Affairs, who shall chair the committee;

(b) a representative from the Department of Military Affairs;

(c) a representative from the Office of the Illinois Attorney General;

(d) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the Speaker of the House;

(e) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the House Minority Leader;

(f) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the President of the Senate;

(g) a member of the General Assembly appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;

(h) 4 members chosen by the Department of Veterans' Affairs, who shall represent statewide veterans' organizations or veterans' homeless shelters;

(i) one member appointed by the Lieutenant Governor; and

(j) a representative of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs shall be invited to participate. Vacancies in the Task Force shall be filled by the initial appointing authority. Task Force members shall serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in performing duties associated with the Task Force.

By July 1, 2008 and by July 1 of each year thereafter through July 1, 2017, the Task Force shall present an annual report of its findings to the Governor, the Attorney General, the Director of Veterans' Affairs, the Lieutenant Governor, and the Secretary of the United States Department of Veterans Affairs. As soon as is practicable after the Task Force presents its final report due by July 1, 2017, any information collected by the Task Force in carrying out its duties under this Section shall be transferred to the Illinois Veterans' Advisory Council.

The Task Force is dissolved, and this Section is repealed, on July 1, 2018. Veterans'

(Source: P.A. 100-10, eff. 6-30-17; 100-143, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 105. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 7 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3305/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1055)

Sec. 5. Illinois Emergency Management Agency.

(a) There is created within the executive branch of the State Government an Illinois Emergency Management Agency and a Director of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, herein called the "Director" who shall be the head thereof. The Director shall be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall serve for a term of 2 years beginning on the third Monday in January of the odd-numbered year, and until a successor is appointed and has qualified; except that the term of the first Director appointed under this Act shall expire on the third Monday in January, 1989. The Director shall not hold any other remunerative public office. The Director shall receive an annual salary as set by the Compensation Review Board.

(b) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall obtain, under the provisions of the Personnel Code, technical, clerical, stenographic and other administrative personnel, and may make expenditures within the appropriation therefor as may be necessary to carry out the purpose of this Act. The agency created by this Act is intended to be a successor to the agency created under the Illinois Emergency Services and Disaster Agency Act of 1975 and the personnel, equipment, records, and appropriations of that agency are transferred to the successor agency as of June 30, 1988 (the effective date of this Act).

(c) The Director, subject to the direction and control of the Governor, shall be the executive head of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency and the State Emergency Response Commission and shall be responsible under the direction of the Governor, for carrying out the program for emergency management of this State. The Director shall also maintain liaison and cooperate with the emergency management organizations of this State and other states and of the federal government.

(d) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall take an integral part in the development and revision of political subdivision emergency operations plans prepared under paragraph (f) of Section 10. To this end it shall employ or otherwise secure the services of professional and technical personnel capable of providing expert assistance to the emergency services and disaster agencies. These personnel shall consult with emergency services and disaster agencies on a regular basis and shall make field examinations of the areas, circumstances, and conditions that particular political subdivision emergency operations plans are intended to apply.

(e) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency and political subdivisions shall be encouraged to form an emergency management advisory committee composed of private and public personnel representing the emergency management phases of mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery. The Local Emergency Planning Committee, as created under the Illinois Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act, shall serve as an advisory committee to the emergency services and disaster agency or agencies serving within the boundaries of that Local Emergency Planning Committee planning district for:

(1) the development of emergency operations plan provisions for hazardous chemical emergencies; and

(2) the assessment of emergency response capabilities related to hazardous chemical emergencies.

(f) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall:

(1) Coordinate the overall emergency management program of the State.

(2) Cooperate with local governments, the federal government and any public or private agency or entity in achieving any purpose of this Act and in implementing emergency management programs for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(2.5) Develop a comprehensive emergency preparedness and response plan for any nuclear accident in accordance with Section 65 of the Department of Nuclear Safety Law of 2004 (20 ILCS 3310) and in development of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness program in accordance with Section 8 of the Illinois Nuclear Safety Preparedness Act.

(2.6) Coordinate with the Department of Public Health with respect to planning for and responding to public health emergencies.

(3) Prepare, for issuance by the Governor, executive orders, proclamations, and regulations as necessary or appropriate in coping with disasters.

(4) Promulgate rules and requirements for political subdivision emergency operations plans that are not inconsistent with and are at least as stringent as applicable federal laws and regulations.

(5) Review and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, emergency operations plans for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(5.5) Promulgate rules and requirements for the political subdivision emergency management exercises, including, but not limited to, exercises of the emergency operations plans.

(5.10) Review, evaluate, and approve, in accordance with Illinois Emergency Management Agency rules, political subdivision emergency management exercises for those political subdivisions required to have an emergency services and disaster agency pursuant to this Act.

(6) Determine requirements of the State and its political subdivisions for food, clothing, and other necessities in event of a disaster.

(7) Establish a register of persons with types of emergency management training and skills in mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

(8) Establish a register of government and private response resources available for use in a disaster.

(9) Expand the Earthquake Awareness Program and its efforts to distribute earthquake preparedness materials to schools, political subdivisions, community groups, civic organizations, and the media. Emphasis will be placed on those areas of the State most at risk from an earthquake. Maintain the list of all school districts, hospitals, airports, power plants, including nuclear power plants, lakes, dams, emergency response facilities of all types, and all other major public or private structures which are at the greatest risk of damage from earthquakes under circumstances where the damage would cause subsequent harm to the surrounding communities and residents.

(10) Disseminate all information, completely and without delay, on water levels for rivers and streams and any other data pertaining to potential flooding supplied by the Division of Water Resources within the Department of Natural Resources to all political subdivisions to the maximum extent possible.

(11) Develop agreements, if feasible, with medical supply and equipment firms to supply resources as are necessary to respond to an earthquake or any other disaster as defined in this Act. These resources will be made available upon notifying the vendor of the disaster. Payment for the resources will be in accordance with Section 7 of this Act. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall determine which resources will be required and requested.

(11.5) In coordination with the Department of State Police, develop and implement a community outreach program to promote awareness among the State's parents and children of child abduction prevention and response.

(12) Out of funds appropriated for these purposes, award capital and non-capital grants to Illinois hospitals or health care facilities located outside of a city with a population in excess of 1,000,000 to be used for purposes that include, but are not limited to, preparing to respond to mass casualties and disasters, maintaining and improving patient safety and quality of care, and protecting the confidentiality of patient information. No single grant for a capital expenditure shall exceed $300,000. No single grant for a non-capital expenditure shall exceed $100,000. In awarding such grants, preference shall be given to hospitals that serve a significant number of Medicaid recipients, but do not qualify for disproportionate share hospital adjustment payments under the Illinois Public Aid Code. To receive such a grant, a hospital or health care facility must provide funding of at least 50% of the cost of the project for which the grant is being requested. In awarding such grants the Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall consider the recommendations of the Illinois Hospital Association.

(13) Do all other things necessary, incidental or appropriate for the implementation of this Act.

(g) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to various higher education institutions, public K-12 school districts, area vocational centers as designated by the State Board of Education, inter-district special education cooperatives, regional safe schools, and nonpublic K-12 schools for safety and security improvements. For the purpose of this subsection (g), "higher education institution" means a public university, a public community college, or an independent, not-for-profit or for-profit higher education institution located in this State. Grants made under this subsection (g) shall be paid out of moneys appropriated for that purpose from the Build Illinois Bond Fund. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (g). These rules may specify: (i) the manner of applying for grants; (ii) project eligibility requirements; (iii) restrictions on the use of grant moneys; (iv) the manner in which the various higher education institutions must account for the use of grant moneys; and (v) any other provision that the Illinois Emergency Management Agency determines to be necessary or useful for the administration of this subsection (g).

(g-5) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency is authorized to make grants to not-for-profit organizations which are exempt from federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Federal Internal Revenue Code for eligible security improvements that assist the organization in preventing, preparing for, or responding to acts of terrorism. The Director shall establish procedures and forms by which applicants may apply for a grant, and procedures for distributing grants to recipients. The procedures shall require each applicant to do the following:

(1) identify and substantiate prior threats or attacks by a terrorist organization, network, or cell against the not-for-profit organization;

(2) indicate the symbolic or strategic value of one or more sites that renders the site a possible target of terrorism;

(3) discuss potential consequences to the organization if the site is damaged, destroyed, or disrupted by a terrorist act;

(4) describe how the grant will be used to integrate organizational preparedness with broader State and local preparedness efforts;

(5) submit a vulnerability assessment conducted by experienced security, law enforcement, or military personnel, and a description of how the grant award will be used to address the vulnerabilities identified in the assessment; and

(6) submit any other relevant information as may be required by the Director.

The Agency is authorized to use funds appropriated for the grant program described in this subsection (g-5) to administer the program.

(h) Except as provided in Section 17.5 of this Act, any moneys received by the Agency from donations or sponsorships shall be deposited in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund and used by the Agency, subject to appropriation, to effectuate planning and training activities.

(i) The Illinois Emergency Management Agency may by rule assess and collect reasonable fees for attendance at Agency-sponsored conferences to enable the Agency to carry out the requirements of this Act. Any moneys received under this subsection shall be deposited in the Emergency Planning and Training Fund and used by the Agency, subject to appropriation, for planning and training activities.

(Source: P.A. 100-444, eff. 1-1-18; 100-508, eff. 9-15-17; revised 9-28-17.)

(20 ILCS 3305/7) (from Ch. 127, par. 1057)

Sec. 7. Emergency Powers of the Governor. (a) In the event of a disaster, as defined in Section 4, the Governor may, by proclamation declare that a disaster exists. Upon such proclamation, the Governor shall have and may exercise for a period not to exceed 30 days the following emergency powers; provided, however, that the lapse of the emergency powers shall not, as regards any act or acts occurring or committed within the 30-day 30 days period, deprive any person, firm, corporation, political subdivision, or body politic of any right or rights to compensation or reimbursement which he, she, it, or they may have under the provisions of this Act:

(1) To suspend the provisions of any regulatory statute prescribing procedures for conduct of State business, or the orders, rules and regulations of any State agency, if strict compliance with the provisions of any statute, order, rule, or regulation would in any way prevent, hinder or delay necessary action, including emergency purchases, by the Illinois Emergency Management Agency, in coping with the disaster.

(2) To utilize all available resources of the State government as reasonably necessary to cope with the disaster and of each political subdivision of the State.

(3) To transfer the direction, personnel or functions of State departments and agencies or units thereof for the purpose of performing or facilitating disaster response and recovery programs.

(4) On behalf of this State to take possession of, and to acquire full title or a lesser specified interest in, any personal property as may be necessary to accomplish the objectives set forth in Section 2 of this Act, including: airplanes, automobiles, trucks, trailers, buses, and other vehicles; coal, oils, gasoline, and other fuels and means of propulsion; explosives, materials, equipment, and supplies; animals and livestock; feed and seed; food and provisions for humans and animals; clothing and bedding; and medicines and medical and surgical supplies; and to take possession of and for a limited period occupy and use any real estate necessary to accomplish those objectives; but only upon the undertaking by the State to pay just compensation therefor as in this Act provided, and then only under the following provisions:

a. The Governor, or the person or persons as the Governor may authorize so to do, may forthwith take possession of property for and on behalf of the State; provided, however, that the Governor or persons shall simultaneously with the taking, deliver to the owner or his or her agent, if the identity of the owner or agency is known or readily ascertainable, a signed statement in writing, that shall include the name and address of the owner, the date and place of the taking, description of the property sufficient to identify it, a statement of interest in the property that is being so taken, and, if possible, a statement in writing, signed by the owner, setting forth the sum that he or she is willing to accept as just compensation for the property or use. Whether or not the owner or agent is known or readily ascertainable, a true copy of the statement shall promptly be filed by the Governor or the person with the Director, who shall keep the docket of the statements. In cases where the sum that the owner is willing to accept as just compensation is less than $1,000, copies of the statements shall also be filed by the Director with, and shall be passed upon by an Emergency Management Claims Commission, consisting of 3 disinterested citizens who shall be appointed by the Governor, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, within 20 days after the Governor's declaration of a disaster, and if the sum fixed by them as just compensation be less than $1,000 and is accepted in writing by the owner, then the State Treasurer out of funds appropriated for these purposes, shall, upon certification thereof by the Emergency Management Claims Commission, cause the sum so certified forthwith to be paid to the owner. The Emergency Management Claims Commission is hereby given the power to issue appropriate subpoenas and to administer oaths to witnesses and shall keep appropriate minutes and other records of its actions upon and the disposition made of all claims.

b. When the compensation to be paid for the taking or use of property or interest therein is not or cannot be determined and paid under item a of this paragraph (4) (a) above, a petition in the name of The People of the State of Illinois shall be promptly filed by the Director, which filing may be enforced by mandamus, in the circuit court of the county where the property or any part thereof was located when initially taken or used under the provisions of this Act praying that the amount of compensation to be paid to the person or persons interested therein be fixed and determined. The petition shall include a description of the property that has been taken, shall state the physical condition of the property when taken, shall name as defendants all interested parties, shall set forth the sum of money estimated to be just compensation for the property or interest therein taken or used, and shall be signed by the Director. The litigation shall be handled by the Attorney General for and on behalf of the State.

c. Just compensation for the taking or use of property or interest therein shall be promptly ascertained in proceedings and established by judgment against the State, that shall include, as part of the just compensation so awarded, interest at the rate of 6% per annum on the fair market value of the property or interest therein from the date of the taking or use to the date of the judgment; and the court may order the payment of delinquent taxes and special assessments out of the amount so awarded as just compensation and may make any other orders with respect to encumbrances, rents, insurance, and other charges, if any, as shall be just and equitable.

(5) When required by the exigencies of the disaster, to sell, lend, rent, give, or distribute all or any part of property so or otherwise acquired to the inhabitants of this State, or to political subdivisions of this State, or, under the interstate mutual aid agreements or compacts as are entered into under the provisions of subparagraph (5) of paragraph (c) of Section 6 to other states, and to account for and transmit to the State Treasurer all funds, if any, received therefor.

(6) To recommend the evacuation of all or part of the population from any stricken or threatened area within the State if the Governor deems this action necessary.

(7) To prescribe routes, modes of transportation, and destinations in connection with evacuation.

(8) To control ingress and egress to and from a disaster area, the movement of persons within the area, and the occupancy of premises therein.

(9) To suspend or limit the sale, dispensing, or transportation of alcoholic beverages, firearms, explosives, and combustibles.

(10) To make provision for the availability and use of temporary emergency housing.

(11) A proclamation of a disaster shall activate the State Emergency Operations Plan, and political subdivision emergency operations plans applicable to the political subdivision or area in question and be authority for the deployment and use of any forces that the plan or plans apply and for use or distribution of any supplies, equipment, and materials and facilities assembled, stockpiled or arranged to be made available under this Act or any other provision of law relating to disasters.

(12) Control, restrict, and regulate by rationing, freezing, use of quotas, prohibitions on shipments, price fixing, allocation or other means, the use, sale or distribution of food, feed, fuel, clothing and other commodities, materials, goods, or services; and perform and exercise any other functions, powers, and duties as may be necessary to promote and secure the safety and protection of the civilian population.

(13) During the continuance of any disaster the Governor is commander-in-chief of the organized and unorganized militia and of all other forces available for emergency duty. To the greatest extent practicable, the Governor shall delegate or assign command authority to do so by orders issued at the time of the disaster.

(14) Prohibit increases in the prices of goods and services during a disaster.

(Source: P.A. 92-73, eff. 1-1-02; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 110. The State Historical Library Act is amended by changing Section 5.1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3425/5.1) (from Ch. 128, par. 16.1)

Sec. 5.1. The State Historian shall establish and supervise a program within the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum designed to preserve as historical records selected past editions of newspapers of this State. Such editions shall be preserved in accordance with industry standards and shall be stored in a place provided by the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum and other materials shall be stored in a place provided by the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum.

The State Historian shall determine on the basis of historical value the various newspaper edition files which shall be preserved preservation. The State Historian or his or her designee shall supervise the making of arrangements for acquiring access to past edition files with the editors or publishers of the various newspapers.

Upon payment to the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum of the required fee, any person or organization shall be granted access to the preserved editions of edition newspapers and all records. The fee required shall be determined by the State Historian and shall be equal in amount to the cost incurred by the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum in granting such access.

(Source: P.A. 100-120, eff. 8-18-17; 100-164, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 115. The Old State Capitol Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3430/1) (from Ch. 123, par. 52)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act: ,

(a) "Old State Capitol Complex" means the Old State Capitol reconstructed under the "1961 Act" in Springfield and includes space also occupied by the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum and an underground parking garage. ;

(b) "1961 Act" means "An Act providing for the reconstruction and restoration of the old State Capitol at Springfield and providing for the custody thereof", approved August 24, 1961, as amended. ;

(c) "Board of Trustees" means the Board of Trustees of the Historic Preservation Agency.

(Source: P.A. 100-120, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 120. The Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3475/20)

Sec. 20. Composition of the Board. The Board of Trustees shall consist of 11 members to be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Board shall consist of members with the following qualifications:

(1) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to business administration.

(2) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to the history of Abraham Lincoln.

(3) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to the history of Illinois.

(4) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to library and museum studies.

(5) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to historic preservation.

(6) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to cultural tourism.

(7) One member shall have recognized knowledge and ability in matters related to conservation, digitization, and technological innovation.

The initial terms of office shall be designated by the Governor as follows: one member to serve for a term of one year, 2 members to serve for a term of 2 years, 2 members to serve for a term of 3 years, 2 members to serve for a term of 4 years, 2 members to serve for a term of 5 years, and 2 members to serve for a term of 6 years. Thereafter, all appointments shall be for a term of 6 years. The Governor shall appoint one of the members to serve as chairperson at the pleasure of the Governor.

The members of the Board shall serve without compensation but shall be entitled to reimbursement for all necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties as members of the Board from funds appropriated for that purpose.

To facilitate communication and cooperation between the Agency and the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library Foundation, the Foundation CEO shall serve as a non-voting, ex officio ex-officio member of the Board.

(Source: P.A. 100-120, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 125. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by changing Sections 1-60 and 1-75 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3855/1-60)

Sec. 1-60. Moneys made available by private or public entities. (a) The Agency may apply for, receive, expend, allocate, or disburse funds and moneys made available by public or private entities, including, but not limited to, contracts, private or public financial gifts, bequests, grants, or donations from individuals, corporations, foundations, or public or private institutions of higher learning. All funds received by the Agency from these sources shall be deposited:

(1) into the Illinois Power Agency Operations Fund, if for general Agency operations, to be held by the State Treasurer as ex officio custodian, and subject to the Comptroller-Treasurer, voucher-warrant system; or

(2) into the Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund, if for costs incurred in connection with the development and construction of a facility by the Agency, to be held by the State Treasurer as ex officio custodian, and subject to the Comptroller-Treasurer, voucher-warrant system.

Any funds received, expended, allocated, or disbursed shall be expended by the Agency for the purposes as indicated by the grantor, donor, or, in the case of funds or moneys given or donated for no specific purposes, for any purpose deemed appropriate by the Director in administering the responsibilities of the Agency as set forth in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; revised 9-25-17.)

(20 ILCS 3855/1-75)

Sec. 1-75. Planning and Procurement Bureau. The Planning and Procurement Bureau has the following duties and responsibilities:

(a) The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall each year, beginning in 2008, develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in Illinois. Beginning with the delivery year commencing on June 1, 2017, the Planning and Procurement Bureau shall develop plans and processes for the procurement of zero emission credits from zero emission facilities in accordance with the requirements of subsection (d-5) of this Section. The Planning and Procurement Bureau shall also develop procurement plans and conduct competitive procurement processes in accordance with the requirements of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act for the eligible retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. This Section shall not apply to a small multi-jurisdictional utility until such time as a small multi-jurisdictional utility requests the Agency to prepare a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load. For the purposes of this Section, the term "eligible retail customers" has the same definition as found in Section 16-111.5(a) of the Public Utilities Act.

Beginning with the plan or plans to be implemented in the 2017 delivery year, the Agency shall no longer include the procurement of renewable energy resources in the annual procurement plans required by this subsection (a), except as provided in subsection (q) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, and shall instead develop a long-term renewable resources procurement plan in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(1) The Agency shall each year, beginning in 2008, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for experts or expert consulting firms to develop the procurement plans in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience assembling large-scale power supply plans or portfolios for end-use customers;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, risk management, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including managing supply risk;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit protocols and familiarity with contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(2) The Agency shall each year, as needed, issue a request for qualifications for a procurement administrator to conduct the competitive procurement processes in accordance with Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. In order to qualify an expert or expert consulting firm must have:

(A) direct previous experience administering a large-scale competitive procurement process;

(B) an advanced degree in economics, mathematics, engineering, or a related area of study;

(C) 10 years of experience in the electricity sector, including risk management experience;

(D) expertise in wholesale electricity market rules, including those established by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and regional transmission organizations;

(E) expertise in credit and contract protocols;

(F) adequate resources to perform and fulfill the required functions and responsibilities; and

(G) the absence of a conflict of interest and inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected electric utilities.

(3) The Agency shall provide affected utilities and other interested parties with the lists of qualified experts or expert consulting firms identified through the request for qualifications processes that are under consideration to develop the procurement plans and to serve as the procurement administrator. The Agency shall also provide each qualified expert's or expert consulting firm's response to the request for qualifications. All information provided under this subparagraph shall also be provided to the Commission. The Agency may provide by rule for fees associated with supplying the information to utilities and other interested parties. These parties shall, within 5 business days, notify the Agency in writing if they object to any experts or expert consulting firms on the lists. Objections shall be based on:

(A) failure to satisfy qualification criteria;

(B) identification of a conflict of interest; or

(C) evidence of inappropriate bias for or against potential bidders or the affected utilities.

The Agency shall remove experts or expert consulting firms from the lists within 10 days if there is a reasonable basis for an objection and provide the updated lists to the affected utilities and other interested parties. If the Agency fails to remove an expert or expert consulting firm from a list, an objecting party may seek review by the Commission within 5 days thereafter by filing a petition, and the Commission shall render a ruling on the petition within 10 days. There is no right of appeal of the Commission's ruling.

(4) The Agency shall issue requests for proposals to the qualified experts or expert consulting firms to develop a procurement plan for the affected utilities and to serve as procurement administrator.

(5) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm to develop procurement plans based on the proposals submitted and shall award contracts of up to 5 years to those selected.

(6) The Agency shall select an expert or expert consulting firm, with approval of the Commission, to serve as procurement administrator based on the proposals submitted. If the Commission rejects, within 5 days, the Agency's selection, the Agency shall submit another recommendation within 3 days based on the proposals submitted. The Agency shall award a 5-year contract to the expert or expert consulting firm so selected with Commission approval.

(b) The experts or expert consulting firms retained by the Agency shall, as appropriate, prepare procurement plans, and conduct a competitive procurement process as prescribed in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, to ensure adequate, reliable, affordable, efficient, and environmentally sustainable electric service at the lowest total cost over time, taking into account any benefits of price stability, for eligible retail customers of electric utilities that on December 31, 2005 provided electric service to at least 100,000 customers in the State of Illinois, and for eligible Illinois retail customers of small multi-jurisdictional electric utilities that (i) on December 31, 2005 served less than 100,000 customers in Illinois and (ii) request a procurement plan for their Illinois jurisdictional load.

(c) Renewable portfolio standard.

(1)(A) The Agency shall develop a long-term renewable resources procurement plan that shall include procurement programs and competitive procurement events necessary to meet the goals set forth in this subsection (c). The initial long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall be released for comment no later than 160 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. The Agency shall review, and may revise on an expedited basis, the long-term renewable resources procurement plan at least every 2 years, which shall be conducted in conjunction with the procurement plan under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent practicable to minimize administrative expense. The long-term renewable resources procurement plans shall be subject to review and approval by the Commission under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(B) Subject to subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (1), the long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall include the goals for procurement of renewable energy credits to meet at least the following overall percentages: 13% by the 2017 delivery year; increasing by at least 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to at least 25% by the 2025 delivery year; and continuing at no less than 25% for each delivery year thereafter. In the event of a conflict between these goals and the new wind and new photovoltaic procurement requirements described in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1), the long-term plan shall prioritize compliance with the new wind and new photovoltaic procurement requirements described in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1) over the annual percentage targets described in this subparagraph (B).

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2017, the procurement plan shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources equal to at least 13% of each utility's load for eligible retail customers and 13% of the applicable portion of each utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers, which applicable portion shall equal 50% of the utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers on February 28, 2017.

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018, the procurement plan shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources equal to at least 14.5% of each utility's load for eligible retail customers and 14.5% of the applicable portion of each utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers, which applicable portion shall equal 75% of the utility's load for retail customers who are not eligible retail customers on February 28, 2017.

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2019, and for each year thereafter, the procurement plans shall include cost-effective renewable energy resources equal to a minimum percentage of each utility's load for all retail customers as follows: 16% by June 1, 2019; increasing by 1.5% each year thereafter to 25% by June 1, 2025; and 25% by June 1, 2026 and each year thereafter.

For each delivery year, the Agency shall first recognize each utility's obligations for that delivery year under existing contracts. Any renewable energy credits under existing contracts, including renewable energy credits as part of renewable energy resources, shall be used to meet the goals set forth in this subsection (c) for the delivery year.

(C) Of the renewable energy credits procured under this subsection (c), at least 75% shall come from wind and photovoltaic projects. The long-term renewable resources procurement plan described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1) shall include the procurement of renewable energy credits in amounts equal to at least the following:

(i) By the end of the 2020 delivery year:

At least 2,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new wind projects; and

At least 2,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new photovoltaic projects; of that amount, to the extent possible, the Agency shall procure: at least 50% from solar photovoltaic projects using the program outlined in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) from distributed renewable energy generation devices or community renewable generation projects; at least 40% from utility-scale solar projects; at least 2% from brownfield site photovoltaic projects that are not community renewable generation projects; and the remainder shall be determined through the long-term planning process described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1).

(ii) By the end of the 2025 delivery year:

At least 3,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new wind projects; and

At least 3,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new photovoltaic projects; of that amount, to the extent possible, the Agency shall procure: at least 50% from solar photovoltaic projects using the program outlined in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) from distributed renewable energy devices or community renewable generation projects; at least 40% from utility-scale solar projects; at least 2% from brownfield site photovoltaic projects that are not community renewable generation projects; and the remainder shall be determined through the long-term planning process described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1).

(iii) By the end of the 2030 delivery year:

At least 4,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new wind projects; and

At least 4,000,000 renewable energy credits for each delivery year shall come from new photovoltaic projects; of that amount, to the extent possible, the Agency shall procure: at least 50% from solar photovoltaic projects using the program outlined in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) from distributed renewable energy devices or community renewable generation projects; at least 40% from utility-scale solar projects; at least 2% from brownfield site photovoltaic projects that are not community renewable generation projects; and the remainder shall be determined through the long-term planning process described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1).

For purposes of this Section:

"New wind projects" means wind renewable energy facilities that are energized after June 1, 2017 for the delivery year commencing June 1, 2017 or within 3 years after the date the Commission approves contracts for subsequent delivery years.

"New photovoltaic projects" means photovoltaic renewable energy facilities that are energized after June 1, 2017. Photovoltaic projects developed under Section 1-56 of this Act shall not apply towards the new photovoltaic project requirements in this subparagraph (C).

(D) Renewable energy credits shall be cost effective. For purposes of this subsection (c), "cost effective" means that the costs of procuring renewable energy resources do not cause the limit stated in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (1) to be exceeded and, for renewable energy credits procured through a competitive procurement event, do not exceed benchmarks based on market prices for like products in the region. For purposes of this subsection (c), "like products" means contracts for renewable energy credits from the same or substantially similar technology, same or substantially similar vintage (new or existing), the same or substantially similar quantity, and the same or substantially similar contract length and structure. Benchmarks shall be developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval. If price benchmarks for like products in the region are not available, the procurement administrator shall establish price benchmarks based on publicly available data on regional technology costs and expected current and future regional energy prices. The benchmarks in this Section shall not be used to curtail or otherwise reduce contractual obligations entered into by or through the Agency prior to June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(E) For purposes of this subsection (c), the required procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources for a particular year commencing prior to June 1, 2017 shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the delivery year ending immediately prior to the procurement, and, for delivery years commencing on and after June 1, 2017, the required procurement of cost-effective renewable energy resources for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the electric utility in the delivery year ending immediately prior to the procurement, to all retail customers in its service territory. For purposes of this subsection (c), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (c), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c), the total of renewable energy resources procured under the procurement plan for any single year shall be subject to the limitations of this subparagraph (E). Such procurement shall be reduced for all retail customers based on the amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2007 or the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2011. To arrive at a maximum dollar amount of renewable energy resources to be procured for the particular delivery year, the resulting per kilowatthour amount shall be applied to the actual amount of kilowatthours of electricity delivered, or applicable portion of such amount as specified in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c), as applicable, by the electric utility in the delivery year immediately prior to the procurement to all retail customers in its service territory. The calculations required by this subparagraph (E) shall be made only once for each delivery year at the time that the renewable energy resources are procured. Once the determination as to the amount of renewable energy resources to procure is made based on the calculations set forth in this subparagraph (E) and the contracts procuring those amounts are executed, no subsequent rate impact determinations shall be made and no adjustments to those contract amounts shall be allowed. All costs incurred under such contracts shall be fully recoverable by the electric utility as provided in this Section.

(F) If the limitation on the amount of renewable energy resources procured in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (1) prevents the Agency from meeting all of the goals in this subsection (c), the Agency's long-term plan shall prioritize compliance with the requirements of this subsection (c) regarding renewable energy credits in the following order:

(i) renewable energy credits under existing contractual obligations;

(i-5) funding for the Illinois Solar for All Program, as described in subparagraph (O) of this paragraph (1);

(ii) renewable energy credits necessary to comply with the new wind and new photovoltaic procurement requirements described in items (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1); and

(iii) renewable energy credits necessary to meet the remaining requirements of this subsection (c).

(G) The following provisions shall apply to the Agency's procurement of renewable energy credits under this subsection (c):

(i) Notwithstanding whether a long-term renewable resources procurement plan has been approved, the Agency shall conduct an initial forward procurement for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale wind projects within 160 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. For the purposes of this initial forward procurement, the Agency shall solicit 15-year contracts for delivery of 1,000,000 renewable energy credits delivered annually from new utility-scale wind projects to begin delivery on June 1, 2019, if available, but not later than June 1, 2021. Payments to suppliers of renewable energy credits shall commence upon delivery. Renewable energy credits procured under this initial procurement shall be included in the Agency's long-term plan and shall apply to all renewable energy goals in this subsection (c).

(ii) Notwithstanding whether a long-term renewable resources procurement plan has been approved, the Agency shall conduct an initial forward procurement for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale solar projects and brownfield site photovoltaic projects within one year after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. For the purposes of this initial forward procurement, the Agency shall solicit 15-year contracts for delivery of 1,000,000 renewable energy credits delivered annually from new utility-scale solar projects and brownfield site photovoltaic projects to begin delivery on June 1, 2019, if available, but not later than June 1, 2021. The Agency may structure this initial procurement in one or more discrete procurement events. Payments to suppliers of renewable energy credits shall commence upon delivery. Renewable energy credits procured under this initial procurement shall be included in the Agency's long-term plan and shall apply to all renewable energy goals in this subsection (c).

(iii) Subsequent forward procurements for utility-scale wind projects shall solicit at least 1,000,000 renewable energy credits delivered annually per procurement event and shall be planned, scheduled, and designed such that the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits delivered from all new wind projects in each delivery year shall not exceed the Agency's projection of the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits that will be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects, including utility-scale and distributed photovoltaic devices, in the same delivery year at the time scheduled for wind contract delivery.

(iv) If, at any time after the time set for delivery of renewable energy credits pursuant to the initial procurements in items (i) and (ii) of this subparagraph (G), the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits projected to be delivered from all new wind projects in a given delivery year exceeds the cumulative amount of renewable energy credits projected to be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects in that delivery year by 200,000 or more renewable energy credits, then the Agency shall within 60 days adjust the procurement programs in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan to ensure that the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new wind projects does not exceed the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects by 200,000 or more renewable energy credits, provided that nothing in this Section shall preclude the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new photovoltaic projects from exceeding the projected cumulative amount of renewable energy credits to be delivered from all new wind projects in each delivery year and provided further that nothing in this item (iv) shall require the curtailment of an executed contract. The Agency shall update, on a quarterly basis, its projection of the renewable energy credits to be delivered from all projects in each delivery year. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, the Agency may adjust the timing of procurement events conducted under this subparagraph (G). The long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall set forth the process by which the adjustments may be made.

(v) All procurements under this subparagraph (G) shall comply with the geographic requirements in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (1) and shall follow the procurement processes and procedures described in this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent practicable, and these processes and procedures may be expedited to accommodate the schedule established by this subparagraph (G).

(H) The procurement of renewable energy resources for a given delivery year shall be reduced as described in this subparagraph (H) if an alternative alternate retail electric supplier meets the requirements described in this subparagraph (H).

(i) Within 45 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, an alternative retail electric supplier or its successor shall submit an informational filing to the Illinois Commerce Commission certifying that, as of December 31, 2015, the alternative retail electric supplier owned one or more electric generating facilities that generates renewable energy resources as defined in Section 1-10 of this Act, provided that such facilities are not powered by wind or photovoltaics, and the facilities generate one renewable energy credit for each megawatthour of energy produced from the facility.

The informational filing shall identify each facility that was eligible to satisfy the alternative retail electric supplier's obligations under Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act as described in this item (i).

(ii) For a given delivery year, the alternative retail electric supplier may elect to supply its retail customers with renewable energy credits from the facility or facilities described in item (i) of this subparagraph (H) that continue to be owned by the alternative retail electric supplier.

(iii) The alternative retail electric supplier shall notify the Agency and the applicable utility, no later than February 28 of the year preceding the applicable delivery year or 15 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, whichever is later, of its election under item (ii) of this subparagraph (H) to supply renewable energy credits to retail customers of the utility. Such election shall identify the amount of renewable energy credits to be supplied by the alternative retail electric supplier to the utility's retail customers and the source of the renewable energy credits identified in the informational filing as described in item (i) of this subparagraph (H), subject to the following limitations:

For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018, the maximum amount of renewable energy credits to be supplied by an alternative retail electric supplier under this subparagraph (H) shall be 68% multiplied by 25% multiplied by 14.5% multiplied by the amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the alternative retail electric supplier to Illinois retail customers during the delivery year ending May 31, 2016.

For delivery years beginning June 1, 2019 and each year thereafter, the maximum amount of renewable energy credits to be supplied by an alternative retail electric supplier under this subparagraph (H) shall be 68% multiplied by 50% multiplied by 16% multiplied by the amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the alternative retail electric supplier to Illinois retail customers during the delivery year ending May 31, 2016, provided that the 16% value shall increase by 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to 25% by the delivery year beginning June 1, 2025, and thereafter the 25% value shall apply to each delivery year.

For each delivery year, the total amount of renewable energy credits supplied by all alternative retail electric suppliers under this subparagraph (H) shall not exceed 9% of the Illinois target renewable energy credit quantity. The Illinois target renewable energy credit quantity for the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018 is 14.5% multiplied by the total amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered in the delivery year immediately preceding that delivery year, provided that the 14.5% shall increase by 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to 25% by the delivery year beginning June 1, 2025, and thereafter the 25% value shall apply to each delivery year.

If the requirements set forth in items (i) through (iii) of this subparagraph (H) are met, the charges that would otherwise be applicable to the retail customers of the alternative retail electric supplier under paragraph (6) of this subsection (c) for the applicable delivery year shall be reduced by the ratio of the quantity of renewable energy credits supplied by the alternative retail electric supplier compared to that supplier's target renewable energy credit quantity. The supplier's target renewable energy credit quantity for the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018 is 14.5% multiplied by the total amount of metered electricity (megawatt-hours) delivered by the alternative retail supplier in that delivery year, provided that the 14.5% shall increase by 1.5% each delivery year thereafter to 25% by the delivery year beginning June 1, 2025, and thereafter the 25% value shall apply to each delivery year.

On or before April 1 of each year, the Agency shall annually publish a report on its website that identifies the aggregate amount of renewable energy credits supplied by alternative retail electric suppliers under this subparagraph (H).

(I) The Agency shall design its long-term renewable energy procurement plan to maximize the State's interest in the health, safety, and welfare of its residents, including but not limited to minimizing sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, particulate matter and other pollution that adversely affects public health in this State, increasing fuel and resource diversity in this State, enhancing the reliability and resiliency of the electricity distribution system in this State, meeting goals to limit carbon dioxide emissions under federal or State law, and contributing to a cleaner and healthier environment for the citizens of this State. In order to further these legislative purposes, renewable energy credits shall be eligible to be counted toward the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c) if they are generated from facilities located in this State. The Agency may qualify renewable energy credits from facilities located in states adjacent to Illinois if the generator demonstrates and the Agency determines that the operation of such facility or facilities will help promote the State's interest in the health, safety, and welfare of its residents based on the public interest criteria described above. To ensure that the public interest criteria are applied to the procurement and given full effect, the Agency's long-term procurement plan shall describe in detail how each public interest factor shall be considered and weighted for facilities located in states adjacent to Illinois.

(J) In order to promote the competitive development of renewable energy resources in furtherance of the State's interest in the health, safety, and welfare of its residents, renewable energy credits shall not be eligible to be counted toward the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c) if they are sourced from a generating unit whose costs were being recovered through rates regulated by this State or any other state or states on or after January 1, 2017. Each contract executed to purchase renewable energy credits under this subsection (c) shall provide for the contract's termination if the costs of the generating unit supplying the renewable energy credits subsequently begin to be recovered through rates regulated by this State or any other state or states; and each contract shall further provide that, in that event, the supplier of the credits must return 110% of all payments received under the contract. Amounts returned under the requirements of this subparagraph (J) shall be retained by the utility and all of these amounts shall be used for the procurement of additional renewable energy credits from new wind or new photovoltaic resources as defined in this subsection (c). The long-term plan shall provide that these renewable energy credits shall be procured in the next procurement event.

Notwithstanding the limitations of this subparagraph (J), renewable energy credits sourced from generating units that are constructed, purchased, owned, or leased by an electric utility as part of an approved project, program, or pilot under Section 1-56 of this Act shall be eligible to be counted toward the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c), regardless of how the costs of these units are recovered.

(K) The long-term renewable resources procurement plan developed by the Agency in accordance with subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (1) shall include an Adjustable Block program for the procurement of renewable energy credits from new photovoltaic projects that are distributed renewable energy generation devices or new photovoltaic community renewable generation projects. The Adjustable Block program shall be designed to provide a transparent schedule of prices and quantities to enable the photovoltaic market to scale up and for renewable energy credit prices to adjust at a predictable rate over time. The prices set by the Adjustable Block program can be reflected as a set value or as the product of a formula.

The Adjustable Block program shall include for each category of eligible projects: a schedule of standard block purchase prices to be offered; a series of steps, with associated nameplate capacity and purchase prices that adjust from step to step; and automatic opening of the next step as soon as the nameplate capacity and available purchase prices for an open step are fully committed or reserved. Only projects energized on or after June 1, 2017 shall be eligible for the Adjustable Block program. For each block group the Agency shall determine the number of blocks, the amount of generation capacity in each block, and the purchase price for each block, provided that the purchase price provided and the total amount of generation in all blocks for all block groups shall be sufficient to meet the goals in this subsection (c). The Agency may periodically review its prior decisions establishing the number of blocks, the amount of generation capacity in each block, and the purchase price for each block, and may propose, on an expedited basis, changes to these previously set values, including but not limited to redistributing these amounts and the available funds as necessary and appropriate, subject to Commission approval as part of the periodic plan revision process described in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. The Agency may define different block sizes, purchase prices, or other distinct terms and conditions for projects located in different utility service territories if the Agency deems it necessary to meet the goals in this subsection (c).

The Adjustable Block program shall include at least the following block groups in at least the following amounts, which may be adjusted upon review by the Agency and approval by the Commission as described in this subparagraph (K):

(i) At least 25% from distributed renewable energy generation devices with a nameplate capacity of no more than 10 kilowatts.

(ii) At least 25% from distributed renewable energy generation devices with a nameplate capacity of more than 10 kilowatts and no more than 2,000 kilowatts. The Agency may create sub-categories within this category to account for the differences between projects for small commercial customers, large commercial customers, and public or non-profit customers.

(iii) At least 25% from photovoltaic community renewable generation projects.

(iv) The remaining 25% shall be allocated as specified by the Agency in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan.

The Adjustable Block program shall be designed to ensure that renewable energy credits are procured from photovoltaic distributed renewable energy generation devices and new photovoltaic community renewable energy generation projects in diverse locations and are not concentrated in a few geographic areas.

(L) The procurement of photovoltaic renewable energy credits under items (i) through (iv) of subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) shall be subject to the following contract and payment terms:

(i) The Agency shall procure contracts of at least 15 years in length.

(ii) For those renewable energy credits that qualify and are procured under item (i) of subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1), the renewable energy credit purchase price shall be paid in full by the contracting utilities at the time that the facility producing the renewable energy credits is interconnected at the distribution system level of the utility and energized. The electric utility shall receive and retire all renewable energy credits generated by the project for the first 15 years of operation.

(iii) For those renewable energy credits that qualify and are procured under item (ii) and (iii) of subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) and any additional categories of distributed generation included in the long-term renewable resources procurement plan and approved by the Commission, 20 percent of the renewable energy credit purchase price shall be paid by the contracting utilities at the time that the facility producing the renewable energy credits is interconnected at the distribution system level of the utility and energized. The remaining portion shall be paid ratably over the subsequent 4-year period. The electric utility shall receive and retire all renewable energy credits generated by the project for the first 15 years of operation.

(iv) Each contract shall include provisions to ensure the delivery of the renewable energy credits for the full term of the contract.

(v) The utility shall be the counterparty to the contracts executed under this subparagraph (L) that are approved by the Commission under the process described in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. No contract shall be executed for an amount that is less than one renewable energy credit per year.

(vi) If, at any time, approved applications for the Adjustable Block program exceed funds collected by the electric utility or would cause the Agency to exceed the limitation described in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (1) on the amount of renewable energy resources that may be procured, then the Agency shall consider future uncommitted funds to be reserved for these contracts on a first-come, first-served basis, with the delivery of renewable energy credits required beginning at the time that the reserved funds become available.

(vii) Nothing in this Section shall require the utility to advance any payment or pay any amounts that exceed the actual amount of revenues collected by the utility under paragraph (6) of this subsection (c) and subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act, and contracts executed under this Section shall expressly incorporate this limitation.

(M) The Agency shall be authorized to retain one or more experts or expert consulting firms to develop, administer, implement, operate, and evaluate the Adjustable Block program described in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1), and the Agency shall retain the consultant or consultants in the same manner, to the extent practicable, as the Agency retains others to administer provisions of this Act, including, but not limited to, the procurement administrator. The selection of experts and expert consulting firms and the procurement process described in this subparagraph (M) are exempt from the requirements of Section 20-10 of the Illinois Procurement Code, under Section 20-10 of that Code. The Agency shall strive to minimize administrative expenses in the implementation of the Adjustable Block program.

The Agency and its consultant or consultants shall monitor block activity, share program activity with stakeholders and conduct regularly scheduled meetings to discuss program activity and market conditions. If necessary, the Agency may make prospective administrative adjustments to the Adjustable Block program design, such as redistributing available funds or making adjustments to purchase prices as necessary to achieve the goals of this subsection (c). Program modifications to any price, capacity block, or other program element that do not deviate from the Commission's approved value by more than 25% shall take effect immediately and are not subject to Commission review and approval. Program modifications to any price, capacity block, or other program element that deviate more than 25% from the Commission's approved value must be approved by the Commission as a long-term plan amendment under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. The Agency shall consider stakeholder feedback when making adjustments to the Adjustable Block design and shall notify stakeholders in advance of any planned changes.

(N) The long-term renewable resources procurement plan required by this subsection (c) shall include a community renewable generation program. The Agency shall establish the terms, conditions, and program requirements for community renewable generation projects with a goal to expand renewable energy generating facility access to a broader group of energy consumers, to ensure robust participation opportunities for residential and small commercial customers and those who cannot install renewable energy on their own properties. Any plan approved by the Commission shall allow subscriptions to community renewable generation projects to be portable and transferable. For purposes of this subparagraph (N), "portable" means that subscriptions may be retained by the subscriber even if the subscriber relocates or changes its address within the same utility service territory; and "transferable" means that a subscriber may assign or sell subscriptions to another person within the same utility service territory.

Electric utilities shall provide a monetary credit to a subscriber's subsequent bill for service for the proportional output of a community renewable generation project attributable to that subscriber as specified in Section 16-107.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

The Agency shall purchase renewable energy credits from subscribed shares of photovoltaic community renewable generation projects through the Adjustable Block program described in subparagraph (K) of this paragraph (1) or through the Illinois Solar for All Program described in Section 1-56 of this Act. The electric utility shall purchase any unsubscribed energy from community renewable generation projects that are Qualifying Facilities ("QF") under the electric utility's tariff for purchasing the output from QFs under Public Utilities Regulatory Policies Act of 1978.

The owners of and any subscribers to a community renewable generation project shall not be considered public utilities or alternative retail electricity suppliers under the Public Utilities Act solely as a result of their interest in or subscription to a community renewable generation project and shall not be required to become an alternative retail electric supplier by participating in a community renewable generation project with a public utility.

(O) For the delivery year beginning June 1, 2018, the long-term renewable resources procurement plan required by this subsection (c) shall provide for the Agency to procure contracts to continue offering the Illinois Solar for All Program described in subsection (b) of Section 1-56 of this Act, and the contracts approved by the Commission shall be executed by the utilities that are subject to this subsection (c). The long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall allocate 5% of the funds available under the plan for the applicable delivery year, or $10,000,000 per delivery year, whichever is greater, to fund the programs, and the plan shall determine the amount of funding to be apportioned to the programs identified in subsection (b) of Section 1-56 of this Act; provided that for the delivery years beginning June 1, 2017, June 1, 2021, and June 1, 2025, the long-term renewable resources procurement plan shall allocate 10% of the funds available under the plan for the applicable delivery year, or $20,000,000 per delivery year, whichever is greater, and $10,000,000 of such funds in such year shall be used by an electric utility that serves more than 3,000,000 retail customers in the State to implement a Commission-approved plan under Section 16-108.12 of the Public Utilities Act. In making the determinations required under this subparagraph (O), the Commission shall consider the experience and performance under the programs and any evaluation reports. The Commission shall also provide for an independent evaluation of those programs on a periodic basis that are funded under this subparagraph (O).

(2) (Blank).

(3) (Blank).

(4) The electric utility shall retire all renewable energy credits used to comply with the standard.

(5) Beginning with the 2010 delivery year and ending June 1, 2017, an electric utility subject to this subsection (c) shall apply the lesser of the maximum alternative compliance payment rate or the most recent estimated alternative compliance payment rate for its service territory for the corresponding compliance period, established pursuant to subsection (d) of Section 16-115D of the Public Utilities Act to its retail customers that take service pursuant to the electric utility's hourly pricing tariff or tariffs. The electric utility shall retain all amounts collected as a result of the application of the alternative compliance payment rate or rates to such customers, and, beginning in 2011, the utility shall include in the information provided under item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act the amounts collected under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates for the prior year ending May 31. Notwithstanding any limitation on the procurement of renewable energy resources imposed by item (2) of this subsection (c), the Agency shall increase its spending on the purchase of renewable energy resources to be procured by the electric utility for the next plan year by an amount equal to the amounts collected by the utility under the alternative compliance payment rate or rates in the prior year ending May 31.

(6) The electric utility shall be entitled to recover all of its costs associated with the procurement of renewable energy credits under plans approved under this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act. These costs shall include associated reasonable expenses for implementing the procurement programs, including, but not limited to, the costs of administering and evaluating the Adjustable Block program, through an automatic adjustment clause tariff in accordance with subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(7) Renewable energy credits procured from new photovoltaic projects or new distributed renewable energy generation devices under this Section after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly must be procured from devices installed by a qualified person in compliance with the requirements of Section 16-128A of the Public Utilities Act and any rules or regulations adopted thereunder.

In meeting the renewable energy requirements of this subsection (c), to the extent feasible and consistent with State and federal law, the renewable energy credit procurements, Adjustable Block solar program, and community renewable generation program shall provide employment opportunities for all segments of the population and workforce, including minority-owned and female-owned business enterprises, and shall not, consistent with State and federal law, discriminate based on race or socioeconomic status.

(d) Clean coal portfolio standard.

(1) The procurement plans shall include electricity generated using clean coal. Each utility shall enter into one or more sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility, as provided in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), covering electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility representing at least 5% of each utility's total supply to serve the load of eligible retail customers in 2015 and each year thereafter, as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), subject to the limits specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d). It is the goal of the State that by January 1, 2025, 25% of the electricity used in the State shall be generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities. For purposes of this subsection (d), "cost-effective" means that the expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) to be exceeded and do not exceed cost-based benchmarks, which shall be developed to assess all expenditures pursuant to such sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by clean coal facilities, other than the initial clean coal facility, by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff, and the procurement monitor and shall be subject to Commission review and approval.

A utility party to a sourcing agreement shall immediately retire any emission credits that it receives in connection with the electricity covered by such agreement.

Utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting the purchases under the sourcing agreement to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

A utility shall be deemed to have complied with the clean coal portfolio standard specified in this subsection (d) if the utility enters into a sourcing agreement as required by this subsection (d).

(2) For purposes of this subsection (d), the required execution of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility for a particular year shall be measured as a percentage of the actual amount of electricity (megawatt-hours) supplied by the electric utility to eligible retail customers in the planning year ending immediately prior to the agreement's execution. For purposes of this subsection (d), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (d), the total amount paid for electric service includes without limitation amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d), the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any given year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the annual estimated average net increase due to the costs of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to:

(A) in 2010, no more than 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(B) in 2011, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2010 or 1% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(C) in 2012, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2011 or 1.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009;

(D) in 2013, the greater of an additional 0.5% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2012 or 2% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009; and

(E) thereafter, the total amount paid under sourcing agreements with clean coal facilities pursuant to the procurement plan for any single year shall be reduced by an amount necessary to limit the estimated average net increase due to the cost of these resources included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than the greater of (i) 2.015% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by those customers during the year ending May 31, 2009 or (ii) the incremental amount per kilowatthour paid for these resources in 2013. These requirements may be altered only as provided by statute.

No later than June 30, 2015, the Commission shall review the limitation on the total amount paid under sourcing agreements, if any, with clean coal facilities pursuant to this subsection (d) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the amount of electricity generated by cost-effective clean coal facilities that is covered by sourcing agreements.

(3) Initial clean coal facility. In order to promote development of clean coal facilities in Illinois, each electric utility subject to this Section shall execute a sourcing agreement to source electricity from a proposed clean coal facility in Illinois (the "initial clean coal facility") that will have a nameplate capacity of at least 500 MW when commercial operation commences, that has a final Clean Air Act permit on June 1, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1027) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, and that will meet the definition of clean coal facility in Section 1-10 of this Act when commercial operation commences. The sourcing agreements with this initial clean coal facility shall be subject to both approval of the initial clean coal facility by the General Assembly and satisfaction of the requirements of paragraph (4) of this subsection (d) and shall be executed within 90 days after any such approval by the General Assembly. The Agency and the Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with the initial clean coal facility during the term of such a sourcing agreement. A utility's sourcing agreement for electricity produced by the initial clean coal facility shall include:

(A) a formula contractual price (the "contract price") approved pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d), which shall:

(i) be determined using a cost of service methodology employing either a level or deferred capital recovery component, based on a capital structure consisting of 45% equity and 55% debt, and a return on equity as may be approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, which in any case may not exceed the lower of 11.5% or the rate of return approved by the General Assembly pursuant to paragraph (4) of this subsection (d); and

(ii) provide that all miscellaneous net revenue, including but not limited to net revenue from the sale of emission allowances, if any, substitute natural gas, if any, grants or other support provided by the State of Illinois or the United States Government, firm transmission rights, if any, by-products produced by the facility, energy or capacity derived from the facility and not covered by a sourcing agreement pursuant to paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) or item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, whether generated from the synthesis gas derived from coal, from SNG, or from natural gas, shall be credited against the revenue requirement for this initial clean coal facility;

(B) power purchase provisions, which shall:

(i) provide that the utility party to such sourcing agreement shall pay the contract price for electricity delivered under such sourcing agreement;

(ii) require delivery of electricity to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement;

(iii) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to buy from the initial clean coal facility in each hour an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount purchased by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d); and

(iv) be considered pre-existing contracts in such utility's procurement plans for eligible retail customers;

(C) contract for differences provisions, which shall:

(i) require the utility party to such sourcing agreement to contract with the initial clean coal facility in each hour with respect to an amount of energy equal to all clean coal energy made available from the initial clean coal facility during such hour times a fraction, the numerator of which is such utility's retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the utility's service territory in the State during the prior calendar month and the denominator of which is the total retail market sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by utilities during such prior month and the sales of electricity (expressed in kilowatthours sold) in the State by alternative retail electric suppliers during such prior month that are subject to the requirements of this subsection (d) and paragraph (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, provided that the amount paid by the utility in any year will be limited by paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(ii) provide that the utility's payment obligation in respect of the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i) shall be limited to an amount equal to (1) the difference between the contract price determined pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) and the day-ahead price for electricity delivered to the regional transmission organization market of the utility that is party to such sourcing agreement (or any successor delivery point at which such utility's supply obligations are financially settled on an hourly basis) (the "reference price") on the day preceding the day on which the electricity is delivered to the initial clean coal facility busbar, multiplied by (2) the quantity of electricity determined pursuant to the preceding clause (i); and

(iii) not require the utility to take physical delivery of the electricity produced by the facility;

(D) general provisions, which shall:

(i) specify a term of no more than 30 years, commencing on the commercial operation date of the facility;

(ii) provide that utilities shall maintain adequate records documenting purchases under the sourcing agreements entered into to comply with this subsection (d) and shall file an accounting with the load forecast that must be filed with the Agency by July 15 of each year, in accordance with subsection (d) of Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act;

(iii) provide that all costs associated with the initial clean coal facility will be periodically reported to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission and to purchasers in accordance with applicable laws governing cost-based wholesale power contracts;

(iv) permit the Illinois Power Agency to assume ownership of the initial clean coal facility, without monetary consideration and otherwise on reasonable terms acceptable to the Agency, if the Agency so requests no less than 3 years prior to the end of the stated contract term;

(v) require the owner of the initial clean coal facility to provide documentation to the Commission each year, starting in the facility's first year of commercial operation, accurately reporting the quantity of carbon emissions from the facility that have been captured and sequestered and report any quantities of carbon released from the site or sites at which carbon emissions were sequestered in prior years, based on continuous monitoring of such sites. If, in any year after the first year of commercial operation, the owner of the facility fails to demonstrate that the initial clean coal facility captured and sequestered at least 50% of the total carbon emissions that the facility would otherwise emit or that sequestration of emissions from prior years has failed, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, the owner of the facility must offset excess emissions. Any such carbon offsets must be permanent, additional, verifiable, real, located within the State of Illinois, and legally and practicably enforceable. The cost of such offsets for the facility that are not recoverable shall not exceed $15 million in any given year. No costs of any such purchases of carbon offsets may be recovered from a utility or its customers. All carbon offsets purchased for this purpose and any carbon emission credits associated with sequestration of carbon from the facility must be permanently retired. The initial clean coal facility shall not forfeit its designation as a clean coal facility if the facility fails to fully comply with the applicable carbon sequestration requirements in any given year, provided the requisite offsets are purchased. However, the Attorney General, on behalf of the People of the State of Illinois, may specifically enforce the facility's sequestration requirement and the other terms of this contract provision. Compliance with the sequestration requirements and offset purchase requirements specified in paragraph (3) of this subsection (d) shall be reviewed annually by an independent expert retained by the owner of the initial clean coal facility, with the advance written approval of the Attorney General. The Commission may, in the course of the review specified in item (vii), reduce the allowable return on equity for the facility if the facility willfully wilfully fails to comply with the carbon capture and sequestration requirements set forth in this item (v);

(vi) include limits on, and accordingly provide for modification of, the amount the utility is required to source under the sourcing agreement consistent with paragraph (2) of this subsection (d);

(vii) require Commission review: (1) to determine the justness, reasonableness, and prudence of the inputs to the formula referenced in subparagraphs (A)(i) through (A)(iii) of paragraph (3) of this subsection (d), prior to an adjustment in those inputs including, without limitation, the capital structure and return on equity, fuel costs, and other operations and maintenance costs and (2) to approve the costs to be passed through to customers under the sourcing agreement by which the utility satisfies its statutory obligations. Commission review shall occur no less than every 3 years, regardless of whether any adjustments have been proposed, and shall be completed within 9 months;

(viii) limit the utility's obligation to such amount as the utility is allowed to recover through tariffs filed with the Commission, provided that neither the clean coal facility nor the utility waives any right to assert federal pre-emption or any other argument in response to a purported disallowance of recovery costs;

(ix) limit the utility's or alternative retail electric supplier's obligation to incur any liability until such time as the facility is in commercial operation and generating power and energy and such power and energy is being delivered to the facility busbar;

(x) provide that the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility, which is the counterparty to such sourcing agreement, shall have the right from time to time to elect whether the obligations of the utility party thereto shall be governed by the power purchase provisions or the contract for differences provisions;

(xi) append documentation showing that the formula rate and contract, insofar as they relate to the power purchase provisions, have been approved by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Section 205 of the Federal Power Act;

(xii) provide that any changes to the terms of the contract, insofar as such changes relate to the power purchase provisions, are subject to review under the public interest standard applied by the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission pursuant to Sections 205 and 206 of the Federal Power Act; and

(xiii) conform with customary lender requirements in power purchase agreements used as the basis for financing non-utility generators.

(4) Effective date of sourcing agreements with the initial clean coal facility.

Any proposed sourcing agreement with the initial clean coal facility shall not become effective unless the following reports are prepared and submitted and authorizations and approvals obtained:

(i) Facility cost report. The owner of the initial clean coal facility shall submit to the Commission, the Agency, and the General Assembly a front-end engineering and design study, a facility cost report, method of financing (including but not limited to structure and associated costs), and an operating and maintenance cost quote for the facility (collectively "facility cost report"), which shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of this Section, and shall provide the Commission and the Agency access to the work papers, relied upon documents, and any other backup documentation related to the facility cost report.

(ii) Commission report. Within 6 months following receipt of the facility cost report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, shall submit a report to the General Assembly setting forth its analysis of the facility cost report. Such report shall include, but not be limited to, a comparison of the costs associated with electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility to the costs associated with electricity generated by other types of generation facilities, an analysis of the rate impacts on residential and small business customers over the life of the sourcing agreements, and an analysis of the likelihood that the initial clean coal facility will commence commercial operation by and be delivering power to the facility's busbar by 2016. To assist in the preparation of its report, the Commission, in consultation with the Agency, may hire one or more experts or consultants, the costs of which shall be paid for by the owner of the initial clean coal facility. The Commission and Agency may begin the process of selecting such experts or consultants prior to receipt of the facility cost report.

(iii) General Assembly approval. The proposed sourcing agreements shall not take effect unless, based on the facility cost report and the Commission's report, the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation approving (A) the projected price, stated in cents per kilowatthour, to be charged for electricity generated by the initial clean coal facility, (B) the projected impact on residential and small business customers' bills over the life of the sourcing agreements, and (C) the maximum allowable return on equity for the project; and

(iv) Commission review. If the General Assembly enacts authorizing legislation pursuant to subparagraph (iii) approving a sourcing agreement, the Commission shall, within 90 days of such enactment, complete a review of such sourcing agreement. During such time period, the Commission shall implement any directive of the General Assembly, resolve any disputes between the parties to the sourcing agreement concerning the terms of such agreement, approve the form of such agreement, and issue an order finding that the sourcing agreement is prudent and reasonable.

The facility cost report shall be prepared as follows:

(A) The facility cost report shall be prepared by duly licensed engineering and construction firms detailing the estimated capital costs payable to one or more contractors or suppliers for the engineering, procurement and construction of the components comprising the initial clean coal facility and the estimated costs of operation and maintenance of the facility. The facility cost report shall include:

(i) an estimate of the capital cost of the core plant based on one or more front end engineering and design studies for the gasification island and related facilities. The core plant shall include all civil, structural, mechanical, electrical, control, and safety systems.

(ii) an estimate of the capital cost of the balance of the plant, including any capital costs associated with sequestration of carbon dioxide emissions and all interconnects and interfaces required to operate the facility, such as transmission of electricity, construction or backfeed power supply, pipelines to transport substitute natural gas or carbon dioxide, potable water supply, natural gas supply, water supply, water discharge, landfill, access roads, and coal delivery.

The quoted construction costs shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include capitalized financing costs during construction, taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the construction cost quote is expressed.

(B) The front end engineering and design study for the gasification island and the cost study for the balance of plant shall include sufficient design work to permit quantification of major categories of materials, commodities and labor hours, and receipt of quotes from vendors of major equipment required to construct and operate the clean coal facility.

(C) The facility cost report shall also include an operating and maintenance cost quote that will provide the estimated cost of delivered fuel, personnel, maintenance contracts, chemicals, catalysts, consumables, spares, and other fixed and variable operations and maintenance costs. The delivered fuel cost estimate will be provided by a recognized third party expert or experts in the fuel and transportation industries. The balance of the operating and maintenance cost quote, excluding delivered fuel costs, will be developed based on the inputs provided by duly licensed engineering and construction firms performing the construction cost quote, potential vendors under long-term service agreements and plant operating agreements, or recognized third party plant operator or operators.

The operating and maintenance cost quote (including the cost of the front end engineering and design study) shall be expressed in nominal dollars as of the date that the quote is prepared and shall include taxes, insurance, and other owner's costs, and an assumed escalation in materials and labor beyond the date as of which the operating and maintenance cost quote is expressed.

(D) The facility cost report shall also include an analysis of the initial clean coal facility's ability to deliver power and energy into the applicable regional transmission organization markets and an analysis of the expected capacity factor for the initial clean coal facility.

(E) Amounts paid to third parties unrelated to the owner or owners of the initial clean coal facility to prepare the core plant construction cost quote, including the front end engineering and design study, and the operating and maintenance cost quote will be reimbursed through Coal Development Bonds.

(5) Re-powering and retrofitting coal-fired power plants previously owned by Illinois utilities to qualify as clean coal facilities. During the 2009 procurement planning process and thereafter, the Agency and the Commission shall consider sourcing agreements covering electricity generated by power plants that were previously owned by Illinois utilities and that have been or will be converted into clean coal facilities, as defined by Section 1-10 of this Act. Pursuant to such procurement planning process, the owners of such facilities may propose to the Agency sourcing agreements with utilities and alternative retail electric suppliers required to comply with subsection (d) of this Section and item (5) of subsection (d) of Section 16-115 of the Public Utilities Act, covering electricity generated by such facilities. In the case of sourcing agreements that are power purchase agreements, the contract price for electricity sales shall be established on a cost of service basis. In the case of sourcing agreements that are contracts for differences, the contract price from which the reference price is subtracted shall be established on a cost of service basis. The Agency and the Commission may approve any such utility sourcing agreements that do not exceed cost-based benchmarks developed by the procurement administrator, in consultation with the Commission staff, Agency staff and the procurement monitor, subject to Commission review and approval. The Commission shall have authority to inspect all books and records associated with these clean coal facilities during the term of any such contract.

(6) Costs incurred under this subsection (d) or pursuant to a contract entered into under this subsection (d) shall be deemed prudently incurred and reasonable in amount and the electric utility shall be entitled to full cost recovery pursuant to the tariffs filed with the Commission.

(d-5) Zero emission standard.

(1) Beginning with the delivery year commencing on June 1, 2017, the Agency shall, for electric utilities that serve at least 100,000 retail customers in this State, procure contracts with zero emission facilities that are reasonably capable of generating cost-effective zero emission credits in an amount approximately equal to 16% of the actual amount of electricity delivered by each electric utility to retail customers in the State during calendar year 2014. For an electric utility serving fewer than 100,000 retail customers in this State that requested, under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, that the Agency procure power and energy for all or a portion of the utility's Illinois load for the delivery year commencing June 1, 2016, the Agency shall procure contracts with zero emission facilities that are reasonably capable of generating cost-effective zero emission credits in an amount approximately equal to 16% of the portion of power and energy to be procured by the Agency for the utility. The duration of the contracts procured under this subsection (d-5) shall be for a term of 10 years ending May 31, 2027. The quantity of zero emission credits to be procured under the contracts shall be all of the zero emission credits generated by the zero emission facility in each delivery year; however, if the zero emission facility is owned by more than one entity, then the quantity of zero emission credits to be procured under the contracts shall be the amount of zero emission credits that are generated from the portion of the zero emission facility that is owned by the winning supplier.

The 16% value identified in this paragraph (1) is the average of the percentage targets in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act for the 5 delivery years beginning June 1, 2017.

The procurement process shall be subject to the following provisions:

(A) Those zero emission facilities that intend to participate in the procurement shall submit to the Agency the following eligibility information for each zero emission facility on or before the date established by the Agency:

(i) the in-service date and remaining useful life of the zero emission facility;

(ii) the amount of power generated annually for each of the years 2005 through 2015, and the projected zero emission credits to be generated over the remaining useful life of the zero emission facility, which shall be used to determine the capability of each facility;

(iii) the annual zero emission facility cost projections, expressed on a per megawatthour basis, over the next 6 delivery years, which shall include the following: operation and maintenance expenses; fully allocated overhead costs, which shall be allocated using the methodology developed by the Institute for Nuclear Power Operations; fuel expenditures; non-fuel capital expenditures; spent fuel expenditures; a return on working capital; the cost of operational and market risks that could be avoided by ceasing operation; and any other costs necessary for continued operations, provided that "necessary" means, for purposes of this item (iii), that the costs could reasonably be avoided only by ceasing operations of the zero emission facility; and

(iv) a commitment to continue operating, for the duration of the contract or contracts executed under the procurement held under this subsection (d-5), the zero emission facility that produces the zero emission credits to be procured in the procurement.

The information described in item (iii) of this subparagraph (A) may be submitted on a confidential basis and shall be treated and maintained by the Agency, the procurement administrator, and the Commission as confidential and proprietary and exempt from disclosure under subparagraphs (a) and (g) of paragraph (1) of Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act. The Office of Attorney General shall have access to, and maintain the confidentiality of, such information pursuant to Section 6.5 of the Attorney General Act.

(B) The price for each zero emission credit procured under this subsection (d-5) for each delivery year shall be in an amount that equals the Social Cost of Carbon, expressed on a price per megawatthour basis. However, to ensure that the procurement remains affordable to retail customers in this State if electricity prices increase, the price in an applicable delivery year shall be reduced below the Social Cost of Carbon by the amount ("Price Adjustment") by which the market price index for the applicable delivery year exceeds the baseline market price index for the consecutive 12-month period ending May 31, 2016. If the Price Adjustment is greater than or equal to the Social Cost of Carbon in an applicable delivery year, then no payments shall be due in that delivery year. The components of this calculation are defined as follows:

(i) Social Cost of Carbon: The Social Cost of Carbon is $16.50 per megawatthour, which is based on the U.S. Interagency Working Group on Social Cost of Carbon's price in the August 2016 Technical Update using a 3% discount rate, adjusted for inflation for each year of the program. Beginning with the delivery year commencing June 1, 2023, the price per megawatthour shall increase by $1 per megawatthour, and continue to increase by an additional $1 per megawatthour each delivery year thereafter.

(ii) Baseline market price index: The baseline market price index for the consecutive 12-month period ending May 31, 2016 is $31.40 per megawatthour, which is based on the sum of (aa) the average day-ahead energy price across all hours of such 12-month period at the PJM Interconnection LLC Northern Illinois Hub, (bb) 50% multiplied by the Base Residual Auction, or its successor, capacity price for the rest of the RTO zone group determined by PJM Interconnection LLC, divided by 24 hours per day, and (cc) 50% multiplied by the Planning Resource Auction, or its successor, capacity price for Zone 4 determined by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., divided by 24 hours per day.

(iii) Market price index: The market price index for a delivery year shall be the sum of projected energy prices and projected capacity prices determined as follows:

(aa) Projected energy prices: the projected energy prices for the applicable delivery year shall be calculated once for the year using the forward market price for the PJM Interconnection, LLC Northern Illinois Hub. The forward market price shall be calculated as follows: the energy forward prices for each month of the applicable delivery year averaged for each trade date during the calendar year immediately preceding that delivery year to produce a single energy forward price for the delivery year. The forward market price calculation shall use data published by the Intercontinental Exchange, or its successor.

(bb) Projected capacity prices:

(I) For the delivery years commencing June 1, 2017, June 1, 2018, and June 1, 2019, the projected capacity price shall be equal to the sum of (1) 50% multiplied by the Base Residual Auction, or its successor, price for the rest of the RTO zone group as determined by PJM Interconnection LLC, divided by 24 hours per day and, (2) 50% multiplied by the resource auction price determined in the resource auction administered by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., in which the largest percentage of load cleared for Local Resource Zone 4, divided by 24 hours per day, and where such price is determined by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.

(II) For the delivery year commencing June 1, 2020, and each year thereafter, the projected capacity price shall be equal to the sum of (1) 50% multiplied by the Base Residual Auction, or its successor, price for the ComEd zone as determined by PJM Interconnection LLC, divided by 24 hours per day, and (2) 50% multiplied by the resource auction price determined in the resource auction administered by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc., in which the largest percentage of load cleared for Local Resource Zone 4, divided by 24 hours per day, and where such price is determined by the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.

For purposes of this subsection (d-5):

"Rest of the RTO" and "ComEd Zone" shall have the meaning ascribed to them by PJM Interconnection, LLC.

"RTO" means regional transmission organization.

(C) No later than 45 days after June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Agency shall publish its proposed zero emission standard procurement plan. The plan shall be consistent with the provisions of this paragraph (1) and shall provide that winning bids shall be selected based on public interest criteria that include, but are not limited to, minimizing carbon dioxide emissions that result from electricity consumed in Illinois and minimizing sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and particulate matter emissions that adversely affect the citizens of this State. In particular, the selection of winning bids shall take into account the incremental environmental benefits resulting from the procurement, such as any existing environmental benefits that are preserved by the procurements held under Public Act 99-906 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly and would cease to exist if the procurements were not held, including the preservation of zero emission facilities. The plan shall also describe in detail how each public interest factor shall be considered and weighted in the bid selection process to ensure that the public interest criteria are applied to the procurement and given full effect.

For purposes of developing the plan, the Agency shall consider any reports issued by a State agency, board, or commission under House Resolution 1146 of the 98th General Assembly and paragraph (4) of subsection (d) of Section 1-75 of this Act, as well as publicly available analyses and studies performed by or for regional transmission organizations that serve the State and their independent market monitors.

Upon publishing of the zero emission standard procurement plan, copies of the plan shall be posted and made publicly available on the Agency's website. All interested parties shall have 10 days following the date of posting to provide comment to the Agency on the plan. All comments shall be posted to the Agency's website. Following the end of the comment period, but no more than 60 days later than June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Agency shall revise the plan as necessary based on the comments received and file its zero emission standard procurement plan with the Commission.

If the Commission determines that the plan will result in the procurement of cost-effective zero emission credits, then the Commission shall, after notice and hearing, but no later than 45 days after the Agency filed the plan, approve the plan or approve with modification. For purposes of this subsection (d-5), "cost effective" means the projected costs of procuring zero emission credits from zero emission facilities do not cause the limit stated in paragraph (2) of this subsection to be exceeded.

(C-5) As part of the Commission's review and acceptance or rejection of the procurement results, the Commission shall, in its public notice of successful bidders:

(i) identify how the winning bids satisfy the public interest criteria described in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1) of minimizing carbon dioxide emissions that result from electricity consumed in Illinois and minimizing sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and particulate matter emissions that adversely affect the citizens of this State;

(ii) specifically address how the selection of winning bids takes into account the incremental environmental benefits resulting from the procurement, including any existing environmental benefits that are preserved by the procurements held under Public Act 99-906 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly and would have ceased to exist if the procurements had not been held, such as the preservation of zero emission facilities;

(iii) quantify the environmental benefit of preserving the resources identified in item (ii) of this subparagraph (C-5), including the following:

(aa) the value of avoided greenhouse gas emissions measured as the product of the zero emission facilities' output over the contract term multiplied by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency eGrid subregion carbon dioxide emission rate and the U.S. Interagency Working Group on Social Cost of Carbon's price in the August 2016 Technical Update using a 3% discount rate, adjusted for inflation for each delivery year; and

(bb) the costs of replacement with other zero carbon dioxide resources, including wind and photovoltaic, based upon the simple average of the following:

(I) the price, or if there is more than one price, the average of the prices, paid for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale wind projects in the procurement events specified in item (i) of subparagraph (G) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act; and

(II) the price, or if there is more than one price, the average of the prices, paid for renewable energy credits from new utility-scale solar projects and brownfield site photovoltaic projects in the procurement events specified in item (ii) of subparagraph (G) of paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act and, after January 1, 2015, renewable energy credits from photovoltaic distributed generation projects in procurement events held under subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of this Act.

Each utility shall enter into binding contractual arrangements with the winning suppliers.

The procurement described in this subsection (d-5), including, but not limited to, the execution of all contracts procured, shall be completed no later than May 10, 2017. Based on the effective date of Public Act 99-906 this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Agency and Commission may, as appropriate, modify the various dates and timelines under this subparagraph and subparagraphs (C) and (D) of this paragraph (1). The procurement and plan approval processes required by this subsection (d-5) shall be conducted in conjunction with the procurement and plan approval processes required by subsection (c) of this Section and Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, to the extent practicable. Notwithstanding whether a procurement event is conducted under Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act, the Agency shall immediately initiate a procurement process on June 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-906) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(D) Following the procurement event described in this paragraph (1) and consistent with subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (1), the Agency shall calculate the payments to be made under each contract for the next delivery year based on the market price index for that delivery year. The Agency shall publish the payment calculations no later than May 25, 2017 and every May 25 thereafter.

(E) Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d-5), the contracts executed under this subsection (d-5) shall provide that the zero emission facility may, as applicable, suspend or terminate performance under the contracts in the following instances:

(i) A zero emission facility shall be excused from its performance under the contract for any cause beyond the control of the resource, including, but not restricted to, acts of God, flood, drought, earthquake, storm, fire, lightning, epidemic, war, riot, civil disturbance or disobedience, labor dispute, labor or material shortage, sabotage, acts of public enemy, explosions, orders, regulations or restrictions imposed by governmental, military, or lawfully established civilian authorities, which, in any of the foregoing cases, by exercise of commercially reasonable efforts the zero emission facility could not reasonably have been expected to avoid, and which, by the exercise of commercially reasonable efforts, it has been unable to overcome. In such event, the zero emission facility shall be excused from performance for the duration of the event, including, but not limited to, delivery of zero emission credits, and no payment shall be due to the zero emission facility during the duration of the event.

(ii) A zero emission facility shall be permitted to terminate the contract if legislation is enacted into law by the General Assembly that imposes or authorizes a new tax, special assessment, or fee on the generation of electricity, the ownership or leasehold of a generating unit, or the privilege or occupation of such generation, ownership, or leasehold of generation units by a zero emission facility. However, the provisions of this item (ii) do not apply to any generally applicable tax, special assessment or fee, or requirements imposed by federal law.

(iii) A zero emission facility shall be permitted to terminate the contract in the event that the resource requires capital expenditures in excess of $40,000,000 that were neither known nor reasonably foreseeable at the time it executed the contract and that a prudent owner or operator of such resource would not undertake.

(iv) A zero emission facility shall be permitted to terminate the contract in the event the Nuclear Regulatory Commission terminates the resource's license.

(F) If the zero emission facility elects to terminate a contract under this subparagraph (E, of this paragraph (1), then the Commission shall reopen the docket in which the Commission approved the zero emission standard procurement plan under subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (1) and, after notice and hearing, enter an order acknowledging the contract termination election if such termination is consistent with the provisions of this subsection (d-5).

(2) For purposes of this subsection (d-5), the amount paid per kilowatthour means the total amount paid for electric service expressed on a per kilowatthour basis. For purposes of this subsection (d-5), the total amount paid for electric service includes, without limitation, amounts paid for supply, transmission, distribution, surcharges, and add-on taxes.

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (d-5), the contracts executed under this subsection (d-5) shall provide that the total of zero emission credits procured under a procurement plan shall be subject to the limitations of this paragraph (2). For each delivery year, the contractual volume receiving payments in such year shall be reduced for all retail customers based on the amount necessary to limit the net increase that delivery year to the costs of those credits included in the amounts paid by eligible retail customers in connection with electric service to no more than 1.65% of the amount paid per kilowatthour by eligible retail customers during the year ending May 31, 2009. The result of this computation shall apply to and reduce the procurement for all retail customers, and all those customers shall pay the same single, uniform cents per kilowatthour charge under subsection (k) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act. To arrive at a maximum dollar amount of zero emission credits to be paid for the particular delivery year, the resulting per kilowatthour amount shall be applied to the actual amount of kilowatthours of electricity delivered by the electric utility in the delivery year immediately prior to the procurement, to all retail customers in its service territory. Unpaid contractual volume for any delivery year shall be paid in any subsequent delivery year in which such payments can be made without exceeding the amount specified in this paragraph (2). The calculations required by this paragraph (2) shall be made only once for each procurement plan year. Once the determination as to the amount of zero emission credits to be paid is made based on the calculations set forth in this paragraph (2), no subsequent rate impact determinations shall be made and no adjustments to those contract amounts shall be allowed. All costs incurred under those contracts and in implementing this subsection (d-5) shall be recovered by the electric utility as provided in this Section.

No later than June 30, 2019, the Commission shall review the limitation on the amount of zero emission credits procured under this subsection (d-5) and report to the General Assembly its findings as to whether that limitation unduly constrains the procurement of cost-effective zero emission credits.

(3) Six years after the execution of a contract under this subsection (d-5), the Agency shall determine whether the actual zero emission credit payments received by the supplier over the 6-year period exceed the Average ZEC Payment. In addition, at the end of the term of a contract executed under this subsection (d-5), or at the time, if any, a zero emission facility's contract is terminated under subparagraph (E) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5), then the Agency shall determine whether the actual zero emission credit payments received by the supplier over the term of the contract exceed the Average ZEC Payment, after taking into account any amounts previously credited back to the utility under this paragraph (3). If the Agency determines that the actual zero emission credit payments received by the supplier over the relevant period exceed the Average ZEC Payment, then the supplier shall credit the difference back to the utility. The amount of the credit shall be remitted to the applicable electric utility no later than 120 days after the Agency's determination, which the utility shall reflect as a credit on its retail customer bills as soon as practicable; however, the credit remitted to the utility shall not exceed the total amount of payments received by the facility under its contract.

For purposes of this Section, the Average ZEC Payment shall be calculated by multiplying the quantity of zero emission credits delivered under the contract times the average contract price. The average contract price shall be determined by subtracting the amount calculated under subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (3) from the amount calculated under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (3), as follows:

(A) The average of the Social Cost of Carbon, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5), during the term of the contract.

(B) The average of the market price indices, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5), during the term of the contract, minus the baseline market price index, as defined in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of this subsection (d-5).

If the subtraction yields a negative number, then the Average ZEC Payment shall be zero.

(4) Cost-effective zero emission credits procured from zero emission facilities shall satisfy the applicable definitions set forth in Section 1-10 of this Act.

(5) The electric utility shall retire all zero emission credits used to comply with the requirements of this subsection (d-5).

(6) Electric utilities shall be entitled to recover all of the costs associated with the procurement of zero emission credits through an automatic adjustment clause tariff in accordance with subsection (k) and (m) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act, and the contracts executed under this subsection (d-5) shall provide that the utilities' payment obligations under such contracts shall be reduced if an adjustment is required under subsection (m) of Section 16-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(7) This subsection (d-5) shall become inoperative on January 1, 2028.

(e) The draft procurement plans are subject to public comment, as required by Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(f) The Agency shall submit the final procurement plan to the Commission. The Agency shall revise a procurement plan if the Commission determines that it does not meet the standards set forth in Section 16-111.5 of the Public Utilities Act.

(g) The Agency shall assess fees to each affected utility to recover the costs incurred in preparation of the annual procurement plan for the utility.

(h) The Agency shall assess fees to each bidder to recover the costs incurred in connection with a competitive procurement process.

(i) A renewable energy credit, carbon emission credit, or zero emission credit can only be used once to comply with a single portfolio or other standard as set forth in subsection (c), subsection (d), or subsection (d-5) of this Section, respectively. A renewable energy credit, carbon emission credit, or zero emission credit cannot be used to satisfy the requirements of more than one standard. If more than one type of credit is issued for the same megawatt hour of energy, only one credit can be used to satisfy the requirements of a single standard. After such use, the credit must be retired together with any other credits issued for the same megawatt hour of energy.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-536, eff. 7-8-16; 99-906, eff. 6-1-17; revised 1-22-18.)

Section 130. The Illinois African-American Family Commission Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3903/15)

Sec. 15. Purpose and objectives. (a) The purpose of the Illinois African-American Family Commission is to advise the Governor and General Assembly, as well as work directly with State agencies, to improve and expand existing policies, services, programs, and opportunities for African-American families. The Illinois African-American Family Commission shall guide the efforts of and collaborate with State agencies, including: the Department on Aging, the Department of Children and Family Services, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department of Corrections, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Transportation, the Department of Employment Security, and others. This shall be achieved primarily by:

(1) monitoring and commenting on existing and proposed legislation and programs designed to address the needs of African-Americans in Illinois;

(2) assisting State agencies in developing programs, services, public policies, and research strategies that will expand and enhance the social and economic well-being of African-American children and families;

(3) facilitating the participation of and representation of African-Americans in the development, implementation, and planning of policies, programs, and services; and

(4) promoting research efforts to document the impact of policies and programs on African-American families.

The work of the Illinois African-American Family Commission shall include the use of existing reports, research and planning efforts, procedures, and programs.

(Source: P.A. 98-693, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 140. The State Finance Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.875, 5.878, and 6z-102 and by amending Sections 8.3, 8.12, 8g, and 13.2 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.875)

Sec. 5.875. The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-723, eff. 8-5-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.877)

Sec. 5.877 5.875. The Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-78, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.878)

Sec. 5.878. The Healthy Local Food Incentives Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-928, eff. 1-20-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.879)

Sec. 5.879 5.878. The Income Tax Bond Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.880)

Sec. 5.880 5.878. The Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-60, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.881)

Sec. 5.881 5.878. The Thriving Youth Income Tax Checkoff Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-329, eff. 8-24-17; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.882)

Sec. 5.882 5.878. The Police Training Academy Job Training Program and Scholarship Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-331, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.883)

Sec. 5.883 5.878. The BHE Data and Research Cost Recovery Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-417, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.884)

Sec. 5.884 5.878. The Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-437, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-102)

Sec. 6z-102. Thriving Youth Income Tax Checkoff Fund; creation. The Thriving Youth Income Tax Checkoff Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Human Services for the purpose of making grants to providers delivering non-Medicaid services for community-based youth programs in the State.

(Source: P.A. 100-329, eff. 8-24-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-103)

Sec. 6z-103 6z-102. The Police Training Academy Job Training Program and Scholarship Fund.

(a) A Police Training Academy Job Training Program and Scholarship Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury and shall be used to support program and scholarship activities of the police training academy job training and scholarship programs established under Section 22-83 of the School Code and Section 65.95 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act. Moneys from fees, gifts, grants, and donations received by the State Board of Education and Illinois Student Assistance Commission for purposes of supporting these programs and scholarships shall be deposited into the Police Training Academy Job Training Program and Scholarship Fund.

(b) The State Board of Education; the Illinois Student Assistance Commission; and participating counties, school districts, and law enforcement partners may seek federal, State, and private funds to support the police training academy job training and scholarship programs established under Section 22-83 of the School Code and Section 65.95 of the Higher Education Student Assistance Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-331, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-21-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/6z-104)

Sec. 6z-104 6z-102. The Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund.

(a) The Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be used by the Department of Revenue to pay refunds of Rental Purchase Agreement Tax in the manner provided in Section 6 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 19 of the Use Tax Act, as incorporated into Sections 10 and 15 of the Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Act.

(b) Moneys in the Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds pursuant to this Section.

(c) The Director of Revenue shall order payment of refunds under this Section from the Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Sections 10 and 15 of the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director of Revenue shall order transferred, and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund, any surplus remaining as of the end of such fiscal year.

This Section shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Rental Purchase Agreement Tax Refund Fund for the purpose of paying refunds in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-437, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-21-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.3) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.3)

Sec. 8.3. Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging annually the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then due and payable, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, except the cost of administration of Articles I and II of Chapter 3 of that Code; and

secondly -- for expenses of the Department of Transportation for construction, reconstruction, improvement, repair, maintenance, operation, and administration of highways in accordance with the provisions of laws relating thereto, or for any purpose related or incident to and connected therewith, including the separation of grades of those highways with railroads and with highways and including the payment of awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation; or for the acquisition of land and the erection of buildings for highway purposes, including the acquisition of highway right-of-way or for investigations to determine the reasonably anticipated future highway needs; or for making of surveys, plans, specifications and estimates for and in the construction and maintenance of flight strips and of highways necessary to provide access to military and naval reservations, to defense industries and defense-industry sites, and to the sources of raw materials and for replacing existing highways and highway connections shut off from general public use at military and naval reservations and defense-industry sites, or for the purchase of right-of-way, except that the State shall be reimbursed in full for any expense incurred in building the flight strips; or for the operating and maintaining of highway garages; or for patrolling and policing the public highways and conserving the peace; or for the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs; or, during fiscal year 2012 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,500,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2013 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2014 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2015 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2016 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or, during fiscal year 2017 only, for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses; or for any of those purposes or any other purpose that may be provided by law.

Appropriations for any of those purposes are payable from the Road Fund. Appropriations may also be made from the Road Fund for the administrative expenses of any State agency that are related to motor vehicles or arise from the use of motor vehicles.

Beginning with fiscal year 1980 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement: ;

1. Department of Public Health;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to subsidies for one-half fare Student Transportation and Reduced Fare for Elderly, except during fiscal year 2012 only when no more than $40,000,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2013 only when no more than $17,570,300 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2014 only when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2015 only when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2016 only when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2017 only when no more than $17,570,000 may be expended;

3. Department of Central Management Services, except for expenditures incurred for group insurance premiums of appropriate personnel;

4. Judicial Systems and Agencies.

Beginning with fiscal year 1981 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Department of State Police, except for expenditures with respect to the Division of Operations;

2. Department of Transportation, only with respect to Intercity Rail Subsidies, except during fiscal year 2012 only when no more than $40,000,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2013 only when no more than $26,000,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2014 only when no more than $38,000,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2015 only when no more than $42,000,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2016 only when no more than $38,300,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2017 only when no more than $50,000,000 may be expended and except during fiscal year 2018 only when no more than $52,000,000 may be expended, and Rail Freight Services.

Beginning with fiscal year 1982 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement: Department of Central Management Services, except for awards made by the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission under the terms of the Workers' Compensation Act or Workers' Occupational Diseases Act for injury or death of an employee of the Division of Highways in the Department of Transportation.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the following Departments or agencies of State government for administration, grants, or operations; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement:

1. Department of State Police, except not more than 40% of the funds appropriated for the Division of Operations;

2. State Officers.

Beginning with fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to any Department or agency of State government for administration, grants, or operations except as provided hereafter; but this limitation is not a restriction upon appropriating for those purposes any Road Fund monies that are eligible for federal reimbursement. It shall not be lawful to circumvent the above appropriation limitations by governmental reorganization or other methods. Appropriations shall be made from the Road Fund only in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

Money in the Road Fund shall, if and when the State of Illinois incurs any bonded indebtedness for the construction of permanent highways, be set aside and used for the purpose of paying and discharging during each fiscal year the principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness as it becomes due and payable as provided in the Transportation Bond Act, and for no other purpose. The surplus, if any, in the Road Fund after the payment of principal and interest on that bonded indebtedness then annually due shall be used as follows:

first -- to pay the cost of administration of Chapters 2 through 10 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and

secondly -- no Road Fund monies derived from fees, excises, or license taxes relating to registration, operation and use of vehicles on public highways or to fuels used for the propulsion of those vehicles, shall be appropriated or expended other than for costs of administering the laws imposing those fees, excises, and license taxes, statutory refunds and adjustments allowed thereunder, administrative costs of the Department of Transportation, including, but not limited to, the operating expenses of the Department relating to the administration of public transportation programs, payment of debts and liabilities incurred in construction and reconstruction of public highways and bridges, acquisition of rights-of-way for and the cost of construction, reconstruction, maintenance, repair, and operation of public highways and bridges under the direction and supervision of the State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting those monies, or during fiscal year 2012 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $8,500,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2013 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2014 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2015 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2016 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, or during fiscal year 2017 only for the purposes of a grant not to exceed $3,825,000 to the Regional Transportation Authority on behalf of PACE for the purpose of ADA/Para-transit expenses, and the costs for patrolling and policing the public highways (by State, political subdivision, or municipality collecting that money) for enforcement of traffic laws. The separation of grades of such highways with railroads and costs associated with protection of at-grade highway and railroad crossing shall also be permissible.

Appropriations for any of such purposes are payable from the Road Fund or the Grade Crossing Protection Fund as provided in Section 8 of the Motor Fuel Tax Law.

Except as provided in this paragraph, beginning with fiscal year 1991 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of its total fiscal year 1990 Road Fund appropriations for those purposes unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act. For fiscal years 2003, 2004, 2005, 2006, and 2007 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $97,310,000. For fiscal year 2008 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $106,100,000. For fiscal year 2009 only, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police for the purposes of this Section in excess of $114,700,000. Beginning in fiscal year 2010, no road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Department of State Police. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods unless otherwise provided in Section 5g of this Act.

In fiscal year 1994, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1991 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes, plus $9,800,000. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other method.

Beginning with fiscal year 1995 and thereafter, no Road Fund monies shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section in excess of the total fiscal year 1994 Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for those purposes. It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

Beginning with fiscal year 2000, total Road Fund appropriations to the Secretary of State for the purposes of this Section shall not exceed the amounts specified for the following fiscal years:

For fiscal year 2010, no road fund moneys shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State.

Beginning in fiscal year 2011, moneys in the Road Fund shall be appropriated to the Secretary of State for the exclusive purpose of paying refunds due to overpayment of fees related to Chapter 3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless otherwise provided for by law.

It shall not be lawful to circumvent this limitation on appropriations by governmental reorganization or other methods.

No new program may be initiated in fiscal year 1991 and thereafter that is not consistent with the limitations imposed by this Section for fiscal year 1984 and thereafter, insofar as appropriation of Road Fund monies is concerned.

Nothing in this Section prohibits transfers from the Road Fund to the State Construction Account Fund under Section 5e of this Act; nor to the General Revenue Fund, as authorized by Public Act 93-25 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure in this Section by Public Acts 92-0600, 93-0025, 93-0839, and 94-91 shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

The additional amounts authorized for expenditure by the Secretary of State and the Department of State Police in this Section by Public Act 94-91 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be repaid to the Road Fund from the General Revenue Fund in the next succeeding fiscal year that the General Revenue Fund has a positive budgetary balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles applicable to government.

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 10-11-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/8.12) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.12)

Sec. 8.12. State Pensions Fund.

(a) The moneys in the State Pensions Fund shall be used exclusively for the administration of the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act and for the expenses incurred by the Auditor General for administering the provisions of Section 2-8.1 of the Illinois State Auditing Act and for operational expenses of the Office of the State Treasurer and for the funding of the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. Beginning in State fiscal year 2019, payments to the designated retirement systems under this Section shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any State contributions required under the Illinois Pension Code.

"Designated retirement systems" means:

(1) the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois;

(2) the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois;

(3) the State Universities Retirement System;

(4) the Judges Retirement System of Illinois; and

(5) the General Assembly Retirement System.

(b) Each year the General Assembly may make appropriations from the State Pensions Fund for the administration of the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(c) As soon as possible after July 30, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-839) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the General Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund (1) to the State Universities Retirement System the amount certified under Section 15-165 during the prior year, (2) to the Judges Retirement System of Illinois the amount certified under Section 18-140 during the prior year, and (3) to the General Assembly Retirement System the amount certified under Section 2-134 during the prior year as part of the required State contributions to each of those designated retirement systems; except that amounts appropriated under this subsection (c) in State fiscal year 2005 shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000. If the amount in the State Pensions Fund does not exceed the sum of the amounts certified in Sections 15-165, 18-140, and 2-134 by at least $5,000,000, the amount paid to each designated retirement system under this subsection shall be reduced in proportion to the amount certified by each of those designated retirement systems.

(c-5) For fiscal years 2006 through 2018, the General Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund to the State Universities Retirement System the amount estimated to be available during the fiscal year in the State Pensions Fund; provided, however, that the amounts appropriated under this subsection (c-5) shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.

(c-6) For fiscal year 2019 and each fiscal year thereafter, as soon as may be practical after any money is deposited into the State Pensions Fund from the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund, the State Treasurer shall apportion the deposited amount among the designated retirement systems as defined in subsection (a) to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. The State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall pay the apportioned amounts to the designated retirement systems to fund the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. The amount apportioned to each designated retirement system shall constitute a portion of the amount estimated to be available for appropriation from the State Pensions Fund that is the same as that retirement system's portion of the total actual reserve deficiency of the systems, as determined annually by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget at the request of the State Treasurer. The amounts apportioned under this subsection shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.

(d) The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the individual and total reserve deficiencies of the designated retirement systems. For this purpose, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall utilize the latest available audit and actuarial reports of each of the retirement systems and the relevant reports and statistics of the Public Employee Pension Fund Division of the Department of Insurance.

(d-1) As soon as practicable after March 5, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-665) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Comptroller shall direct and the Treasurer shall transfer from the State Pensions Fund to the General Revenue Fund, as funds become available, a sum equal to the amounts that would have been paid from the State Pensions Fund to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois, the State Universities Retirement System, the Judges Retirement System of Illinois, the General Assembly Retirement System, and the State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois after March 5, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-665) this amendatory Act during the remainder of fiscal year 2004 to the designated retirement systems from the appropriations provided for in this Section if the transfers provided in Section 6z-61 had not occurred. The transfers described in this subsection (d-1) are to partially repay the General Revenue Fund for the costs associated with the bonds used to fund the moneys transferred to the designated retirement systems under Section 6z-61.

(e) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 88-593 this amendatory Act of 1994 shall first apply to distributions from the Fund for State fiscal year 1996.

(Source: P.A. 99-8, eff. 7-9-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 8-8-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/8g)

Sec. 8g. Fund transfers.

(a) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after June 9, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-25), the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $10,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Vehicle License Plate Fund created by Public Act 91-37.

(b) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after June 9, 1999 (the effective date of Public Act 91-25), the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $25,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future created by Public Act 91-38.

(c) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on August 30 of each fiscal year's license period, the Illinois Liquor Control Commission shall direct and the State Comptroller and State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Youth Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Prevention Fund an amount equal to the number of retail liquor licenses issued for that fiscal year multiplied by $50.

(d) The payments to programs required under subsection (d) of Section 28.1 of the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 shall be made, pursuant to appropriation, from the special funds referred to in the statutes cited in that subsection, rather than directly from the General Revenue Fund.

Beginning January 1, 2000, on the first day of each month, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to each of the special funds from which payments are to be made under subsection (d) of Section 28.1 of the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 an amount equal to 1/12 of the annual amount required for those payments from that special fund, which annual amount shall not exceed the annual amount for those payments from that special fund for the calendar year 1998. The special funds to which transfers shall be made under this subsection (d) include, but are not necessarily limited to, the Agricultural Premium Fund; the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Fund; the Fair and Exposition Fund; the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund; the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund; and the Illinois Veterans' Rehabilitation Fund. Except for transfers attributable to prior fiscal years, during State fiscal year 2018 only, no transfers shall be made from the General Revenue Fund to the Agricultural Premium Fund, the Fair and Exposition Fund, the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund, or the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

(e) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after May 17, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-704), but in no event later than June 30, 2000, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $15,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Fund for Illinois' Future.

(f) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after May 17, 2000 (the effective date of Public Act 91-704), but in no event later than June 30, 2000, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $70,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

(f-1) In fiscal year 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $160,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Long-Term Care Provider Fund.

(g) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2001, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(h) In each of fiscal years 2002 through 2004, but not thereafter, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tourism Promotion Fund.

(i) On or after July 1, 2001 and until May 1, 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2002.

(i-1) On or after July 1, 2002 and until May 1, 2003, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2003.

(j) On or after July 1, 2001 and no later than June 30, 2002, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund:

(k) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, as soon as may be practical after December 20, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-505), the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-1) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-2) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Teachers Health Insurance Security Fund.

(k-3) On or after July 1, 2002 and no later than June 30, 2003, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Statistical Services Revolving Fund:

(l) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(m) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2002 and on January 8, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-648), or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(n) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,800,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DHS Recoveries Trust Fund.

(o) On or after July 1, 2003, and no later than June 30, 2004, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not to exceed the following sums into the Vehicle Inspection Fund:

(p) On or after July 1, 2003 and until May 1, 2004, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2004.

(q) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund.

(r) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2003, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,922,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(s) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2003, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,800,000 from the Statewide Economic Development Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(t) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2003, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $50,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Budget Stabilization Fund.

(u) On or after July 1, 2004 and until May 1, 2005, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2005.

(v) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2004, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(w) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2004, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,445,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(x) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on January 15, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer to the General Revenue Fund the following sums:

From the State Crime Laboratory Fund, $200,000;

From the State Police Wireless Service Emergency Fund, $200,000;

From the State Offender DNA Identification System Fund, $800,000; and

From the State Police Whistleblower Reward and Protection Fund, $500,000.

(y) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, in addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law on June 30, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the designated funds into the General Revenue Fund and any future deposits that would otherwise be made into these funds must instead be made into the General Revenue Fund:

(1) the Keep Illinois Beautiful Fund;

(2) the Metropolitan Fair and Exposition Authority Reconstruction Fund;

(3) the New Technology Recovery Fund;

(4) the Illinois Rural Bond Bank Trust Fund;

(5) the ISBE School Bus Driver Permit Fund;

(6) the Solid Waste Management Revolving Loan Fund;

(7) the State Postsecondary Review Program Fund;

(8) the Tourism Attraction Development Matching Grant Fund;

(9) the Patent and Copyright Fund;

(10) the Credit Enhancement Development Fund;

(11) the Community Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Services Provider Participation Fee Trust Fund;

(12) the Nursing Home Grant Assistance Fund;

(13) the By-product Material Safety Fund;

(14) the Illinois Student Assistance Commission Higher EdNet Fund;

(15) the DORS State Project Fund;

(16) the School Technology Revolving Fund;

(17) the Energy Assistance Contribution Fund;

(18) the Illinois Building Commission Revolving Fund;

(19) the Illinois Aquaculture Development Fund;

(20) the Homelessness Prevention Fund;

(21) the DCFS Refugee Assistance Fund;

(22) the Illinois Century Network Special Purposes Fund; and

(23) the Build Illinois Purposes Fund.

(z) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,200,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(aa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $9,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(bb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2005, or as soon as may be practical thereafter, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,803,600 from the General Revenue Fund to the Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund.

(cc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or after July 1, 2005 and until May 1, 2006, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be re-transferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2006.

(dd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on April 1, 2005, or as soon thereafter as may be practical, at the direction of the Director of Public Aid (now Director of Healthcare and Family Services), the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the Public Aid Recoveries Trust Fund amounts not to exceed $14,000,000 to the Community Mental Health Medicaid Trust Fund.

(ee) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the remaining balance from the Illinois Civic Center Bond Fund to the Illinois Civic Center Bond Retirement and Interest Fund.

(ff) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $1,900,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(gg) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until May 1, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2007.

(hh) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.................$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ii) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on or before August 31, 2006, the Governor and the State Comptroller may agree to transfer the surplus cash balance from the General Revenue Fund to the Budget Stabilization Fund and the Pension Stabilization Fund in equal proportions. The determination of the amount of the surplus cash balance shall be made by the Governor, with the concurrence of the State Comptroller, after taking into account the June 30, 2006 balances in the general funds and the actual or estimated spending from the general funds during the lapse period. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the maximum amount that may be transferred under this subsection (ii) is $50,000,000.

(jj) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,250,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(kk) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(ll) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on the first day of each calendar quarter of the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund amounts equal to one-fourth of $20,000,000 to the Renewable Energy Resources Trust Fund.

(mm) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,320,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the I-FLY Fund.

(nn) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the African-American HIV/AIDS Response Fund.

(oo) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2006 and until June 30, 2007, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts identified as net receipts from the sale of all or part of the Illinois Student Assistance Commission loan portfolio from the Student Loan Operating Fund to the General Revenue Fund. The maximum amount that may be transferred pursuant to this Section is $38,800,000. In addition, no transfer may be made pursuant to this Section that would have the effect of reducing the available balance in the Student Loan Operating Fund to an amount less than the amount remaining unexpended and unreserved from the total appropriations from the Fund estimated to be expended for the fiscal year. The State Treasurer and Comptroller shall transfer the amounts designated under this Section as soon as may be practical after receiving the direction to transfer from the Governor.

(pp) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2006, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund.

(qq) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2007 and until May 1, 2008, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2008.

(rr) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2007 and until June 30, 2008, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.................$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ss) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,250,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(tt) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(uu) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,320,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the I-FLY Fund.

(vv) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the African-American HIV/AIDS Response Fund.

(ww) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Predatory Lending Database Program Fund.

(xx) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(yy) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2007, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund.

(zz) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2008, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(aaa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2008 and until May 1, 2009, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2009.

(bbb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2008 and until June 30, 2009, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts from the Illinois Affordable Housing Trust Fund to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts:

DCFS Children's Services Fund.............$2,200,000

Department of Corrections Reimbursement

and Education Fund........................$1,500,000

Supplemental Low-Income Energy

Assistance Fund..............................$75,000

(ccc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2008, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $7,450,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(ddd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2008, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(eee) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(fff) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2009 and until May 1, 2010, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2010.

(ggg) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $7,450,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(hhh) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(iii) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $100,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Heartsaver AED Fund.

(jjj) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2009 and until June 30, 2010, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $17,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(lll) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund.

(mmm) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $9,700,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Senior Citizens Real Estate Deferred Tax Revolving Fund.

(nnn) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $565,000 from the FY09 Budget Relief Fund to the Horse Racing Fund.

(ooo) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided by law, on July 1, 2009, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $600,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Temporary Relocation Expenses Revolving Fund.

(ppp) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(qqq) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2010 and until May 1, 2011, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2011.

(rrr) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $6,675,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(sss) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(ttt) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $100,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Heartsaver AED Fund.

(uuu) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $5,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Communications Revolving Fund.

(vvv) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $3,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund.

(www) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $17,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

(xxx) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2010, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $2,000,000 from the Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund, of which $1,000,000 shall go to the Workforce, Technology, and Economic Development Fund and $1,000,000 to the Public Utility Fund.

(yyy) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on and after July 1, 2011 and until May 1, 2012, at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer amounts not exceeding a total of $80,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund. Any amounts so transferred shall be retransferred by the State Comptroller and the State Treasurer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the General Revenue Fund at the direction of and upon notification from the Governor, but in any event on or before June 30, 2012.

(zzz) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Illinois Veterans Assistance Fund.

(aaaa) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $8,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Presidential Library and Museum Operating Fund.

(bbbb) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $1,400,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Violence Prevention Fund.

(cccc) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $14,100,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the State Garage Revolving Fund.

(dddd) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $4,000,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Digital Divide Elimination Fund.

(eeee) In addition to any other transfers that may be provided for by law, on July 1, 2011, or as soon thereafter as practical, the State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall transfer the sum of $500,000 from the General Revenue Fund to the Senior Citizens Real Estate Deferred Tax Revolving Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-12-17.)

(30 ILCS 105/13.2) (from Ch. 127, par. 149.2)

Sec. 13.2. Transfers among line item appropriations.

(a) Transfers among line item appropriations from the same treasury fund for the objects specified in this Section may be made in the manner provided in this Section when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made.

(a-1) No transfers may be made from one agency to another agency, nor may transfers be made from one institution of higher education to another institution of higher education except as provided by subsection (a-4).

(a-2) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, transfers may be made only among the objects of expenditure enumerated in this Section, except that no funds may be transferred from any appropriation for personal services, from any appropriation for State contributions to the State Employees' Retirement System, from any separate appropriation for employee retirement contributions paid by the employer, nor from any appropriation for State contribution for employee group insurance. During State fiscal year 2005, an agency may transfer amounts among its appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State Contributions to retirement systems; notwithstanding and in addition to the transfers authorized in subsection (c) of this Section, the fiscal year 2005 transfers authorized in this sentence may be made in an amount not to exceed 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to an agency within the same treasury fund. During State fiscal year 2007, the Departments of Children and Family Services, Corrections, Human Services, and Juvenile Justice may transfer amounts among their respective appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State contributions to retirement systems. During State fiscal year 2010, the Department of Transportation may transfer amounts among their respective appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State contributions to retirement systems. During State fiscal years 2010 and 2014 only, an agency may transfer amounts among its respective appropriations within the same treasury fund for personal services, employee retirement contributions paid by employer, and State contributions to retirement systems. Notwithstanding, and in addition to, the transfers authorized in subsection (c) of this Section, these transfers may be made in an amount not to exceed 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to an agency within the same treasury fund.

(a-2.5) During State fiscal year 2015 only, the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor may transfer amounts among its respective appropriations contained in operational line items within the same treasury fund. Notwithstanding, and in addition to, the transfers authorized in subsection (c) of this Section, these transfers may be made in an amount not to exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor within the same treasury fund.

(a-3) Further, if an agency receives a separate appropriation for employee retirement contributions paid by the employer, any transfer by that agency into an appropriation for personal services must be accompanied by a corresponding transfer into the appropriation for employee retirement contributions paid by the employer, in an amount sufficient to meet the employer share of the employee contributions required to be remitted to the retirement system.

(a-4) Long-Term Care Rebalancing. The Governor may designate amounts set aside for institutional services appropriated from the General Revenue Fund or any other State fund that receives monies for long-term care services to be transferred to all State agencies responsible for the administration of community-based long-term care programs, including, but not limited to, community-based long-term care programs administered by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human Services, and the Department on Aging, provided that the Director of Healthcare and Family Services first certifies that the amounts being transferred are necessary for the purpose of assisting persons in or at risk of being in institutional care to transition to community-based settings, including the financial data needed to prove the need for the transfer of funds. The total amounts transferred shall not exceed 4% in total of the amounts appropriated from the General Revenue Fund or any other State fund that receives monies for long-term care services for each fiscal year. A notice of the fund transfer must be made to the General Assembly and posted at a minimum on the Department of Healthcare and Family Services website, the Governor's Office of Management and Budget website, and any other website the Governor sees fit. These postings shall serve as notice to the General Assembly of the amounts to be transferred. Notice shall be given at least 30 days prior to transfer.

(b) In addition to the general transfer authority provided under subsection (c), the following agencies have the specific transfer authority granted in this subsection:

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services is authorized to make transfers representing savings attributable to not increasing grants due to the births of additional children from line items for payments of cash grants to line items for payments for employment and social services for the purposes outlined in subsection (f) of Section 4-2 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

The Department of Children and Family Services is authorized to make transfers not exceeding 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it within the same treasury fund for the following line items among these same line items: Foster Home and Specialized Foster Care and Prevention, Institutions and Group Homes and Prevention, and Purchase of Adoption and Guardianship Services.

The Department on Aging is authorized to make transfers not exceeding 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it within the same treasury fund for the following Community Care Program line items among these same line items: purchase of services covered by the Community Care Program and Comprehensive Case Coordination.

The State Treasurer is authorized to make transfers among line item appropriations from the Capital Litigation Trust Fund, with respect to costs incurred in fiscal years 2002 and 2003 only, when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made, provided that no such transfer may be made unless the amount transferred is no longer required for the purpose for which that appropriation was made.

The State Board of Education is authorized to make transfers from line item appropriations within the same treasury fund for General State Aid, General State Aid - Hold Harmless, and Evidence-Based Funding, provided that no such transfer may be made unless the amount transferred is no longer required for the purpose for which that appropriation was made, to the line item appropriation for Transitional Assistance when the balance remaining in such line item appropriation is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made.

The State Board of Education is authorized to make transfers between the following line item appropriations within the same treasury fund: Disabled Student Services/Materials (Section 14-13.01 of the School Code), Disabled Student Transportation Reimbursement (Section 14-13.01 of the School Code), Disabled Student Tuition - Private Tuition (Section 14-7.02 of the School Code), Extraordinary Special Education (Section 14-7.02b of the School Code), Reimbursement for Free Lunch/Breakfast Program, Summer School Payments (Section 18-4.3 of the School Code), and Transportation - Regular/Vocational Reimbursement (Section 29-5 of the School Code). Such transfers shall be made only when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made and provided that no such transfer may be made unless the amount transferred is no longer required for the purpose for which that appropriation was made.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services is authorized to make transfers not exceeding 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it, within the same treasury fund, among the various line items appropriated for Medical Assistance.

(c) The sum of such transfers for an agency in a fiscal year shall not exceed 2% of the aggregate amount appropriated to it within the same treasury fund for the following objects: Personal Services; Extra Help; Student and Inmate Compensation; State Contributions to Retirement Systems; State Contributions to Social Security; State Contribution for Employee Group Insurance; Contractual Services; Travel; Commodities; Printing; Equipment; Electronic Data Processing; Operation of Automotive Equipment; Telecommunications Services; Travel and Allowance for Committed, Paroled and Discharged Prisoners; Library Books; Federal Matching Grants for Student Loans; Refunds; Workers' Compensation, Occupational Disease, and Tort Claims; and, in appropriations to institutions of higher education, Awards and Grants. Notwithstanding the above, any amounts appropriated for payment of workers' compensation claims to an agency to which the authority to evaluate, administer and pay such claims has been delegated by the Department of Central Management Services may be transferred to any other expenditure object where such amounts exceed the amount necessary for the payment of such claims.

(c-1) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2003. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section to the contrary, for State fiscal year 2003 only, transfers among line item appropriations to an agency from the same treasury fund may be made provided that the sum of such transfers for an agency in State fiscal year 2003 shall not exceed 3% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for State fiscal year 2003 for the following objects: personal services, except that no transfer may be approved which reduces the aggregate appropriations for personal services within an agency; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; and, in appropriations to institutions of higher education, awards and grants.

(c-2) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2005. Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-2), and (c), for State fiscal year 2005 only, transfers may be made among any line item appropriations from the same or any other treasury fund for any objects or purposes, without limitation, when the balance remaining in one or more such line item appropriations is insufficient for the purpose for which the appropriation was made, provided that the sum of those transfers by a State agency shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for fiscal year 2005.

(c-3) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2015. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for State fiscal year 2015, transfers among line item appropriations to a State agency from the same State treasury fund may be made for operational or lump sum expenses only, provided that the sum of such transfers for a State agency in State fiscal year 2015 shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for operational or lump sum expenses for State fiscal year 2015. For the purpose of this subsection, "operational or lump sum expenses" includes the following objects: personal services; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; lump sum and other purposes; and lump sum operations. For the purpose of this subsection (c-3), "State agency" does not include the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, the Treasurer, or the legislative or judicial branches.

(c-4) Special provisions for State fiscal year 2018. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for State fiscal year 2018, transfers among line item appropriations to a State agency from the same State treasury fund may be made for operational or lump sum expenses only, provided that the sum of such transfers for a State agency in State fiscal year 2018 shall not exceed 4% of the aggregate amount appropriated to that State agency for operational or lump sum expenses for State fiscal year 2018. For the purpose of this subsection (c-4), "operational or lump sum expenses" includes the following objects: personal services; extra help; student and inmate compensation; State contributions to retirement systems; State contributions to social security; State contributions for employee group insurance; contractual services; travel; commodities; printing; equipment; electronic data processing; operation of automotive equipment; telecommunications services; travel and allowance for committed, paroled, and discharged prisoners; library books; federal matching grants for student loans; refunds; workers' compensation, occupational disease, and tort claims; lump sum and other purposes; and lump sum operations. For the purpose of this subsection (c-4), "State agency" does not include the Attorney General, the Secretary of State, the Comptroller, the Treasurer, or the legislative or judicial branches.

(d) Transfers among appropriations made to agencies of the Legislative and Judicial departments and to the constitutionally elected officers in the Executive branch require the approval of the officer authorized in Section 10 of this Act to approve and certify vouchers. Transfers among appropriations made to the University of Illinois, Southern Illinois University, Chicago State University, Eastern Illinois University, Governors State University, Illinois State University, Northeastern Illinois University, Northern Illinois University, Western Illinois University, the Illinois Mathematics and Science Academy and the Board of Higher Education require the approval of the Board of Higher Education and the Governor. Transfers among appropriations to all other agencies require the approval of the Governor.

The officer responsible for approval shall certify that the transfer is necessary to carry out the programs and purposes for which the appropriations were made by the General Assembly and shall transmit to the State Comptroller a certified copy of the approval which shall set forth the specific amounts transferred so that the Comptroller may change his records accordingly. The Comptroller shall furnish the Governor with information copies of all transfers approved for agencies of the Legislative and Judicial departments and transfers approved by the constitutionally elected officials of the Executive branch other than the Governor, showing the amounts transferred and indicating the dates such changes were entered on the Comptroller's records.

(e) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Comptroller, may transfer line item appropriations for General State Aid or Evidence-Based Funding between the Common School Fund and the Education Assistance Fund. With the advice and consent of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Comptroller, may transfer line item appropriations between the General Revenue Fund and the Education Assistance Fund for the following programs:

(1) Disabled Student Personnel Reimbursement (Section 14-13.01 of the School Code);

(2) Disabled Student Transportation Reimbursement (subsection (b) of Section 14-13.01 of the School Code);

(3) Disabled Student Tuition - Private Tuition (Section 14-7.02 of the School Code);

(4) Extraordinary Special Education (Section 14-7.02b of the School Code);

(5) Reimbursement for Free Lunch/Breakfast Programs;

(6) Summer School Payments (Section 18-4.3 of the School Code);

(7) Transportation - Regular/Vocational Reimbursement (Section 29-5 of the School Code);

(8) Regular Education Reimbursement (Section 18-3 of the School Code); and

(9) Special Education Reimbursement (Section 14-7.03 of the School Code).

(Source: P.A. 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 145. The General Obligation Bond Act is amended by changing Sections 2.5, 9, and 11 as follows:

(30 ILCS 330/2.5)

Sec. 2.5. Limitation on issuance of Bonds.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), no Bonds may be issued if, after the issuance, in the next State fiscal year after the issuance of the Bonds, the amount of debt service (including principal, whether payable at maturity or pursuant to mandatory sinking fund installments, and interest) on all then-outstanding Bonds, other than (i) Bonds authorized by Public Act 100-23 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, (ii) Bonds issued by Public Act 96-43, and (iii) Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497, would exceed 7% of the aggregate appropriations from the general funds (which consist of the General Revenue Fund, the Common School Fund, the General Revenue Common School Special Account Fund, and the Education Assistance Fund) and the Road Fund for the fiscal year immediately prior to the fiscal year of the issuance.

(b) If the Comptroller and Treasurer each consent in writing, Bonds may be issued even if the issuance does not comply with subsection (a). In addition, $2,000,000,000 in Bonds for the purposes set forth in Sections 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7, and $2,000,000,000 in Refunding Bonds under Section 16, may be issued during State fiscal year 2017 without complying with subsection (a). In addition, $2,000,000,000 in Bonds for the purposes set forth in Sections 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7, and $2,000,000,000 in Refunding Bonds under Section 16, may be issued during State fiscal year 2018 without complying with subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, Article 25, Section 25-5, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 7-6-17; revised 8-8-17.)

(30 ILCS 330/9) (from Ch. 127, par. 659)

Sec. 9. Conditions for issuance and sale of Bonds; requirements Issuance and Sale of Bonds - Requirements for Bonds.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection and subsection (h), Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Bonds shall be in such form (either coupon, registered or book entry), in such denominations, payable within 25 years from their date, subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided however, that interest payable at fixed or variable rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, as now or hereafter amended. Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Bonds, other than Bonds issued under Section 3 of this Act for the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology, (i) except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, 2011, 2017, or 2018 must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring within the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year and (ii) must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years, except for refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, or 2011 which must mature or be subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 16 years. Bonds issued under Section 3 of this Act for the costs associated with the purchase and implementation of information technology must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued occurring with the fiscal year in which the respective bonds are issued or with the next succeeding fiscal year, with the respective bonds issued maturing or subject to mandatory redemption each fiscal year thereafter up to 10 years. Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, the Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-43 shall be payable within 5 years from their date and must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts in equal amounts, with payment of principal or mandatory redemption beginning in the first fiscal year following the fiscal year in which the Bonds are issued.

Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, the Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497 shall be payable within 8 years from their date and shall be issued with payment of maturing principal or scheduled mandatory redemptions in accordance with the following schedule, except the following amounts shall be prorated if less than the total additional amount of Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-1497 are issued:

Fiscal Year After Issuance Amount

1-2 $0

3 $110,712,120

4 $332,136,360

5 $664,272,720

6-8 $996,409,080

Notwithstanding any provision of this Act to the contrary, Income Tax Proceed Bonds issued under Section 7.6 shall be payable 12 years from the date of sale and shall be issued with payment of principal or mandatory redemption.

In the case of any series of Bonds bearing interest at a variable interest rate ("Variable Rate Bonds"), in lieu of determining the rate or rates at which such series of Variable Rate Bonds shall bear interest and the price or prices at which such Variable Rate Bonds shall be initially sold or remarketed (in the event of purchase and subsequent resale), the Bond Sale Order may provide that such interest rates and prices may vary from time to time depending on criteria established in such Bond Sale Order, which criteria may include, without limitation, references to indices or variations in interest rates as may, in the judgment of a remarketing agent, be necessary to cause Variable Rate Bonds of such series to be remarketable from time to time at a price equal to their principal amount, and may provide for appointment of a bank, trust company, investment bank, or other financial institution to serve as remarketing agent in that connection. The Bond Sale Order may provide that alternative interest rates or provisions for establishing alternative interest rates, different security or claim priorities, or different call or amortization provisions will apply during such times as Variable Rate Bonds of any series are held by a person providing credit or liquidity enhancement arrangements for such Bonds as authorized in subsection (b) of this Section. The Bond Sale Order may also provide for such variable interest rates to be established pursuant to a process generally known as an auction rate process and may provide for appointment of one or more financial institutions to serve as auction agents and broker-dealers in connection with the establishment of such interest rates and the sale and remarketing of such Bonds.

(b) In connection with the issuance of any series of Bonds, the State may enter into arrangements to provide additional security and liquidity for such Bonds, including, without limitation, bond or interest rate insurance or letters of credit, lines of credit, bond purchase contracts, or other arrangements whereby funds are made available to retire or purchase Bonds, thereby assuring the ability of owners of the Bonds to sell or redeem their Bonds. The State may enter into contracts and may agree to pay fees to persons providing such arrangements, but only under circumstances where the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget certifies that he or she reasonably expects the total interest paid or to be paid on the Bonds, together with the fees for the arrangements (being treated as if interest), would not, taken together, cause the Bonds to bear interest, calculated to their stated maturity, at a rate in excess of the rate that the Bonds would bear in the absence of such arrangements.

The State may, with respect to Bonds issued or anticipated to be issued, participate in and enter into arrangements with respect to interest rate protection or exchange agreements, guarantees, or financial futures contracts for the purpose of limiting, reducing, or managing interest rate exposure. The authority granted under this paragraph, however, shall not increase the principal amount of Bonds authorized to be issued by law. The arrangements may be executed and delivered by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget on behalf of the State. Net payments for such arrangements shall constitute interest on the Bonds and shall be paid from the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall at least annually certify to the Governor and the State Comptroller his or her estimate of the amounts of such net payments to be included in the calculation of interest required to be paid by the State.

(c) Prior to the issuance of any Variable Rate Bonds pursuant to subsection (a), the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall adopt an interest rate risk management policy providing that the amount of the State's variable rate exposure with respect to Bonds shall not exceed 20%. This policy shall remain in effect while any Bonds are outstanding and the issuance of Bonds shall be subject to the terms of such policy. The terms of this policy may be amended from time to time by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget but in no event shall any amendment cause the permitted level of the State's variable rate exposure with respect to Bonds to exceed 20%.

(d) "Build America Bonds" in this Section means Bonds authorized by Section 54AA of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended ("Internal Revenue Code"), and bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund "Build America Bonds".

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be in such form (either coupon, registered or book entry), in such denominations, payable within 25 years from their date, subject to such terms of redemption with or without premium, and if the Qualified School Construction Bonds are issued with a supplemental coupon, bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Qualified School Construction Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; except that interest payable at fixed or variable rates, if any, shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act, as now or hereafter amended. Qualified School Construction Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Qualified School Construction Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order. Qualified School Construction Bonds must be issued with principal or mandatory redemption amounts or sinking fund payments into the General Obligation Bond Retirement and Interest Fund (or subaccount therefor) in equal amounts, with the first maturity issued, mandatory redemption payment or sinking fund payment occurring within the fiscal year in which the Qualified School Construction Bonds are issued or within the next succeeding fiscal year, with Qualified School Construction Bonds issued maturing or subject to mandatory redemption or with sinking fund payments thereof deposited each fiscal year thereafter up to 25 years. Sinking fund payments set forth in this subsection shall be permitted only to the extent authorized in Section 54F of the Internal Revenue Code or as otherwise determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. "Qualified School Construction Bonds" in this subsection means Bonds authorized by Section 54F of the Internal Revenue Code and for bonds issued from time to time to refund or continue to refund such "Qualified School Construction Bonds".

(f) Beginning with the next issuance by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget to the Procurement Policy Board of a request for quotation for the purpose of formulating a new pool of qualified underwriting banks list, all entities responding to such a request for quotation for inclusion on that list shall provide a written report to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the Illinois Comptroller. The written report submitted to the Comptroller shall (i) be published on the Comptroller's Internet website and (ii) be used by the Governor's Office of Management and Budget for the purposes of scoring such a request for quotation. The written report, at a minimum, shall:

(1) disclose whether, within the past 3 months, pursuant to its credit default swap market-making activities, the firm has entered into any State of Illinois credit default swaps ("CDS");

(2) include, in the event of State of Illinois CDS activity, disclosure of the firm's cumulative notional volume of State of Illinois CDS trades and the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of State of Illinois CDS, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(3) indicate, pursuant to the firm's proprietary trading activities, disclosure of whether the firm, within the past 3 months, has entered into any proprietary trades for its own account in State of Illinois CDS;

(4) include, in the event of State of Illinois proprietary trades, disclosure of the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of proprietary State of Illinois CDS and whether the net position is short or long credit protection, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(5) list all time periods during the past 3 months during which the firm held net long or net short State of Illinois CDS proprietary credit protection positions, the amount of such positions, and whether those positions were net long or net short credit protection positions; and

(6) indicate whether, within the previous 3 months, the firm released any publicly available research or marketing reports that reference State of Illinois CDS and include those research or marketing reports as attachments.

(g) All entities included on a Governor's Office of Management and Budget's pool of qualified underwriting banks list shall, as soon as possible after March 18, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 96-1554), but not later than January 21, 2011, and on a quarterly fiscal basis thereafter, provide a written report to the Governor's Office of Management and Budget and the Illinois Comptroller. The written reports submitted to the Comptroller shall be published on the Comptroller's Internet website. The written reports, at a minimum, shall:

(1) disclose whether, within the past 3 months, pursuant to its credit default swap market-making activities, the firm has entered into any State of Illinois credit default swaps ("CDS");

(2) include, in the event of State of Illinois CDS activity, disclosure of the firm's cumulative notional volume of State of Illinois CDS trades and the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of State of Illinois CDS, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(3) indicate, pursuant to the firm's proprietary trading activities, disclosure of whether the firm, within the past 3 months, has entered into any proprietary trades for its own account in State of Illinois CDS;

(4) include, in the event of State of Illinois proprietary trades, disclosure of the firm's outstanding gross and net notional amount of proprietary State of Illinois CDS and whether the net position is short or long credit protection, as of the end of the current 3-month period;

(5) list all time periods during the past 3 months during which the firm held net long or net short State of Illinois CDS proprietary credit protection positions, the amount of such positions, and whether those positions were net long or net short credit protection positions; and

(6) indicate whether, within the previous 3 months, the firm released any publicly available research or marketing reports that reference State of Illinois CDS and include those research or marketing reports as attachments.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for purposes of maximizing market efficiencies and cost savings, Income Tax Proceed Bonds may be issued and sold from time to time, in one or more series, in such amounts and at such prices as may be directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall be in such form, either coupon, registered, or book entry, in such denominations, shall bear interest payable at such times and at such fixed or variable rate or rates, and be dated as shall be fixed and determined by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget in the order authorizing the issuance and sale of any series of Income Tax Proceed Bonds, which order shall be approved by the Governor and is herein called a "Bond Sale Order"; provided, however, that interest payable at fixed or variable rates shall not exceed that permitted in the Bond Authorization Act. Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall be payable at such place or places, within or without the State of Illinois, and may be made registrable as to either principal or as to both principal and interest, as shall be specified in the Bond Sale Order. Income Tax Proceed Bonds may be callable or subject to purchase and retirement or tender and remarketing as fixed and determined in the Bond Sale Order.

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, Article 25, Section 25-5, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 7-6-17; revised 8-8-17.)

(30 ILCS 330/11) (from Ch. 127, par. 661)

Sec. 11. Sale of Bonds. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, Bonds shall be sold from time to time pursuant to notice of sale and public bid or by negotiated sale in such amounts and at such times as is directed by the Governor, upon recommendation by the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget. At least 25%, based on total principal amount, of all Bonds issued each fiscal year shall be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid. At all times during each fiscal year, no more than 75%, based on total principal amount, of the Bonds issued each fiscal year, shall have been sold by negotiated sale. Failure to satisfy the requirements in the preceding 2 sentences shall not affect the validity of any previously issued Bonds; provided that all Bonds authorized by Public Act 96-43 and Public Act 96-1497 shall not be included in determining compliance for any fiscal year with the requirements of the preceding 2 sentences; and further provided that refunding Bonds satisfying the requirements of Section 16 of this Act and sold during fiscal year 2009, 2010, 2011, 2017, or 2018 shall not be subject to the requirements in the preceding 2 sentences.

If any Bonds, including refunding Bonds, are to be sold by negotiated sale, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall comply with the competitive request for proposal process set forth in the Illinois Procurement Code and all other applicable requirements of that Code.

If Bonds are to be sold pursuant to notice of sale and public bid, the Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may, from time to time, as Bonds are to be sold, advertise the sale of the Bonds in at least 2 daily newspapers, one of which is published in the City of Springfield and one in the City of Chicago. The sale of the Bonds shall also be advertised in the volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin that is published by the Department of Central Management Services, and shall be published once at least 10 days prior to the date fixed for the opening of the bids. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget may reschedule the date of sale upon the giving of such additional notice as the Director deems adequate to inform prospective bidders of such change; provided, however, that all other conditions of the sale shall continue as originally advertised.

Executed Bonds shall, upon payment therefor, be delivered to the purchaser, and the proceeds of Bonds shall be paid into the State Treasury as directed by Section 12 of this Act.

All Income Tax Proceed Bonds shall comply with this Section. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, however, for purposes of complying with this Section, Income Tax Proceed Bonds, regardless of the number of series or issuances sold thereunder, shall be considered a single issue or series. Furthermore, for purposes of complying with the competitive bidding requirements of this Section, the words "at all times" shall not apply to any such sale of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds. The Director of the Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall determine the time and manner of any competitive sale of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds; however, that sale shall under no circumstances take place later than 60 days after the State closes the sale of 75% of the Income Tax Proceed Bonds by negotiated sale.

(Source: P.A. 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, Article 25, Section 25-5, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, Article 75, Section 75-10, eff. 7-6-17; revised 8-15-17.)

Section 150. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by changing Sections 15-25, 45-45, and 45-57 as follows:

(30 ILCS 500/15-25)

Sec. 15-25. Bulletin content.

(a) Invitations for bids. Notice of each and every contract that is offered, including renegotiated contracts and change orders, shall be published in the Bulletin. The applicable chief procurement officer may provide by rule an organized format for the publication of this information, but in any case it must include at least the date first offered, the date submission of offers is due, the location that offers are to be submitted to, the purchasing State agency, the responsible State purchasing officer, a brief purchase description, the method of source selection, information of how to obtain a comprehensive purchase description and any disclosure and contract forms, and encouragement to potential contractors to hire qualified veterans, as defined by Section 45-67 of this Code, and qualified Illinois minorities, women, persons with disabilities, and residents discharged from any Illinois adult correctional center.

(a-5) All businesses listed on the Illinois Unified Certification Program Disadvantaged Business Enterprise Directory, the Business Enterprise Program of the Department of Central Management Services, and any small business database created pursuant to Section 45-45 of this Code shall be furnished written instructions and information on how to register for the Illinois Procurement Bulletin. This information shall be provided to each business within 30 calendar days after the business's notice of certification or qualification.

(b) Contracts let. Notice of each and every contract that is let, including renegotiated contracts and change orders, shall be issued electronically to those bidders submitting responses to the solicitations, inclusive of the unsuccessful bidders, immediately upon contract let. Failure of any chief procurement officer to give such notice shall result in tolling the time for filing a bid protest up to 7 calendar days.

For purposes of this subsection (b), "contracts let" means a construction agency's act of advertising an invitation for bids for one or more construction projects.

(b-5) Contracts awarded. Notice of each and every contract that is awarded, including renegotiated contracts and change orders, shall be issued electronically to the successful responsible bidder, offeror, or contractor and published in the Bulletin. The applicable chief procurement officer may provide by rule an organized format for the publication of this information, but in any case it must include at least all of the information specified in subsection (a) as well as the name of the successful responsible bidder, offeror, the contract price, the number of unsuccessful bidders or offerors and any other disclosure specified in any Section of this Code. This notice must be posted in the online electronic Bulletin prior to execution of the contract.

For purposes of this subsection (b-5), "contract award" means the determination that a particular bidder or offeror has been selected from among other bidders or offerors to receive a contract, subject to the successful completion of final negotiations. "Contract award" is evidenced by the posting of a Notice of Award or a Notice of Intent to Award to the respective volume of the Illinois Procurement Bulletin.

(c) Emergency purchase disclosure. Any chief procurement officer or State purchasing officer exercising emergency purchase authority under this Code shall publish a written description and reasons and the total cost, if known, or an estimate if unknown and the name of the responsible chief procurement officer and State purchasing officer, and the business or person contracted with for all emergency purchases in the Bulletin. This notice must be posted in the online electronic Bulletin no later than 5 calendar days after the contract is awarded. Notice of a hearing to extend an emergency contract must be posted in the online electronic Procurement Bulletin no later than 14 calendar days prior to the hearing.

(c-5) Business Enterprise Program report. Each purchasing agency shall, with the assistance of the applicable chief procurement officer, post in the online electronic Bulletin a copy of its annual report of utilization of businesses owned by minorities, women, and persons with disabilities as submitted to the Business Enterprise Council for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities pursuant to Section 6(c) of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act within 10 calendar days after its submission of its report to the Council.

(c-10) Renewals. Notice of each contract renewal shall be posted in the Bulletin within 14 calendar days of the determination to execute a renewal of the contract. The notice shall include at least all of the information required in subsection (a) or (b), as applicable.

(c-15) Sole source procurements. Before entering into a sole source contract, a chief procurement officer exercising sole source procurement authority under this Code shall publish a written description of intent to enter into a sole source contract along with a description of the item to be procured and the intended sole source contractor. This notice must be posted in the online electronic Procurement Bulletin before a sole source contract is awarded and at least 14 calendar days before the hearing required by Section 20-25.

(d) Other required disclosure. The applicable chief procurement officer shall provide by rule for the organized publication of all other disclosure required in other Sections of this Code in a timely manner.

(e) The changes to subsections (b), (c), (c-5), (c-10), and (c-15) of this Section made by Public Act 96-795 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly apply to reports submitted, offers made, and notices on contracts executed on or after July 1, 2010 (the its effective date of Public Act 96-795).

(f) Each chief procurement officer shall, in consultation with the agencies under his or her jurisdiction, provide the Procurement Policy Board with the information and resources necessary, and in a manner, to effectuate the purpose of Public Act 96-1444 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-2-17.)

(30 ILCS 500/45-45)

Sec. 45-45. Small businesses.

(a) Set-asides. Each chief procurement officer has authority to designate as small business set-asides a fair proportion of construction, supply, and service contracts for award to small businesses in Illinois. Advertisements for bids or offers for those contracts shall specify designation as small business set-asides. In awarding the contracts, only bids or offers from qualified small businesses shall be considered.

(b) Small business. "Small business" means a business that is independently owned and operated and that is not dominant in its field of operation. The chief procurement officer shall establish a detailed definition by rule, using in addition to the foregoing criteria other criteria, including the number of employees and the dollar volume of business. When computing the size status of a potential contractor, annual sales and receipts of the potential contractor and all of its affiliates shall be included. The maximum number of employees and the maximum dollar volume that a small business may have under the rules promulgated by the chief procurement officer may vary from industry to industry to the extent necessary to reflect differing characteristics of those industries, subject to the following limitations:

(1) No wholesale business is a small business if its annual sales for its most recently completed fiscal year exceed $13,000,000.

(2) No retail business or business selling services is a small business if its annual sales and receipts exceed $8,000,000.

(3) No manufacturing business is a small business if it employs more than 250 persons.

(4) No construction business is a small business if its annual sales and receipts exceed $14,000,000.

(c) Fair proportion. For the purpose of subsection (a), for State agencies of the executive branch, a fair proportion of construction contracts shall be no less than 25% nor more than 40% of the annual total contracts for construction.

(d) Withdrawal of designation. A small business set-aside designation may be withdrawn by the purchasing agency when deemed in the best interests of the State. Upon withdrawal, all bids or offers shall be rejected, and the bidders or offerors shall be notified of the reason for rejection. The contract shall then be awarded in accordance with this Code without the designation of small business set-aside.

(e) Small business specialist. Each chief procurement officer shall designate one or more individuals to serve as its small business specialist. The small business specialists shall collectively work together to accomplish the following duties:

(1) Compiling and maintaining a comprehensive list of potential small contractors. In this duty, he or she shall cooperate with the Federal Small Business Administration in locating potential sources for various products and services.

(2) Assisting small businesses in complying with the procedures for bidding on State contracts.

(3) Examining requests from State agencies for the purchase of property or services to help determine which invitations to bid are to be designated small business set-asides.

(4) Making recommendations to the chief procurement officer for the simplification of specifications and terms in order to increase the opportunities for small business participation.

(5) Assisting in investigations by purchasing agencies to determine the responsibility of bidders or offerors on small business set-asides.

(f) Small business annual report. Each small business specialist designated under subsection (e) shall annually before November 1 report in writing to the General Assembly concerning the awarding of contracts to small businesses. The report shall include the total value of awards made in the preceding fiscal year under the designation of small business set-aside. The report shall also include the total value of awards made to businesses owned by minorities, women, and persons with disabilities, as defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, in the preceding fiscal year under the designation of small business set-aside.

The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report as required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(30 ILCS 500/45-57)

Sec. 45-57. Veterans.

(a) Set-aside goal. It is the goal of the State to promote and encourage the continued economic development of small businesses owned and controlled by qualified veterans and that qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses (referred to as SDVOSB) and veteran-owned small businesses (referred to as VOSB) participate in the State's procurement process as both prime contractors and subcontractors. Not less than 3% of the total dollar amount of State contracts, as defined by the Director of Central Management Services, shall be established as a goal to be awarded to SDVOSB and VOSB. That portion of a contract under which the contractor subcontracts with a SDVOSB or VOSB may be counted toward the goal of this subsection. The Department of Central Management Services shall adopt rules to implement compliance with this subsection by all State agencies.

(b) Fiscal year reports. By each November 1, each chief procurement officer shall report to the Department of Central Management Services on all of the following for the immediately preceding fiscal year, and by each March 1 the Department of Central Management Services shall compile and report that information to the General Assembly:

(1) The total number of VOSB, and the number of SDVOSB, who submitted bids for contracts under this Code.

(2) The total number of VOSB, and the number of SDVOSB, who entered into contracts with the State under this Code and the total value of those contracts.

(c) Yearly review and recommendations. Each year, each chief procurement officer shall review the progress of all State agencies under its jurisdiction in meeting the goal described in subsection (a), with input from statewide veterans' service organizations and from the business community, including businesses owned by qualified veterans, and shall make recommendations to be included in the Department of Central Management Services' report to the General Assembly regarding continuation, increases, or decreases of the percentage goal. The recommendations shall be based upon the number of businesses that are owned by qualified veterans and on the continued need to encourage and promote businesses owned by qualified veterans.

(d) Governor's recommendations. To assist the State in reaching the goal described in subsection (a), the Governor shall recommend to the General Assembly changes in programs to assist businesses owned by qualified veterans.

(e) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Armed forces of the United States" means the United States Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, or service in active duty as defined under 38 U.S.C. Section 101. Service in the Merchant Marine that constitutes active duty under Section 401 of federal Public Act 95-202 shall also be considered service in the armed forces for purposes of this Section.

"Certification" means a determination made by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and the Department of Central Management Services that a business entity is a qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a qualified veteran-owned small business for whatever purpose. A SDVOSB or VOSB owned and controlled by women, minorities, or persons with disabilities, as those terms are defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act, may also select and designate whether that business is to be certified as a "women-owned business", "minority-owned business", or "business owned by a person with a disability", as defined in Section 2 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

"Control" means the exclusive, ultimate, majority, or sole control of the business, including but not limited to capital investment and all other financial matters, property, acquisitions, contract negotiations, legal matters, officer-director-employee selection and comprehensive hiring, operation responsibilities, cost-control matters, income and dividend matters, financial transactions, and rights of other shareholders or joint partners. Control shall be real, substantial, and continuing, not pro forma. Control shall include the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the business and to make the day-to-day as well as major decisions in matters of policy, management, and operations. Control shall be exemplified by possessing the requisite knowledge and expertise to run the particular business, and control shall not include simple majority or absentee ownership.

"Qualified service-disabled veteran" means a veteran who has been found to have 10% or more service-connected disability by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or the United States Department of Defense.

"Qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small business" or "SDVOSB" means a small business (i) that is at least 51% owned by one or more qualified service-disabled veterans living in Illinois or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock of which is owned by one or more qualified service-disabled veterans living in Illinois; (ii) that has its home office in Illinois; and (iii) for which items (i) and (ii) are factually verified annually by the Department of Central Management Services.

"Qualified veteran-owned small business" or "VOSB" means a small business (i) that is at least 51% owned by one or more qualified veterans living in Illinois or, in the case of a corporation, at least 51% of the stock of which is owned by one or more qualified veterans living in Illinois; (ii) that has its home office in Illinois; and (iii) for which items (i) and (ii) are factually verified annually by the Department of Central Management Services.

"Service-connected disability" means a disability incurred in the line of duty in the active military, naval, or air service as described in 38 U.S.C. 101(16).

"Small business" means a business that has annual gross sales of less than $75,000,000 as evidenced by the federal income tax return of the business. A firm with gross sales in excess of this cap may apply to the Department of Central Management Services for certification for a particular contract if the firm can demonstrate that the contract would have significant impact on SDVOSB or VOSB as suppliers or subcontractors or in employment of veterans or service-disabled veterans.

"State agency" has the meaning provided in Section 1-15.100 of this Code Women.

"Time of hostilities with a foreign country" means any period of time in the past, present, or future during which a declaration of war by the United States Congress has been or is in effect or during which an emergency condition has been or is in effect that is recognized by the issuance of a Presidential proclamation or a Presidential executive order and in which the armed forces expeditionary medal or other campaign service medals are awarded according to Presidential executive order.

"Veteran" means a person who (i) has been a member of the armed forces of the United States or, while a citizen of the United States, was a member of the armed forces of allies of the United States in time of hostilities with a foreign country and (ii) has served under one or more of the following conditions: (a) the veteran served a total of at least 6 months; (b) the veteran served for the duration of hostilities regardless of the length of the engagement; (c) the veteran was discharged on the basis of hardship; or (d) the veteran was released from active duty because of a service connected disability and was discharged under honorable conditions.

(f) Certification program. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and the Department of Central Management Services shall work together to devise a certification procedure to assure that businesses taking advantage of this Section are legitimately classified as qualified service-disabled veteran-owned small businesses or qualified veteran-owned small businesses.

(g) Penalties.

(1) Administrative penalties. The chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 shall suspend any person who commits a violation of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section from bidding on, or participating as a contractor, subcontractor, or supplier in, any State contract or project for a period of not less than 3 years, and, if the person is certified as a service-disabled veteran-owned small business or a veteran-owned small business, then the Department shall revoke the business's certification for a period of not less than 3 years. An additional or subsequent violation shall extend the periods of suspension and revocation for a period of not less than 5 years. The suspension and revocation shall apply to the principals of the business and any subsequent business formed or financed by, or affiliated with, those principals.

(2) Reports of violations. Each State agency shall report any alleged violation of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section to the chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20. The chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 shall subsequently report all such alleged violations to the Attorney General, who shall determine whether to bring a civil action against any person for the violation.

(3) List of suspended persons. The chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 shall monitor the status of all reported violations of Section 17-10.3 or subsection (d) of Section 33E-6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to this Section and shall maintain and make available to all State agencies a central listing of all persons that committed violations resulting in suspension.

(4) Use of suspended persons. During the period of a person's suspension under paragraph (1) of this subsection, a State agency shall not enter into any contract with that person or with any contractor using the services of that person as a subcontractor.

(5) Duty to check list. Each State agency shall check the central listing provided by the chief procurement officers appointed pursuant to Section 10-20 under paragraph (3) of this subsection to verify that a person being awarded a contract by that State agency, or to be used as a subcontractor or supplier on a contract being awarded by that State agency, is not under suspension pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-13-17.)

Section 155. The Governmental Joint Purchasing Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(30 ILCS 525/1) (from Ch. 85, par. 1601)

Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act: ,

"Governmental unit" means the State of Illinois, any State agency as defined in Section 1-15.100 of the Illinois Procurement Code, officers of the State of Illinois, any public authority which has the power to tax, or any other public entity created by statute.

"Master contract" means a definite quantity or indefinite quantity contract awarded pursuant to this Act against which subsequent orders may be placed to meet the needs of a governmental unit or qualified not-for-profit agency.

"Multiple award" means an award that is made to 2 or more bidders or offerors for similar supplies or services.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; revised 9-25-17.)

Section 160. The State Prompt Payment Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(30 ILCS 540/7) (from Ch. 127, par. 132.407)

Sec. 7. Payments to subcontractors and material suppliers.

(a) When a State official or agency responsible for administering a contract submits a voucher to the Comptroller for payment to a contractor, that State official or agency shall promptly make available electronically the voucher number, the date of the voucher, and the amount of the voucher. The State official or agency responsible for administering the contract shall provide subcontractors and material suppliers, known to the State official or agency, with instructions on how to access the electronic information.

(a-5) When a contractor receives any payment, the contractor shall pay each subcontractor and material supplier in proportion to the work completed by each subcontractor and material supplier its application or pay estimate, plus interest received under this Act. When a contractor receives any payment, the contractor shall pay each lower-tiered subcontractor and material supplier and each subcontractor and material supplier shall make payment to its own respective subcontractors and material suppliers. If the contractor receives less than the full payment due under the public construction contract, the contractor shall be obligated to disburse on a pro rata basis those funds received, plus interest received under this Act, with the contractor, subcontractors and material suppliers each receiving a prorated portion based on the amount of payment each has earned. When, however, the State official or agency does not release the full payment due under the contract because there are specific areas of work or materials the State agency or official has determined are not suitable for payment, then those specific subcontractors or material suppliers involved shall not be paid for that portion of work rejected or deemed not suitable for payment and all other subcontractors and suppliers shall be paid based upon the amount of payment each has earned, plus interest received under this Act.

(a-10) For construction contracts with the Department of Transportation, the contractor, subcontractor, or material supplier, regardless of tier, shall not offset, decrease, or diminish payment or payments that are due to its subcontractors or material suppliers without reasonable cause.

A contractor, who refuses to make prompt payment, in whole or in part, shall provide to the subcontractor or material supplier and the public owner or its agent, a written notice of that refusal. The written notice shall be made by a contractor no later than 5 calendar days after payment is received by the contractor. The written notice shall identify the Department of Transportation's contract, any subcontract or material purchase agreement, a detailed reason for refusal, the value of the payment to be withheld, and the specific remedial actions required of the subcontractor or material supplier so that payment may be made. Written notice of refusal may be given in a form and method which is acceptable to the parties and public owner.

(b) If the contractor, without reasonable cause, fails to make full payment of amounts due under subsection (a) to its subcontractors and material suppliers within 15 calendar days after receipt of payment from the State official or agency, the contractor shall pay to its subcontractors and material suppliers, in addition to the payment due them, interest in the amount of 2% per month, calculated from the expiration of the 15-day period until fully paid. This subsection shall further apply to any payments made by subcontractors and material suppliers to their subcontractors and material suppliers and to all payments made to lower tier subcontractors and material suppliers throughout the contracting chain.

(1) If a contractor, without reasonable cause, fails to make payment in full as provided in subsection (a-5) within 15 calendar days after receipt of payment under the public construction contract, any subcontractor or material supplier to whom payments are owed may file a written notice and request for administrative hearing with the State official or agency setting forth the amount owed by the contractor and the contractor's failure to timely pay the amount owed. The written notice and request for administrative hearing shall identify the public construction contract, the contractor, and the amount owed, and shall contain a sworn statement or attestation to verify the accuracy of the notice. The notice and request for administrative hearing shall be filed with the State official for the public construction contract, with a copy of the notice concurrently provided to the contractor. Notice to the State official may be made by certified or registered mail, messenger service, or personal service, and must include proof of delivery to the State official.

(2) The State official or agency, within 15 calendar days after receipt of a subcontractor's or material supplier's written notice and request for administrative hearing, shall hold a hearing convened by an administrative law judge to determine whether the contractor withheld payment, without reasonable cause, from the subcontractors or material suppliers and what amount, if any, is due to the subcontractors or material suppliers, and the reasonable cause or causes asserted by the contractor. The State official or agency shall provide appropriate notice to the parties of the date, time, and location of the hearing. Each contractor, subcontractor, or material supplier has the right to be represented by counsel at a hearing and to cross-examine witnesses and challenge documents. Upon the request of the subcontractor or material supplier and a showing of good cause, reasonable continuances may be granted by the administrative law judge.

(3) Upon a finding by the administrative law judge that the contractor failed to make payment in full, without reasonable cause, as provided in subsection (a-10), then the administrative law judge shall, in writing, order the contractor to pay the amount owed to the subcontractors or material suppliers plus interest within 15 calendar days after the order.

(4) If a contractor fails to make full payment as ordered under paragraph (3) of this subsection (b) within 15 days after the administrative law judge's order, then the contractor shall be barred from entering into a State public construction contract for a period of one year beginning on the date of the administrative law judge's order.

(5) If, on 2 or more occasions within a 3-calendar-year period, there is a finding by an administrative law judge that the contractor failed to make payment in full, without reasonable cause, and a written order was issued to a contractor under paragraph (3) of this subsection (b), then the contractor shall be barred from entering into a State public construction contract for a period of 6 months beginning on the date of the administrative law judge's second written order, even if the payments required under the orders were made in full.

(6) If a contractor fails to make full payment as ordered under paragraph (4) of this subsection (b), the subcontractor or material supplier may, within 30 days of the date of that order, petition the State agency for an order for reasonable attorney's fees and costs incurred in the prosecution of the action under this subsection (b). Upon that petition and taking of additional evidence, as may be required, the administrative law judge may issue a supplemental order directing the contractor to pay those reasonable attorney's fees and costs.

(7) The written order of the administrative law judge shall be final and appealable under the Administrative Review Law.

(c) This Section shall not be construed to in any manner diminish, negate, or interfere with the contractor-subcontractor or contractor-material supplier relationship or commercially useful function.

(d) This Section shall not preclude, bar, or stay the rights, remedies, and defenses available to the parties by way of the operation of their contract, purchase agreement, the Mechanics Lien Act, or the Public Construction Bond Act.

(e) State officials and agencies may adopt rules as may be deemed necessary in order to establish the formal procedures required under this Section.

(f) As used in this Section:,

"Payment" means the discharge of an obligation in money or other valuable consideration or thing delivered in full or partial satisfaction of an obligation to pay. "Payment" shall include interest paid pursuant to this Act.

"Reasonable cause" may include, but is not limited to, unsatisfactory workmanship or materials; failure to provide documentation required by the contract, subcontract, or material purchase agreement; claims made against the Department of Transportation or the subcontractor pursuant to subsection (c) of Section 23 of the Mechanics Lien Act or the Public Construction Bond Act; judgments, levies, garnishments, or other court-ordered assessments or offsets in favor of the Department of Transportation or other State agency entered against a subcontractor or material supplier. "Reasonable cause" does not include payments issued to the contractor that create a negative or reduced valuation pay application or pay estimate due to a reduction of contract quantities or work not performed or provided by the subcontractor or material supplier; the interception or withholding of funds for reasons not related to the subcontractor's or material supplier's work on the contract; anticipated claims or assessments of third parties not a party related to the contract or subcontract; asserted claims or assessments of third parties that are not authorized by court order, administrative tribunal, or statute. "Reasonable cause" further does not include the withholding, offset, or reduction of payment, in whole or in part, due to the assessment of liquidated damages or penalties assessed by the Department of Transportation against the contractor, unless the subcontractor's performance or supplied materials were the sole and proximate cause of the liquidated damage or penalty.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; 100-376, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-22-17.)

Section 165. The Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 8g as follows:

(30 ILCS 575/8g)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2020)

Sec. 8g. Business Enterprise Program Council reports.

(a) The Department of Central Management Services shall provide a report to the Council identifying all State agency non-construction solicitations that exceed $20,000,000 and that have less than a 20% established goal prior to publication.

(b) The Department of Central Management Services shall provide a report to the Council identifying all State agency non-construction awards that exceed $20,000,000. The report shall contain the following: (i) the name of the awardee; (ii) the total bid amount; (iii) the established Business Enterprise Program goal; (iv) the dollar amount and percentage of participation by businesses owned by minorities, women, and persons with disabilities; and (v) the names of the certified firms identified in the utilization plan.

(Source: P.A. 100-391, eff. 8-25-17.)

(30 ILCS 575/8j)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2020)

Sec. 8j 8g. Special Committee on Minority, Female, Persons with Disabilities, and Veterans Contracting.

(a) There is created a Special Committee on Minority, Female, Persons with Disabilities, and Veterans Contracting under the Council. The Special Committee shall review Illinois' procurement laws regarding contracting with minority-owned businesses, women-owned female-owned businesses, businesses owned by persons with disabilities, and veteran-owned businesses to determine what changes should be made to increase participation of these businesses in State procurements.

(b) The Special Committee shall consist of the following members:

(1) 3 persons each to be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President of the Senate, and the Minority Leader of the Senate; only one Special Committee member of each appointee under this paragraph may be a current member of the General Assembly;

(2) the Director of Central Management Services, or his or her designee;

(3) the chairperson of the Council, or his or her designee; and

(4) each chief procurement officer.

(c) The Special Committee shall conduct at least 3 hearings, with at least one hearing in Springfield and one in Chicago. Each hearing shall be open to the public and notice of the hearings shall be posted on the websites of the Procurement Policy Board, the Department of Central Management Services, and the General Assembly at least 6 days prior to the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 100-43, eff. 8-9-17; revised 12-14-17.)

Section 170. The Grant Accountability and Transparency Act is amended by changing Section 45 as follows:

(30 ILCS 708/45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 16, 2020)

Sec. 45. Applicability.

(a) The requirements established under this Act apply to State grant-making agencies that make State and federal pass-through awards to non-federal entities. These requirements apply to all costs related to State and federal pass-through awards. The requirements established under this Act do not apply to private awards.

(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the use of State funds for purposes of federal match or maintenance of effort.

(b) The terms and conditions of State, federal, and pass-through awards apply to subawards and subrecipients unless a particular Section of this Act or the terms and conditions of the State or federal award specifically indicate otherwise. Non-federal entities shall comply with requirements of this Act regardless of whether the non-federal entity is a recipient or subrecipient of a State or federal pass-through award. Pass-through entities shall comply with the requirements set forth under the rules adopted under subsection (a) of Section 20 of this Act, but not to any requirements in this Act directed towards State or federal awarding agencies, unless the requirements of the State or federal awards indicate otherwise.

When a non-federal entity is awarded a cost-reimbursement contract, only 2 CFR 200.330 through 200.332 are incorporated by reference into the contract. However, when the Cost Accounting Standards are applicable to the contract, they take precedence over the requirements of this Act unless they are in conflict with Subpart F of 2 CFR 200. In addition, costs that are made unallowable under 10 U.S.C. 2324(e) and 41 U.S.C. 4304(a), as described in the Federal Acquisition Regulations, subpart 31.2 and subpart 31.603, are always unallowable. For requirements other than those covered in Subpart D of 2 CFR 200.330 through 200.332, the terms of the contract and the Federal Acquisition Regulations apply.

With the exception of Subpart F of 2 CFR 200, which is required by the Single Audit Act, in any circumstances where the provisions of federal statutes or regulations differ from the provisions of this Act, the provision of the federal statutes or regulations govern. This includes, for agreements with Indian tribes, the provisions of the Indian Self-Determination and Education and Assistance Act, as amended, 25 U.S.C. 450-458ddd-2.

(c) State grant-making agencies may apply subparts A through E of 2 CFR 200 to for-profit entities, foreign public entities, or foreign organizations, except where the awarding agency determines that the application of these subparts would be inconsistent with the international obligations of the United States or the statute or regulations of a foreign government.

(d) Except for 2 CFR 200.202 and 200.330 through 200.332, the requirements in Subparts C, D, and E of 2 CFR 200 do not apply to the following programs:

(1) The block grant awards authorized by the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981 (including Community Services; Preventive Health and Health Services; Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Services; Maternal and Child Health Services; Social Services; Low-Income Home Energy Assistance; States' Program of Community Development Block Grant Awards for Small Cities; and Elementary and Secondary Education, other than programs administered by the Secretary of Education under Title V, Subtitle D, Chapter 2, Section 583 - the Secretary's discretionary award program) and both the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Treatment and Rehabilitation Block Grant Award (42 U.S.C. 300x-21 to 300x-35 and 42 U.S.C. 300x-51 to 300x-64) and the Mental Health Service for the Homeless Block Grant Award (42 U.S.C. 300x to 300x-9) under the Public Health Services Act.

(2) Federal awards to local education agencies under 20 U.S.C. 7702 through 7703b (portions of the Impact Aid program).

(3) Payments under the Department of Veterans Affairs' State Home Per Diem Program (38 U.S.C. 1741).

(4) Federal awards authorized under the Child Care and Development Block Grant Act of 1990, as amended, including the following:

(A) Child Care and Development Block Grant (42 U.S.C. 9858).

(B) Child Care Mandatory and Matching Funds of the Child Care and Development Fund (42 U.S.C. 9858).

(e) Except for the 2 CFR 200.202 requirement to provide public notice of federal financial assistance programs, the guidance in Subpart C Pre-federal Award Requirements and Contents of Federal Awards does not apply to the following programs:

(1) Entitlement federal awards to carry out the following programs of the Social Security Act:

(A) Temporary Assistance for to Needy Families (Title IV-A of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 601-619);

(B) Child Support Enforcement and Establishment of Paternity (Title IV-D of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 651-669b);

(C) Foster Care and Adoption Assistance (Title IV-E of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 670-679c);

(D) Aid to the Aged, Blind, and Disabled (Titles I, X, XIV, and XVI - AABD of the Act, as amended); and

(E) Medical Assistance (Medicaid) (42 U.S.C. 1396-1396w-5), not including the State Medicaid Fraud Control program authorized by Section 1903(a)(6)(B) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1396b(a)(6)(B)).

(2) A federal award for an experimental, pilot, or demonstration project that is also supported by a federal award listed in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of this Section.

(3) Federal awards under subsection 412(e) of the Immigration and Nationality Act of 1965 and Section 501(a) of the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980 for cash assistance, medical assistance, and supplemental security income benefits to refugees and entrants and the administrative costs of providing the assistance and benefits under 8 U.S.C. 1522(e).

(4) Entitlement awards under the following programs of The National School Lunch Act:

(A) National School Lunch Program (42 U.S.C. 1753);

(B) Commodity Assistance (42 U.S.C. 1755);

(C) Special Meal Assistance (42 U.S.C. 1759a);

(D) Summer Food Service Program for Children (42 U.S.C. 1761); and

(E) Child and Adult Care Food Program (42 U.S.C. 1766).

(5) Entitlement awards under the following programs of The Child Nutrition Act of 1966:

(A) Special Milk Program (42 U.S.C. 1772);

(B) School Breakfast Program (42 U.S.C. 1773); and

(C) State Administrative Expenses (42 U.S.C. 1776).

(6) Entitlement awards for State Administrative Expenses under The Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2025).

(7) Non-discretionary federal awards under the following non-entitlement programs:

(A) Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants and Children under the Child Nutrition Act of 1966 (42 U.S.C. 1786);

(B) The Emergency Food Assistance Programs (Emergency Food Assistance Act of 1983) (7 U.S.C. 7501); and

(C) Commodity Supplemental Food Program (7 U.S.C. 612c).

(f) For public institutions of higher education, the provisions of this Act apply only to awards funded by State appropriations and federal pass-through awards from a State agency to public institutions of higher education.

(g) Each grant-making agency shall enhance its processes to monitor and address noncompliance with reporting requirements and with program performance standards. Where applicable, the process may include a corrective action plan. The monitoring process shall include a plan for tracking and documenting performance-based contracting decisions.

(Source: P.A. 98-706, eff. 7-16-14; revised 9-25-17.)

Section 175. The Downstate Public Transportation Act is amended by changing Section 2-3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 740/2-3) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 663)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 2-3. (a) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 1984, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, to be known as the "Downstate Public Transportation Fund", an amount equal to 2/32 (beginning July 1, 2005, 3/32) of the net revenue realized from the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, the "Service Occupation Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, the "Use Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, and the "Service Use Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, from persons incurring municipal or county retailers' or service occupation tax liability for the benefit of any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of each participant, other than any Metro-East Transit District participant certified pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section during the preceding month, except that the Department shall pay into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund 2/32 (beginning July 1, 2005, 3/32) of 80% of the net revenue realized under the State tax Acts named above within any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of each participant, other than any Metro-East participant, for tax periods beginning on or after January 1, 1990. Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to such Acts during the previous month from persons incurring municipal or county retailers' or service occupation tax liability for the benefit of any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of a participant, less the amount paid out during that same month as refunds or credit memoranda to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under such Acts for the benefit of any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of a participant.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (a) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund as the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated.

(b) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 1989, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, to be known as the "Metro-East Public Transportation Fund", an amount equal to 2/32 of the net revenue realized, as above, from within the boundaries of Madison, Monroe, and St. Clair Counties, except that the Department shall pay into the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund 2/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized under the State tax Acts specified in subsection (a) of this Section within the boundaries of Madison, Monroe and St. Clair Counties for tax periods beginning on or after January 1, 1990. A local match equivalent to an amount which could be raised by a tax levy at the rate of .05% on the assessed value of property within the boundaries of Madison County is required annually to cause a total of 2/32 of the net revenue to be deposited in the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund. Failure to raise the required local match annually shall result in only 1/32 being deposited into the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund after July 1, 1989, or 1/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized for tax periods beginning on or after January 1, 1990.

(b-5) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 2005, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund, an amount equal to 3/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized from within the boundaries of Monroe and St. Clair Counties under the State Tax Acts specified in subsection (a) of this Section and provided further that, beginning July 1, 2005, the provisions of subsection (b) shall no longer apply with respect to such tax receipts from Monroe and St. Clair Counties.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (b-5) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund as the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated.

(b-6) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 2008, upon certification by the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund, an amount equal to 3/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized from within the boundaries of Madison County under the State Tax Acts specified in subsection (a) of this Section and provided further that, beginning July 1, 2008, the provisions of subsection (b) shall no longer apply with respect to such tax receipts from Madison County.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (b-6) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund as the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated.

(c) The Department shall certify to the Department of Revenue the eligible participants under this Article and the territorial boundaries of such participants for the purposes of the Department of Revenue in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

(d) For the purposes of this Article, beginning in fiscal year 2009 the General Assembly shall appropriate an amount from the Downstate Public Transportation Fund equal to the sum total funds projected to be paid to the participants pursuant to Section 2-7. If the General Assembly fails to make appropriations sufficient to cover the amounts projected to be paid pursuant to Section 2-7, this Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Downstate Public Transportation Fund of all amounts necessary for those purposes.

(e) Notwithstanding anything in this Section to the contrary, amounts transferred from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund pursuant to this Section shall not exceed $169,000,000 in State fiscal year 2012.

(f) For State fiscal year 2018 only, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues realized during State fiscal year 2018 shall be reduced by 10%.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 10-20-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 2-3. (a) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 1984, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, to be known as the "Downstate Public Transportation Fund", an amount equal to 2/32 (beginning July 1, 2005, 3/32) of the net revenue realized from the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, the "Service Occupation Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, the "Use Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, and the "Service Use Tax Act", as now or hereafter amended, from persons incurring municipal or county retailers' or service occupation tax liability for the benefit of any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of each participant, other than any Metro-East Transit District participant certified pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section during the preceding month, except that the Department shall pay into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund 2/32 (beginning July 1, 2005, 3/32) of 80% of the net revenue realized under the State tax Acts named above within any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of each participant, other than any Metro-East participant, for tax periods beginning on or after January 1, 1990. Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to such Acts during the previous month from persons incurring municipal or county retailers' or service occupation tax liability for the benefit of any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of a participant, less the amount paid out during that same month as refunds or credit memoranda to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under such Acts for the benefit of any municipality or county located wholly within the boundaries of a participant.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (a) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund as the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated.

(b) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 1989, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, to be known as the "Metro-East Public Transportation Fund", an amount equal to 2/32 of the net revenue realized, as above, from within the boundaries of Madison, Monroe, and St. Clair Counties, except that the Department shall pay into the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund 2/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized under the State tax Acts specified in subsection (a) of this Section within the boundaries of Madison, Monroe and St. Clair Counties for tax periods beginning on or after January 1, 1990. A local match equivalent to an amount which could be raised by a tax levy at the rate of .05% on the assessed value of property within the boundaries of Madison County is required annually to cause a total of 2/32 of the net revenue to be deposited in the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund. Failure to raise the required local match annually shall result in only 1/32 being deposited into the Metro-East Public Transportation Fund after July 1, 1989, or 1/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized for tax periods beginning on or after January 1, 1990.

(b-5) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 2005, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund, an amount equal to 3/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized from within the boundaries of Monroe and St. Clair Counties under the State Tax Acts specified in subsection (a) of this Section and provided further that, beginning July 1, 2005, the provisions of subsection (b) shall no longer apply with respect to such tax receipts from Monroe and St. Clair Counties.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (b-5) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund as the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated.

(b-6) As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning July 1, 2008, upon certification by the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer, from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund, an amount equal to 3/32 of 80% of the net revenue realized from within the boundaries of Madison County under the State Tax Acts specified in subsection (a) of this Section and provided further that, beginning July 1, 2008, the provisions of subsection (b) shall no longer apply with respect to such tax receipts from Madison County.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (b-6) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund as the revenues are realized from the taxes indicated.

(b-7) Beginning July 1, 2018, notwithstanding the other provisions of this Section, instead of the Comptroller making monthly transfers from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund, the Department of Revenue shall deposit the designated fraction of the net revenue realized from collections under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act directly into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund.

(c) The Department shall certify to the Department of Revenue the eligible participants under this Article and the territorial boundaries of such participants for the purposes of the Department of Revenue in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.

(d) For the purposes of this Article, beginning in fiscal year 2009 the General Assembly shall appropriate an amount from the Downstate Public Transportation Fund equal to the sum total funds projected to be paid to the participants pursuant to Section 2-7. If the General Assembly fails to make appropriations sufficient to cover the amounts projected to be paid pursuant to Section 2-7, this Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Downstate Public Transportation Fund of all amounts necessary for those purposes.

(e) Notwithstanding anything in this Section to the contrary, amounts transferred from the General Revenue Fund to the Downstate Public Transportation Fund pursuant to this Section shall not exceed $169,000,000 in State fiscal year 2012.

(f) For State fiscal year 2018 only, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues realized during State fiscal year 2018 shall be reduced by 10%.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-363, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-20-17.)

Section 180. The Build Illinois Act is amended by changing Section 9-3 as follows:

(30 ILCS 750/9-3) (from Ch. 127, par. 2709-3)

Sec. 9-3. Powers and duties. The Department has the power:

(a) To make loans or equity investments to small businesses, and to make loans or grants or investments to or through financial intermediaries. The loans and investments shall be made from appropriations from the Build Illinois Bond Fund, Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund, State Small Business Credit Initiative Fund, or Illinois Equity Fund for the purpose of promoting the creation or retention of jobs within small businesses or to modernize or maintain competitiveness of firms in Illinois. The grants shall be made from appropriations from the Build Illinois Bond Fund or Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund for the purpose of technical assistance.

(b) To make loans to or investments in businesses that have received federal Phase I Small Business Innovation Research grants as a bridge while awaiting federal Phase II Small Business Innovation Research grant funds.

(c) To enter into interagency agreements, accept funds or grants, and engage in cooperation with agencies of the federal government, local units of government, universities, research foundations, political subdivisions of the State, financial intermediaries, and regional economic development corporations or organizations for the purposes of carrying out this Article.

(d) To enter into contracts, financial intermediary agreements, or any other agreements or contracts with financial intermediaries necessary or desirable to further the purposes of this Article. Any such agreement or contract may include, without limitation, terms and provisions, including, but not limited to, loan documentation, review and approval procedures, organization and servicing rights, and default conditions.

(e) To fix, determine, charge and collect any premiums, fees, charges, costs and expenses, including, without limitation, any application fees, commitment fees, program fees, financing charges, collection fees, training fees, or publication fees in connection with its activities under this Article and to accept from any source any gifts, donations, or contributions of money, property, labor, or other things of value to be held, used, and applied to carry out the purposes of this Article. All fees, charges, collections, gifts, donations, or other contributions shall be deposited into the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund, or the State Small Business Credit Initiative Fund.

(f) To establish application, notification, contract, and other forms, procedures, rules or regulations deemed necessary and appropriate.

(g) To consent, subject to the provisions of any contract with another person, whenever it deems it necessary or desirable in the fulfillment of the purposes of this Article, to the modification or restructuring of any financial intermediary agreement, loan agreement or any equity investment agreement to which the Department is a party.

(h) To take whatever actions are necessary or appropriate to protect the State's interest in the event of bankruptcy, default, foreclosure, or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of financial assistance or participation provided hereunder or to otherwise protect or affect the State's interest, including the power to sell, dispose, lease or rent, upon terms and conditions determined by the Director to be appropriate, real or personal property which the Department may receive as a result thereof.

(i) To deposit any "Qualified Securities" which have been received by the Department as the result of any financial intermediary agreement, loan, or equity investment agreement executed in the carrying out of this Act, with the Office of the State Treasurer and held by that office until agreement to transfer such qualified security shall be certified by the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

(j) To assist small businesses that seek to apply for public or private capital in preparing the application and to supply them with grant information, plans, reports, assistance, or advice on development finance and to assist financial intermediaries and participating lenders to build capacity to make debt or equity investments through conferences, workshops, seminars, publications, or any other media.

(k) To provide for staff, administration, and related support required to manage the programs authorized under this Article and pay for staffing and administration from the Illinois Capital Revolving Loan Fund, or the State Small Business Credit Initiative Fund, as appropriated by the General Assembly. Administration responsibilities may include, but are not limited to, research and identification of credit disadvantaged groups; design of comprehensive statewide capital access plans and programs addressing capital gap and capital marketplace structure and information barriers; direction, management, and control of specific projects; and communicate and cooperation with public development finance organizations and private debt and equity sources.

(l) To exercise such other powers as are necessary or incidental to the foregoing.

(Source: P.A. 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-377, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-27-17.)

Section 185. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing Section 8.41 as follows:

(30 ILCS 805/8.41)

Sec. 8.41. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 100-23, 100-239, 100-281, 100-455, or 100-544 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-239, eff. 8-18-17; 100-281, eff. 8-24-17; 100-455, eff. 8-25-17; 100-544, eff. 11-8-17; revised 12-7-17.)

Section 190. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 220, 704A, 901, and 917 as follows:

(35 ILCS 5/220)

Sec. 220. Angel investment credit.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or a natural person that makes an investment in a qualified new business venture. The term "applicant" does not include a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or a natural person who has a direct or indirect ownership interest of at least 51% in the profits, capital, or value of the investment or a related member.

"Claimant" means an applicant certified by the Department who files a claim for a credit under this Section.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Investment" means money (or its equivalent) given to a qualified new business venture, at a risk of loss, in consideration for an equity interest of the qualified new business venture. The Department may adopt rules to permit certain forms of contingent equity investments to be considered eligible for a tax credit under this Section.

"Qualified new business venture" means a business that is registered with the Department under this Section.

"Related member" means a person that, with respect to the applicant, is any one of the following:

(1) An individual, if the individual and the members of the individual's family (as defined in Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code) own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the value of the outstanding profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the applicant.

(2) A partnership, estate, or trust and any partner or beneficiary, if the partnership, estate, or trust and its partners or beneficiaries own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the applicant.

(3) A corporation, and any party related to the corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the applicant and any other related member own, in the aggregate, directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, at least 50% of the value of the corporation's outstanding stock.

(4) A corporation and any party related to that corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation to the party or from the party to the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the corporation and all such related parties own, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the applicant.

(5) A person to or from whom there is attribution of stock ownership in accordance with Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that for purposes of determining whether a person is a related member under this paragraph, "20%" shall be substituted for "5%" whenever "5%" appears in Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2010, and ending on or before December 31, 2021, subject to the limitations provided in this Section, a claimant may claim, as a credit against the tax imposed under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, an amount equal to 25% of the claimant's investment made directly in a qualified new business venture. In order for an investment in a qualified new business venture to be eligible for tax credits, the business must have applied for and received certification under subsection (e) for the taxable year in which the investment was made prior to the date on which the investment was made. The credit under this Section may not exceed the taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for the taxable year. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability for the year, the excess may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one tax year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. In the case of a partnership or Subchapter S Corporation, the credit is allowed to the partners or shareholders in accordance with the determination of income and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) The minimum amount an applicant must invest in any single qualified new business venture in order to be eligible for a credit under this Section is $10,000. The maximum amount of an applicant's total investment made in any single qualified new business venture that may be used as the basis for a credit under this Section is $2,000,000.

(d) The Department shall implement a program to certify an applicant for an angel investment credit. Upon satisfactory review, the Department shall issue a tax credit certificate stating the amount of the tax credit to which the applicant is entitled. The Department shall annually certify that: (i) each qualified new business venture that receives an angel investment under this Section has maintained a minimum employment threshold, as defined by rule, in the State (and continues to maintain a minimum employment threshold in the State for a period of no less than 3 years from the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to such business pursuant to this Section); and (ii) the claimant's investment has been made and remains, except in the event of a qualifying liquidity event, in the qualified new business venture for no less than 3 years.

If an investment for which a claimant is allowed a credit under subsection (b) is held by the claimant for less than 3 years, other than as a result of a permitted sale of the investment to person who is not a related member, the claimant shall pay to the Department of Revenue, in the manner prescribed by the Department of Revenue, the aggregate amount of the disqualified credits that the claimant received related to the subject investment.

If the Department determines that a qualified new business venture failed to maintain a minimum employment threshold in the State through the date which is 3 years from the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to the subject business pursuant to this Section, the claimant or claimants shall pay to the Department of Revenue, in the manner prescribed by the Department of Revenue, the aggregate amount of the disqualified credits that claimant or claimants received related to investments in that business.

(e) The Department shall implement a program to register qualified new business ventures for purposes of this Section. A business desiring registration under this Section shall be required to submit a full and complete application to the Department. A submitted application shall be effective only for the taxable year in which it is submitted, and a business desiring registration under this Section shall be required to submit a separate application in and for each taxable year for which the business desires registration. Further, if at any time prior to the acceptance of an application for registration under this Section by the Department one or more events occurs which makes the information provided in that application materially false or incomplete (in whole or in part), the business shall promptly notify the Department of the same. Any failure of a business to promptly provide the foregoing information to the Department may, at the discretion of the Department, result in a revocation of a previously approved application for that business, or disqualification of the business from future registration under this Section, or both. The Department may register the business only if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) it has its principal place of business in this State;

(2) at least 51% of the employees employed by the business are employed in this State;

(3) the business has the potential for increasing jobs in this State, increasing capital investment in this State, or both, as determined by the Department, and either of the following apply:

(A) it is principally engaged in innovation in any of the following: manufacturing; biotechnology; nanotechnology; communications; agricultural sciences; clean energy creation or storage technology; processing or assembling products, including medical devices, pharmaceuticals, computer software, computer hardware, semiconductors, other innovative technology products, or other products that are produced using manufacturing methods that are enabled by applying proprietary technology; or providing services that are enabled by applying proprietary technology; or

(B) it is undertaking pre-commercialization activity related to proprietary technology that includes conducting research, developing a new product or business process, or developing a service that is principally reliant on applying proprietary technology;

(4) it is not principally engaged in real estate development, insurance, banking, lending, lobbying, political consulting, professional services provided by attorneys, accountants, business consultants, physicians, or health care consultants, wholesale or retail trade, leisure, hospitality, transportation, or construction, except construction of power production plants that derive energy from a renewable energy resource, as defined in Section 1 of the Illinois Power Agency Act;

(5) at the time it is first certified:

(A) it has fewer than 100 employees;

(B) it has been in operation in Illinois for not more than 10 consecutive years prior to the year of certification; and

(C) it has received not more than $10,000,000 in aggregate investments;

(5.1) it agrees to maintain a minimum employment threshold in the State of Illinois prior to the date which is 3 years from the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to that business pursuant to this Section;

(6) (blank); and

(7) it has received not more than $4,000,000 in investments that qualified for tax credits under this Section.

(f) The Department, in consultation with the Department of Revenue, shall adopt rules to administer this Section. The aggregate amount of the tax credits that may be claimed under this Section for investments made in qualified new business ventures shall be limited at $10,000,000 per calendar year, of which $500,000 shall be reserved for investments made in qualified new business ventures which are minority-owned "minority owned businesses", female-owned "female owned businesses", or "businesses owned by a person with a disability" (as those terms are used and defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act), and an additional $500,000 shall be reserved for investments made in qualified new business ventures with their principal place of business in counties with a population of not more than 250,000. The foregoing annual allowable amounts shall be allocated by the Department, on a per calendar quarter basis and prior to the commencement of each calendar year, in such proportion as determined by the Department, provided that: (i) the amount initially allocated by the Department for any one calendar quarter shall not exceed 35% of the total allowable amount; and (ii) any portion of the allocated allowable amount remaining unused as of the end of any of the first 2 calendar quarters of a given calendar year shall be rolled into, and added to, the total allocated amount for the next available calendar quarter.

(g) A claimant may not sell or otherwise transfer a credit awarded under this Section to another person.

(h) On or before March 1 of each year, the Department shall report to the Governor and to the General Assembly on the tax credit certificates awarded under this Section for the prior calendar year.

(1) This report must include, for each tax credit certificate awarded:

(A) the name of the claimant and the amount of credit awarded or allocated to that claimant;

(B) the name and address (including the county) of the qualified new business venture that received the investment giving rise to the credit, the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code applicable to that qualified new business venture, and the number of employees of the qualified new business venture; and

(C) the date of approval by the Department of each claimant's tax credit certificate.

(2) The report must also include:

(A) the total number of applicants and the total number of claimants, including the amount of each tax credit certificate awarded to a claimant under this Section in the prior calendar year;

(B) the total number of applications from businesses seeking registration under this Section, the total number of new qualified business ventures registered by the Department, and the aggregate amount of investment upon which tax credit certificates were issued in the prior calendar year; and

(C) the total amount of tax credit certificates sought by applicants, the amount of each tax credit certificate issued to a claimant, the aggregate amount of all tax credit certificates issued in the prior calendar year and the aggregate amount of tax credit certificates issued as authorized under this Section for all calendar years.

(i) For each business seeking registration under this Section after December 31, 2016, the Department shall require the business to include in its application the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code applicable to the business and the number of employees of the business at the time of application. Each business registered by the Department as a qualified new business venture that receives an investment giving rise to the issuance of a tax credit certificate pursuant to this Section shall, for each of the 3 years following the issue date of the last tax credit certificate issued by the Department with respect to such business pursuant to this Section, report to the Department the following:

(1) the number of employees and the location at which those employees are employed, both as of the end of each year;

(2) the amount of additional new capital investment raised as of the end of each year, if any; and

(3) the terms of any liquidity event occurring during such year; for the purposes of this Section, a "liquidity event" means any event that would be considered an exit for an illiquid investment, including any event that allows the equity holders of the business (or any material portion thereof) to cash out some or all of their respective equity interests.

(Source: P.A. 100-328, eff. 1-1-18; revised 12-14-17.)

(35 ILCS 5/704A)

Sec. 704A. Employer's return and payment of tax withheld.

(a) In general, every employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act on or after January 1, 2008 shall make those payments and returns as provided in this Section.

(b) Returns. Every employer shall, in the form and manner required by the Department, make returns with respect to taxes withheld or required to be withheld under this Article 7 for each quarter beginning on or after January 1, 2008, on or before the last day of the first month following the close of that quarter.

(c) Payments. With respect to amounts withheld or required to be withheld on or after January 1, 2008:

(1) Semi-weekly payments. For each calendar year, each employer who withheld or was required to withhold more than $12,000 during the one-year period ending on June 30 of the immediately preceding calendar year, payment must be made:

(A) on or before each Friday of the calendar year, for taxes withheld or required to be withheld on the immediately preceding Saturday, Sunday, Monday, or Tuesday;

(B) on or before each Wednesday of the calendar year, for taxes withheld or required to be withheld on the immediately preceding Wednesday, Thursday, or Friday.

Beginning with calendar year 2011, payments made under this paragraph (1) of subsection (c) must be made by electronic funds transfer.

(2) Semi-weekly payments. Any employer who withholds or is required to withhold more than $12,000 in any quarter of a calendar year is required to make payments on the dates set forth under item (1) of this subsection (c) for each remaining quarter of that calendar year and for the subsequent calendar year.

(3) Monthly payments. Each employer, other than an employer described in items (1) or (2) of this subsection, shall pay to the Department, on or before the 15th day of each month the taxes withheld or required to be withheld during the immediately preceding month.

(4) Payments with returns. Each employer shall pay to the Department, on or before the due date for each return required to be filed under this Section, any tax withheld or required to be withheld during the period for which the return is due and not previously paid to the Department.

(d) Regulatory authority. The Department may, by rule:

(1) Permit employers, in lieu of the requirements of subsections (b) and (c), to file annual returns due on or before January 31 of the year for taxes withheld or required to be withheld during the previous calendar year and, if the aggregate amounts required to be withheld by the employer under this Article 7 (other than amounts required to be withheld under Section 709.5) do not exceed $1,000 for the previous calendar year, to pay the taxes required to be shown on each such return no later than the due date for such return.

(2) Provide that any payment required to be made under subsection (c)(1) or (c)(2) is deemed to be timely to the extent paid by electronic funds transfer on or before the due date for deposit of federal income taxes withheld from, or federal employment taxes due with respect to, the wages from which the Illinois taxes were withheld.

(3) Designate one or more depositories to which payment of taxes required to be withheld under this Article 7 must be paid by some or all employers.

(4) Increase the threshold dollar amounts at which employers are required to make semi-weekly payments under subsection (c)(1) or (c)(2).

(e) Annual return and payment. Every employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax from a person engaged in domestic service employment, as that term is defined in Section 3510 of the Internal Revenue Code, may comply with the requirements of this Section with respect to such employees by filing an annual return and paying the taxes required to be deducted and withheld on or before the 15th day of the fourth month following the close of the employer's taxable year. The Department may allow the employer's return to be submitted with the employer's individual income tax return or to be submitted with a return due from the employer under Section 1400.2 of the Unemployment Insurance Act.

(f) Magnetic media and electronic filing. With respect to taxes withheld in calendar years prior to 2017, any W-2 Form that, under the Internal Revenue Code and regulations promulgated thereunder, is required to be submitted to the Internal Revenue Service on magnetic media or electronically must also be submitted to the Department on magnetic media or electronically for Illinois purposes, if required by the Department.

With respect to taxes withheld in 2017 and subsequent calendar years, the Department may, by rule, require that any return (including any amended return) under this Section and any W-2 Form that is required to be submitted to the Department must be submitted on magnetic media or electronically.

The due date for submitting W-2 Forms shall be as prescribed by the Department by rule.

(g) For amounts deducted or withheld after December 31, 2009, a taxpayer who makes an election under subsection (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act for a taxable year shall be allowed a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first calendar year beginning after the end of that taxable year equal to the amount of the credit for the incremental income tax attributable to full-time employees of the taxpayer awarded to the taxpayer by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act for the taxable year and credits not previously claimed and allowed to be carried forward under Section 211(4) of this Act as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act. The credit or credits may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Section to less than zero. If the amount of the credit or credits exceeds the total payments due under this Section with respect to amounts withheld during the calendar year, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section in the succeeding calendar years as allowed to be carried forward under paragraph (4) of Section 211 of this Act. The credit or credits shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one taxable year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. Each employer who deducts and withholds or is required to deduct and withhold tax under this Act and who retains income tax withholdings under subsection (f) of Section 5-15 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act must make a return with respect to such taxes and retained amounts in the form and manner that the Department, by rule, requires and pay to the Department or to a depositary designated by the Department those withheld taxes not retained by the taxpayer. For purposes of this subsection (g), the term taxpayer shall include taxpayer and members of the taxpayer's unitary business group as defined under paragraph (27) of subsection (a) of Section 1501 of this Act. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act. No credit awarded under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act for agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2015 may be credited against payments due under this Section.

(h) An employer may claim a credit against payments due under this Section for amounts withheld during the first calendar year ending after the date on which a tax credit certificate was issued under Section 35 of the Small Business Job Creation Tax Credit Act. The credit shall be equal to the amount shown on the certificate, but may not reduce the taxpayer's obligation for any payment due under this Section to less than zero. If the amount of the credit exceeds the total payments due under this Section with respect to amounts withheld during the calendar year, the excess may be carried forward and applied against the taxpayer's liability under this Section in the 5 succeeding calendar years. The credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which there is a tax liability. If there are credits from more than one calendar year that are available to offset a liability, the earlier credit shall be applied first. This Section is exempt from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; 100-511, eff. 9-18-17; revised 11-6-17.)

(35 ILCS 5/901) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-901)

Sec. 901. Collection authority.

(a) In general. The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act. The Department shall collect certified past due child support amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (e), (f), (g), and (h) of this Section, money collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2505/2505-650) shall be paid into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(b) Local Government Distributive Fund. Beginning August 1, 1969, and continuing through June 30, 1994, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State treasury, to be known as the "Local Government Distributive Fund", an amount equal to 1/12 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1994, and continuing through June 30, 1995, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to 1/11 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1995 and continuing through January 31, 2011, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the net of (i) 1/10 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act during the preceding month (ii) minus, beginning July 1, 2003 and ending June 30, 2004, $6,666,666, and beginning July 1, 2004, zero. Beginning February 1, 2011, and continuing through January 31, 2015, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 6% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 5% individual income tax rate after 2010) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 6.86% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after 2010) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Beginning February 1, 2015 and continuing through July 31, 2017, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 8% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 3.75% individual income tax rate after 2014) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 9.14% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 5.25% corporate income tax rate after 2014) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Beginning August 1, 2017, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 6.06% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 4.95% individual income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 6.85% (10% of the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to the 7% corporate income tax rate after July 1, 2017) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the preceding month. Net revenue realized for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Education Assistance Fund, the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund, the Fund for the Advancement of Education, and the Commitment to Human Services Fund during the month minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, beginning on July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, those amounts required under this subsection (b) to be transferred by the Treasurer into the Local Government Distributive Fund from the General Revenue Fund shall be directly deposited into the Local Government Distributive Fund as the revenue is realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.

For State fiscal year 2018 only, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the total amount of revenue and deposits under this Section attributable to revenues realized during State fiscal year 2018 shall be reduced by 10%.

(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3), of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 6% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999 through 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.1%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 8%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 11.7%. Upon the effective date of Public Act 93-839 (July 30, 2004) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Annual Percentage shall be 10% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.75%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 10%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.8%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The Department shall deposit 18% of such amounts during the period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30, 1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999, 2000, and 2001, the Annual Percentage shall be 19%. For fiscal year 2003, the Annual Percentage shall be 27%. For fiscal year 2004, the Annual Percentage shall be 32%. Upon the effective date of Public Act 93-839 (July 30, 2004) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the Annual Percentage shall be 24% for fiscal year 2005. For fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 20%. For fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 13.4%. For fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For fiscal year 2018, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the amount of refunds approved for payment by the Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%. The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is to be effective.

(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000 in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and (iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.

(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.

(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act, for paying rebates under Section 208.1 in the event that the amounts in the Homeowners' Tax Relief Fund are insufficient for that purpose, and for making transfers pursuant to this subsection (d).

(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section 201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained in the Fund.

(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal year, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds resulting from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year.

(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year 1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall order transferred and the State Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year; excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c) less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit.

(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund for the purpose of paying refunds upon the order of the Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section.

(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund. On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.

(f) Deposits into the Fund for the Advancement of Education. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Fund for the Advancement of Education:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (f) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(g) Deposits into the Commitment to Human Services Fund. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the Commitment to Human Services Fund:

(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February 1, 2025, 1/30; and

(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.

If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act, the Department shall not make the deposits required by this subsection (g) on or after the effective date of the reduction.

(h) Deposits into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. Beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department from the tax imposed by subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, net of deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund made from those cash receipts.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 8-3-17.)

(35 ILCS 5/917) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-917)

Sec. 917. Confidentiality and information sharing.

(a) Confidentiality. Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the Department from returns filed under this Act, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Act, shall be confidential, except for official purposes within the Department or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State tax or pursuant to an investigation or audit by the Illinois State Scholarship Commission of a delinquent student loan or monetary award or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by another statute imposing a State tax, and any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except for such purposes and pursuant to order of the Director or in accordance with a proper judicial order, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. However, the provisions of this paragraph are not applicable to information furnished to (i) the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid), State's Attorneys, and the Attorney General for child support enforcement purposes and (ii) a licensed attorney representing the taxpayer where an appeal or a protest has been filed on behalf of the taxpayer. If it is necessary to file information obtained pursuant to this Act in a child support enforcement proceeding, the information shall be filed under seal.

(b) Public information. Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from publishing or making available to the public the names and addresses of persons filing returns under this Act, or from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the tax wherein the contents of returns are grouped into aggregates in such a way that the information contained in any individual return shall not be disclosed.

(c) Governmental agencies. The Director may make available to the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States or his delegate, or the proper officer or his delegate of any other state imposing a tax upon or measured by income, for exclusively official purposes, information received by the Department in the administration of this Act, but such permission shall be granted only if the United States or such other state, as the case may be, grants the Department substantially similar privileges. The Director may exchange information with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services and the Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public Aid under the Department of Human Services Act) for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and any other health benefit program administered by the State. The Director may exchange information with the Director of the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Act and Acts administered by the Department of Employment Security. The Director may make available to the Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission information regarding employers for the purpose of verifying the insurance coverage required under the Workers' Compensation Act and Workers' Occupational Diseases Act. The Director may exchange information with the Illinois Department on Aging for the purpose of verifying sources and amounts of income for purposes directly related to confirming eligibility for participation in the programs of benefits authorized by the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief and Pharmaceutical Assistance Act. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office and the Department of Employment Security for the purpose of implementing, administering, and enforcing the Illinois Secure Choice Savings Program Act. The Director may exchange information with the State Treasurer's Office for the purpose of administering the Revised Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act or successor Acts.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, which licenses persons to engage in any occupation, information that a person licensed by such agency has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, information regarding whether a bidder, contractor, or an affiliate of a bidder or contractor has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty, and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest due under this Act, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications. For purposes of this Section, the term "affiliate" means any entity that (1) directly, indirectly, or constructively controls another entity, (2) is directly, indirectly, or constructively controlled by another entity, or (3) is subject to the control of a common entity. For purposes of this subsection (a), an entity controls another entity if it owns, directly or individually, more than 10% of the voting securities of that entity. As used in this subsection (a), the term "voting security" means a security that (1) confers upon the holder the right to vote for the election of members of the board of directors or similar governing body of the business or (2) is convertible into, or entitles the holder to receive upon its exercise, a security that confers such a right to vote. A general partnership interest is a voting security.

The Director may make available to any State agency, including the Illinois Supreme Court, units of local government, and school districts, information regarding whether a bidder or contractor is an affiliate of a person who is not collecting and remitting Illinois Use taxes, for the limited purpose of enforcing bidder and contractor certifications.

The Director may also make available to the Secretary of State information that a corporation which has been issued a certificate of incorporation by the Secretary of State has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein, or has failed to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest due under this Act. An assessment is final when all proceedings in court for review of such assessment have terminated or the time for the taking thereof has expired without such proceedings being instituted. For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1987, the Director may make available to the Director or principal officer of any Department of the State of Illinois, information that a person employed by such Department has failed to file returns under this Act or pay the tax, penalty and interest shown therein. For purposes of this paragraph, the word "Department" shall have the same meaning as provided in Section 3 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971.

(d) The Director shall make available for public inspection in the Department's principal office and for publication, at cost, administrative decisions issued on or after January 1, 1995. These decisions are to be made available in a manner so that the following taxpayer information is not disclosed:

(1) The names, addresses, and identification numbers of the taxpayer, related entities, and employees.

(2) At the sole discretion of the Director, trade secrets or other confidential information identified as such by the taxpayer, no later than 30 days after receipt of an administrative decision, by such means as the Department shall provide by rule.

The Director shall determine the appropriate extent of the deletions allowed in paragraph (2). In the event the taxpayer does not submit deletions, the Director shall make only the deletions specified in paragraph (1).

The Director shall make available for public inspection and publication an administrative decision within 180 days after the issuance of the administrative decision. The term "administrative decision" has the same meaning as defined in Section 3-101 of Article III of the Code of Civil Procedure. Costs collected under this Section shall be paid into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund.

(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prevent the Director from divulging information to any person pursuant to a request or authorization made by the taxpayer, by an authorized representative of the taxpayer, or, in the case of information related to a joint return, by the spouse filing the joint return with the taxpayer.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-571, eff. 7-15-16; 100-47, eff. 8-11-17; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 195. The Small Business Job Creation Tax Credit Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(35 ILCS 25/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Applicant" means a person that is operating a business located within the State of Illinois that is engaged in interstate or intrastate commerce and either:

(1) has no more than 50 full-time employees, without regard to the location of employment of such employees at the beginning of the incentive period; or

(2) hired within the incentive period an employee who had participated as worker-trainee in the Put Illinois to Work Program during 2010.

In the case of any person that is a member of a unitary business group within the meaning of subdivision (a)(27) of Section 1501 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, "applicant" refers to the unitary business group.

"Certificate" means the tax credit certificate issued by the Department under Section 35 of this Act.

"Certificate of eligibility" means the certificate issued by the Department under Section 20 of this Act.

"Credit" means the amount awarded by the Department to an applicant by issuance of a certificate under Section 35 of this Act for each new full-time equivalent employee hired or job created.

"Department" means the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity.

"Director" means the Director of the Department.

"Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed for a basic wage for at least 35 hours each week or who renders any other standard of service generally accepted by industry custom or practice as full-time employment. An individual for whom a W-2 is issued by a Professional Employer Organization is a full-time employee if he or she is employed in the service of the applicant for a basic wage for at least 35 hours each week or renders any other standard of service generally accepted by industry custom or practice as full-time employment. For the purposes of this Act, such an individual shall be considered a full-time employee of the applicant.

"Professional Employer Organization" (PEO) shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 5-5 of the Economic Development for a Growing Economy Tax Credit Act. As used in this Section, "Professional Employer Organization" does not include a day and temporary labor service agency regulated under the Day and Temporary Labor Services Act.

"Incentive period" means the period beginning on July 1 and ending on June 30 of the following year. The first incentive period shall begin on July 1, 2010 and the last incentive period shall end on June 30, 2016.

"Basic wage" means compensation for employment that is no less than $10 per hour or the equivalent salary for a new employee.

"New employee" means a full-time employee:

(1) who first became employed by an applicant with less than 50 full-time employees within the incentive period whose hire results in a net increase in the applicant's full-time Illinois employees and who is receiving a basic wage as compensation; or

(2) who participated as a worker-trainee in the Put Illinois to Work Program during 2010 and who is subsequently hired during the incentive period by an applicant and who is receiving a basic wage as compensation.

The term "new employee" does not include:

(1) a person who was previously employed in Illinois by the applicant or a related member prior to the onset of the incentive period; or

(2) any individual who has a direct or indirect ownership interest of at least 5% in the profits, capital, or value of the applicant or a related member.

"Noncompliance date" means, in the case of an applicant that is not complying with the requirements of the provisions of this Act, the day following the last date upon which the taxpayer was in compliance with the requirements of the provisions of this Act, as determined by the Director, pursuant to Section 45 of this Act.

"Put Illinois to Work Program" means a worker training and employment program that was established by the State of Illinois with funding from the United States Department of Health and Human Services of Emergency Temporary Assistance for to Needy Families funds authorized by the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA TANF Funds). These ARRA TANF funds were in turn used by the State of Illinois to fund the Put Illinois to Work Program.

"Related member" means a person that, with respect to the applicant during any portion of the incentive period, is any one of the following,

(1) An individual, if the individual and the members of the individual's family (as defined in Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code) own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the value of the outstanding profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the applicant.

(2) A partnership, estate, or trust and any partner or beneficiary, if the partnership, estate, or trust and its partners or beneficiaries own directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the applicant.

(3) A corporation, and any party related to the corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the applicant and any other related member own, in the aggregate, directly, indirectly, beneficially, or constructively, at least 50% of the value of the corporation's outstanding stock.

(4) A corporation and any party related to that corporation in a manner that would require an attribution of stock from the corporation to the party or from the party to the corporation under the attribution rules of Section 318 of the Internal Revenue Code, if the corporation and all such related parties own, in the aggregate, at least 50% of the profits, capital, stock, or other ownership interest in the applicant.

(5) A person to or from whom there is attribution of stock ownership in accordance with Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code, except that for purposes of determining whether a person is a related member under this paragraph, "20%" shall be substituted for "5%" whenever "5%" appears in Section 1563(e) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-888, eff. 4-13-10; 96-1498, eff. 1-18-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-1052, eff. 8-23-12; revised 9-26-17.)

Section 200. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 3-5 and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 105/3-5)

Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Personal property purchased from a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

(5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production, and including machinery and equipment purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (18).

(7) Farm chemicals.

(8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.

(11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(16) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (18) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (6) of this Section.

(19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for that personal property was received by a florist located outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois deliver the personal property.

(20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item (21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008.

(22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.

(24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(31) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(32) Beginning on August 2, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-227) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise, whether for-hire or not.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish, complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(36) Tangible personal property purchased by a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(37) Beginning January 1, 2017, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(38) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-855, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-437, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-27-17.)

(35 ILCS 105/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.9)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 9. Except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, each retailer required or authorized to collect the tax imposed by this Act shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A retailer need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to remit and does remit the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, with respect to the sale of the same property.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the retailer, in collecting the tax (except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State), may collect for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such retailer shall file a return for the preceding calendar month. Such return shall be filed on forms prescribed by the Department and shall furnish such information as the Department may reasonably require. On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985, and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

If any such payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown by an original monthly return, the Department shall issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment, which memorandum may be submitted by the taxpayer to the Department in payment of tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department or be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department, except that if such excess payment is shown on an original monthly return and is made after December 31, 1986, no credit memorandum shall be issued, unless requested by the taxpayer. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% or 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 3-55 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

The transaction reporting return in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft and aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the date of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the tax that is imposed by this Act may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer, and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Where a retailer collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the retailer refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such retailer shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the retailer may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other use tax which such retailer may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, if the amount of the tax to be deducted was previously remitted to the Department by such retailer. If the retailer has not previously remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he is entitled to no deduction under this Act upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any retailer filing a return under this Section shall also include (for the purpose of paying tax thereon) the total tax covered by such return upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased by him at retail from a retailer, but as to which the tax imposed by this Act was not collected from the retailer filing such return, and such retailer shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable retailers, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the retailer has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration under this Act, such retailer may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property, other than tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 9. Except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, each retailer required or authorized to collect the tax imposed by this Act shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A retailer need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to remit and does remit the tax imposed by the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, with respect to the sale of the same property.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the retailer, in collecting the tax (except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State), may collect for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such retailer shall file a return for the preceding calendar month. Such return shall be filed on forms prescribed by the Department and shall furnish such information as the Department may reasonably require. On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985, and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

If any such payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown by an original monthly return, the Department shall issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment, which memorandum may be submitted by the taxpayer to the Department in payment of tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department or be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department, except that if such excess payment is shown on an original monthly return and is made after December 31, 1986, no credit memorandum shall be issued, unless requested by the taxpayer. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% or 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February, and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 3-55 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all the aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

The transaction reporting return in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft and aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the date of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the tax that is imposed by this Act may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer, and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Where a retailer collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the retailer refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such retailer shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the retailer may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other use tax which such retailer may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, if the amount of the tax to be deducted was previously remitted to the Department by such retailer. If the retailer has not previously remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he is entitled to no deduction under this Act upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any retailer filing a return under this Section shall also include (for the purpose of paying tax thereon) the total tax covered by such return upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased by him at retail from a retailer, but as to which the tax imposed by this Act was not collected from the retailer filing such return, and such retailer shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable retailers, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the retailer has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration under this Act, such retailer may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property, other than tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; 100-363, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-20-17.)

Section 205. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 110/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.32)

Sec. 2. Definitions. In this Act:

"Use" means the exercise by any person of any right or power over tangible personal property incident to the ownership of that property, but does not include the sale or use for demonstration by him of that property in any form as tangible personal property in the regular course of business. "Use" does not mean the interim use of tangible personal property nor the physical incorporation of tangible personal property, as an ingredient or constituent, into other tangible personal property, (a) which is sold in the regular course of business or (b) which the person incorporating such ingredient or constituent therein has undertaken at the time of such purchase to cause to be transported in interstate commerce to destinations outside the State of Illinois.

"Purchased from a serviceman" means the acquisition of the ownership of, or title to, tangible personal property through a sale of service.

"Purchaser" means any person who, through a sale of service, acquires the ownership of, or title to, any tangible personal property.

"Cost price" means the consideration paid by the serviceman for a purchase valued in money, whether paid in money or otherwise, including cash, credits and services, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the supplier's cost of the property sold or on account of any other expense incurred by the supplier. When a serviceman contracts out part or all of the services required in his sale of service, it shall be presumed that the cost price to the serviceman of the property transferred to him or her by his or her subcontractor is equal to 50% of the subcontractor's charges to the serviceman in the absence of proof of the consideration paid by the subcontractor for the purchase of such property.

"Selling price" means the consideration for a sale valued in money whether received in money or otherwise, including cash, credits and service, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the serviceman's cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used, labor or service cost or any other expense whatsoever, but does not include interest or finance charges which appear as separate items on the bill of sale or sales contract nor charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax that is imposed by this Act.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, and any receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Sale of service" means any transaction except:

(1) a retail sale of tangible personal property taxable under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Use Tax Act.

(2) a sale of tangible personal property for the purpose of resale made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(3) except as hereinafter provided, a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for or by any governmental body, or for or by any corporation, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes or any not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization which has no compensated officers or employees and which is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(4) (blank).

(4a) a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property which is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce so long as so used by interstate carriers for hire, and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(4a-5) on and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, a sale or transfer of a motor vehicle of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds as an incident to the rendering of service if that motor vehicle is subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(5) a sale or transfer of machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of the manufacturing or assembling, either in an existing, an expanded or a new manufacturing facility, of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether such sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether such sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in a service occupation and the applicable tax is a Service Use Tax or Service Occupation Tax, rather than Use Tax or Retailers' Occupation Tax. The exemption provided by this paragraph (5) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. The exemption under this paragraph (5) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(5a) the repairing, reconditioning or remodeling, for a common carrier by rail, of tangible personal property which belongs to such carrier for hire, and as to which such carrier receives the physical possession of the repaired, reconditioned or remodeled item of tangible personal property in Illinois, and which such carrier transports, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the person who repaired, reconditioned or remodeled the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(5b) a sale or transfer of tangible personal property which is produced by the seller thereof on special order in such a way as to have made the applicable tax the Service Occupation Tax or the Service Use Tax, rather than the Retailers' Occupation Tax or the Use Tax, for an interstate carrier by rail which receives the physical possession of such property in Illinois, and which transports such property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of such property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(6) until July 1, 2003, a sale or transfer of distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit and assembled or installed by the retailer, which machinery and equipment is certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of such user and not subject to sale or resale.

(7) at the election of any serviceman not required to be otherwise registered as a retailer under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, made for each fiscal year sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service. The purchase of such tangible personal property by the serviceman shall be subject to tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Use Tax Act. However, if a primary serviceman who has made the election described in this paragraph subcontracts service work to a secondary serviceman who has also made the election described in this paragraph, the primary serviceman does not incur a Use Tax liability if the secondary serviceman (i) has paid or will pay Use Tax on his or her cost price of any tangible personal property transferred to the primary serviceman and (ii) certifies that fact in writing to the primary serviceman.

Tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of a maintenance agreement is exempt from the tax imposed pursuant to this Act.

Exemption (5) also includes machinery and equipment used in the general maintenance or repair of such exempt machinery and equipment or for in-house manufacture of exempt machinery and equipment. On and after July 1, 2017, exemption (5) also includes graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (5) of Section 3-5. The machinery and equipment exemption does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. For the purposes of exemption (5), each of these terms shall have the following meanings: (1) "manufacturing process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabricating, or refining which changes some existing material or materials into a material with a different form, use or name. In relation to a recognized integrated business composed of a series of operations which collectively constitute manufacturing, or individually constitute manufacturing operations, the manufacturing process shall be deemed to commence with the first operation or stage of production in the series, and shall not be deemed to end until the completion of the final product in the last operation or stage of production in the series; and further, for purposes of exemption (5), photoprocessing is deemed to be a manufacturing process of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale; (2) "assembling process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by the combination of existing materials in a manner commonly regarded as assembling which results in a material of a different form, use or name; (3) "machinery" shall mean major mechanical machines or major components of such machines contributing to a manufacturing or assembling process; and (4) "equipment" shall include any independent device or tool separate from any machinery but essential to an integrated manufacturing or assembly process; including computers used primarily in a manufacturer's computer assisted design, computer assisted manufacturing (CAD/CAM) system; or any subunit or assembly comprising a component of any machinery or auxiliary, adjunct or attachment parts of machinery, such as tools, dies, jigs, fixtures, patterns and molds; or any parts which require periodic replacement in the course of normal operation; but shall not include hand tools. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a product being manufactured or assembled for wholesale or retail sale or lease. The purchaser of such machinery and equipment who has an active resale registration number shall furnish such number to the seller at the time of purchase. The user of such machinery and equipment and tools without an active resale registration number shall prepare a certificate of exemption for each transaction stating facts establishing the exemption for that transaction, which certificate shall be available to the Department for inspection or audit. The Department shall prescribe the form of the certificate.

Any informal rulings, opinions or letters issued by the Department in response to an inquiry or request for any opinion from any person regarding the coverage and applicability of exemption (5) to specific devices shall be published, maintained as a public record, and made available for public inspection and copying. If the informal ruling, opinion or letter contains trade secrets or other confidential information, where possible the Department shall delete such information prior to publication. Whenever such informal rulings, opinions, or letters contain any policy of general applicability, the Department shall formulate and adopt such policy as a rule in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

On and after July 1, 1987, no entity otherwise eligible under exemption (3) of this Section shall make tax-free tax free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

The purchase, employment and transfer of such tangible personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a purchase, use or sale of service or of tangible personal property within the meaning of this Act.

"Serviceman" means any person who is engaged in the occupation of making sales of service.

"Sale at retail" means "sale at retail" as defined in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

"Supplier" means any person who makes sales of tangible personal property to servicemen for the purpose of resale as an incident to a sale of service.

"Serviceman maintaining a place of business in this State", or any like term, means and includes any serviceman:

1. having or maintaining within this State, directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house, sales house, warehouse or other place of business, or any agent or other representative operating within this State under the authority of the serviceman or its subsidiary, irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or other representative is located here permanently or temporarily, or whether such serviceman or subsidiary is licensed to do business in this State;

1.1. having a contract with a person located in this State under which the person, for a commission or other consideration based on the sale of service by the serviceman, directly or indirectly refers potential customers to the serviceman by providing to the potential customers a promotional code or other mechanism that allows the serviceman to track purchases referred by such persons. Examples of mechanisms that allow the serviceman to track purchases referred by such persons include but are not limited to the use of a link on the person's Internet website, promotional codes distributed through the person's hand-delivered or mailed material, and promotional codes distributed by the person through radio or other broadcast media. The provisions of this paragraph 1.1 shall apply only if the cumulative gross receipts from sales of service by the serviceman to customers who are referred to the serviceman by all persons in this State under such contracts exceed $10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December; a serviceman meeting the requirements of this paragraph 1.1 shall be presumed to be maintaining a place of business in this State but may rebut this presumption by submitting proof that the referrals or other activities pursued within this State by such persons were not sufficient to meet the nexus standards of the United States Constitution during the preceding 4 quarterly periods;

1.2. beginning July 1, 2011, having a contract with a person located in this State under which:

A. the serviceman sells the same or substantially similar line of services as the person located in this State and does so using an identical or substantially similar name, trade name, or trademark as the person located in this State; and

B. the serviceman provides a commission or other consideration to the person located in this State based upon the sale of services by the serviceman.

The provisions of this paragraph 1.2 shall apply only if the cumulative gross receipts from sales of service by the serviceman to customers in this State under all such contracts exceed $10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of March, June, September, and December;

2. soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of a telecommunication or television shopping system (which utilizes toll free numbers) which is intended by the retailer to be broadcast by cable television or other means of broadcasting, to consumers located in this State;

3. pursuant to a contract with a broadcaster or publisher located in this State, soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of advertising which is disseminated primarily to consumers located in this State and only secondarily to bordering jurisdictions;

4. soliciting orders for tangible personal property by mail if the solicitations are substantial and recurring and if the retailer benefits from any banking, financing, debt collection, telecommunication, or marketing activities occurring in this State or benefits from the location in this State of authorized installation, servicing, or repair facilities;

5. being owned or controlled by the same interests which own or control any retailer engaging in business in the same or similar line of business in this State;

6. having a franchisee or licensee operating under its trade name if the franchisee or licensee is required to collect the tax under this Section;

7. pursuant to a contract with a cable television operator located in this State, soliciting orders for tangible personal property by means of advertising which is transmitted or distributed over a cable television system in this State; or

8. engaging in activities in Illinois, which activities in the state in which the supply business engaging in such activities is located would constitute maintaining a place of business in that state.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-321, eff. 8-24-17; revised 9-27-17.)

(35 ILCS 110/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.39)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A serviceman need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to pay and does pay the tax imposed by the Service Occupation Tax Act with respect to his sale of service involving the incidental transfer by him of the same property.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable Rules and Regulations to be promulgated by the Department. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. On and after January 1, 2018, with respect to servicemen whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Servicemen who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, retailers' occupation tax or use tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any serviceman filing a return hereunder shall also include the total tax upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased for use by him as an incident to a sale of service, and such serviceman shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Service Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration hereunder, such serviceman shall not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices, by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property, other than tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, this Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; revised 1-22-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final. A serviceman need not remit that part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is required to pay and does pay the tax imposed by the Service Occupation Tax Act with respect to his sale of service involving the incidental transfer by him of the same property.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable Rules and Regulations to be promulgated by the Department. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. On and after January 1, 2018, with respect to servicemen whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Servicemen who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, retailers' occupation tax or use tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

Any serviceman filing a return hereunder shall also include the total tax upon the selling price of tangible personal property purchased for use by him as an incident to a sale of service, and such serviceman shall remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such return.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Service Occupation Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by both Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registration hereunder, such serviceman shall not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in the State Treasury, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices, by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property, other than tangible personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's government.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, this Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; 100-363, eff. 7-1-18; revised 1-22-18.)

Section 210. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 9 as follows:

(35 ILCS 115/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.102)

Sec. 2. In this Act:

"Transfer" means any transfer of the title to property or of the ownership of property whether or not the transferor retains title as security for the payment of amounts due him from the transferee.

"Cost Price" means the consideration paid by the serviceman for a purchase valued in money, whether paid in money or otherwise, including cash, credits and services, and shall be determined without any deduction on account of the supplier's cost of the property sold or on account of any other expense incurred by the supplier. When a serviceman contracts out part or all of the services required in his sale of service, it shall be presumed that the cost price to the serviceman of the property transferred to him by his or her subcontractor is equal to 50% of the subcontractor's charges to the serviceman in the absence of proof of the consideration paid by the subcontractor for the purchase of such property.

"Department" means the Department of Revenue.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint venture, public or private corporation, limited liability company, and any receiver, executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed by order of any court.

"Sale of Service" means any transaction except:

(a) A retail sale of tangible personal property taxable under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Use Tax Act.

(b) A sale of tangible personal property for the purpose of resale made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

(c) Except as hereinafter provided, a sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for or by any governmental body or for or by any corporation, society, association, foundation or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious or educational purposes or any not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution or organization which has no compensated officers or employees and which is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes.

(d) (Blank).

(d-1) A sale or transfer of tangible personal property as an incident to the rendering of service for owners, lessors or shippers of tangible personal property which is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce, and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(d-1.1) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, a sale or transfer of a motor vehicle of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds as an incident to the rendering of service if that motor vehicle is subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(d-2) The repairing, reconditioning or remodeling, for a common carrier by rail, of tangible personal property which belongs to such carrier for hire, and as to which such carrier receives the physical possession of the repaired, reconditioned or remodeled item of tangible personal property in Illinois, and which such carrier transports, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the person who repaired, reconditioned or remodeled the property as the shipper or consignor of such property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(d-3) A sale or transfer of tangible personal property which is produced by the seller thereof on special order in such a way as to have made the applicable tax the Service Occupation Tax or the Service Use Tax, rather than the Retailers' Occupation Tax or the Use Tax, for an interstate carrier by rail which receives the physical possession of such property in Illinois, and which transports such property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of such property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of such property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(d-4) Until January 1, 1997, a sale, by a registered serviceman paying tax under this Act to the Department, of special order printed materials delivered outside Illinois and which are not returned to this State, if delivery is made by the seller or agent of the seller, including an agent who causes the product to be delivered outside Illinois by a common carrier or the U.S. postal service.

(e) A sale or transfer of machinery and equipment used primarily in the process of the manufacturing or assembling, either in an existing, an expanded or a new manufacturing facility, of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether such sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether such sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in a service occupation and the applicable tax is a Service Occupation Tax or Service Use Tax, rather than Retailers' Occupation Tax or Use Tax. The exemption provided by this paragraph (e) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. The exemption under this subsection (e) is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

(f) Until July 1, 2003, the sale or transfer of distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit and assembled or installed by the retailer, which machinery and equipment is certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of such user and not subject to sale or resale.

(g) At the election of any serviceman not required to be otherwise registered as a retailer under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, made for each fiscal year sales of service in which the aggregate annual cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an incident to the sales of service is less than 35% (75% in the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or servicemen engaged in graphic arts production) of the aggregate annual total gross receipts from all sales of service. The purchase of such tangible personal property by the serviceman shall be subject to tax under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and the Use Tax Act. However, if a primary serviceman who has made the election described in this paragraph subcontracts service work to a secondary serviceman who has also made the election described in this paragraph, the primary serviceman does not incur a Use Tax liability if the secondary serviceman (i) has paid or will pay Use Tax on his or her cost price of any tangible personal property transferred to the primary serviceman and (ii) certifies that fact in writing to the primary serviceman.

Tangible personal property transferred incident to the completion of a maintenance agreement is exempt from the tax imposed pursuant to this Act.

Exemption (e) also includes machinery and equipment used in the general maintenance or repair of such exempt machinery and equipment or for in-house manufacture of exempt machinery and equipment. On and after July 1, 2017, exemption (e) also includes graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (5) of Section 3-5. The machinery and equipment exemption does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. For the purposes of exemption (e), each of these terms shall have the following meanings: (1) "manufacturing process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by procedures commonly regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabricating, or refining which changes some existing material or materials into a material with a different form, use or name. In relation to a recognized integrated business composed of a series of operations which collectively constitute manufacturing, or individually constitute manufacturing operations, the manufacturing process shall be deemed to commence with the first operation or stage of production in the series, and shall not be deemed to end until the completion of the final product in the last operation or stage of production in the series; and further for purposes of exemption (e), photoprocessing is deemed to be a manufacturing process of tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale; (2) "assembling process" shall mean the production of any article of tangible personal property, whether such article is a finished product or an article for use in the process of manufacturing or assembling a different article of tangible personal property, by the combination of existing materials in a manner commonly regarded as assembling which results in a material of a different form, use or name; (3) "machinery" shall mean major mechanical machines or major components of such machines contributing to a manufacturing or assembling process; and (4) "equipment" shall include any independent device or tool separate from any machinery but essential to an integrated manufacturing or assembly process; including computers used primarily in a manufacturer's computer assisted design, computer assisted manufacturing (CAD/CAM) system; or any subunit or assembly comprising a component of any machinery or auxiliary, adjunct or attachment parts of machinery, such as tools, dies, jigs, fixtures, patterns and molds; or any parts which require periodic replacement in the course of normal operation; but shall not include hand tools. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a product being manufactured or assembled for wholesale or retail sale or lease. The purchaser of such machinery and equipment who has an active resale registration number shall furnish such number to the seller at the time of purchase. The purchaser of such machinery and equipment and tools without an active resale registration number shall furnish to the seller a certificate of exemption for each transaction stating facts establishing the exemption for that transaction, which certificate shall be available to the Department for inspection or audit.

Except as provided in Section 2d of this Act, the rolling stock exemption applies to rolling stock used by an interstate carrier for hire, even just between points in Illinois, if such rolling stock transports, for hire, persons whose journeys or property whose shipments originate or terminate outside Illinois.

Any informal rulings, opinions or letters issued by the Department in response to an inquiry or request for any opinion from any person regarding the coverage and applicability of exemption (e) to specific devices shall be published, maintained as a public record, and made available for public inspection and copying. If the informal ruling, opinion or letter contains trade secrets or other confidential information, where possible the Department shall delete such information prior to publication. Whenever such informal rulings, opinions, or letters contain any policy of general applicability, the Department shall formulate and adopt such policy as a rule in accordance with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

On and after July 1, 1987, no entity otherwise eligible under exemption (c) of this Section shall make tax-free tax free purchases unless it has an active exemption identification number issued by the Department.

"Serviceman" means any person who is engaged in the occupation of making sales of service.

"Sale at Retail" means "sale at retail" as defined in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.

"Supplier" means any person who makes sales of tangible personal property to servicemen for the purpose of resale as an incident to a sale of service.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-321, eff. 8-24-17; revised 9-27-17.)

(35 ILCS 115/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.109)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collectible, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the serviceman, in collecting the tax may collect, for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to the part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be promulgated by the Department of Revenue. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. On and after January 1, 2018, with respect to servicemen whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Servicemen who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a serviceman may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Service Use Tax as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted prior to October 1, 2003 or on or after September 1, 2004 by a serviceman as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act, may be used by that serviceman to satisfy Service Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, Retailers' Occupation Tax or Use Tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by all said Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations hereunder, such serviceman shall file separate returns for each registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, this Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the taxpayer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the taxpayer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The taxpayer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the taxpayer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, cost of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the taxpayer during such year, pay roll information of the taxpayer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such taxpayer as hereinbefore provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return shall not apply to a serviceman who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, it shall be permissible for manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold by numerous servicemen in Illinois, and who wish to do so, to assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the servicemen who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; revised 10-31-17)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount of such tax at the time when he is required to file his return for the period during which such tax was collectible, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Where such tangible personal property is sold under a conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is filed, the serviceman, in collecting the tax may collect, for each tax return period, only the tax applicable to the part of the selling price actually received during such tax return period.

Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be promulgated by the Department of Revenue. Such return shall be filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such information as the Department may reasonably require. On and after January 1, 2018, with respect to servicemen whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Servicemen who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due;

5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a serviceman may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Service Use Tax as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted prior to October 1, 2003 or on or after September 1, 2004 by a serviceman as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act, may be used by that serviceman to satisfy Service Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than 1 month after discontinuing such business.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, Retailers' Occupation Tax or Use Tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, to furnish all the return information required by all said Acts on the one form.

Where the serviceman has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations hereunder, such serviceman shall file separate returns for each registered business.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on transfers of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, this Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided, that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the taxpayer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the taxpayer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The taxpayer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the taxpayer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, cost of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the taxpayer during such year, pay roll information of the taxpayer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such taxpayer as hereinbefore provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return shall not apply to a serviceman who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, it shall be permissible for manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold by numerous servicemen in Illinois, and who wish to do so, to assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the servicemen who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; 100-363, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-31-17.)

Section 215. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended by changing Sections 2-5, 2a, and 3 as follows:

(35 ILCS 120/2-5)

Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:

(1) Farm chemicals.

(2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or State or federal agricultural programs, including individual replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the tender is separately stated.

Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders, or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors, software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other such equipment.

Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers, sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the computer-assisted operation of production agriculture facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.

(4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1, 2004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, and including that manufactured on special order or purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a graphic arts product. Beginning on July 1, 2017, graphic arts machinery and equipment is included in the manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment exemption under paragraph (14).

(5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school located in Illinois.

(7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.

(8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the county fair.

(9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is organized and operated primarily for the presentation or support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or services. These organizations include, but are not limited to, music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations, and media arts organizations. On and after July 1, 2001 (the effective date of Public Act 92-35) this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however, an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization, other than a limited liability company, that is organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale by the enterprise.

(11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or organization that has no compensated officers or employees and that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the limited liability company is organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1, 1987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification number issued by the Department.

(12) (Blank).

(12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004, motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.

(13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.

(14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar items of no commercial value on special order for a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583 are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this exemption. Beginning on July 1, 2017, the exemption provided by this paragraph (14) includes, but is not limited to, graphic arts machinery and equipment, as defined in paragraph (4) of this Section.

(15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with respect to which the service charge is imposed.

(16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the purchaser.

(17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the property in Illinois and that transports the property, or shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use outside Illinois.

(18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the United States of America, or the government of any foreign country, and bullion.

(19) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs, rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any individual replacement part for oil field exploration, drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

(21) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767 apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456) for such taxes paid during the period beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-456).

(22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined for or returning from a location or locations outside the United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic stopovers.

Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at least one individual or package for hire from the city of origination to the city of final destination on the same aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of that aircraft.

(23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.

(24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships, barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while it is afloat upon that bordering river.

(25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State, and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

(25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois. The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state that does not allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from this state following the filing of an intent to title the vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30 days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general rate imposed under this Act.

(25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after the later of either the issuance of the final billing for the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for return to service, completion of the maintenance record entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;

(2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this State after the sale of the aircraft; and

(3) the seller retains in his or her books and records and provides to the Department a signed and dated certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by the Department, certifying that the requirements of this item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the name and address of the purchaser, the address of the location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered, the address of the primary physical location of the aircraft, and other information that the Department may reasonably require.

For purposes of this item (25-7):

"Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.

"Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division, or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation Administration to an address located in this State.

This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock for direct agricultural production.

(27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item (27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).

(28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.

(30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster who reside within the declared disaster area.

(31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads, bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer line extensions, water distribution and purification facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.

(32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department to be organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation, limited liability company, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools, private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful branches of learning by methods common to public schools and that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical, industrial, business, or commercial occupation.

(34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property, including food, purchased through fundraising events for the benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school, a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from another individual or entity that sold the property for the purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial, coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016, food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.

(36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption identification number by the Department under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or (ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other tangible personal property to be transported outside this State and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the Department who is eligible for the exemption under this paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38) shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all necessary books and records to substantiate the use and consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of the State of Illinois.

(39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property used in the construction or maintenance of a community water supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts, equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective films. This exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish, complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 are declarative of existing law.

(41) Tangible personal property sold to a public-facilities corporation, as described in Section 11-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is transferred to the municipality without any further consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with the development of the municipal convention hall. This exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(42) Beginning January 1, 2017, menstrual pads, tampons, and menstrual cups.

(43) Merchandise that is subject to the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax. The purchaser must certify that the item is purchased to be rented subject to a rental purchase agreement, as defined in the Rental Purchase Agreement Act, and provide proof of registration under the Rental Purchase Agreement Occupation and Use Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-855, eff. 8-19-16; 100-22, eff. 7-6-17; 100-321, eff. 8-24-17; 100-437, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-26-17.)

(35 ILCS 120/2a) (from Ch. 120, par. 441a)

Sec. 2a. It is unlawful for any person to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State without a certificate of registration from the Department. Application for a certificate of registration shall be made to the Department upon forms furnished by it. Each such application shall be signed and verified and shall state: (1) the name and social security number of the applicant; (2) the address of his principal place of business; (3) the address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State and the addresses of all other places of business, if any (enumerating such addresses, if any, in a separate list attached to and made a part of the application), from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State; (4) the name and address of the person or persons who will be responsible for filing returns and payment of taxes due under this Act; (5) in the case of a publicly traded corporation, the name and title of the Chief Financial Officer, Chief Operating Officer, and any other officer or employee with responsibility for preparing tax returns under this Act, and, in the case of all other corporations, the name, title, and social security number of each corporate officer; (6) in the case of a limited liability company, the name, social security number, and FEIN number of each manager and member; and (7) such other information as the Department may reasonably require. The application shall contain an acceptance of responsibility signed by the person or persons who will be responsible for filing returns and payment of the taxes due under this Act. If the applicant will sell tangible personal property at retail through vending machines, his application to register shall indicate the number of vending machines to be so operated. If requested by the Department at any time, that person shall verify the total number of vending machines he or she uses in his or her business of selling tangible personal property at retail.

The Department may deny a certificate of registration to any applicant if a person who is named as the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant on the application for the certificate of registration is or has been named as the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer on the application for the certificate of registration of another retailer that is in default for moneys due under this Act or any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department. For purposes of this paragraph only, in determining whether a person is in default for moneys due, the Department shall include only amounts established as a final liability within the 20 years prior to the date of the Department's notice of denial of a certificate of registration.

The Department may require an applicant for a certificate of registration hereunder to, at the time of filing such application, furnish a bond from a surety company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois, or an irrevocable bank letter of credit or a bond signed by 2 personal sureties who have filed, with the Department, sworn statements disclosing net assets equal to at least 3 times the amount of the bond to be required of such applicant, or a bond secured by an assignment of a bank account or certificate of deposit, stocks or bonds, conditioned upon the applicant paying to the State of Illinois all moneys becoming due under this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution. In making a determination as to whether to require a bond or other security, the Department shall take into consideration whether the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of another retailer that is in default for moneys due under this Act or any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department; and whether the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer of another retailer whose certificate of registration has been revoked within the previous 5 years under this Act or any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department. If a bond or other security is required, the Department shall fix the amount of the bond or other security, taking into consideration the amount of money expected to become due from the applicant under this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance, or resolution. The amount of security required by the Department shall be such as, in its opinion, will protect the State of Illinois against failure to pay the amount which may become due from the applicant under this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution, but the amount of the security required by the Department shall not exceed three times the amount of the applicant's average monthly tax liability, or $50,000.00, whichever amount is lower.

No certificate of registration under this Act shall be issued by the Department until the applicant provides the Department with satisfactory security, if required, as herein provided for.

Upon receipt of the application for certificate of registration in proper form, and upon approval by the Department of the security furnished by the applicant, if required, the Department shall issue to such applicant a certificate of registration which shall permit the person to whom it is issued to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State. The certificate of registration shall be conspicuously displayed at the place of business which the person so registered states in his application to be the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State.

No certificate of registration issued prior to July 1, 2017 to a taxpayer who files returns required by this Act on a monthly basis or renewed prior to July 1, 2017 by a taxpayer who files returns required by this Act on a monthly basis shall be valid after the expiration of 5 years from the date of its issuance or last renewal. No certificate of registration issued on or after July 1, 2017 to a taxpayer who files returns required by this Act on a monthly basis or renewed on or after July 1, 2017 by a taxpayer who files returns required by this Act on a monthly basis shall be valid after the expiration of one year from the date of its issuance or last renewal. The expiration date of a sub-certificate of registration shall be that of the certificate of registration to which the sub-certificate relates. Prior to July 1, 2017, a certificate of registration shall automatically be renewed, subject to revocation as provided by this Act, for an additional 5 years from the date of its expiration unless otherwise notified by the Department as provided by this paragraph. On and after July 1, 2017, a certificate of registration shall automatically be renewed, subject to revocation as provided by this Act, for an additional one year from the date of its expiration unless otherwise notified by the Department as provided by this paragraph.

Where a taxpayer to whom a certificate of registration is issued under this Act is in default to the State of Illinois for delinquent returns or for moneys due under this Act or any other State tax law or municipal or county ordinance administered or enforced by the Department, the Department shall, not less than 60 days before the expiration date of such certificate of registration, give notice to the taxpayer to whom the certificate was issued of the account period of the delinquent returns, the amount of tax, penalty and interest due and owing from the taxpayer, and that the certificate of registration shall not be automatically renewed upon its expiration date unless the taxpayer, on or before the date of expiration, has filed and paid the delinquent returns or paid the defaulted amount in full. A taxpayer to whom such a notice is issued shall be deemed an applicant for renewal. The Department shall promulgate regulations establishing procedures for taxpayers who file returns on a monthly basis but desire and qualify to change to a quarterly or yearly filing basis and will no longer be subject to renewal under this Section, and for taxpayers who file returns on a yearly or quarterly basis but who desire or are required to change to a monthly filing basis and will be subject to renewal under this Section.

The Department may in its discretion approve renewal by an applicant who is in default if, at the time of application for renewal, the applicant files all of the delinquent returns or pays to the Department such percentage of the defaulted amount as may be determined by the Department and agrees in writing to waive all limitations upon the Department for collection of the remaining defaulted amount to the Department over a period not to exceed 5 years from the date of renewal of the certificate; however, no renewal application submitted by an applicant who is in default shall be approved if the immediately preceding renewal by the applicant was conditioned upon the installment payment agreement described in this Section. The payment agreement herein provided for shall be in addition to and not in lieu of the security that may be required by this Section of a taxpayer who is no longer considered a prior continuous compliance taxpayer. The execution of the payment agreement as provided in this Act shall not toll the accrual of interest at the statutory rate.

The Department may suspend a certificate of registration if the Department finds that the person to whom the certificate of registration has been issued knowingly sold contraband cigarettes.

A certificate of registration issued under this Act more than 5 years before January 1, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-383) this amendatory Act of 1989 shall expire and be subject to the renewal provisions of this Section on the next anniversary of the date of issuance of such certificate which occurs more than 6 months after January 1, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-383) this amendatory Act of 1989. A certificate of registration issued less than 5 years before January 1, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-383) this amendatory Act of 1989 shall expire and be subject to the renewal provisions of this Section on the 5th anniversary of the issuance of the certificate.

If the person so registered states that he operates other places of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State, the Department shall furnish him with a sub-certificate of registration for each such place of business, and the applicant shall display the appropriate sub-certificate of registration at each such place of business. All sub-certificates of registration shall bear the same registration number as that appearing upon the certificate of registration to which such sub-certificates relate.

If the applicant will sell tangible personal property at retail through vending machines, the Department shall furnish him with a sub-certificate of registration for each such vending machine, and the applicant shall display the appropriate sub-certificate of registration on each such vending machine by attaching the sub-certificate of registration to a conspicuous part of such vending machine. If a person who is registered to sell tangible personal property at retail through vending machines adds an additional vending machine or additional vending machines to the number of vending machines he or she uses in his or her business of selling tangible personal property at retail, he or she shall notify the Department, on a form prescribed by the Department, to request an additional sub-certificate or additional sub-certificates of registration, as applicable. With each such request, the applicant shall report the number of sub-certificates of registration he or she is requesting as well as the total number of vending machines from which he or she makes retail sales.

Where the same person engages in 2 or more businesses of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State, which businesses are substantially different in character or engaged in under different trade names or engaged in under other substantially dissimilar circumstances (so that it is more practicable, from an accounting, auditing or bookkeeping standpoint, for such businesses to be separately registered), the Department may require or permit such person (subject to the same requirements concerning the furnishing of security as those that are provided for hereinbefore in this Section as to each application for a certificate of registration) to apply for and obtain a separate certificate of registration for each such business or for any of such businesses, under a single certificate of registration supplemented by related sub-certificates of registration.

Any person who is registered under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" as of March 8, 1963, and who, during the 3-year period immediately prior to March 8, 1963, or during a continuous 3-year period part of which passed immediately before and the remainder of which passes immediately after March 8, 1963, has been so registered continuously and who is determined by the Department not to have been either delinquent or deficient in the payment of tax liability during that period under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the registrant under this Act will permit the registrant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution, shall be considered to be a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer. Also any taxpayer who has, as verified by the Department, faithfully and continuously complied with the condition of his bond or other security under the provisions of this Act for a period of 3 consecutive years shall be considered to be a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer.

Every Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer shall be exempt from all requirements under this Act concerning the furnishing of a bond or other security as a condition precedent to his being authorized to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State. This exemption shall continue for each such taxpayer until such time as he may be determined by the Department to be delinquent in the filing of any returns, or is determined by the Department (either through the Department's issuance of a final assessment which has become final under the Act, or by the taxpayer's filing of a return which admits tax that is not paid to be due) to be delinquent or deficient in the paying of any tax under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the registrant under this Act will permit the registrant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution, at which time that taxpayer shall become subject to all the financial responsibility requirements of this Act and, as a condition of being allowed to continue to engage in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail, may be required to post bond or other acceptable security with the Department covering liability which such taxpayer may thereafter incur. Any taxpayer who fails to pay an admitted or established liability under this Act may also be required to post bond or other acceptable security with this Department guaranteeing the payment of such admitted or established liability.

No certificate of registration shall be issued to any person who is in default to the State of Illinois for moneys due under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution.

Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department under this Section may, within 20 days after notice of such decision, protest and request a hearing, whereupon the Department shall give notice to such person of the time and place fixed for such hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its final administrative decision in the matter to such person. In the absence of such a protest within 20 days, the Department's decision shall become final without any further determination being made or notice given.

With respect to security other than bonds (upon which the Department may sue in the event of a forfeiture), if the taxpayer fails to pay, when due, any amount whose payment such security guarantees, the Department shall, after such liability is admitted by the taxpayer or established by the Department through the issuance of a final assessment that has become final under the law, convert the security which that taxpayer has furnished into money for the State, after first giving the taxpayer at least 10 days' written notice, by registered or certified mail, to pay the liability or forfeit such security to the Department. If the security consists of stocks or bonds or other securities which are listed on a public exchange, the Department shall sell such securities through such public exchange. If the security consists of an irrevocable bank letter of credit, the Department shall convert the security in the manner provided for in the Uniform Commercial Code. If the security consists of a bank certificate of deposit, the Department shall convert the security into money by demanding and collecting the amount of such bank certificate of deposit from the bank which issued such certificate. If the security consists of a type of stocks or other securities which are not listed on a public exchange, the Department shall sell such security to the highest and best bidder after giving at least 10 days' notice of the date, time and place of the intended sale by publication in the "State Official Newspaper". If the Department realizes more than the amount of such liability from the security, plus the expenses incurred by the Department in converting the security into money, the Department shall pay such excess to the taxpayer who furnished such security, and the balance shall be paid into the State Treasury.

The Department shall discharge any surety and shall release and return any security deposited, assigned, pledged or otherwise provided to it by a taxpayer under this Section within 30 days after:

(1) such taxpayer becomes a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer; or

(2) such taxpayer has ceased to collect receipts on which he is required to remit tax to the Department, has filed a final tax return, and has paid to the Department an amount sufficient to discharge his remaining tax liability, as determined by the Department, under this Act and under every other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of registration issued under this Act permits the registrant to engage in business without registering separately under such other law, ordinance or resolution. The Department shall make a final determination of the taxpayer's outstanding tax liability as expeditiously as possible after his final tax return has been filed; if the Department cannot make such final determination within 45 days after receiving the final tax return, within such period it shall so notify the taxpayer, stating its reasons therefor.

(Source: P.A. 100-302, eff. 8-24-17; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchaser Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to September 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-221), each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993: and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-363)

Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a return with the Department, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. His residence address and the address of his principal place of business and the address of the principal place of business (if that is a different address) from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be, from sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or quarter;

4. Total amount received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of tangible personal property, and from services furnished, by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return is filed;

5. Deductions allowed by law;

6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of which the tax is imposed;

7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

8. The amount of tax due;

9. The signature of the taxpayer; and

10. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

On and after January 1, 2018, except for returns for motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, with respect to retailers whose annual gross receipts average $20,000 or more, all returns required to be filed pursuant to this Act shall be filed electronically. Retailers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement.

If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department, the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is claimed.

Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1, 2004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003 and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchaser Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.

The Department may require returns to be filed on a quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:

1. The name of the seller;

2. The address of the principal place of business from which he engages in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in this State;

3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible personal property by him during such preceding calendar month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed by law;

4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this Act;

5. The amount of tax due; and

6. Such other reasonable information as the Department may require.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer, as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month and such other information as is reasonably required by the Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the Liquor Control Act of 1934.

Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax registration number; and such other information reasonably required by the Department. A distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred. The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales information by electronic means, the distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail, or facsimile.

If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than 50 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.

Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year. The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic funds transfer.

Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.

Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer with the permission of the Department.

All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments in the manner authorized by the Department.

The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the requirements of this Section.

Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is less than 50 cents.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the return for January, February and March of a given year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with the return for July, August and September of a given year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for October, November and December of a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.

Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly returns.

Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act, such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the Department not more than one month after discontinuing such business.

Where the same person has more than one business registered with the Department under separate registrations under this Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a single return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file separate returns for each such registered business.

In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of tangible personal property shall file, with the Department, upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a separate return for each such item of tangible personal property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that transaction to the Department on the same uniform invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped with an inboard motor.

Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required to file returns on an annual basis.

The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient identification of the property sold; such other information as is required in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other information as the Department may reasonably require.

Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if titling or registration is required) if the Department and such agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such tangible personal property.

No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the mandate of this paragraph.

If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit the information required by the transaction reporting return and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption determination, in which event the transaction reporting return and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act with respect to such receipts.

Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president, vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly accredited agent of such corporation.

Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of the limited liability company.

Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. Any prepayment made pursuant to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when such retailer files his periodic return. The discount allowed under this Section is allowed only for returns that are filed in the manner required by this Act. The Department may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of registration has become final.

Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month next following the month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or an amount set by the Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar monthly basis.

The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to September 1, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-221), each payment shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October 1, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments previously due.

If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the credit taken and that actually due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such difference.

If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability to the Department under this Act for the month which the taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances, products classified as Class III medical devices by the United States Food and Drug Administration that are used for cancer treatment pursuant to a prescription, as well as any accessories and components related to those devices, and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of sales tax holiday items.

Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that are now taxed at 6.25%.

Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total payment into the Clean Air Act Permit Fund under this Act and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this paragraph.

Beginning July 1, 2015, of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and this Act, each month the Department shall deposit $500,000 into the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the "Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for fiscal years 1986 through 1993: and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.

Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection (g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits required under this Section for previous months and years, shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit", has been deposited.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30, 2013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the 6.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, and the Energy Infrastructure Fund pursuant to the preceding paragraphs or in any amendments to this Section hereafter enacted, beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1098), each month, from the collections made under Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the Department of Revenue, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of 80% of the cash receipts collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau of the Department under the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and associated local occupation and use taxes administered by the Department.

Subject to payments of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund, the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund, the Illinois Tax Increment Fund, the Energy Infrastructure Fund, and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund as provided in this Section, beginning on July 1, 2018 the Department shall pay each month into the Downstate Public Transportation Fund the moneys required to be so paid under Section 2-3 of the Downstate Public Transportation Act.

Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.

The Department may, upon separate written notice to a taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual information return for the tax year specified in the notice. Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the retailer during such year, payroll information of the retailer's business during such year and any additional reasonable information which the Department deems would be helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in this Section.

If the annual information return required by this Section is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable as follows:

(i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by the annual return for each month or fraction of a month until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be assessed and collected in the same manner as any other penalty provided for in this Act.

(ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.

The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who willfully signs the annual return containing false or inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the Department shall include a warning that the person signing the return may be liable for perjury.

The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not required to file an income tax return with the United States Government.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.

Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for overpayment of liability.

For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written objection to the Department to this arrangement.

Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs, local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's business, the name of the person or persons engaged in merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant, the dates and location of the event and other reasonable information that the Department may require. The report must be filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following the month during which the event with retail sales was held. Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to exceed $250.

Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall impose this requirement when it finds that there is a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of this requirement. In the absence of notification by the Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file their returns as otherwise required in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 8-12-15; 99-858, eff. 8-19-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; 100-363, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-27-17.)

Section 220. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-172, 21-95, and 21-265 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007;

(5) $55,000 in taxable years 2008 through 2016;

(6) for taxable year 2017, (i) $65,000 for qualified property located in a county with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants and (ii) $55,000 for qualified property located in a county with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants; and

(7) for taxable years 2018 and thereafter, $65,000 for all qualified property.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for taxable year 2017 and thereafter, in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption shall be the greater of (i) the amount of the exemption otherwise calculated under this Section or (ii) $2,000.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-401, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-25-17.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-95)

Sec. 21-95. Tax abatement after acquisition by a governmental unit. When any county, municipality, school district, forest preserve district, or park district acquires property through the foreclosure of a lien, through a judicial deed, through the foreclosure of receivership certificate lien, or by acceptance of a deed of conveyance in lieu of foreclosing any lien against the property, or when a government unit acquires property under the Abandoned Housing Rehabilitation Act or a blight reduction or abandoned property program administered by the Illinois Housing Development Authority, or when any county or other taxing district acquires a deed for property under Section 21-90 or Sections 21-145 and 21-260, or when any county, municipality, school district, forest preserve district, or park district acquires title to property that was to be transferred to that county, municipality, school district, forest preserve district, or park district under the terms of an annexation agreement, development agreement, donation agreement, plat of subdivision, or zoning ordinance by an entity that has been dissolved or is being dissolved or has been in bankruptcy proceedings or is in bankruptcy proceedings, all due or unpaid property taxes and existing liens for unpaid property taxes imposed or pending under any law or ordinance of this State or any of its political subdivisions shall become null and void.

(Source: P.A. 100-314; eff. 8-24-17; 100-445, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

(35 ILCS 200/21-265)

Sec. 21-265. Scavenger sale; persons ineligible to bid or purchase. (a) No person, except a unit of local government, shall be eligible to bid or receive a certificate of purchase at any sale under Section 21-260 unless that person has completed and delivered to the county clerk a true, accurate and complete application for certificate of purchase which shall affirm that:

(1) the person has not bid upon or applied to purchase any property at the sale for a person who is the party or agent of the party who owns the property or is responsible for the payment of the delinquent taxes;

(2) the person is not, nor is he or she the agent for, the owner or party responsible for payment of the general taxes on any property which is located in the same county in which the sale is held and which is tax delinquent or forfeited for all or any part of each of 2 or more years, excepting any year for which a certificate of error issued under Sections 14-15, 14-20, and 14-25 is pending for adjudication; and

(3) the person, although otherwise eligible to bid, has not either directly or through an agent twice during the same sale failed to complete a purchase by the immediate payment of the minimum bid or the payment of the balance of a bid within the time provided by Section 21-260.

(Source: P.A. 86-949; 87-669; 88-455; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 225. The Mobile Home Local Services Tax Enforcement Act is amended by changing Section 205 as follows:

(35 ILCS 516/205)

Sec. 205. Scavenger sale; persons ineligible to bid or purchase. (a) No person, except a unit of local government, shall be eligible to bid or receive a certificate of purchase at any sale under Section 200 unless that person has completed and delivered to the county clerk a true, accurate, and complete application for certificate of purchase which shall affirm that:

(1) the person has not bid upon or applied to purchase any mobile home at the sale for a person who is the party or agent of the party who owns the mobile home or is responsible for the payment of the delinquent taxes;

(2) the person is not, nor is he or she the agent for, the owner or party responsible for payment of the taxes on any mobile home which is located in the same county in which the sale is held and which is tax delinquent or forfeited for all or any part of each of 2 or more years; and

(3) the person, although otherwise eligible to bid, has not either directly or through an agent twice during the same sale failed to complete a purchase by the immediate payment of the minimum bid or the payment of the balance of a bid within the time provided by Section 200.

(Source: P.A. 92-807, eff. 1-1-03; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 230. The Water Company Invested Capital Tax Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(35 ILCS 625/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 1412)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Section, the following words and phrases shall have the meanings ascribed herein unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

"Department" means the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

"Director" means the Director of Revenue for the Department of Revenue of the State of Illinois.

"Taxpayer" means a person engaged in the business of distributing, supplying, furnishing or selling water for use or consumption and not for resale or distributing, supplying, furnishing or selling water for use or consumption and providing sewerage disposal service.

"Person" means any natural individual, firm, trust, estate, partnership, association, joint stock company, joint adventure, corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver, trustee, conservator or other representative appointed by order of any court, or any city, town, county or other political subdivision of this State.

"Water company" means and includes every corporation, company, association, joint stock company or association, firm, partnership or individual, their lessees, trustees, or receivers appointed by any court whatsoever that is regulated by the Illinois Commerce Commission under the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as amended, and that owns, controls, operates, or manages, within this State, directly or indirectly, for public use, any plant, equipment or property used or to be used for or in connection with, or owns or controls any franchise, license, permit or right to engage in:

(A) the production, storage, transmission, sale, delivery or furnishing of water; or

(B) the production, storage, transmission, sale, delivery or furnishing of water and the disposal of sewerage.

"Water company" does not include, however, water companies, as defined in this Section, that are owned and operated by any political subdivision or municipal corporation of this State, or owned by such political subdivision or municipal corporation and operated by any of its lessees or operating agents, or which are purely mutual concerns, having no rates or charges for services, but paying the operating expenses by assessment upon the members of such a company and no other person.

"Invested capital" means that amount equal to (i) the average of the balances at the beginning and end of the taxable period of the taxpayer's total stockholder's equity and total long-term debt, less investments in and advances to all corporations, as set forth on the balance sheets included in the taxpayer's annual report to the Illinois Commerce Commission for the taxable period; (ii) multiplied by a fraction determined under Sections 301 and 304(a) of the "Illinois Income Tax Act" and reported on the Illinois income tax return for the taxable period ending in or with the taxable period in question. However, notwithstanding the income tax return reporting requirement stated above, beginning July 1, 1979, no taxpayer's denominators used to compute the sales, property or payroll factors under subsection (a) of Section 304 of the Illinois Income Tax Act shall include payroll, property or sales of any corporate entity other than the taxpayer for the purposes of determining an allocation for the invested capital tax. Public Act 82-1024 This amendatory Act of 1982 is not intended to and does not make any change in the meaning of any provision of this Act, it having been the intent of the General Assembly in initially enacting the definition of "invested capital" to provide for apportionment of the invested capital of each company, based solely upon the sales, property and payroll of that company.

"Taxable period" means each period which ends after August 14, 1979 and which is covered by an annual report filed by the taxpayer with the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(Source: P.A. 88-480; revised 10-11-17.)

Section 235. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by changing Sections 1-113.22, 3-143, 7-172, 8-251, 11-223.1, 11-230, and 16-158 as follows:

(40 ILCS 5/1-113.22)

Sec. 1-113.22. Required disclosures from consultants; minority-owned minority owned businesses, women-owned female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with a disability.

(a) No later than January 1, 2018 and each January 1 thereafter, each consultant retained by the board of a retirement system, board of a pension fund, or investment board shall disclose to that board of the retirement system, board of the pension fund, or investment board:

(1) the total number of searches for investment services made by the consultant in the prior calendar year;

(2) the total number of searches for investment services made by the consultant in the prior calendar year that included (i) a minority-owned minority owned business, (ii) a women-owned female owned business, or (iii) a business owned by a person with a disability;

(3) the total number of searches for investment services made by the consultant in the prior calendar year in which the consultant recommended for selection (i) a minority-owned minority owned business, (ii) a women-owned female owned business, or (iii) a business owned by a person with a disability;

(4) the total number of searches for investment services made by the consultant in the prior calendar year that resulted in the selection of (i) a minority-owned minority owned business, (ii) a women-owned female owned business, or (iii) a business owned by a person with a disability; and

(5) the total dollar amount of investment made in the previous calendar year with (i) a minority-owned minority owned business, (ii) a women-owned female owned business, or (iii) a business owned by a person with a disability that was selected after a search for investment services performed by the consultant.

(b) Beginning January 1, 2018, no contract, oral or written, for consulting services shall be awarded by a board of a retirement system, a board of a pension fund, or an investment board without first requiring the consultant to make the disclosures required in subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) The disclosures required by subsection (b) of this Section shall be considered, within the bounds of financial and fiduciary prudence, prior to the awarding of a contract, oral or written, for consulting services.

(d) As used in this Section, the terms "minority person", "woman" "female", "person with a disability", "minority-owned minority owned business", "women-owned female owned business", and "business owned by a person with a disability" have the same meaning as those terms have in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women Females, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-542, eff. 11-8-17; revised 12-14-17.)

(40 ILCS 5/3-143) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 3-143)

Sec. 3-143. Report by pension board.

(a) The pension board shall report annually to the city council or board of trustees of the municipality on the condition of the pension fund at the end of its most recently completed fiscal year. The report shall be made prior to the council or board meeting held for the levying of taxes for the year for which the report is made.

The pension board shall certify and provide the following information to the city council or board of trustees of the municipality:

(1) the total assets of the fund in its custody at the end of the fiscal year and the current market value of those assets;

(2) the estimated receipts during the next succeeding fiscal year from deductions from the salaries of police officers, and from all other sources;

(3) the estimated amount required during the next succeeding fiscal year to (a) pay all pensions and other obligations provided in this Article, and (b) to meet the annual requirements of the fund as provided in Sections 3-125 and 3-127;

(4) the total net income received from investment of assets along with the assumed investment return and actual investment return received by the fund during its most recently completed fiscal year compared to the total net income, assumed investment return, and actual investment return received during the preceding fiscal year;

(5) the total number of active employees who are financially contributing to the fund;

(6) the total amount that was disbursed in benefits during the fiscal year, including the number of and total amount disbursed to (i) annuitants in receipt of a regular retirement pension, (ii) recipients being paid a disability pension, and (iii) survivors and children in receipt of benefits;

(7) the funded ratio of the fund;

(8) the unfunded liability carried by the fund, along with an actuarial explanation of the unfunded liability; and

(9) the investment policy of the pension board under the statutory investment restrictions imposed on the fund.

Before the pension board makes its report, the municipality shall have the assets of the fund and their current market value verified by an independent certified public accountant of its choice.

(b) The municipality is authorized to publish the report submitted under this Section. This publication may be made, without limitation, by publication in a local newspaper of general circulation in the municipality or by publication on the municipality's Internet website. If the municipality publishes the report, then that publication must include all of the information submitted by the pension board under subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 95-950, eff. 8-29-08; revised 11-8-17.)

(40 ILCS 5/7-172) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 7-172)

Sec. 7-172. Contributions by participating municipalities and participating instrumentalities.

(a) Each participating municipality and each participating instrumentality shall make payment to the fund as follows:

1. municipality contributions in an amount determined by applying the municipality contribution rate to each payment of earnings paid to each of its participating employees;

2. an amount equal to the employee contributions provided by paragraph (a) of Section 7-173, whether or not the employee contributions are withheld as permitted by that Section;

3. all accounts receivable, together with interest charged thereon, as provided in Section 7-209, and any amounts due under subsection (a-5) of Section 7-144;

4. if it has no participating employees with current earnings, an amount payable which, over a closed period of 20 years for participating municipalities and 10 years for participating instrumentalities, will amortize, at the effective rate for that year, any unfunded obligation. The unfunded obligation shall be computed as provided in paragraph 2 of subsection (b);

5. if it has fewer than 7 participating employees or a negative balance in its municipality reserve, the greater of (A) an amount payable that, over a period of 20 years, will amortize at the effective rate for that year any unfunded obligation, computed as provided in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) or (B) the amount required by paragraph 1 of this subsection (a).

(b) A separate municipality contribution rate shall be determined for each calendar year for all participating municipalities together with all instrumentalities thereof. The municipality contribution rate shall be determined for participating instrumentalities as if they were participating municipalities. The municipality contribution rate shall be the sum of the following percentages:

1. The percentage of earnings of all the participating employees of all participating municipalities and participating instrumentalities which, if paid over the entire period of their service, will be sufficient when combined with all employee contributions available for the payment of benefits, to provide all annuities for participating employees, and the $3,000 death benefit payable under Sections 7-158 and 7-164, such percentage to be known as the normal cost rate.

2. The percentage of earnings of the participating employees of each participating municipality and participating instrumentalities necessary to adjust for the difference between the present value of all benefits, excluding temporary and total and permanent disability and death benefits, to be provided for its participating employees and the sum of its accumulated municipality contributions and the accumulated employee contributions and the present value of expected future employee and municipality contributions pursuant to subparagraph 1 of this paragraph (b). This adjustment shall be spread over a period determined by the Board, not to exceed 30 years for participating municipalities or 10 years for participating instrumentalities.

3. The percentage of earnings of the participating employees of all municipalities and participating instrumentalities necessary to provide the present value of all temporary and total and permanent disability benefits granted during the most recent year for which information is available.

4. The percentage of earnings of the participating employees of all participating municipalities and participating instrumentalities necessary to provide the present value of the net single sum death benefits expected to become payable from the reserve established under Section 7-206 during the year for which this rate is fixed.

5. The percentage of earnings necessary to meet any deficiency arising in the Terminated Municipality Reserve.

(c) A separate municipality contribution rate shall be computed for each participating municipality or participating instrumentality for its sheriff's law enforcement employees.

A separate municipality contribution rate shall be computed for the sheriff's law enforcement employees of each forest preserve district that elects to have such employees. For the period from January 1, 1986 to December 31, 1986, such rate shall be the forest preserve district's regular rate plus 2%.

In the event that the Board determines that there is an actuarial deficiency in the account of any municipality with respect to a person who has elected to participate in the Fund under Section 3-109.1 of this Code, the Board may adjust the municipality's contribution rate so as to make up that deficiency over such reasonable period of time as the Board may determine.

(d) The Board may establish a separate municipality contribution rate for all employees who are program participants employed under the federal Comprehensive Employment Training Act by all of the participating municipalities and instrumentalities. The Board may also provide that, in lieu of a separate municipality rate for these employees, a portion of the municipality contributions for such program participants shall be refunded or an extra charge assessed so that the amount of municipality contributions retained or received by the fund for all CETA program participants shall be an amount equal to that which would be provided by the separate municipality contribution rate for all such program participants. Refunds shall be made to prime sponsors of programs upon submission of a claim therefor and extra charges shall be assessed to participating municipalities and instrumentalities. In establishing the municipality contribution rate as provided in paragraph (b) of this Section, the use of a separate municipality contribution rate for program participants or the refund of a portion of the municipality contributions, as the case may be, may be considered.

(e) Computations of municipality contribution rates for the following calendar year shall be made prior to the beginning of each year, from the information available at the time the computations are made, and on the assumption that the employees in each participating municipality or participating instrumentality at such time will continue in service until the end of such calendar year at their respective rates of earnings at such time.

(f) Any municipality which is the recipient of State allocations representing that municipality's contributions for retirement annuity purposes on behalf of its employees as provided in Section 12-21.16 of the Illinois Public Aid Code shall pay the allocations so received to the Board for such purpose. Estimates of State allocations to be received during any taxable year shall be considered in the determination of the municipality's tax rate for that year under Section 7-171. If a special tax is levied under Section 7-171, none of the proceeds may be used to reimburse the municipality for the amount of State allocations received and paid to the Board. Any multiple-county or consolidated health department which receives contributions from a county under Section 11.2 of "An Act in relation to establishment and maintenance of county and multiple-county health departments", approved July 9, 1943, as amended, or distributions under Section 3 of the Department of Public Health Act, shall use these only for municipality contributions by the health department.

(g) Municipality contributions for the several purposes specified shall, for township treasurers and employees in the offices of the township treasurers who meet the qualifying conditions for coverage hereunder, be allocated among the several school districts and parts of school districts serviced by such treasurers and employees in the proportion which the amount of school funds of each district or part of a district handled by the treasurer bears to the total amount of all school funds handled by the treasurer.

From the funds subject to allocation among districts and parts of districts pursuant to the School Code, the trustees shall withhold the proportionate share of the liability for municipality contributions imposed upon such districts by this Section, in respect to such township treasurers and employees and remit the same to the Board.

The municipality contribution rate for an educational service center shall initially be the same rate for each year as the regional office of education or school district which serves as its administrative agent. When actuarial data become available, a separate rate shall be established as provided in subparagraph (i) of this Section.

The municipality contribution rate for a public agency, other than a vocational education cooperative, formed under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act shall initially be the average rate for the municipalities which are parties to the intergovernmental agreement. When actuarial data become available, a separate rate shall be established as provided in subparagraph (i) of this Section.

(h) Each participating municipality and participating instrumentality shall make the contributions in the amounts provided in this Section in the manner prescribed from time to time by the Board and all such contributions shall be obligations of the respective participating municipalities and participating instrumentalities to this fund. The failure to deduct any employee contributions shall not relieve the participating municipality or participating instrumentality of its obligation to this fund. Delinquent payments of contributions due under this Section may, with interest, be recovered by civil action against the participating municipalities or participating instrumentalities. Municipality contributions, other than the amount necessary for employee contributions, for periods of service by employees from whose earnings no deductions were made for employee contributions to the fund, may be charged to the municipality reserve for the municipality or participating instrumentality.

(i) Contributions by participating instrumentalities shall be determined as provided herein except that the percentage derived under subparagraph 2 of paragraph (b) of this Section, and the amount payable under subparagraph 4 of paragraph (a) of this Section, shall be based on an amortization period of 10 years.

(j) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Section, the additional unfunded liability accruing as a result of Public Act 94-712 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly shall be amortized over a period of 30 years beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year following the calendar year in which Public Act 94-712 this amendatory Act takes effect, except that the employer may provide for a longer amortization period by adopting a resolution or ordinance specifying a 35-year or 40-year period and submitting a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the fund no later than June 1 of the calendar year following the calendar year in which Public Act 94-712 this amendatory Act takes effect.

(k) If the amount of a participating employee's reported earnings for any of the 12-month periods used to determine the final rate of earnings exceeds the employee's 12-month 12 month reported earnings with the same employer for the previous year by the greater of 6% or 1.5 times the annual increase in the Consumer Price Index-U, as established by the United States Department of Labor for the preceding September, the participating municipality or participating instrumentality that paid those earnings shall pay to the Fund, in addition to any other contributions required under this Article, the present value of the increase in the pension resulting from the portion of the increase in reported earnings that is in excess of the greater of 6% or 1.5 times the annual increase in the Consumer Price Index-U, as determined by the Fund. This present value shall be computed on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the Fund that is available at the time of the computation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection (k), the fund shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the participating municipality or participating instrumentality for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the participating municipality or participating instrumentality disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the fund in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the fund shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due. The participating municipality and participating instrumentality contributions required under this subsection (k) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the participating municipality and participating instrumentality contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the fund's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after receipt of the bill by the participating municipality or participating instrumentality.

When assessing payment for any amount due under this subsection (k), the fund shall exclude earnings increases resulting from overload or overtime earnings.

When assessing payment for any amount due under this subsection (k), the fund shall exclude earnings increases resulting from payments for unused vacation time, but only for payments for unused vacation time made in the final 3 months of the final rate of earnings period.

When assessing payment for any amount due under this subsection (k), the fund shall also exclude earnings increases attributable to standard employment promotions resulting in increased responsibility and workload.

This subsection (k) does not apply to earnings increases paid to individuals under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-609), earnings increases paid to members who are 10 years or more from retirement eligibility, or earnings increases resulting from an increase in the number of hours required to be worked.

When assessing payment for any amount due under this subsection (k), the fund shall also exclude earnings attributable to personnel policies adopted before January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-609) as long as those policies are not applicable to employees who begin service on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-609).

The change made to this Section by Public Act 100-139 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly is a clarification of existing law and is intended to be retroactive to January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-609).

(Source: P.A. 99-745, eff. 8-5-16; 100-139, eff. 8-18-17; 100-411, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(40 ILCS 5/8-251) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-251)

Sec. 8-251. Felony conviction. None of the benefits provided for in this Article shall be paid to any person who is convicted of any felony relating to or arising out of or in connection with his service as a municipal employee.

None of the benefits provided for in this Article shall be paid to any person who otherwise would receive a survivor benefit who is convicted of any felony relating to or arising out of or in connection with the service of the employee from whom the benefit results.

This Section shall not operate to impair any contract or vested right heretofore acquired under any law or laws continued in this Article, nor to preclude the right to a refund, and for the changes under Public Act 100-334 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, shall not impair any contract or vested right acquired by a survivor prior to August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-334) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

Any refund required under this Article shall be calculated based on that person's contributions to the Fund, less the amount of any annuity benefit previously received by the person or his or her beneficiaries. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 100-23 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly apply only to persons who first become participants under this Article on or after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

All future entrants entering service subsequent to July 11, 1955 shall be deemed to have consented to the provisions of this Section as a condition of coverage, and all participants entering service subsequent to August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-334) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall be deemed to have consented to the provisions of Public Act 100-334 this amendatory Act as a condition of participation.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-334, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-28-17.)

(40 ILCS 5/11-223.1) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-223.1)

Sec. 11-223.1. Assignment for health, hospital, and medical insurance. The board may provide, by regulation, that any annuitant or pensioner, may assign his annuity or disability benefit, or any part thereof, for the purpose of premium payment for a membership for the annuitant, and his or her spouse and children, in a hospital care plan or medical surgical plan, provided, however, that the board may, in its discretion, terminate the right of assignment. Any such hospital or medical insurance plan may include provision for the beneficiaries thereof who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well-recognized well recognized religious denomination.

Upon the adoption of a regulation permitting such assignment, the board shall establish and administer a plan for the maintenance of the insurance plan membership by the annuitant or pensioner.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(40 ILCS 5/11-230) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-230)

Sec. 11-230. Felony conviction. None of the benefits provided in this Article shall be paid to any person who is convicted of any felony relating to or arising out of or in connection with his service as employee.

None of the benefits provided for in this Article shall be paid to any person who otherwise would receive a survivor benefit who is convicted of any felony relating to or arising out of or in connection with the service of the employee from whom the benefit results.

This Section shall not operate to impair any contract or vested right heretofore acquired under any law or laws continued in this Article, nor to preclude the right to a refund, and for the changes under Public Act 100-334 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, shall not impair any contract or vested right acquired by a survivor prior to August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-334) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

Any refund required under this Article shall be calculated based on that person's contributions to the Fund, less the amount of any annuity benefit previously received by the person or his or beneficiaries. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 100-23 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly apply only to persons who first become members or participants under this Article on or after July 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-23) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

All future entrants entering service after July 11, 1955, shall be deemed to have consented to the provisions of this Section as a condition of coverage, and all participants entering service subsequent to August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-334) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall be deemed to have consented to the provisions of Public Act 100-334 this amendatory Act as a condition of participation.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-334, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-26-17.)

(40 ILCS 5/16-158) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 16-158)

Sec. 16-158. Contributions by State and other employing units.

(a) The State shall make contributions to the System by means of appropriations from the Common School Fund and other State funds of amounts which, together with other employer contributions, employee contributions, investment income, and other income, will be sufficient to meet the cost of maintaining and administering the System on a 90% funded basis in accordance with actuarial recommendations.

The Board shall determine the amount of State contributions required for each fiscal year on the basis of the actuarial tables and other assumptions adopted by the Board and the recommendations of the actuary, using the formula in subsection (b-3).

(a-1) Annually, on or before November 15 until November 15, 2011, the Board shall certify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution for the coming fiscal year. The certification under this subsection (a-1) shall include a copy of the actuarial recommendations upon which it is based and shall specifically identify the System's projected State normal cost for that fiscal year.

On or before May 1, 2004, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2005, taking into account the amounts appropriated to and received by the System under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act.

On or before July 1, 2005, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2006, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 94-4 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly.

On or before April 1, 2011, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the Governor the amount of the required State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2011, applying the changes made by Public Act 96-889 to the System's assets and liabilities as of June 30, 2009 as though Public Act 96-889 was approved on that date.

(a-5) On or before November 1 of each year, beginning November 1, 2012, the Board shall submit to the State Actuary, the Governor, and the General Assembly a proposed certification of the amount of the required State contribution to the System for the next fiscal year, along with all of the actuarial assumptions, calculations, and data upon which that proposed certification is based. On or before January 1 of each year, beginning January 1, 2013, the State Actuary shall issue a preliminary report concerning the proposed certification and identifying, if necessary, recommended changes in actuarial assumptions that the Board must consider before finalizing its certification of the required State contributions. On or before January 15, 2013 and each January 15 thereafter, the Board shall certify to the Governor and the General Assembly the amount of the required State contribution for the next fiscal year. The Board's certification must note any deviations from the State Actuary's recommended changes, the reason or reasons for not following the State Actuary's recommended changes, and the fiscal impact of not following the State Actuary's recommended changes on the required State contribution.

(a-10) By November 1, 2017, the Board shall recalculate and recertify to the State Actuary, the Governor, and the General Assembly the amount of the State contribution to the System for State fiscal year 2018, taking into account the changes in required State contributions made by Public Act 100-23 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. The State Actuary shall review the assumptions and valuations underlying the Board's revised certification and issue a preliminary report concerning the proposed recertification and identifying, if necessary, recommended changes in actuarial assumptions that the Board must consider before finalizing its certification of the required State contributions. The Board's final certification must note any deviations from the State Actuary's recommended changes, the reason or reasons for not following the State Actuary's recommended changes, and the fiscal impact of not following the State Actuary's recommended changes on the required State contribution.

(b) Through State fiscal year 1995, the State contributions shall be paid to the System in accordance with Section 18-7 of the School Code.

(b-1) Beginning in State fiscal year 1996, on the 15th day of each month, or as soon thereafter as may be practicable, the Board shall submit vouchers for payment of State contributions to the System, in a total monthly amount of one-twelfth of the required annual State contribution certified under subsection (a-1). From March 5, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-665) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly through June 30, 2004, the Board shall not submit vouchers for the remainder of fiscal year 2004 in excess of the fiscal year 2004 certified contribution amount determined under this Section after taking into consideration the transfer to the System under subsection (a) of Section 6z-61 of the State Finance Act. These vouchers shall be paid by the State Comptroller and Treasurer by warrants drawn on the funds appropriated to the System for that fiscal year.

If in any month the amount remaining unexpended from all other appropriations to the System for the applicable fiscal year (including the appropriations to the System under Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act and Section 1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act) is less than the amount lawfully vouchered under this subsection, the difference shall be paid from the Common School Fund under the continuing appropriation authority provided in Section 1.1 of the State Pension Funds Continuing Appropriation Act.

(b-2) Allocations from the Common School Fund apportioned to school districts not coming under this System shall not be diminished or affected by the provisions of this Article.

(b-3) For State fiscal years 2012 through 2045, the minimum contribution to the System to be made by the State for each fiscal year shall be an amount determined by the System to be sufficient to bring the total assets of the System up to 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System by the end of State fiscal year 2045. In making these determinations, the required State contribution shall be calculated each year as a level percentage of payroll over the years remaining to and including fiscal year 2045 and shall be determined under the projected unit credit actuarial cost method.

For each of State fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the State shall make an additional contribution to the System equal to 2% of the total payroll of each employee who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (c) of Section 1-161.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applies in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter shall be implemented in equal annual amounts over a 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applies to the required State contribution.

A change in an actuarial or investment assumption that increases or decreases the required State contribution and first applied to the State contribution in fiscal year 2014, 2015, 2016, or 2017 shall be implemented:

(i) as already applied in State fiscal years before 2018; and

(ii) in the portion of the 5-year period beginning in the State fiscal year in which the actuarial change first applied that occurs in State fiscal year 2018 or thereafter, by calculating the change in equal annual amounts over that 5-year period and then implementing it at the resulting annual rate in each of the remaining fiscal years in that 5-year period.

For State fiscal years 1996 through 2005, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate required under this Section; except that in the following specified State fiscal years, the State contribution to the System shall not be less than the following indicated percentages of the applicable employee payroll, even if the indicated percentage will produce a State contribution in excess of the amount otherwise required under this subsection and subsection (a), and notwithstanding any contrary certification made under subsection (a-1) before May 27, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-582) this amendatory Act of 1998: 10.02% in FY 1999; 10.77% in FY 2000; 11.47% in FY 2001; 12.16% in FY 2002; 12.86% in FY 2003; and 13.56% in FY 2004.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2006 is $534,627,700.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 is $738,014,500.

For each of State fiscal years 2008 through 2009, the State contribution to the System, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, shall be increased in equal annual increments from the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007, so that by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2010 is $2,089,268,000 and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2010, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the total required State contribution for State fiscal year 2011 is the amount recertified by the System on or before April 1, 2011 pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section and shall be made from the proceeds of bonds sold in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, less (i) the pro rata share of bond sale expenses determined by the System's share of total bond proceeds, (ii) any amounts received from the Common School Fund in fiscal year 2011, and (iii) any reduction in bond proceeds due to the issuance of discounted bonds, if applicable. This amount shall include, in addition to the amount certified by the System, an amount necessary to meet employer contributions required by the State as an employer under paragraph (e) of this Section, which may also be used by the System for contributions required by paragraph (a) of Section 16-127.

Beginning in State fiscal year 2046, the minimum State contribution for each fiscal year shall be the amount needed to maintain the total assets of the System at 90% of the total actuarial liabilities of the System.

Amounts received by the System pursuant to Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act or Section 8.12 of the State Finance Act in any fiscal year do not reduce and do not constitute payment of any portion of the minimum State contribution required under this Article in that fiscal year. Such amounts shall not reduce, and shall not be included in the calculation of, the required State contributions under this Article in any future year until the System has reached a funding ratio of at least 90%. A reference in this Article to the "required State contribution" or any substantially similar term does not include or apply to any amounts payable to the System under Section 25 of the Budget Stabilization Act.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2005 and for fiscal year 2008 and each fiscal year thereafter, as calculated under this Section and certified under subsection (a-1), shall not exceed an amount equal to (i) the amount of the required State contribution that would have been calculated under this Section for that fiscal year if the System had not received any payments under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, minus (ii) the portion of the State's total debt service payments for that fiscal year on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of that Section 7.2, as determined and certified by the Comptroller, that is the same as the System's portion of the total moneys distributed under subsection (d) of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act. In determining this maximum for State fiscal years 2008 through 2010, however, the amount referred to in item (i) shall be increased, as a percentage of the applicable employee payroll, in equal increments calculated from the sum of the required State contribution for State fiscal year 2007 plus the applicable portion of the State's total debt service payments for fiscal year 2007 on the bonds issued in fiscal year 2003 for the purposes of Section 7.2 of the General Obligation Bond Act, so that, by State fiscal year 2011, the State is contributing at the rate otherwise required under this Section.

(b-4) Beginning in fiscal year 2018, each employer under this Article shall pay to the System a required contribution determined as a percentage of projected payroll and sufficient to produce an annual amount equal to:

(i) for each of fiscal years 2018, 2019, and 2020, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (b) of Section 1-161; for fiscal year 2021 and each fiscal year thereafter, the defined benefit normal cost of the defined benefit plan, less the employee contribution, plus 2%, for each employee of that employer who has elected or who is deemed to have elected the benefits under Section 1-161 or who has made the election under subsection (b) of Section 1-161; plus

(ii) the amount required for that fiscal year to amortize any unfunded actuarial accrued liability associated with the present value of liabilities attributable to the employer's account under Section 16-158.3, determined as a level percentage of payroll over a 30-year rolling amortization period.

In determining contributions required under item (i) of this subsection, the System shall determine an aggregate rate for all employers, expressed as a percentage of projected payroll.

In determining the contributions required under item (ii) of this subsection, the amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation.

The contributions required under this subsection (b-4) shall be paid by an employer concurrently with that employer's payroll payment period. The State, as the actual employer of an employee, shall make the required contributions under this subsection.

(c) Payment of the required State contributions and of all pensions, retirement annuities, death benefits, refunds, and other benefits granted under or assumed by this System, and all expenses in connection with the administration and operation thereof, are obligations of the State.

If members are paid from special trust or federal funds which are administered by the employing unit, whether school district or other unit, the employing unit shall pay to the System from such funds the full accruing retirement costs based upon that service, which, beginning July 1, 2017, shall be at a rate, expressed as a percentage of salary, equal to the total employer's normal cost, expressed as a percentage of payroll, as determined by the System. Employer contributions, based on salary paid to members from federal funds, may be forwarded by the distributing agency of the State of Illinois to the System prior to allocation, in an amount determined in accordance with guidelines established by such agency and the System. Any contribution for fiscal year 2015 collected as a result of the change made by Public Act 98-674 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall be considered a State contribution under subsection (b-3) of this Section.

(d) Effective July 1, 1986, any employer of a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 shall pay the employer's normal cost of benefits based upon the teacher's service, in addition to employee contributions, as determined by the System. Such employer contributions shall be forwarded monthly in accordance with guidelines established by the System.

However, with respect to benefits granted under Section 16-133.4 or 16-133.5 to a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106, the employer's contribution shall be 12% (rather than 20%) of the member's highest annual salary rate for each year of creditable service granted, and the employer shall also pay the required employee contribution on behalf of the teacher. For the purposes of Sections 16-133.4 and 16-133.5, a teacher as defined in paragraph (8) of Section 16-106 who is serving in that capacity while on leave of absence from another employer under this Article shall not be considered an employee of the employer from which the teacher is on leave.

(e) Beginning July 1, 1998, every employer of a teacher shall pay to the System an employer contribution computed as follows:

(1) Beginning July 1, 1998 through June 30, 1999, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.3% of each teacher's salary.

(2) Beginning July 1, 1999 and thereafter, the employer contribution shall be equal to 0.58% of each teacher's salary.

The school district or other employing unit may pay these employer contributions out of any source of funding available for that purpose and shall forward the contributions to the System on the schedule established for the payment of member contributions.

These employer contributions are intended to offset a portion of the cost to the System of the increases in retirement benefits resulting from Public Act 90-582 this amendatory Act of 1998.

Each employer of teachers is entitled to a credit against the contributions required under this subsection (e) with respect to salaries paid to teachers for the period January 1, 2002 through June 30, 2003, equal to the amount paid by that employer under subsection (a-5) of Section 6.6 of the State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 with respect to salaries paid to teachers for that period.

The additional 1% employee contribution required under Section 16-152 by Public Act 90-582 this amendatory Act of 1998 is the responsibility of the teacher and not the teacher's employer, unless the employer agrees, through collective bargaining or otherwise, to make the contribution on behalf of the teacher.

If an employer is required by a contract in effect on May 1, 1998 between the employer and an employee organization to pay, on behalf of all its full-time employees covered by this Article, all mandatory employee contributions required under this Article, then the employer shall be excused from paying the employer contribution required under this subsection (e) for the balance of the term of that contract. The employer and the employee organization shall jointly certify to the System the existence of the contractual requirement, in such form as the System may prescribe. This exclusion shall cease upon the termination, extension, or renewal of the contract at any time after May 1, 1998.

(f) If the amount of a teacher's salary for any school year used to determine final average salary exceeds the member's annual full-time salary rate with the same employer for the previous school year by more than 6%, the teacher's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, the present value of the increase in benefits resulting from the portion of the increase in salary that is in excess of 6%. This present value shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. If a teacher's salary for the 2005-2006 school year is used to determine final average salary under this subsection (f), then the changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1057 shall apply in calculating whether the increase in his or her salary is in excess of 6%. For the purposes of this Section, change in employment under Section 10-21.12 of the School Code on or after June 1, 2005 shall constitute a change in employer. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation. The changes made to this subsection (f) by Public Act 94-1111 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly apply without regard to whether the teacher was in service on or after its effective date.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute and, if the employer asserts that the calculation is subject to subsection (g) or (h) of this Section, must include an affidavit setting forth and attesting to all facts within the employer's knowledge that are pertinent to the applicability of that subsection. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection (f) may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(g) This subsection (g) applies only to payments made or salary increases given on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. The changes made by Public Act 94-1057 shall not require the System to refund any payments received before July 31, 2006 (the effective date of Public Act 94-1057).

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to teachers under contracts or collective bargaining agreements entered into, amended, or renewed before June 1, 2005.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases paid to a teacher at a time when the teacher is 10 or more years from retirement eligibility under Section 16-132 or 16-133.2.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude salary increases resulting from overload work, including summer school, when the school district has certified to the System, and the System has approved the certification, that (i) the overload work is for the sole purpose of classroom instruction in excess of the standard number of classes for a full-time teacher in a school district during a school year and (ii) the salary increases are equal to or less than the rate of pay for classroom instruction computed on the teacher's current salary and work schedule.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude a salary increase resulting from a promotion (i) for which the employee is required to hold a certificate or supervisory endorsement issued by the State Teacher Certification Board that is a different certification or supervisory endorsement than is required for the teacher's previous position and (ii) to a position that has existed and been filled by a member for no less than one complete academic year and the salary increase from the promotion is an increase that results in an amount no greater than the lesser of the average salary paid for other similar positions in the district requiring the same certification or the amount stipulated in the collective bargaining agreement for a similar position requiring the same certification.

When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any payment to the teacher from the State of Illinois or the State Board of Education over which the employer does not have discretion, notwithstanding that the payment is included in the computation of final average salary.

(h) When assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f), the System shall exclude any salary increase described in subsection (g) of this Section given on or after July 1, 2011 but before July 1, 2014 under a contract or collective bargaining agreement entered into, amended, or renewed on or after June 1, 2005 but before July 1, 2011. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, any payments made or salary increases given after June 30, 2014 shall be used in assessing payment for any amount due under subsection (f) of this Section.

(i) The System shall prepare a report and file copies of the report with the Governor and the General Assembly by January 1, 2007 that contains all of the following information:

(1) The number of recalculations required by the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057 for each employer.

(2) The dollar amount by which each employer's contribution to the System was changed due to recalculations required by Public Act 94-1057.

(3) The total amount the System received from each employer as a result of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-4.

(4) The increase in the required State contribution resulting from the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-1057.

(i-5) For school years beginning on or after July 1, 2017, if the amount of a participant's salary for any school year, determined on a full-time equivalent basis, exceeds the amount of the salary set for the Governor, the participant's employer shall pay to the System, in addition to all other payments required under this Section and in accordance with guidelines established by the System, an amount determined by the System to be equal to the employer normal cost, as established by the System and expressed as a total percentage of payroll, multiplied by the amount of salary in excess of the amount of the salary set for the Governor. This amount shall be computed by the System on the basis of the actuarial assumptions and tables used in the most recent actuarial valuation of the System that is available at the time of the computation. The System may require the employer to provide any pertinent information or documentation.

Whenever it determines that a payment is or may be required under this subsection, the System shall calculate the amount of the payment and bill the employer for that amount. The bill shall specify the calculations used to determine the amount due. If the employer disputes the amount of the bill, it may, within 30 days after receipt of the bill, apply to the System in writing for a recalculation. The application must specify in detail the grounds of the dispute. Upon receiving a timely application for recalculation, the System shall review the application and, if appropriate, recalculate the amount due.

The employer contributions required under this subsection may be paid in the form of a lump sum within 90 days after receipt of the bill. If the employer contributions are not paid within 90 days after receipt of the bill, then interest will be charged at a rate equal to the System's annual actuarially assumed rate of return on investment compounded annually from the 91st day after receipt of the bill. Payments must be concluded within 3 years after the employer's receipt of the bill.

(j) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the System, the value of the System's assets shall be equal to the actuarial value of the System's assets, which shall be calculated as follows:

As of June 30, 2008, the actuarial value of the System's assets shall be equal to the market value of the assets as of that date. In determining the actuarial value of the System's assets for fiscal years after June 30, 2008, any actuarial gains or losses from investment return incurred in a fiscal year shall be recognized in equal annual amounts over the 5-year period following that fiscal year.

(k) For purposes of determining the required State contribution to the system for a particular year, the actuarial value of assets shall be assumed to earn a rate of return equal to the system's actuarially assumed rate of return.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-340, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-25-17.)

Section 240. The Property Assessed Clean Energy Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(50 ILCS 50/15)

Sec. 15. Program established.

(a) To establish a property assessed clean energy program, the governing body of a local unit of government shall adopt a resolution or ordinance that includes all of the following:

(1) a finding that the financing of energy projects is a valid public purpose;

(2) a statement of intent to facilitate access to capital from a program administrator to provide funds for energy projects, which will be repaid by assessments on the property benefited with the agreement of the record owners;

(3) a description of the proposed arrangements for financing the program through a program administrator;

(4) the types of energy projects that may be financed;

(5) a description of the territory within the PACE area;

(6) reference to a report on the proposed program as described in Section 20; and

(7) the time and place for any public hearing required for the adoption of the proposed program by resolution or ordinance;

(8) matters required by Section 20 to be included in the report; for this purpose, the resolution or ordinance may incorporate the report or an amended version thereof by reference; and

(9) a description of which aspects of the program may be amended without a new public hearing and which aspects may be amended only after a new public hearing is held.

(b) A property assessed clean energy program may be amended by resolution or ordinance of the governing body. Adoption of the resolution or ordinance shall be preceded by a public hearing if required.

(Source: P.A. 100-77, eff. 8-11-17; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 245. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)

Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which shall be offered by all certified schools shall include, but not be limited to, courses of procedural justice, arrest and use and control tactics, search and seizure, including temporary questioning, civil rights, human rights, human relations, cultural competency, including implicit bias and racial and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal procedure, constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code, traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic control devices, including the psychological and physiological effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, handling of juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions and crises, including, but not limited to, the disease of addiction, which require immediate assistance and response and methods to safeguard and provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment, recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training. The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques for immediate response to and investigation of cases of domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children, including cultural perceptions and common myths of sexual assault and sexual abuse as well as interview techniques that are trauma informed, victim centered, and victim sensitive. The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to promote effective communication at the initial contact with crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also include training in effective recognition of and responses to stress, trauma, and post-traumatic stress experienced by police officers. The curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other developmental or physical disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for permanent police officers shall include, but not be limited to: (1) refresher and in-service training in any of the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any of the subjects listed above in this subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4) specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers, including University police officers.

b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and equipment requirements.

c. Minimum requirements for instructors.

d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law enforcement officer for a participating local governmental agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).

e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a county corrections officer for a participating local governmental agency.

f. Minimum basic training requirements which a probationary court security officer must satisfactorily complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a court security officer for a participating local governmental agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements which it considers appropriate for court security officers and shall certify schools to conduct that training.

A person hired to serve as a court security officer must obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of similar content and number of hours that has been found acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior law enforcement experience.

Individuals who currently serve as court security officers shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24 months of June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685). Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board, shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.

All individuals hired as court security officers on or after June 1, 1997 (the effective date of Public Act 89-685) this amendatory Act of 1996 shall be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit their positions.

The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed applications to become court security officers and who meet the eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants' qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.

g. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete every 3 years. Those requirements shall include constitutional and proper use of law enforcement authority, procedural justice, civil rights, human rights, mental health awareness and response, and cultural competency.

h. Minimum in-service training requirements, which a police officer must satisfactorily complete at least annually. Those requirements shall include law updates and use of force training which shall include scenario based training, or similar training approved by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 99-352, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-801, eff. 1-1-17; 100-121, eff. 1-1-18; 100-247, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 250. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 4-5001 and 5-1069.3 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/4-5001) (from Ch. 34, par. 4-5001)

Sec. 4-5001. Sheriffs; counties of first and second class. The fees of sheriffs in counties of the first and second class, except when increased by county ordinance under this Section, shall be as follows:

For serving or attempting to serve summons on each defendant in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve an order or judgment granting injunctive injunctional relief in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve each garnishee in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve an order for replevin in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve an order for attachment on each defendant in each county, $10.

For serving or attempting to serve a warrant of arrest, $8, to be paid upon conviction.

For returning a defendant from outside the State of Illinois, upon conviction, the court shall assess, as court costs, the cost of returning a defendant to the jurisdiction.

For taking special bail, $1 in each county.

For serving or attempting to serve a subpoena on each witness, in each county, $10.

For advertising property for sale, $5.

For returning each process, in each county, $5.

Mileage for each mile of necessary travel to serve any such process as Stated above, calculating from the place of holding court to the place of residence of the defendant, or witness, 50¢ each way.

For summoning each juror, $3 with 30¢ mileage each way in all counties.

For serving or attempting to serve notice of judgments or levying to enforce a judgment, $3 with 50¢ mileage each way in all counties.

For taking possession of and removing property levied on, the officer shall be allowed to tax the actual cost of such possession or removal.

For feeding each prisoner, such compensation to cover the actual cost as may be fixed by the county board, but such compensation shall not be considered a part of the fees of the office.

For attending before a court with prisoner, on an order for habeas corpus, in each county, $10 per day.

For attending before a court with a prisoner in any criminal proceeding, in each county, $10 per day.

For each mile of necessary travel in taking such prisoner before the court as stated Stated above, 15¢ a mile each way.

For serving or attempting to serve an order or judgment for the possession of real estate in an action of ejectment or in any other action, or for restitution in an eviction action without aid, $10 and when aid is necessary, the sheriff shall be allowed to tax in addition the actual costs thereof, and for each mile of necessary travel, 50¢ each way.

For executing and acknowledging a deed of sale of real estate, in counties of first class, $4; second class, $4.

For preparing, executing and acknowledging a deed on redemption from a court sale of real estate in counties of first class, $5; second class, $5.

For making certificates of sale, and making and filing duplicate, in counties of first class, $3; in counties of the second class, $3.

For making certificate of redemption, $3.

For certificate of levy and filing, $3, and the fee for recording shall be advanced by the judgment creditor and charged as costs.

For taking all bonds on legal process, civil and criminal, in counties of first class, $1; in second class, $1.

For executing copies in criminal cases, $4 and mileage for each mile of necessary travel, 20¢ each way.

For executing requisitions from other states States, $5.

For conveying each prisoner from the prisoner's own county to the jail of another county, or from another county to the jail of the prisoner's county, per mile, for going, only, 30¢.

For conveying persons to the penitentiary, reformatories, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers, the following fees, payable out of the State treasury Treasury. For each person who is conveyed, 35¢ per mile in going only to the penitentiary, reformatory, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers, from the place of conviction.

The fees provided for transporting persons to the penitentiary, reformatories, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers shall be paid for each trip so made. Mileage as used in this Section means the shortest practical route, between the place from which the person is to be transported, to the penitentiary, reformatories, Illinois State Training School for Boys, Illinois State Training School for Girls and Reception Centers and all fees per mile shall be computed on such basis.

For conveying any person to or from any of the charitable institutions of the State, when properly committed by competent authority, when one person is conveyed, 35¢ per mile; when two persons are conveyed at the same time, 35¢ per mile for the first person and 20¢ per mile for the second person; and 10¢ per mile for each additional person.

For conveying a person from the penitentiary to the county jail when required by law, 35¢ per mile.

For attending Supreme Court, $10 per day.

In addition to the above fees there shall be allowed to the sheriff a fee of $600 for the sale of real estate which is made by virtue of any judgment of a court, except that in the case of a sale of unimproved real estate which sells for $10,000 or less, the fee shall be $150. In addition to this fee and all other fees provided by this Section, there shall be allowed to the sheriff a fee in accordance with the following schedule for the sale of personal estate which is made by virtue of any judgment of a court:

For judgments up to $1,000, $75;

For judgments from $1,001 to $15,000, $150;

For judgments over $15,000, $300.

The foregoing fees allowed by this Section are the maximum fees that may be collected from any officer, agency, department or other instrumentality of the State. The county board may, however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this Section and collect those increased fees from all persons and entities other than officers, agencies, departments and other instrumentalities of the State if the increase is justified by an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this Section are not sufficient to cover the costs of providing the service. A statement of the costs of providing each service, program and activity shall be prepared by the county board. All supporting documents shall be public records and subject to public examination and audit. All direct and indirect costs, as defined in the United States Office of Management and Budget Circular A-87, may be included in the determination of the costs of each service, program and activity.

In all cases where the judgment is settled by the parties, replevied, stopped by injunction or paid, or where the property levied upon is not actually sold, the sheriff shall be allowed his fee for levying and mileage, together with half the fee for all money collected by him which he would be entitled to if the same was made by sale to enforce the judgment. In no case shall the fee exceed the amount of money arising from the sale.

The fee requirements of this Section do not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. For the purposes of this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws.

(Source: P.A. 100-173, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-3-17.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)

Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, and 356z.25, and 356z.26 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this Section is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule county to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 255. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 5-3-1, 8-11-1.6, 8-11-1.7, 10-2.1-4, 10-4-2, 10-4-2.3, and 11-74.4-3.5 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/5-3-1) (from Ch. 24, par. 5-3-1)

Sec. 5-3-1. In cities which do not elect to choose aldermen from wards and in cities which elect to choose councilmen as provided in Sections 5-2-18.1 through thru 5-2-18.7, the mayor shall have the right to vote on all questions coming before the council but shall have no power to veto. The mayor and president shall be recognized as the official head of the city or village by the courts for the purpose of serving civil process and by the Governor for all legal purposes.

The mayor or president of any city or village which adopts this Article 5, other than one which at the time of adoption was operating under or adopted the commission form of government as provided in Article 4 or which does not retain the election of aldermen by wards or trustees by districts, shall have veto power as provided in Sections 5-3-2 through 5-3-4, and ordinances or measures may be passed over his veto as therein provided. Such mayor or president shall have the power to vote as provided in Section 5-3-5.

If any other Acts or any Article of this Code, other than Article 3 or Article 4, provides for the appointment of a board, commission, or other agency by the mayor or president, such appointments shall be made in manner so provided.

(Source: P.A. 76-1426; revised 10-3-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.6)

Sec. 8-11-1.6. Non-home rule municipal retailers occupation tax; municipalities between 20,000 and 25,000. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 that has, prior to January 1, 1987, established a Redevelopment Project Area that has been certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary and has issued bonds or otherwise incurred indebtedness to pay for costs in excess of $5,000,000, which is secured in part by a tax increment allocation fund, in accordance with the provisions of Division 11-74.4 of this Code may, by passage of an ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property, other than on an item of tangible personal property that is titled and registered by an agency of this State's Government, at retail in the municipality. This tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in .25% increments of the gross receipts from such sales made in the course of business. Any tax imposed by a municipality under this Section and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. An ordinance imposing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the retailer to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted under this Section without registering separately with the Department under the ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda, arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

A tax may not be imposed by a municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.7 of this Act.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section, may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax which sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant, instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund, which is hereby created.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which retailers have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the municipality, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 2% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

For the purpose of determining the local governmental unit whose tax is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

As used in this Section, "municipal" and "municipality" means a city, village, or incorporated town, including an incorporated town that has superseded a civil township.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 10-3-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/8-11-1.7)

Sec. 8-11-1.7. Non-home rule municipal service occupation tax; municipalities between 20,000 and 25,000. The corporate authorities of a non-home rule municipality with a population of more than 20,000 but less than 25,000 as determined by the last preceding decennial census that has, prior to January 1, 1987, established a Redevelopment Project Area that has been certified as a State Sales Tax Boundary and has issued bonds or otherwise incurred indebtedness to pay for costs in excess of $5,000,000, which is secured in part by a tax increment allocation fund, in accordance with the provisions of Division 11-74.4 of this Code may, by passage of an ordinance, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the municipality in the business of making sales of service. If imposed, the tax shall only be imposed in .25% increments of the selling price of all tangible personal property transferred by such servicemen either in the form of tangible personal property or in the form of real estate as an incident to a sale of service. This tax may not be imposed on the sales of food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics. The tax imposed by a municipality under this Section Sec. and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. An ordinance imposing a tax hereunder or effecting a change in the rate thereof shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance or resolution enacted under this Section without registering separately with the Department under the ordinance or resolution or under this Section. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this Section, to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in a manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of and compliance with this Section, the Department and persons who are subject to this Section shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2, 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the taxing municipality), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the taxing municipality), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, and except that the returned merchandise credit for this municipal tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12, (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the taxing municipality), the first paragraph of Sections 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

A tax may not be imposed by a municipality under this Section unless the municipality also imposes a tax at the same rate under Section 8-11-1.6 of this Act.

Person subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this Section may reimburse themselves for their servicemen's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, under such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this Section to a claimant instead of issuing credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in such notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Non-Home Rule Municipal Retailers' Occupation Tax Fund.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected hereunder.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the disbursement of stated sums of money to named municipalities, the municipalities to be those from which suppliers and servicemen have paid taxes or penalties hereunder to the Department during the second preceding calendar month. The amount to be paid to each municipality shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected hereunder during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, and not including an amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of such municipality, and not including any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 2% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the municipalities, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this Section. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the disbursement certification to the municipalities, the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, and the General Revenue Fund, provided for in this Section to be given to the Comptroller by the Department, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the respective amounts in accordance with the directions contained in the certification.

When certifying the amount of a monthly disbursement to a municipality under this Section, the Department shall increase or decrease the amount by an amount necessary to offset any misallocation of previous disbursements. The offset amount shall be the amount erroneously disbursed within the previous 6 months from the time a misallocation is discovered.

Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize a municipality to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 10-3-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-4) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-4)

Sec. 10-2.1-4. Fire and police departments; appointment of members; certificates of appointments. The board of fire and police commissioners shall appoint all officers and members of the fire and police departments of the municipality, including the chief of police and the chief of the fire department, unless the council or board of trustees shall by ordinance as to them otherwise provide; except as otherwise provided in this Section, and except that in any municipality which adopts or has adopted this Division 2.1 and also adopts or has adopted Article 5 of this Code, the chief of police and the chief of the fire department shall be appointed by the municipal manager, if it is provided by ordinance in such municipality that such chiefs, or either of them, shall not be appointed by the board of fire and police commissioners.

If the chief of the fire department or the chief of the police department or both of them are appointed in the manner provided by ordinance, they may be removed or discharged by the appointing authority. In such case the appointing authority shall file with the corporate authorities the reasons for such removal or discharge, which removal or discharge shall not become effective unless confirmed by a majority vote of the corporate authorities.

After August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-425) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, a person shall not be appointed as the chief, the acting chief, the department head, or a position, by whatever title, that is responsible for day-to-day operations of a fire department for greater than 180 days unless he or she possesses the following qualifications and certifications:

(1) Office of the State Fire Marshal Firefighter Basic Certification or Firefighter II Certification; Office of the State Fire Marshal Fire Officer I and II Certifications; and an associate degree in fire science or a bachelor's degree from an accredited university or college; or

(2) a minimum of 10 years' experience as a firefighter at the fire department in the jurisdiction making the appointment. This paragraph applies to fire departments that employ firefighters hired under the provisions of this Division.

If a member of the department is appointed chief of police or chief of the fire department prior to being eligible to retire on pension, he shall be considered as on furlough from the rank he held immediately prior to his appointment as chief. If he resigns as chief or is discharged as chief prior to attaining eligibility to retire on pension, he shall revert to and be established in whatever rank he currently holds, except for previously appointed positions, and thereafter be entitled to all the benefits and emoluments of that rank, without regard as to whether a vacancy then exists in that rank.

All appointments to each department other than that of the lowest rank, however, shall be from the rank next below that to which the appointment is made except as otherwise provided in this Section, and except that the chief of police and the chief of the fire department may be appointed from among members of the police and fire departments, respectively, regardless of rank, unless the council or board of trustees shall have by ordinance as to them otherwise provided. A chief of police or the chief of the fire department, having been appointed from among members of the police or fire department, respectively, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as chief of police or chief of the fire department.

The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment shall be vested in the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners and all certificates of appointments issued to any officer or member of the fire or police department of a municipality shall be signed by the chairman and secretary respectively of the board of fire and police commissioners of such municipality, upon appointment of such officer or member of the fire and police department of such municipality by action of the board of fire and police commissioners. After being selected from the register of eligibles to fill a vacancy in the affected department, each appointee shall be presented with his or her certificate of appointment on the day on which he or she is sworn in as a classified member of the affected department. Firefighters who were not issued a certificate of appointment when originally appointed shall be provided with a certificate within 10 days after making a written request to the chairperson of the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners. In any municipal fire department that employs full-time firefighters and is subject to a collective bargaining agreement, a person who has not qualified for regular appointment under the provisions of this Division 2.1 shall not be used as a temporary or permanent substitute for classified members of a municipality's fire department or for regular appointment as a classified member of a municipality's fire department unless mutually agreed to by the employee's certified bargaining agent. Such agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. Municipal fire departments covered by the changes made by Public Act 95-490 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly that are using non-certificated employees as substitutes immediately prior to June 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-490) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly may, by mutual agreement with the certified bargaining agent, continue the existing practice or a modified practice and that agreement shall be considered a permissive subject of bargaining. A home rule unit may not regulate the hiring of temporary or substitute members of the municipality's fire department in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

The term "policemen" as used in this Division does not include auxiliary police officers except as provided for in Section 10-2.1-6.

Any full-time full time member of a regular fire or police department of any municipality which comes under the provisions of this Division or adopts this Division 2.1 or which has adopted any of the prior Acts pertaining to fire and police commissioners, is a city officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Chief of Police of a department in a non-home rule municipality of more than 130,000 inhabitants may, without the advice or consent of the Board of Fire and Police Commissioners, appoint up to 6 officers who shall be known as deputy chiefs or assistant deputy chiefs, and whose rank shall be immediately below that of Chief. The deputy or assistant deputy chiefs may be appointed from any rank of sworn officers of that municipality, but no person who is not such a sworn officer may be so appointed. Such deputy chief or assistant deputy chief shall have the authority to direct and issue orders to all employees of the Department holding the rank of captain or any lower rank. A deputy chief of police or assistant deputy chief of police, having been appointed from any rank of sworn officers of that municipality, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as deputy chief of police or assistant deputy chief of police.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a non-home rule municipality of 130,000 or fewer inhabitants, through its council or board of trustees, may, by ordinance, provide for a position of deputy chief to be appointed by the chief of the police department. The ordinance shall provide for no more than one deputy chief position if the police department has fewer than 25 full-time police officers and for no more than 2 deputy chief positions if the police department has 25 or more full-time police officers. The deputy chief position shall be an exempt rank immediately below that of Chief. The deputy chief may be appointed from any rank of sworn, full-time officers of the municipality's police department, but must have at least 5 years of full-time service as a police officer in that department. A deputy chief shall serve at the discretion of the Chief and, if removed from the position, shall revert to the rank currently held, without regard as to whether a vacancy exists in that rank. A deputy chief of police, having been appointed from any rank of sworn full-time officers of that municipality's police department, shall be permitted, regardless of rank, to take promotional exams and be promoted to a higher classified rank than he currently holds, without having to resign as deputy chief of police.

No municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 shall require that any firefighter appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of longer than one year. The limitation on periods of probationary employment provided in Public Act 86-990 this amendatory Act of 1989 is an exclusive power and function of the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule municipality having a population less than 1,000,000 must comply with this limitation on periods of probationary employment, which is a denial and limitation of home rule powers. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.

To the extent that this Section or any other Section in this Division conflicts with Section 10-2.1-6.3 or 10-2.1-6.4, then Section 10-2.1-6.3 or 10-2.1-6.4 shall control.

(Source: P.A. 100-252, eff. 8-22-17; 100-425, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-3-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-4-2)

Sec. 10-4-2. Group insurance.

(a) The corporate authorities of any municipality may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the municipality, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, and may arrange to provide that insurance for the benefit of the spouses or dependents of those employees. The insurance may include provision for employees or other insured persons who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The corporate authorities may provide for payment by the municipality of a portion of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge. If the corporate authorities undertake a plan under which the municipality pays a portion of the premium or charge, the corporate authorities shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those municipal employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the corporate authorities do not provide for a plan under which the municipality pays a portion of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the corporate authorities may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The corporate authorities may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois, or are obtained through an intergovernmental joint self-insurance pool as authorized under the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act. The corporate authorities may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the municipality elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 10-4-2.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

For purposes of this subsection, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A municipality, including a home rule municipality, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule municipality powers. A home rule municipality to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those through subsections.

(e) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045 this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-1045, eff. 3-27-09; revised 10-3-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)

Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a municipality, including a home rule municipality, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, and 356z.25, and 356z.26 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, 356z.19, and 370c of the Illinois Insurance Code. The requirement that health benefits be covered as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule municipality to which this Section applies must comply with every provision of this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)

Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment projects.

(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15, 1981.

(a-5) If the redevelopment project area is located within a transit facility improvement area established pursuant to Section 11-74.4-3, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted.

(a-7) A municipality may adopt tax increment financing for a redevelopment project area located in a transit facility improvement area that also includes real property located within an existing redevelopment project area established prior to August 12, 2016 (the effective date of Public Act 99-792). In such case: (i) the provisions of this Division shall apply with respect to the previously established redevelopment project area until the municipality adopts, as required in accordance with applicable provisions of this Division, an ordinance dissolving the special tax allocation fund for such redevelopment project area and terminating the designation of such redevelopment project area as a redevelopment project area; and (ii) after the effective date of the ordinance described in (i), the provisions of this Division shall apply with respect to the subsequently established redevelopment project area located in a transit facility improvement area.

(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 32nd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on September 9, 1999 by the Village of Downs.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.

The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 28th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was adopted on October 12, 1989 by the City of Lawrenceville.

(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was adopted:

(1) If the ordinance was adopted before January 15, 1981.

(2) If the ordinance was adopted in December 1983, April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989.

(3) If the ordinance was adopted in December 1987 and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of Midway Airport.

(4) If the ordinance was adopted before January 1, 1987 by a municipality in Mason County.

(5) If the municipality is subject to the Local Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the Financially Distressed City Law.

(6) If the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by the Village of Rosemont.

(7) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on June 17, 1997.

(8) If the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982 by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis.

(9) If the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1991 by the Village of Sauget.

(10) If the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1985 by the City of Rock Island.

(11) If the ordinance was adopted before December 18, 1986 by the City of Moline.

(12) If the ordinance was adopted in September 1988 by Sauk Village.

(13) If the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by Sauk Village.

(14) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galva.

(15) If the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by the City of Centreville.

(16) If the ordinance was adopted on January 23, 1991 by the City of East St. Louis.

(17) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Aledo.

(18) If the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1990 by the City of Clinton.

(19) If the ordinance was adopted on September 6, 1994 by the City of Freeport.

(20) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Tuscola.

(21) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Sparta.

(22) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the City of Beardstown.

(23) If the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981, October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of Belleville.

(24) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Collinsville.

(25) If the ordinance was adopted on September 14, 1994 by the City of Alton.

(26) If the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1996 by the City of Lexington.

(27) If the ordinance was adopted on November 5, 1984 by the City of LeRoy.

(28) If the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991 or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham.

(29) If the ordinance was adopted on November 11, 1986 by the City of Pekin.

(30) If the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1981 by the City of Champaign.

(31) If the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the City of Urbana.

(32) If the ordinance was adopted on December 15, 1986 by the Village of Heyworth.

(33) If the ordinance was adopted on February 24, 1992 by the Village of Heyworth.

(34) If the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995 by the Village of Heyworth.

(35) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Town of Cicero.

(36) If the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the City of Effingham.

(37) If the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by the Village of Tilton.

(38) If the ordinance was adopted on October 20, 1986 by the City of Elmhurst.

(39) If the ordinance was adopted on January 19, 1988 by the City of Waukegan.

(40) If the ordinance was adopted on September 21, 1998 by the City of Waukegan.

(41) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Sullivan.

(42) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1991 by the City of Sullivan.

(43) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the City of Oglesby.

(44) If the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987 by the City of Marion.

(45) If the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990 by the City of Marion.

(46) If the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985 by the Village of Mount Prospect.

(47) If the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1998 by the Village of Woodhull.

(48) If the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993 by the Village of Princeville.

(49) If the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by the City of Granite City.

(50) If the ordinance was adopted on February 2, 1989 by the Village of Lombard.

(51) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the Village of Gardner.

(52) If the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999 by the Village of Paw Paw.

(53) If the ordinance was adopted on November 17, 1986 by the Village of Franklin Park.

(54) If the ordinance was adopted on November 20, 1989 by the Village of South Holland.

(55) If the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992 by the Village of Riverdale.

(56) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Galesburg.

(57) If the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985 by the City of Galesburg.

(58) If the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by the City of West Chicago.

(59) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Oak Forest.

(60) If the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the City of Villa Grove.

(61) If the ordinance was adopted on January 13, 1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion.

(62) If the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Manteno.

(63) If the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989 by the City of Chicago Heights.

(64) If the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999 by the Village of Rosemont.

(65) If the ordinance was adopted on December 19, 2000 by the Village of Stone Park.

(66) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of DeKalb.

(67) If the ordinance was adopted on December 2, 1986 by the City of Aurora.

(68) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Milan.

(69) If the ordinance was adopted on September 8, 1994 by the City of West Frankfort.

(70) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1986 by the Village of Libertyville.

(71) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates.

(72) If the ordinance was adopted on September 17, 1986 by the Village of Sherman.

(73) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Macomb.

(74) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the West Washington Street TIF.

(75) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of East Peoria to create the Camp Street TIF.

(76) If the ordinance was adopted on August 7, 2000 by the City of Des Plaines.

(77) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1986 by the City of Washington to create the Washington Square TIF #2.

(78) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Morris.

(79) If the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Steeleville.

(80) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF I (the Main St TIF).

(81) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF II (the Interstate TIF).

(82) If the ordinance was adopted on November 6, 2002 by the City of Chicago to create the Madden/Wells TIF District.

(83) If the ordinance was adopted on November 4, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Roosevelt/Racine TIF District.

(84) If the ordinance was adopted on June 10, 1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Stony Island Commercial/Burnside Industrial Corridors TIF District.

(85) If the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Englewood Mall TIF District.

(86) If the ordinance was adopted on December 27, 1986 by the City of Mendota.

(87) If the ordinance was adopted on December 31, 1986 by the Village of Cahokia.

(88) If the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1999 by the City of Belleville.

(89) If the ordinance was adopted on December 30, 1986 by the Village of Bellevue to create the Bellevue TIF District 1.

(90) If the ordinance was adopted on December 13, 1993 by the Village of Crete.

(91) If the ordinance was adopted on February 12, 2001 by the Village of Crete.

(92) If the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 2001 by the Village of Crete.

(93) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1986 by the City of Champaign.

(94) If the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1986 by the City of Charleston.

(95) If the ordinance was adopted on June 6, 1989 by the Village of Romeoville.

(96) If the ordinance was adopted on October 14, 1993 and amended on August 2, 2010 by the City of Venice.

(97) If the ordinance was adopted on June 1, 1994 by the City of Markham.

(98) If the ordinance was adopted on May 19, 1998 by the Village of Bensenville.

(99) If the ordinance was adopted on November 12, 1987 by the City of Dixon.

(100) If the ordinance was adopted on December 20, 1988 by the Village of Lansing.

(101) If the ordinance was adopted on October 27, 1998 by the City of Moline.

(102) If the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1991 by the Village of Glenwood.

(103) If the ordinance was adopted on January 28, 1992 by the City of East Peoria.

(104) If the ordinance was adopted on December 14, 1998 by the City of Carlyle.

(105) If the ordinance was adopted on May 17, 2000, as subsequently amended, by the City of Chicago to create the Midwest Redevelopment TIF District.

(106) If the ordinance was adopted on September 13, 1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Michigan/Cermak Area TIF District.

(107) If the ordinance was adopted on March 30, 1992 by the Village of Ohio.

(108) If the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by the Village of Orangeville.

(109) If the ordinance was adopted on December 16, 1997 by the Village of Germantown.

(110) If the ordinance was adopted on April 28, 2003 by Gibson City.

(111) If the ordinance was adopted on December 18, 1990 by the Village of Washington Park, but only after the Village of Washington Park becomes compliant with the reporting requirements under subsection (d) of Section 11-74.4-5, and after the State Comptroller's certification of such compliance.

(112) If the ordinance was adopted on February 28, 2000 by the City of Harvey.

(113) If the ordinance was adopted on January 11, 1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Read/Dunning TIF District.

(114) If the ordinance was adopted on July 24, 1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Sanitary and Ship Canal TIF District.

(115) If the ordinance was adopted on December 4, 2007 by the City of Naperville.

(116) If the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 2002 by the Village of Arlington Heights.

(117) If the ordinance was adopted on February 11, 1991 by the Village of Machesney Park.

(118) If the ordinance was adopted on December 29, 1993 by the City of Ottawa.

(119) If the ordinance was adopted on June 4, 1991 by the Village of Lansing.

(120) If the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 2004 by the Village of Fox Lake.

(121) If the ordinance was adopted on December 22, 1992 by the City of Fairfield.

(122) If the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 1992 by the City of Mt. Sterling.

(123) If the ordinance was adopted on March 15, 2004 by the City of Batavia.

(124) If the ordinance was adopted on March 18, 2002 by the Village of Lake Zurich.

(125) If the ordinance was adopted on September 23, 1997 by the City of Granite City.

(126) If the ordinance was adopted on May 8, 2013 by the Village of Rosemont to create the Higgins Road/River Road TIF District No. 6.

(127) If the ordinance was adopted on November 22, 1993 by the City of Arcola.

(128) If the ordinance was adopted on September 7, 2004 by the City of Arcola.

(129) If the ordinance was adopted on November 29, 1999 by the City of Paris.

(130) If the ordinance was adopted on September 20, 1994 by the City of Ottawa to create the U.S. Route 6 East Ottawa TIF.

(131) If the ordinance was adopted on May 2, 2002 by the Village of Crestwood.

(132) If the ordinance was adopted on October 27, 1992 by the City of Blue Island.

(133) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1993 by the City of Lacon.

(134) If the ordinance was adopted on May 4, 1998 by the Village of Bradford.

(135) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of Oak Forest.

(136) If the ordinance was adopted on November 16, 1992 by the City of Pinckneyville.

(137) If the ordinance was adopted on March 1, 2001 by the Village of South Jacksonville.

(138) If the ordinance was adopted on February 26, 1992 by the City of Chicago to create the Stockyards Southeast Quadrant TIF District.

(139) If the ordinance was adopted on January 25, 1993 by the City of LaSalle.

(140) If the ordinance was adopted on December 23, 1997 by the Village of Dieterich.

(141) If the ordinance was adopted on February 10, 2016 by the Village of Rosemont to create the Balmoral/Pearl TIF No. 8 Tax Increment Financing Redevelopment Project Area.

(142) If the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002 by the City of Oak Forest.

(143) If the ordinance was adopted on January 31, 1995 by the Village of Milledgeville.

(144) (143) If the ordinance was adopted on February 5, 1996 by the Village of Pearl City.

(145) (143) If the ordinance was adopted on December 21, 1994 by the City of Calumet City.

(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.

(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1, 1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption of the ordinance.

(f-5) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8 only, shall be not more than 47 years for redevelopment project areas that were established on December 29, 1981 by the City of Springfield; provided that (i) the City of Springfield adopts an ordinance extending the life of the redevelopment project area to 47 years and (ii) the City of Springfield provides notice to the taxing bodies that would otherwise constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project area not more than 30 and not less than 14 days prior to the adoption of that ordinance.

(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section, it is not the intent of the General Assembly to make any substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the completion dates for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan, the City of West Frankfort, the Village of Libertyville, and the Village of Hoffman Estates set forth under items (67), (68), (69), (70), and (71) of subsection (c) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-136, eff. 7-24-15; 99-263, eff. 8-4-15; 99-361, eff. 1-1-16; 99-394, eff. 8-18-15; 99-495, eff. 12-17-15; 99-508, eff. 6-24-16; 99-792, eff. 8-12-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-214, eff. 8-18-17; 100-249, eff. 8-22-17; 100-510, eff. 9-15-17; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 260. The Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(70 ILCS 210/13) (from Ch. 85, par. 1233)

Sec. 13. (a) The Authority shall not have power to levy taxes for any purpose, except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f).

(b) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after July 1, 1992 (the effective date of Public Act 87-733) this amendatory Act of 1991, impose a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail within the territory described in this subsection at the rate of 1.0% of the gross receipts (i) from the sale of food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks sold for consumption on the premises where sold and (ii) from the sale of food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks sold for consumption off the premises where sold by a retailer whose principal source of gross receipts is from the sale of food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks prepared for immediate consumption.

The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, shall be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms, and shall employ the same modes of procedure applicable to this Retailers' Occupation Tax as are prescribed in Sections 1, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions of those Sections other than the State rate of taxes), 2c, 2h, 2i, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5i, 5j, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and, until January 1, 1994, 13.5 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, on and after January 1, 1994, all applicable provisions of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act that are not inconsistent with this Act, as fully as if provisions contained in those Sections of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act were set forth in this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability under this subsection by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act, pursuant to bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe. The retailer filing the return shall, at the time of filing the return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed under this subsection, less a discount of 1.75%, which is allowed to reimburse the retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department on request.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

Nothing in this subsection authorizes the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

The Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee for the Authority, all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside of the State Treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section, which shall be the amounts, not including credit memoranda, collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amounts determined by the Department to be necessary for the payment of refunds, less 2% of such balance, which sum shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund in the State Treasury from which it shall be appropriated to the Department to cover the costs of the Department in administering and enforcing the provisions of this subsection, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for the remaining amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer those amounts as required in subsection (g).

A certificate of registration issued by the Illinois Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under this subsection, and no additional registration shall be required under the ordinance imposing the tax or under this subsection.

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Department, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

The tax authorized to be levied under this subsection may be levied within all or any part of the following described portions of the metropolitan area:

(1) that portion of the City of Chicago located within the following area: Beginning at the point of intersection of the Cook County - DuPage County line and York Road, then North along York Road to its intersection with Touhy Avenue, then east along Touhy Avenue to its intersection with the Northwest Tollway, then southeast along the Northwest Tollway to its intersection with Lee Street, then south along Lee Street to Higgins Road, then south and east along Higgins Road to its intersection with Mannheim Road, then south along Mannheim Road to its intersection with Irving Park Road, then west along Irving Park Road to its intersection with the Cook County - DuPage County line, then north and west along the county line to the point of beginning; and

(2) that portion of the City of Chicago located within the following area: Beginning at the intersection of West 55th Street with Central Avenue, then east along West 55th Street to its intersection with South Cicero Avenue, then south along South Cicero Avenue to its intersection with West 63rd Street, then west along West 63rd Street to its intersection with South Central Avenue, then north along South Central Avenue to the point of beginning; and

(3) that portion of the City of Chicago located within the following area: Beginning at the point 150 feet west of the intersection of the west line of North Ashland Avenue and the north line of West Diversey Avenue, then north 150 feet, then east along a line 150 feet north of the north line of West Diversey Avenue extended to the shoreline of Lake Michigan, then following the shoreline of Lake Michigan (including Navy Pier and all other improvements fixed to land, docks, or piers) to the point where the shoreline of Lake Michigan and the Adlai E. Stevenson Expressway extended east to that shoreline intersect, then west along the Adlai E. Stevenson Expressway to a point 150 feet west of the west line of South Ashland Avenue, then north along a line 150 feet west of the west line of South and North Ashland Avenue to the point of beginning.

The tax authorized to be levied under this subsection may also be levied on food, alcoholic beverages, and soft drinks sold on boats and other watercraft departing from and returning to the shoreline of Lake Michigan (including Navy Pier and all other improvements fixed to land, docks, or piers) described in item (3).

(c) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after July 1, 1992 (the effective date of Public Act 87-733) this amendatory Act of 1991, impose an occupation tax upon all persons engaged in the corporate limits of the City of Chicago in the business of renting, leasing, or letting rooms in a hotel, as defined in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, at a rate of 2.5% of the gross rental receipts from the renting, leasing, or letting of hotel rooms within the City of Chicago, excluding, however, from gross rental receipts the proceeds of renting, leasing, or letting to permanent residents of a hotel, as defined in that Act. Gross rental receipts shall not include charges that are added on account of the liability arising from any tax imposed by the State or any governmental agency on the occupation of renting, leasing, or letting rooms in a hotel.

The tax imposed by the Authority under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration that is issued by the Department to a lessor under the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act shall permit that registrant to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance enacted under this subsection without registering separately with the Department under that ordinance or under this subsection. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, shall be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and shall employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act (except where that Act is inconsistent with this subsection), as fully as if the provisions contained in the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act were set out in this subsection.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their tax liability for that tax by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes imposed under the Hotel Operators' Occupation Tax Act, the municipal tax imposed under Section 8-3-13 of the Illinois Municipal Code, and the tax imposed under Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act.

The person filing the return shall, at the time of filing the return, pay to the Department the amount of tax, less a discount of 2.1% or $25 per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the operator for the expenses incurred in keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax, and supplying data to the Department on request.

Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee for the Authority, all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall certify to the Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section, which shall be the amounts (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amounts determined by the Department to be necessary for payment of refunds, less 2% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the Authority, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the Department's certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer the amounts distributed to the Authority as required in subsection (g).

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

(d) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after July 1, 1992 (the effective date of Public Act 87-733) this amendatory Act of 1991, impose a tax upon all persons engaged in the business of renting automobiles in the metropolitan area at the rate of 6% of the gross receipts from that business, except that no tax shall be imposed on the business of renting automobiles for use as taxicabs or in livery service. The tax imposed under this subsection and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident to that tax shall be collected and enforced by the Illinois Department of Revenue. The certificate of registration issued by the Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act shall permit that person to engage in a business that is taxable under any ordinance enacted under this subsection without registering separately with the Department under that ordinance or under this subsection. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes and penalties due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 and 3 (in respect to all provisions of those Sections other than the State rate of tax; and in respect to the provisions of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act referred to in those Sections, except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected, except for the provision allowing retailers a deduction from the tax to cover certain costs, and except that credit memoranda issued under this subsection may not be used to discharge any State tax liability) of the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, as fully as if provisions contained in those Sections of that Act were set forth in this subsection.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this subsection may reimburse themselves for their tax liability under this subsection by separately stating that tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that sellers are required to collect under the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, pursuant to bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes and penalties collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall certify to the Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amount determined by the Department to be necessary for payment of refunds, less 2% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the Authority, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the Department's certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer the amounts distributed to the Authority as required in subsection (g).

Nothing in this subsection authorizes the Authority to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business that under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax under this subsection or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

(e) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after July 1, 1992 (the effective date of Public Act 87-733) this amendatory Act of 1991, impose a tax upon the privilege of using in the metropolitan area an automobile that is rented from a rentor outside Illinois and is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government at a rate of 6% of the rental price of that automobile, except that no tax shall be imposed on the privilege of using automobiles rented for use as taxicabs or in livery service. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the metropolitan area. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for the Authority. The tax must be paid to the State or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which or State officer with whom the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and that agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this subsection, to collect all taxes, penalties, and interest due under this subsection, to dispose of taxes, penalties, and interest so collected in the manner provided in this subsection, and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty, or interest under this subsection. In the administration of and compliance with this subsection, the Department and persons who are subject to this subsection shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure as are prescribed in Sections 2 and 4 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax; and in respect to the provisions of the Use Tax Act referred to in that Section, except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers, except the provisions of Section 19 pertaining to claims by retailers, except the last paragraph concerning refunds, and except that credit memoranda issued under this subsection may not be used to discharge any State tax liability) of the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act, as fully as if provisions contained in those Sections of that Act were set forth in this subsection.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this subsection to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause a warrant to be drawn for the amount specified and to the person named in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority trust fund held by the State Treasurer as trustee for the Authority.

Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the Department shall forthwith pay over to the State Treasurer, ex officio, as trustee, all taxes, penalties, and interest collected under this subsection for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall certify to the State Comptroller the amounts to be paid under subsection (g) of this Section, which shall be the amounts (not including credit memoranda) collected under this subsection during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, less any amounts determined by the Department to be necessary for payment of refunds, less 2% of the remainder, which the Department shall transfer into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the Authority, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the State Comptroller of the Department's certification, the Comptroller shall cause the orders to be drawn for such amounts, and the Treasurer shall administer the amounts distributed to the Authority as required in subsection (g).

A certified copy of any ordinance imposing or discontinuing a tax or effecting a change in the rate of that tax shall be filed with the Illinois Department of Revenue, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this subsection on behalf of the Authority as of the first day of the third calendar month following the date of filing.

(f) By ordinance the Authority shall, as soon as practicable after July 1, 1992 (the effective date of Public Act 87-733) this amendatory Act of 1991, impose an occupation tax on all persons, other than a governmental agency, engaged in the business of providing ground transportation for hire to passengers in the metropolitan area at a rate of (i) $4 per taxi or livery vehicle departure with passengers for hire from commercial service airports in the metropolitan area, (ii) for each departure with passengers for hire from a commercial service airport in the metropolitan area in a bus or van operated by a person other than a person described in item (iii): $18 per bus or van with a capacity of 1-12 passengers, $36 per bus or van with a capacity of 13-24 passengers, and $54 per bus or van with a capacity of over 24 passengers, and (iii) for each departure with passengers for hire from a commercial service airport in the metropolitan area in a bus or van operated by a person regulated by the Interstate Commerce Commission or Illinois Commerce Commission, operating scheduled service from the airport, and charging fares on a per passenger basis: $2 per passenger for hire in each bus or van. The term "commercial service airports" means those airports receiving scheduled passenger service and enplaning more than 100,000 passengers per year.

In the ordinance imposing the tax, the Authority may provide for the administration and enforcement of the tax and the collection of the tax from persons subject to the tax as the Authority determines to be necessary or practicable for the effective administration of the tax. The Authority may enter into agreements as it deems appropriate with any governmental agency providing for that agency to act as the Authority's agent to collect the tax.

In the ordinance imposing the tax, the Authority may designate a method or methods for persons subject to the tax to reimburse themselves for the tax liability arising under the ordinance (i) by separately stating the full amount of the tax liability as an additional charge to passengers departing the airports, (ii) by separately stating one-half of the tax liability as an additional charge to both passengers departing from and to passengers arriving at the airports, or (iii) by some other method determined by the Authority.

All taxes, penalties, and interest collected under any ordinance adopted under this subsection, less any amounts determined to be necessary for the payment of refunds and less the taxes, penalties, and interest attributable to any increase in the rate of tax authorized by Public Act 96-898, shall be paid forthwith to the State Treasurer, ex officio, for deposit into a trust fund held outside the State Treasury and shall be administered by the State Treasurer as provided in subsection (g) of this Section. All taxes, penalties, and interest attributable to any increase in the rate of tax authorized by Public Act 96-898 shall be paid by the State Treasurer as follows: 25% for deposit into the Convention Center Support Fund, to be used by the Village of Rosemont for the repair, maintenance, and improvement of the Donald E. Stephens Convention Center and for debt service on debt instruments issued for those purposes by the village and 75% to the Authority to be used for grants to an organization meeting the qualifications set out in Section 5.6 of this Act, provided the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority has entered into a marketing agreement with such an organization.

(g) Amounts deposited from the proceeds of taxes imposed by the Authority under subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this Section and amounts deposited under Section 19 of the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury and, other than the amounts transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e), shall be administered by the Treasurer as follows:

(1) An amount necessary for the payment of refunds with respect to those taxes shall be retained in the trust fund and used for those payments.

(2) On July 20 and on the 20th of each month thereafter, provided that the amount requested in the annual certificate of the Chairman of the Authority filed under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act has been appropriated for payment to the Authority, 1/8 of the local tax transfer amount, together with any cumulative deficiencies in the amounts transferred into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund under this subparagraph (2) during the fiscal year for which the certificate has been filed, shall be transferred from the trust fund into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the State treasury until 100% of the local tax transfer amount has been so transferred. "Local tax transfer amount" shall mean the amount requested in the annual certificate, minus the reduction amount. "Reduction amount" shall mean $41.7 million in fiscal year 2011, $36.7 million in fiscal year 2012, $36.7 million in fiscal year 2013, $36.7 million in fiscal year 2014, and $31.7 million in each fiscal year thereafter until 2032, provided that the reduction amount shall be reduced by (i) the amount certified by the Authority to the State Comptroller and State Treasurer under Section 8.25 of the State Finance Act, as amended, with respect to that fiscal year and (ii) in any fiscal year in which the amounts deposited in the trust fund under this Section exceed $318.3 million, exclusive of amounts set aside for refunds and for the reserve account, one dollar for each dollar of the deposits in the trust fund above $318.3 million with respect to that year, exclusive of amounts set aside for refunds and for the reserve account.

(3) On July 20, 2010, the Comptroller shall certify to the Governor, the Treasurer, and the Chairman of the Authority the 2010 deficiency amount, which means the cumulative amount of transfers that were due from the trust fund to the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in fiscal years 2008, 2009, and 2010 under Section 13(g) of this Act, as it existed prior to May 27, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-898), but not made. On July 20, 2011 and on July 20 of each year through July 20, 2014, the Treasurer shall calculate for the previous fiscal year the surplus revenues in the trust fund and pay that amount to the Authority. On July 20, 2015 and on July 20 of each year thereafter to and including July 20, 2017, as long as bonds and notes issued under Section 13.2 or bonds and notes issued to refund those bonds and notes are outstanding, the Treasurer shall calculate for the previous fiscal year the surplus revenues in the trust fund and pay one-half of that amount to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund until the 2010 deficiency amount has been paid and shall pay the balance of the surplus revenues to the Authority. On July 20, 2018 and on July 20 of each year thereafter, the Treasurer shall calculate for the previous fiscal year the surplus revenues in the trust fund and pay all of such surplus revenues to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund until the 2010 deficiency amount has been paid. After the 2010 deficiency amount has been paid, the Treasurer shall pay the balance of the surplus revenues to the Authority. "Surplus revenues" means the amounts remaining in the trust fund on June 30 of the previous fiscal year (A) after the State Treasurer has set aside in the trust fund (i) amounts retained for refunds under subparagraph (1) and (ii) any amounts necessary to meet the reserve account amount and (B) after the State Treasurer has transferred from the trust fund to the General Revenue Fund 100% of any post-2010 deficiency amount. "Reserve account amount" means $15 million in fiscal year 2011 and $30 million in each fiscal year thereafter. The reserve account amount shall be set aside in the trust fund and used as a reserve to be transferred to the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund in the event the proceeds of taxes imposed under this Section 13 are not sufficient to fund the transfer required in subparagraph (2). "Post-2010 deficiency amount" means any deficiency in transfers from the trust fund to the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund with respect to fiscal years 2011 and thereafter. It is the intention of this subparagraph (3) that no surplus revenues shall be paid to the Authority with respect to any year in which a post-2010 deficiency amount has not been satisfied by the Authority.

Moneys received by the Authority as surplus revenues may be used (i) for the purposes of paying debt service on the bonds and notes issued by the Authority, including early redemption of those bonds or notes, (ii) for the purposes of repair, replacement, and improvement of the grounds, buildings, and facilities of the Authority, and (iii) for the corporate purposes of the Authority in fiscal years 2011 through 2015 in an amount not to exceed $20,000,000 annually or $80,000,000 total, which amount shall be reduced $0.75 for each dollar of the receipts of the Authority in that year from any contract entered into with respect to naming rights at McCormick Place under Section 5(m) of this Act. When bonds and notes issued under Section 13.2, or bonds or notes issued to refund those bonds and notes, are no longer outstanding, the balance in the trust fund shall be paid to the Authority.

(h) The ordinances imposing the taxes authorized by this Section shall be repealed when bonds and notes issued under Section 13.2 or bonds and notes issued to refund those bonds and notes are no longer outstanding.

(Source: P.A. 100-23, Article 5, Section 5-35, eff. 7-6-17; 100-23, Article 35, Section 35-25, eff. 7-6-17; revised 8-15-17.)

Section 265. The Local Mass Transit District Act is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3610/8) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 358)

Sec. 8. Every District shall be subject to the provisions of the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as heretofore and hereafter amended.

(Source: Laws 1959, p. 1635; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 270. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is amended by changing Sections 2.02, 2.06, and 2.21 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3615/2.02) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 702.02)

Sec. 2.02. Purchase of service contracts; grants Service Contracts - Grants.

(a) The Service Boards may purchase public transportation from transportation agencies upon such terms and conditions as may be set forth in purchase of service agreements between the Service Boards and the transportation agencies.

(b) Grants may be made either by: (i) the Authority to a Service Board; or (ii) a Service Board to either a transportation agency or another Service Board, all for operating and other expenses, or for developing or planning public transportation or for constructing or acquiring public transportation facilities, all upon such terms and conditions as that Service Board or the Authority shall prescribe or as that Service Board and the Authority or that Service Board and the transportation agency shall agree in any grant contract.

(c) The Board shall adopt, to the extent it determines feasible, guidelines setting forth uniform standards for the making of grants and purchase of service agreements. Such grant contracts contacts or purchase of service agreements may be for such number of years or duration as the parties shall agree.

Any purchase of service agreement with a transportation agency which is not a public body shall be upon terms and conditions which will allow the transportation agency to receive for the public transportation provided pursuant to the agreement net income, after reasonable deductions for depreciation and other proper and necessary reserves, equal to an amount which is a reasonable return upon the value of such portion of the transportation agency's property as is used and useful in rendering such transportation service. This paragraph shall be construed in a manner consistent with the principles applicable to such a transportation agency in rate proceedings under the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as now or hereafter amended. This paragraph shall not be construed to provide for the funding of reserves or guarantee that such a transportation agency shall in fact receive any return. A Service Board shall, within 180 days after receiving a written request from a transportation agency which is not a public body, tender and offer to enter into with such transportation agency a purchase of service agreement that is in conformity with this Act and that covers the public transportation services by rail (other than experimental or demonstration services) which such agency is providing at the time of such request and which services either were in operation for at least one year immediately preceding the effective date of this Act or were in operation pursuant to a purchase of service or grant agreement with the Authority or Service Board. No such tender by a Service Board need be made before April 1, 1975. The first purchase of service agreement so requested shall not, unless the parties agree otherwise, become effective prior to June 30, 1975. If, following such a request and tender, a Service Board and the transportation agency do not agree upon the amount of compensation to be provided to the agency by the Service Board under the purchase of service agreement or fares and charges under the purchase of service agreement, either of them may submit such unresolved issues to the Illinois Commerce Commission for determination. The Commission shall determine the unresolved issues in conformity with this Act. The Commission's determination shall be set forth in writing, together with such terms as are agreed by the parties and any other unresolved terms as tendered by the Service Board, in a single document which shall constitute the entire purchase of service agreement between the Service Board and the transportation agency, which agreement, in the absence of contrary agreement by the parties, shall be for a term of 3 years effective as of July 1, 1975, or, if the agreement is requested to succeed a currently effective or recently expired purchase of service agreement between the parties, as of the date of such expiration. The decision of the Commission shall be binding upon the Service Board and the transportation agency, subject to judicial review as provided in the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", as approved June 29, 1921, as now or hereafter amended, but the parties may at any time mutually amend or terminate a purchase of service agreement. Prompt settlement between the parties shall be made of any sums owing under the terms of the purchase of service agreement so established for public transportation services performed on and after the effective date of any such agreement. If the Authority reduces the amount of operating subsidy available to a Service Board under the provisions of Section 4.09 or Section 4.11, the Service Board shall, from those funds available to it under Section 4.02, first discharge its financial obligations under the terms of a purchase of service contract to any transportation agency which is not a public body, unless such transportation agency has failed to take any action requested by the Service Board, which under the terms of the purchase of service contract the Service Board can require the transportation agency to take, which would have the effect of reducing the financial obligation of the Service Board to the transportation agency. The provisions of this paragraph (c) shall not preclude a Service Board and a transportation agency from otherwise entering into a purchase of service or grant agreement in conformity with this Act or an agreement for the Authority or a Service Board to purchase or a Service Board to operate that agency's public transportation facilities, and shall not limit the exercise of the right of eminent domain by the Authority pursuant to this Act.

(d) Any transportation agency providing public transportation pursuant to a purchase of service or grant agreement with the Authority or a Service Board shall be subject to the "Illinois Human Rights Act", as now or hereafter amended, and the remedies and procedures established thereunder. Such agency shall file an affirmative action program for employment by it with regard to public transportation so provided with the Department of Human Rights within one year of the purchase of service or grant agreement, to ensure that applicants are employed and that employees are treated during employment, without unlawful discrimination. Such affirmative action program shall include provisions relating to hiring, upgrading, demotion, transfer, recruitment, recruitment advertising, selection for training and rates of pay or other forms of compensation. No unlawful discrimination as defined and prohibited in the Illinois Human Rights Act in any such employment shall be made in any term or aspect of employment and discrimination based upon political reasons or factors shall be prohibited.

(e) A Service Board, subject to the provisions of paragraph (c) of this Section, may not discriminate against a transportation agency with which it has a purchase of service contract or grant agreement in any condition affecting the operation of the public transportation facility including the level of subsidy provided, the quality or standard of public transportation to be provided or in meeting the financial obligations to transportation agencies under the terms of a purchase of service or grant contract. Any transportation agency that believes that a Service Board is discriminating against it may, after attempting to resolve the alleged discrimination by meeting with the Service Board with which it has a purchase of service or grant contract, appeal to the Authority. The Board shall name 3 of its members, other than a member of the board of the concerned Service Board, to serve as a panel to arbitrate the dispute. The panel shall render a recommended decision to the Board which shall be binding on the Service Board and the transportation agency if adopted by the Board. The panel may not require the Service Board to take any action which would increase the operating budget of the Service Board. The decision of the Board shall be enforceable in a court of general jurisdiction.

(Source: P.A. 83-885; 83-886; revised 10-3-17.)

(70 ILCS 3615/2.06) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 702.06)

Sec. 2.06. Use of streets and roads; relationship Streets and Roads - Relationship with Illinois Commerce Commission.

(a) The Authority may for the benefit of a Service Board, by ordinance, provide for special lanes for exclusive or special use by public transportation vehicles with regard to any roads, streets, ways, highways, bridges, toll highways or toll bridges in the metropolitan region, notwithstanding any governmental statute, ordinance or regulation to the contrary.

(b) The Authority, for the benefit of a Service Board, shall have the power to use and, by ordinance, to authorize any Service Board or transportation agency to use without any franchise, charge, permit or license any public road, street, way, highway, bridge, toll highway or toll bridge within the metropolitan region for the provision of public transportation. Transportation agencies which have purchase of service agreements with a Service Board as to any public transportation shall not as to any aspect of such public transportation be subject to any supervision, licensing or regulation imposed by any unit of local government in the metropolitan region, except as may be specifically authorized by the Authority and except for regular police supervision of vehicular traffic.

(c) The Authority shall not be subject to the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as now or hereafter amended. Transportation agencies which have any purchase of service agreement with a Service Board shall not be subject to that Act as to any public transportation which is the subject of such agreement. No contract or agreement entered into by any transportation agency with a Service Board shall be subject to approval of or regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission. If a Service Board shall determine that any particular public transportation service provided by a transportation agency with which the Service Board has a purchase of service agreement is not necessary for the public interest and shall, for that reason, decline to enter into any purchase of service agreement for such particular service, then the Service Board shall have no obligation pursuant to Section 2.02(c) to offer or make a purchase of service agreement with respect to that particular service and the transportation agency may discontinue the particular service. Such discontinuation shall not be subject to the approval of or regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission. The acquisition by the Authority by eminent domain of any property, from any transportation agency, shall not be subject to the approval of or regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission, provided, however, that the requirement in Section 7-102 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as amended, requiring in certain instances prior approval of the Illinois Commerce Commission for taking or damaging of property of railroads or other public utilities shall continue to apply as to any taking or damaging by the Authority of any real property of such a railroad not used for public transportation or of any real property of such other public utility.

(Source: P.A. 83-885; 83-886; revised 10-3-17.)

(70 ILCS 3615/2.21) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 702.21)

Sec. 2.21. (a) The Authority or the Commuter Rail Board may not in the exercise of its powers to provide effective public transportation as provided by this Act:

(i) require or authorize the operation of, or operate or acquire by eminent domain or otherwise, any public transportation facility or service on terms or in a manner which unreasonably interferes with the ability of a railroad to provide efficient freight or inter-city passenger service. This subparagraph shall not bar the Authority from acquiring title to any property pursuant to Section 2.13 in a manner consistent with this subparagraph.

(ii) obtain by eminent domain any interest in any right of way or any other real property of a railroad which is not a public body in excess of the interest to be used for public transportation as provided in this Act.

(iii) prohibit the operation of public transportation by a private carrier that does not receive a grant or purchase of service contract from the Authority or a Service Board.

(b) If in connection with any construction, acquisition, or other activity undertaken by or for the Authority or a Service Board, or pursuant to any purchase of service or grant agreement with the Authority or a Service Board, any facility of a public utility (as defined in the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as amended), is removed or relocated from its then-existing site all costs and expenses of such relocation or removal, including the cost of installing such facilities in a new location or locations, and the cost of any land or lands, or interest in land, or any rights required to accomplish such relocation or removal, shall be paid by the Authority or a Service Board. If any such facilities are so relocated onto the properties of the Authority or the Service Board or onto properties made available for that purpose by the Authority or the Service Board, there shall be no rent, fee, or other charge of any kind imposed upon the public utility owning or operating such facilities in excess of that imposed prior to such relocation and such public utility, and its successors and assigns, shall be granted the right to operate such facilities in the new location or locations for as long a period and upon the same terms and conditions as it had the right to maintain and operate such facilities in their former location. Nothing in this paragraph (b) shall prevent the Authority or the Service Board and a transportation agency from agreeing in a purchase of service agreement or otherwise to make different arrangements for such relocations or the costs thereof.

(Source: P.A. 83-885; 83-886; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 275. The Water Commission Act of 1985 is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(70 ILCS 3720/4) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 254)

Sec. 4. Taxes.

(a) The board of commissioners of any county water commission may, by ordinance, impose throughout the territory of the commission any or all of the taxes provided in this Section for its corporate purposes. However, no county water commission may impose any such tax unless the commission certifies the proposition of imposing the tax to the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition to the voters residing in the territory at an election in accordance with the general election law, and the proposition has been approved by a majority of those voting on the proposition.

The proposition shall be in the form provided in Section 5 or shall be substantially in the following form:

-------------------------------------------------------------

Shall the (insert corporate name of county water commission) YES impose (state type of tax or ------------------------

taxes to be imposed) at the NO rate of 1/4%?

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Taxes imposed under this Section and civil penalties imposed incident thereto shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have the power to administer and enforce the taxes and to determine all rights for refunds for erroneous payments of the taxes.

(b) The board of commissioners may impose a County Water Commission Retailers' Occupation Tax upon all persons engaged in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail in the territory of the commission at a rate of 1/4% of the gross receipts from the sales made in the course of such business within the territory. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 1a-1, 1c, 1d, 1e, 1f, 1i, 1j, 2 through 2-65 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax except that food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicine, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 2c, 3 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e, 5f, 5g, 5h, 5i, 5j, 5k, 5l, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 6d, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, and 13 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their seller's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State taxes that sellers are required to collect under the Use Tax Act and under subsection (e) of Section 4.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under subsection paragraph (g) of this Section.

For the purpose of determining whether a tax authorized under this paragraph is applicable, a retail sale by a producer of coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is a sale at retail at the place where the coal or other mineral mined in Illinois is extracted from the earth. This paragraph does not apply to coal or other mineral when it is delivered or shipped by the seller to the purchaser at a point outside Illinois so that the sale is exempt under the Federal Constitution as a sale in interstate or foreign commerce.

If a tax is imposed under this subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed under subsections (c) and (d) of this Section.

No tax shall be imposed or collected under this subsection on the sale of a motor vehicle in this State to a resident of another state if that motor vehicle will not be titled in this State.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize a county water commission to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by this State.

(c) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a County Water Commission Service Occupation Tax shall also be imposed upon all persons engaged, in the territory of the commission, in the business of making sales of service, who, as an incident to making the sales of service, transfer tangible personal property within the territory. The tax rate shall be 1/4% of the selling price of tangible personal property so transferred within the territory. The tax imposed under this paragraph and all civil penalties that may be assessed as an incident thereof shall be collected and enforced by the State Department of Revenue. The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes and penalties due hereunder; to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with, this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions and definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 1a-1, 2 (except that the reference to State in the definition of supplier maintaining a place of business in this State shall mean the territory of the commission), 2a, 3 through 3-50 (in respect to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax except that food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 4 (except that the reference to the State shall be to the territory of the commission), 5, 7, 8 (except that the jurisdiction to which the tax shall be a debt to the extent indicated in that Section 8 shall be the commission), 9 (except as to the disposition of taxes and penalties collected and except that the returned merchandise credit for this tax may not be taken against any State tax), 10, 11, 12 (except the reference therein to Section 2b of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), 13 (except that any reference to the State shall mean the territory of the commission), the first paragraph of Section 15, 15.5, 16, 17, 18, 19, and 20 of the Service Occupation Tax Act as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Persons subject to any tax imposed under the authority granted in this paragraph may reimburse themselves for their serviceman's tax liability hereunder by separately stating the tax as an additional charge, which charge may be stated in combination, in a single amount, with State tax that servicemen are authorized to collect under the Service Use Tax Act, and any tax for which servicemen may be liable under subsection (f) of Section 4.03 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act, in accordance with such bracket schedules as the Department may prescribe.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the warrant to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under subsection paragraph (g) of this Section.

Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to authorize a county water commission to impose a tax upon the privilege of engaging in any business which under the Constitution of the United States may not be made the subject of taxation by the State.

(d) If a tax has been imposed under subsection (b), a tax shall also be imposed upon the privilege of using, in the territory of the commission, any item of tangible personal property that is purchased outside the territory at retail from a retailer, and that is titled or registered with an agency of this State's government, at a rate of 1/4% of the selling price of the tangible personal property within the territory, as "selling price" is defined in the Use Tax Act. The tax shall be collected from persons whose Illinois address for titling or registration purposes is given as being in the territory. The tax shall be collected by the Department of Revenue for a county water commission. The tax must be paid to the State, or an exemption determination must be obtained from the Department of Revenue, before the title or certificate of registration for the property may be issued. The tax or proof of exemption may be transmitted to the Department by way of the State agency with which, or the State officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be titled or registered if the Department and the State agency or State officer determine that this procedure will expedite the processing of applications for title or registration.

The Department shall have full power to administer and enforce this paragraph; to collect all taxes, penalties, and interest due hereunder; to dispose of taxes, penalties, and interest so collected in the manner hereinafter provided; and to determine all rights to credit memoranda or refunds arising on account of the erroneous payment of tax, penalty, or interest hereunder. In the administration of, and compliance with this paragraph, the Department and persons who are subject to this paragraph shall have the same rights, remedies, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties, and be subject to the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties, exclusions, exemptions, and definitions of terms and employ the same modes of procedure, as are prescribed in Sections 2 (except the definition of "retailer maintaining a place of business in this State"), 3 through 3-80 (except provisions pertaining to the State rate of tax, and except provisions concerning collection or refunding of the tax by retailers, and except that food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human use, shall not be subject to tax hereunder), 4, 11, 12, 12a, 14, 15, 19 (except the portions pertaining to claims by retailers and except the last paragraph concerning refunds), 20, 21, and 22 of the Use Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the Uniform Penalty and Interest Act that are not inconsistent with this paragraph, as fully as if those provisions were set forth herein.

Whenever the Department determines that a refund should be made under this paragraph to a claimant instead of issuing a credit memorandum, the Department shall notify the State Comptroller, who shall cause the order to be drawn for the amount specified, and to the person named, in the notification from the Department. The refund shall be paid by the State Treasurer out of a county water commission tax fund established under subsection paragraph (g) of this Section.

(e) A certificate of registration issued by the State Department of Revenue to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act or under the Service Occupation Tax Act shall permit the registrant to engage in a business that is taxed under the tax imposed under subsection paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this Section and no additional registration shall be required under the tax. A certificate issued under the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act shall be applicable with regard to any tax imposed under subsection paragraph (c) of this Section.

(f) Any ordinance imposing or discontinuing any tax under this Section shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before June 1, whereupon the Department of Revenue shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section on behalf of the county water commission as of September 1 next following the adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1992, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of July, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of October next following such adoption and filing. Beginning January 1, 1993, an ordinance or resolution imposing or discontinuing the tax hereunder shall be adopted and a certified copy thereof filed with the Department on or before the first day of October, whereupon the Department shall proceed to administer and enforce this Section as of the first day of January next following such adoption and filing.

(g) The State Department of Revenue shall, upon collecting any taxes as provided in this Section, pay the taxes over to the State Treasurer as trustee for the commission. The taxes shall be held in a trust fund outside the State Treasury.

As soon as possible after the first day of each month, beginning January 1, 2011, upon certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller shall order transferred, and the Treasurer shall transfer, to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund the local sales tax increment, as defined in the Innovation Development and Economy Act, collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month for sales within a STAR bond district.

After the monthly transfer to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, on or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the State Department of Revenue shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller of the State of Illinois the amount to be paid to the commission, which shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected under this Section during the second preceding calendar month by the Department plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were erroneously paid to a different taxing body, and not including any amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department on behalf of the commission, and not including any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts that were payable to a different taxing body but were erroneously paid to the commission, and less any amounts that are transferred to the STAR Bonds Revenue Fund, less 2% of the remainder, which shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund. The Department, at the time of each monthly disbursement to the commission, shall prepare and certify to the State Comptroller the amount to be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund under this subsection. Within 10 days after receipt by the Comptroller of the certification of the amount to be paid to the commission and the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund, the Comptroller shall cause an order to be drawn for the payment for the amount in accordance with the direction in the certification.

(h) Beginning June 1, 2016, any tax imposed pursuant to this Section may no longer be imposed or collected, unless a continuation of the tax is approved by the voters at a referendum as set forth in this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-217, eff. 7-31-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 280. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 2-3.64a-5, 2-3.162, 3-14.23, 10-17a, 10-22.3f, 10-22.6, 14-8.02, 14-8.02a, 14-13.01, 17-2A, 18-8.05, 18-12, 19-1, 21B-20, 21B-25, 21B-30, 21B-45, 22-80, 26-1, 27-8.1, 27A-5, 29-5, and 32-7.3 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 2-3.170, 10-20.60, and 34-18.53 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.64a-5)

Sec. 2-3.64a-5. State goals and assessment.

(a) For the assessment and accountability purposes of this Section, "students" includes those students enrolled in a public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control, a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law, a school operated by a regional office of education under Section 13A-3 of this Code, or a public school administered by a local public agency or the Department of Human Services.

(b) The State Board of Education shall establish the academic standards that are to be applicable to students who are subject to State assessments under this Section. The State Board of Education shall not establish any such standards in final form without first providing opportunities for public participation and local input in the development of the final academic standards. Those opportunities shall include a well-publicized period of public comment and opportunities to file written comments.

(c) Beginning no later than the 2014-2015 school year, the State Board of Education shall annually assess all students enrolled in grades 3 through 8 in English language arts and mathematics.

Beginning no later than the 2017-2018 school year, the State Board of Education shall annually assess all students in science at one grade in grades 3 through 5, at one grade in grades 6 through 8, and at one grade in grades 9 through 12.

The State Board of Education shall annually assess schools that operate a secondary education program, as defined in Section 22-22 of this Code, in English language arts and mathematics. The State Board of Education shall administer no more than 3 assessments, per student, of English language arts and mathematics for students in a secondary education program. One of these assessments shall include a college and career ready determination that shall be accepted by this State's public institutions of higher education, as defined in the Board of Higher Education Act, for the purpose of student application or admissions consideration. The assessment administered by the State Board of Education for the purpose of student application to or admissions consideration by institutions of higher education must be administered on a school day during regular student attendance hours.

Students who are not assessed for college and career ready determinations may not receive a regular high school diploma unless the student is exempted from taking State assessments under subsection (d) of this Section because (i) the student's individualized educational program developed under Article 14 of this Code identifies the State assessment as inappropriate for the student, (ii) the student is enrolled in a program of adult and continuing education, as defined in the Adult Education Act, (iii) the school district is not required to assess the individual student for purposes of accountability under federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 requirements, (iv) the student has been determined to be an English learner and has been enrolled in schools in the United States for less than 12 months, or (v) the student is otherwise identified by the State Board of Education, through rules, as being exempt from the assessment.

The State Board of Education shall not assess students under this Section in subjects not required by this Section.

Districts shall inform their students of the timelines and procedures applicable to their participation in every yearly administration of the State assessments. The State Board of Education shall establish periods of time in each school year during which State assessments shall occur to meet the objectives of this Section.

(d) Every individualized educational program as described in Article 14 shall identify if the State assessment or components thereof are appropriate for the student. The State Board of Education shall develop rules governing the administration of an alternate assessment that may be available to students for whom participation in this State's regular assessments is not appropriate, even with accommodations as allowed under this Section.

Students receiving special education services whose individualized educational programs identify them as eligible for the alternative State assessments nevertheless shall have the option of taking this State's regular assessment that includes a college and career ready determination, which shall be administered in accordance with the eligible accommodations appropriate for meeting these students' respective needs.

All students determined to be English learners shall participate in the State assessments, excepting those students who have been enrolled in schools in the United States for less than 12 months. Such students may be exempted from participation in one annual administration of the English language arts assessment. Any student determined to be an English learner shall receive appropriate assessment accommodations, including language supports, which shall be established by rule. Approved assessment accommodations must be provided until the student's English language skills develop to the extent that the student is no longer considered to be an English learner, as demonstrated through a State-identified English language proficiency assessment.

(e) The results or scores of each assessment taken under this Section shall be made available to the parents of each student.

In each school year, the scores attained by a student on the State assessment that includes a college and career ready determination must be placed in the student's permanent record pursuant to rules that the State Board of Education shall adopt for that purpose in accordance with Section 3 of the Illinois School Student Records Act. In each school year, the scores attained by a student on the State assessments administered in grades 3 through 8 must be placed in the student's temporary record.

(f) All schools shall administer an academic assessment of English language proficiency in oral language (listening and speaking) and reading and writing skills to all children determined to be English learners.

(g) All schools in this State that are part of the sample drawn by the National Center for Education Statistics, in collaboration with their school districts and the State Board of Education, shall administer the biennial academic assessments under the National Assessment of Educational Progress carried out under Section 411(b)(2) of the federal National Education Statistics Act of 1994 (20 U.S.C. 9010) if the U.S. Secretary of Education pays the costs of administering the assessments.

(h) Subject to available funds to this State for the purpose of student assessment, the State Board of Education shall provide additional assessments and assessment resources that may be used by school districts for local assessment purposes. The State Board of Education shall annually distribute a listing of these additional resources.

(i) For the purposes of this subsection (i), "academically based assessments" means assessments consisting of questions and answers that are measurable and quantifiable to measure the knowledge, skills, and ability of students in the subject matters covered by the assessments. All assessments administered pursuant to this Section must be academically based assessments. The scoring of academically based assessments shall be reliable, valid, and fair and shall meet the guidelines for assessment development and use prescribed by the American Psychological Association, the National Council on Measurement in Education, and the American Educational Research Association.

The State Board of Education shall review the use of all assessment item types in order to ensure that they are valid and reliable indicators of student performance aligned to the learning standards being assessed and that the development, administration, and scoring of these item types are justifiable in terms of cost.

(j) The State Superintendent of Education shall appoint a committee of no more than 21 members, consisting of parents, teachers, school administrators, school board members, assessment experts, regional superintendents of schools, and citizens, to review the State assessments administered by the State Board of Education. The Committee shall select one of its members as its chairperson. The Committee shall meet on an ongoing basis to review the content and design of the assessments (including whether the requirements of subsection (i) of this Section have been met), the time and money expended at the local and State levels to prepare for and administer the assessments, the collective results of the assessments as measured against the stated purpose of assessing student performance, and other issues involving the assessments identified by the Committee. The Committee shall make periodic recommendations to the State Superintendent of Education and the General Assembly concerning the assessments.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-185, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-7, eff. 7-1-17; 100-222, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.162)

Sec. 2-3.162. Student discipline report; school discipline improvement plan.

(a) On or before October 31, 2015 and on or before October 31 of each subsequent year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a report on student discipline in all school districts in this State, including State-authorized charter schools. This report shall include data from all public schools within school districts, including district-authorized charter schools. This report must be posted on the Internet website of the State Board of Education. The report shall include data on the issuance of out-of-school suspensions, expulsions, and removals to alternative settings in lieu of another disciplinary action, disaggregated by race and ethnicity, gender, age, grade level, whether a student is an English learner, incident type, and discipline duration.

(b) The State Board of Education shall analyze the data under subsection (a) of this Section on an annual basis and determine the top 20% of school districts for the following metrics:

(1) Total number of out-of-school suspensions divided by the total district enrollment by the last school day in September for the year in which the data was collected, multiplied by 100.

(2) Total number of out-of-school expulsions divided by the total district enrollment by the last school day in September for the year in which the data was collected, multiplied by 100.

(3) Racial disproportionality, defined as the overrepresentation of students of color or white students in comparison to the total number of students of color or white students on October 1st of the school year in which data are collected, with respect to the use of out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, which must be calculated using the same method as the U.S. Department of Education's Office for Civil Rights uses.

The analysis must be based on data collected over 3 consecutive school years, beginning with the 2014-2015 school year.

Beginning with the 2017-2018 school year, the State Board of Education shall require each of the school districts that are identified in the top 20% of any of the metrics described in this subsection (b) for 3 consecutive years to submit a plan identifying the strategies the school district will implement to reduce the use of exclusionary disciplinary practices or racial disproportionality or both, if applicable. School districts that no longer meet the criteria described in any of the metrics described in this subsection (b) for 3 consecutive years shall no longer be required to submit a plan.

This plan may be combined with any other improvement plans required under federal or State law.

The calculation of the top 20% of any of the metrics described in this subsection (b) shall exclude all school districts, State-authorized charter schools, and special charter districts that issued fewer than a total of 10 out-of-school suspensions or expulsions, whichever is applicable, during the school year. The calculation of the top 20% of the metric described in subdivision (3) of this subsection (b) shall exclude all school districts with an enrollment of fewer than 50 white students or fewer than 50 students of color.

The plan must be approved at a public school board meeting and posted on the school district's Internet website. Within one year after being identified, the school district shall submit to the State Board of Education and post on the district's Internet website a progress report describing the implementation of the plan and the results achieved.

(Source: P.A. 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.170)

Sec. 2-3.170. Property tax relief pool grants.

(a) As used in this Section,

"Property tax multiplier" equals one minus the square of the school district's Local Capacity Percentage, as defined in Section 18-8.15 of this Code.

"State Board" means the State Board of Education.

"Unit equivalent tax rate" means the Adjusted Operating Tax Rate, as defined in Section 18-8.15 of this Code, multiplied by a factor of 1 for unit school districts, 13/9 for elementary school districts, and 13/4 for high school districts.

(b) Subject to appropriation, the State Board shall provide grants to eligible school districts that provide tax relief to the school district's residents, up to a limit of 1% of the school district's equalized assessed value, as provided in this Section.

(c) By August 1 of each year, the State Board shall publish an estimated threshold unit equivalent tax rate. School districts whose adjusted operating tax rate, as defined in this Section, is greater than the estimated threshold unit equivalent tax rate are eligible for relief under this Section. This estimated tax rate shall be based on the most recent available data provided by school districts pursuant to Section 18-8.15 of this Code. The State Board shall estimate this property tax rate based on the amount appropriated to the grant program and the assumption that a set of school districts, based on criteria established by the State Board, will apply for grants under this Section. The criteria shall be based on reasonable assumptions about when school districts will apply for the grant.

(d) School districts seeking grants under this Section shall apply to the State Board by October 1 of each year. All applications to the State Board for grants shall include the amount of the grant requested.

(e) By December 1 of each year, based on the most recent available data provided by school districts pursuant to Section 18-8.15 of this Code, the State Board shall calculate the unit equivalent tax rate, based on the applications received by the State Board, above which the appropriations are sufficient to provide relief and publish a list of the school districts eligible for relief.

(f) The State Board shall publish a final list of grant recipients and provide payment of the grants by January 15 of each year.

(g) If payment from the State Board is received by the school district on time, the school district shall reduce its property tax levy in an amount equal to the grant received under this Section.

(h) The total grant to a school district under this Section shall be calculated based on the total amount of reduction in the school district's aggregate extension, up to a limit of 1% of a district's equalized assessed value for a unit school district, 0.69% for an elementary school district, and 0.31% for a high school district, multiplied by the property tax multiplier or the amount that the unit equivalent tax rate is greater than the rate determined by the State Board, whichever is less.

(i) If the State Board does not expend all appropriations allocated pursuant to this Section, then any remaining funds shall be allocated pursuant to Section 18-8.15 of this Code.

(j) The State Board shall prioritize payments under Section 18-8.15 of this Code over payments under this Section, if necessary.

(k) Any grants received by a school district shall be included in future calculations of that school district's Base Funding Minimum under Section 18-8.15 of this Code.

(l) In the tax year following receipt of a Property Tax Pool Relief Grant, the aggregate levy of any school district receiving a grant under this Section, for purposes of the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, shall include the tax relief the school district provided in the previous taxable year under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-465, eff. 8-31-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.171)

Sec. 2-3.171 2-3.170. Entrepreneurial skills teaching resources. The State Board of Education shall post resources regarding the teaching of entrepreneurial skills for use by school districts with secondary schools. The State Board of Education shall gather input from business groups and universities when developing the list of resources.

(Source: P.A. 100-174, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/2-3.172)

Sec. 2-3.172 2-3.170. High-skilled manufacturing teaching resources. The State Board of Education shall post resources regarding the teaching of high-skilled manufacturing, to be used in high schools and vocational education programs.

(Source: P.A. 100-175, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/3-14.23) (from Ch. 122, par. 3-14.23)

Sec. 3-14.23. School bus driver permits.

(a) To conduct courses of instruction for school bus drivers pursuant to the standards established by the Secretary of State under Section 6-106.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and to charge a fee based upon the cost of providing such courses of up to $6 per person for fiscal years 2010, 2011, and 2012; up to $8 per person for fiscal years 2013, 2014, and 2015; and up to $10 per person for fiscal year 2016 and each fiscal year thereafter for the initial classroom course in school bus driver safety and of up to $6 per person for fiscal years 2010, 2011, and 2012; up to $8 per person for fiscal years 2013, 2014, and 2015; and up to $10 per person for fiscal year 2016 and each fiscal year thereafter for the annual refresher course.

(b) To conduct such investigations as may be necessary to insure that all persons hired to operate school buses have valid school bus driver permits as required under Sections 6-104 and 6-106.1 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code". If a regional superintendent finds evidence of non-compliance with this requirement, he shall submit such evidence together with his recommendations in writing to the school board.

If the regional superintendent finds evidence of noncompliance with the requirement that all persons employed directly by the school board to operate school buses have valid school bus driver permits as required under Sections 6-104 and 6-106.1 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code", the regional superintendent shall schedule a hearing on a date not less than 5 days nor more than 10 days after notifying the district of his findings. If based on the evidence presented at the hearing the regional superintendent finds that persons employed directly by the school board to operate school buses do not have valid school bus driver permits as required under Sections 6-104 and 6-106.1 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code", the regional superintendent shall submit such evidence and his findings together with his recommendations to the State Superintendent of Education. The State Superintendent of Education may reduce the district's claim for reimbursement under Sections 29-5 and 14-13.01 for transportation by 1.136% for each day of noncompliance.

If a school board finds evidence of noncompliance with the requirement that all persons employed by a contractor to operate school buses have valid school bus driver permits as required under Sections 6-104 and 6-106.1 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code", the school board shall request a hearing before the regional superintendent. The regional superintendent shall schedule a hearing on a date not less than 5 days nor more than 10 days after receiving the request. If based on the evidence presented at the hearing the regional superintendent finds that persons employed by a contractor to operate school buses do not have valid school bus driver permits as required under Sections 6-104 and 6-106.1 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code", the school board's financial obligations under the contract shall be reduced by an amount equal to 1.136% for each day of noncompliance. The findings of the regional superintendent and the relief provided herein shall not impair the obligations of the contractor to continue to provide transportation services in accordance with the terms of the contract.

The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and all amendments and modifications thereof and the rules adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to and govern all proceedings instituted for judicial review of final administrative decisions of the regional superintendent under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 96-616, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-17a) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-17a)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-448)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and percentage of all students who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education or advanced academic program and, of those students: (i) the racial and ethnic breakdown, (ii) the percentage who are classified as low-income, and (iii) the number and percentage of students who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement and, of those students, the percentage who are classified as low-income; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, and the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois; and

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district; .

(I) (G) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) (H) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount; and

(K) (I) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection paragraph (2):

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study to which students are assigned based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-227, eff. 8-18-17; 100-364, eff. 1-1-18; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-448)

Sec. 10-17a. State, school district, and school report cards.

(1) By October 31, 2013 and October 31 of each subsequent school year, the State Board of Education, through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a State report card, school district report cards, and school report cards, and shall by the most economic means provide to each school district in this State, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, the report cards for the school district and each of its schools.

(2) In addition to any information required by federal law, the State Superintendent shall determine the indicators and presentation of the school report card, which must include, at a minimum, the most current data collected and maintained by the State Board of Education related to the following:

(A) school characteristics and student demographics, including average class size, average teaching experience, student racial/ethnic breakdown, and the percentage of students classified as low-income; the percentage of students classified as English learners; the percentage of students who have individualized education plans or 504 plans that provide for special education services; the number and percentage of all students who have been assessed for placement in a gifted education or advanced academic program and, of those students: (i) the racial and ethnic breakdown, (ii) the percentage who are classified as low-income, and (iii) the number and percentage of students who received direct instruction from a teacher who holds a gifted education endorsement and, of those students, the percentage who are classified as low-income; the percentage of students scoring at the "exceeds expectations" level on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code; the percentage of students who annually transferred in or out of the school district; average daily attendance; the per-pupil operating expenditure of the school district; and the per-pupil State average operating expenditure for the district type (elementary, high school, or unit);

(B) curriculum information, including, where applicable, Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate or equivalent courses, dual enrollment courses, foreign language classes, school personnel resources (including Career Technical Education teachers), before and after school programs, extracurricular activities, subjects in which elective classes are offered, health and wellness initiatives (including the average number of days of Physical Education per week per student), approved programs of study, awards received, community partnerships, and special programs such as programming for the gifted and talented, students with disabilities, and work-study students;

(C) student outcomes, including, where applicable, the percentage of students deemed proficient on assessments of State standards, the percentage of students in the eighth grade who pass Algebra, the percentage of students enrolled in post-secondary institutions (including colleges, universities, community colleges, trade/vocational schools, and training programs leading to career certification within 2 semesters of high school graduation), the percentage of students graduating from high school who are college and career ready, and the percentage of graduates enrolled in community colleges, colleges, and universities who are in one or more courses that the community college, college, or university identifies as a developmental course;

(D) student progress, including, where applicable, the percentage of students in the ninth grade who have earned 5 credits or more without failing more than one core class, a measure of students entering kindergarten ready to learn, a measure of growth, and the percentage of students who enter high school on track for college and career readiness;

(E) the school environment, including, where applicable, the percentage of students with less than 10 absences in a school year, the percentage of teachers with less than 10 absences in a school year for reasons other than professional development, leaves taken pursuant to the federal Family Medical Leave Act of 1993, long-term disability, or parental leaves, the 3-year average of the percentage of teachers returning to the school from the previous year, the number of different principals at the school in the last 6 years, the number of teachers who hold a gifted education endorsement, the process and criteria used by the district to determine whether a student is eligible for participation in a gifted education program or advanced academic program and the manner in which parents and guardians are made aware of the process and criteria, 2 or more indicators from any school climate survey selected or approved by the State and administered pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, with the same or similar indicators included on school report cards for all surveys selected or approved by the State pursuant to Section 2-3.153 of this Code, and the combined percentage of teachers rated as proficient or excellent in their most recent evaluation;

(F) a school district's and its individual schools' balanced accountability measure, in accordance with Section 2-3.25a of this Code;

(G) the total and per pupil normal cost amount the State contributed to the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois in the prior fiscal year for the school's employees, which shall be reported to the State Board of Education by the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of Illinois; and

(H) for a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code only, State contributions to the Public School Teachers' Pension and Retirement Fund of Chicago and State contributions for health care for employees of that school district; .

(I) (G) a school district's Final Percent of Adequacy, as defined in paragraph (4) of subsection (f) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code;

(J) (H) a school district's Local Capacity Target, as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount; and

(K) (I) a school district's Real Receipts, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, divided by a school district's Adequacy Target, as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code, displayed as a percentage amount.

The school report card shall also provide information that allows for comparing the current outcome, progress, and environment data to the State average, to the school data from the past 5 years, and to the outcomes, progress, and environment of similar schools based on the type of school and enrollment of low-income students, special education students, and English learners.

As used in this subsection paragraph (2):

"Advanced academic program" means a course of study to which students are assigned based on advanced cognitive ability or advanced academic achievement compared to local age peers and in which the curriculum is substantially differentiated from the general curriculum to provide appropriate challenge and pace.

"Gifted education" means educational services, including differentiated curricula and instructional methods, designed to meet the needs of gifted children as defined in Article 14A of this Code.

For the purposes of paragraph (A) of this subsection (2), "average daily attendance" means the average of the actual number of attendance days during the previous school year for any enrolled student who is subject to compulsory attendance by Section 26-1 of this Code at each school and charter school.

(3) At the discretion of the State Superintendent, the school district report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section, as well as information relating to the operating expense per pupil and other finances of the school district, and the State report card shall include a subset of the information identified in paragraphs (A) through (E) of subsection (2) of this Section. The school district report card shall include the average daily attendance, as that term is defined in subsection (2) of this Section, of students who have individualized education programs and students who have 504 plans that provide for special education services within the school district.

(4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, in consultation with key education stakeholders, the State Superintendent shall at any time have the discretion to amend or update any and all metrics on the school, district, or State report card.

(5) Annually, no more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the school district and school report cards from the State Superintendent of Education, each school district, including special charter districts and districts subject to the provisions of Article 34, shall present such report cards at a regular school board meeting subject to applicable notice requirements, post the report cards on the school district's Internet web site, if the district maintains an Internet web site, make the report cards available to a newspaper of general circulation serving the district, and, upon request, send the report cards home to a parent (unless the district does not maintain an Internet web site, in which case the report card shall be sent home to parents without request). If the district posts the report card on its Internet web site, the district shall send a written notice home to parents stating (i) that the report card is available on the web site, (ii) the address of the web site, (iii) that a printed copy of the report card will be sent to parents upon request, and (iv) the telephone number that parents may call to request a printed copy of the report card.

(6) Nothing contained in Public Act 98-648 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on July 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-648) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act 97-8.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-193, eff. 7-30-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-227, eff. 8-18-17; 100-364, eff. 1-1-18; 100-448, eff. 7-1-19; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.60)

Sec. 10-20.60. Breastfeeding accommodations for pupils.

(a) Each public school shall provide reasonable accommodations to a lactating pupil on a school campus to express breast milk, breastfeed an infant child, or address other needs related to breastfeeding. Reasonable accommodations under this Section include, but are not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Access to a private and secure room, other than a restroom, to express breast milk or breastfeed an infant child.

(2) Permission to bring onto a school campus a breast pump and any other equipment used to express breast milk.

(3) Access to a power source for a breast pump or any other equipment used to express breast milk.

(4) Access to a place to store expressed breast milk safely.

(b) A lactating pupil on a school campus must be provided a reasonable amount of time to accommodate her need to express breast milk or breastfeed an infant child.

(c) A public school shall provide the reasonable accommodations specified in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section only if there is at least one lactating pupil on the school campus.

(d) A public school may use an existing facility to meet the requirements specified in subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) A pupil may not incur an academic penalty as a result of her use, during the school day, of the reasonable accommodations specified in this Section and must be provided the opportunity to make up any work missed due to such use.

(f) In instances where a student files a complaint of noncompliance with the requirements of this Section, the public school shall implement the grievance procedure of 23 Ill. Adm. Code 200, including appeals procedures.

(Source: P.A. 100-29, eff. 1-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.61)

Sec. 10-20.61 10-20.60. Implicit bias training.

(a) The General Assembly makes the following findings:

(1) implicit racial bias influences evaluations of and behavior toward those who are the subject of the bias;

(2) understanding implicit racial bias is needed in order to reduce that bias;

(3) marginalized students would benefit from having access to educators who have worked to reduce their biases; and

(4) training that helps educators overcome implicit racial bias has implication for classroom interactions, student evaluation, and classroom engagement; it also affects student academic self-concept.

(b) Each school board shall require in-service training for school personnel to include training to develop cultural competency, including understanding and reducing implicit racial bias.

(c) As used in this Section, "implicit racial bias" means a preference, positive or negative, for a racial or ethnic group that operates outside of awareness. This bias has 3 different components: affective, behavioral, and cognitive.

(Source: P.A. 100-14, eff. 7-1-17; revised 10-19-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.62)

Sec. 10-20.62 10-20.60. Dual enrollment and dual credit notification. A school board shall require the school district's high schools, if any, to inform all 11th and 12th grade students of dual enrollment and dual credit opportunities at public community colleges for qualified students.

(Source: P.A. 100-133, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-19-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.63)

Sec. 10-20.63 10-20.60. Availability of feminine hygiene products.

(a) The General Assembly finds the following:

(1) Feminine hygiene products are a health care necessity and not an item that can be foregone or substituted easily.

(2) Access to feminine hygiene products is a serious and ongoing need in this State.

(3) When students do not have access to affordable feminine hygiene products, they may miss multiple days of school every month.

(4) When students have access to quality feminine hygiene products, they are able to continue with their daily lives with minimal interruption.

(b) In this Section:

"Feminine hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

"School building" means any facility (i) that is owned or leased by a school district or over which the school board has care, custody, and control and (ii) in which there is a public school serving students in grades 6 through 12.

(c) A school district shall make feminine hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of school buildings.

(Source: P.A. 100-163, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-19-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.64)

Sec. 10-20.64 10-20.60. Booking stations on school grounds.

(a) There shall be no student booking station established or maintained on the grounds of any school.

(b) This prohibition shall be applied to student booking stations only, as defined in this Section. The prohibition does not prohibit or affect the establishment or maintenance of any place operated by or under the control of law enforcement personnel, school resource officers, or other security personnel that does not also qualify as a student booking station as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section. The prohibition does not affect or limit the powers afforded law enforcement officers to perform their duties within schools as otherwise prescribed by law.

(c) When the underlying suspected or alleged criminal act is an act of violence, and isolation of a student or students is deemed necessary to the interest of public safety, and no other location is adequate for secure isolation of the student or students, offices as described in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section may be employed to detain students for a period no longer than that required to alleviate that threat to public safety.

(d) As used in this Section, "student booking station" means a building, office, room, or any indefinitely established space or site, mobile or fixed, which operates concurrently as:

(1) predominantly or regularly a place of operation for a municipal police department, county sheriff department, or other law enforcement agency, or under the primary control thereof; and

(2) a site at which students are detained in connection with criminal charges or allegations against those students, taken into custody, or engaged with law enforcement personnel in any process that creates a law enforcement record of that contact with law enforcement personnel or processes.

(Source: P.A. 100-204, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-19-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.65)

Sec. 10-20.65 10-20.60. School social worker. A school board may employ school social workers who have graduated with a master's or higher degree in social work from an accredited graduate school of social work and have such additional qualifications as may be required by the State Board of Education and who hold a Professional Educator License with a school support personnel endorsement for school social work pursuant to Section 21B-25 of this Code. Only persons so licensed and endorsed may use the title "school social worker". A school social worker may provide individual and group services to the general student population and to students with disabilities pursuant to Article 14 of this Code and rules set forth in 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226, Special Education, adopted by the State Board of Education and may provide support and consultation to administrators, teachers, and other school personnel consistent with their professional qualifications and the provisions of this Code and other applicable laws. School districts may employ a sufficient number of school social workers to address the needs of their students and schools and may maintain the nationally recommended student-to-school social worker ratio of 250 to 1. A school social worker may not provide such services outside his or her employment to any student in the district or districts that employ the school social worker.

(Source: P.A. 100-356, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-19-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-20.66)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 10-20.66 10-20.60. School-grown produce. A school district may serve students produce grown and harvested by students in school-owned facilities utilizing hydroponics or aeroponics or in school-owned or community gardens if the soil and compost in which the produce is grown meets the standards adopted in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 830.503, if applicable, and the produce is served in accordance with the standards adopted in 77 Ill. Adm. Code 750.

(Source: P.A. 100-505, eff. 6-1-18; revised 10-19-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.3f)

Sec. 10-22.3f. Required health benefits. Insurance protection and benefits for employees shall provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.22, and 356z.25, and 356z.26 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Insurance policies shall comply with Section 356z.19 of the Illinois Insurance Code. The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a and 355b of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/10-22.6) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-22.6)

Sec. 10-22.6. Suspension or expulsion of pupils; school searches.

(a) To expel pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, including gross disobedience or misconduct perpetuated by electronic means, pursuant to subsection (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such expulsion. Expulsion shall take place only after the parents have been requested to appear at a meeting of the board, or with a hearing officer appointed by it, to discuss their child's behavior. Such request shall be made by registered or certified mail and shall state the time, place and purpose of the meeting. The board, or a hearing officer appointed by it, at such meeting shall state the reasons for dismissal and the date on which the expulsion is to become effective. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting and the board may take such action thereon as it finds appropriate. If the board acts to expel a pupil, the written expulsion decision shall detail the specific reasons why removing the pupil from the learning environment is in the best interest of the school. The expulsion decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the expulsion. An expelled pupil may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the expulsion, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b) To suspend or by policy to authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct, or to suspend pupils guilty of gross disobedience or misconduct on the school bus from riding the school bus, pursuant to subsections (b-15) and (b-20) of this Section, and no action shall lie against them for such suspension. The board may by policy authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend pupils guilty of such acts for a period not to exceed 10 school days. If a pupil is suspended due to gross disobedience or misconduct on a school bus, the board may suspend the pupil in excess of 10 school days for safety reasons.

Any suspension shall be reported immediately to the parents or guardian of a pupil along with a full statement of the reasons for such suspension and a notice of their right to a review. The school board must be given a summary of the notice, including the reason for the suspension and the suspension length. Upon request of the parents or guardian, the school board or a hearing officer appointed by it shall review such action of the superintendent or principal, assistant principal, or dean of students. At such review, the parents or guardian of the pupil may appear and discuss the suspension with the board or its hearing officer. If a hearing officer is appointed by the board, he shall report to the board a written summary of the evidence heard at the meeting. After its hearing or upon receipt of the written report of its hearing officer, the board may take such action as it finds appropriate. If a student is suspended pursuant to this subsection (b), the board shall, in the written suspension decision, detail the specific act of gross disobedience or misconduct resulting in the decision to suspend. The suspension decision shall also include a rationale as to the specific duration of the suspension. A pupil who is suspended in excess of 20 school days may be immediately transferred to an alternative program in the manner provided in Article 13A or 13B of this Code. A pupil must not be denied transfer because of the suspension, except in cases in which such transfer is deemed to cause a threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(b-5) Among the many possible disciplinary interventions and consequences available to school officials, school exclusions, such as out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, are the most serious. School officials shall limit the number and duration of expulsions and suspensions to the greatest extent practicable, and it is recommended that they use them only for legitimate educational purposes. To ensure that students are not excluded from school unnecessarily, it is recommended that school officials consider forms of non-exclusionary discipline prior to using out-of-school suspensions or expulsions.

(b-10) Unless otherwise required by federal law or this Code, school boards may not institute zero-tolerance policies by which school administrators are required to suspend or expel students for particular behaviors.

(b-15) Out-of-school suspensions of 3 days or less may be used only if the student's continuing presence in school would pose a threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities. For purposes of this subsection (b-15), "threat to school safety or a disruption to other students' learning opportunities" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by the school board or its designee. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of suspensions to the greatest extent practicable.

(b-20) Unless otherwise required by this Code, out-of-school suspensions of longer than 3 days, expulsions, and disciplinary removals to alternative schools may be used only if other appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted and the student's continuing presence in school would either (i) pose a threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community or (ii) substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), "threat to the safety of other students, staff, or members of the school community" and "substantially disrupt, impede, or interfere with the operation of the school" shall be determined on a case-by-case basis by school officials. For purposes of this subsection (b-20), the determination of whether "appropriate and available behavioral and disciplinary interventions have been exhausted" shall be made by school officials. School officials shall make all reasonable efforts to resolve such threats, address such disruptions, and minimize the length of student exclusions to the greatest extent practicable. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section or the expulsion decision described in subsection (a) of this Section, it shall be documented whether other interventions were attempted or whether it was determined that there were no other appropriate and available interventions.

(b-25) Students who are suspended out-of-school for longer than 4 school days shall be provided appropriate and available support services during the period of their suspension. For purposes of this subsection (b-25), "appropriate and available support services" shall be determined by school authorities. Within the suspension decision described in subsection (b) of this Section, it shall be documented whether such services are to be provided or whether it was determined that there are no such appropriate and available services.

A school district may refer students who are expelled to appropriate and available support services.

A school district shall create a policy to facilitate the re-engagement of students who are suspended out-of-school, expelled, or returning from an alternative school setting.

(b-30) A school district shall create a policy by which suspended pupils, including those pupils suspended from the school bus who do not have alternate transportation to school, shall have the opportunity to make up work for equivalent academic credit. It shall be the responsibility of a pupil's parent or guardian to notify school officials that a pupil suspended from the school bus does not have alternate transportation to school.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall be invited to send a representative to consult with the board at such meeting whenever there is evidence that mental illness may be the cause for expulsion or suspension.

(c-5) School districts shall make reasonable efforts to provide ongoing professional development to teachers, administrators, school board members, school resource officers, and staff on the adverse consequences of school exclusion and justice-system involvement, effective classroom management strategies, culturally responsive discipline, and developmentally appropriate disciplinary methods that promote positive and healthy school climates.

(d) The board may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case case by case basis. A student who is determined to have brought one of the following objects to school, any school-sponsored activity or event, or any activity or event that bears a reasonable relationship to school shall be expelled for a period of not less than one year:

(1) A firearm. For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" means any gun, rifle, shotgun, weapon as defined by Section 921 of Title 18 of the United States Code, firearm as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or firearm as defined in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The expulsion period under this subdivision (1) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis.

(2) A knife, brass knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, a billy club, or any other object if used or attempted to be used to cause bodily harm, including "look alikes" of any firearm as defined in subdivision (1) of this subsection (d). The expulsion requirement under this subdivision (2) may be modified by the superintendent, and the superintendent's determination may be modified by the board on a case-by-case basis. Expulsion or suspension shall be construed in a manner consistent with the Federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. A student who is subject to suspension or expulsion as provided in this Section may be eligible for a transfer to an alternative school program in accordance with Article 13A of the School Code.

(d-5) The board may suspend or by regulation authorize the superintendent of the district or the principal, assistant principal, or dean of students of any school to suspend a student for a period not to exceed 10 school days or may expel a student for a definite period of time not to exceed 2 calendar years, as determined on a case-by-case case by case basis, if (i) that student has been determined to have made an explicit threat on an Internet website against a school employee, a student, or any school-related personnel, (ii) the Internet website through which the threat was made is a site that was accessible within the school at the time the threat was made or was available to third parties who worked or studied within the school grounds at the time the threat was made, and (iii) the threat could be reasonably interpreted as threatening to the safety and security of the threatened individual because of his or her duties or employment status or status as a student inside the school.

(e) To maintain order and security in the schools, school authorities may inspect and search places and areas such as lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school, as well as personal effects left in those places and areas by students, without notice to or the consent of the student, and without a search warrant. As a matter of public policy, the General Assembly finds that students have no reasonable expectation of privacy in these places and areas or in their personal effects left in these places and areas. School authorities may request the assistance of law enforcement officials for the purpose of conducting inspections and searches of lockers, desks, parking lots, and other school property and equipment owned or controlled by the school for illegal drugs, weapons, or other illegal or dangerous substances or materials, including searches conducted through the use of specially trained dogs. If a search conducted in accordance with this Section produces evidence that the student has violated or is violating either the law, local ordinance, or the school's policies or rules, such evidence may be seized by school authorities, and disciplinary action may be taken. School authorities may also turn over such evidence to law enforcement authorities.

(f) Suspension or expulsion may include suspension or expulsion from school and all school activities and a prohibition from being present on school grounds.

(g) A school district may adopt a policy providing that if a student is suspended or expelled for any reason from any public or private school in this or any other state, the student must complete the entire term of the suspension or expulsion in an alternative school program under Article 13A of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program under Article 13B of this Code before being admitted into the school district if there is no threat to the safety of students or staff in the alternative program.

(h) School officials shall not advise or encourage students to drop out voluntarily due to behavioral or academic difficulties.

(i) A student may not be issued a monetary fine or fee as a disciplinary consequence, though this shall not preclude requiring a student to provide restitution for lost, stolen, or damaged property.

(j) Subsections (a) through (i) of this Section shall apply to elementary and secondary schools, charter schools, special charter districts, and school districts organized under Article 34 of this Code.

(k) The expulsion of children enrolled in programs funded under Section 1C-2 of this Code is subject to the requirements under paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 2-3.71 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-456, eff. 9-15-16; 100-105, eff. 1-1-18; revised 1-22-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-8.02)

Sec. 14-8.02. Identification, evaluation, and placement of children.

(a) The State Board of Education shall make rules under which local school boards shall determine the eligibility of children to receive special education. Such rules shall ensure that a free appropriate public education be available to all children with disabilities as defined in Section 14-1.02. The State Board of Education shall require local school districts to administer non-discriminatory procedures or tests to English learners coming from homes in which a language other than English is used to determine their eligibility to receive special education. The placement of low English proficiency students in special education programs and facilities shall be made in accordance with the test results reflecting the student's linguistic, cultural and special education needs. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions of "case study", "staff conference", "individualized educational program", and "qualified specialist" appropriate to each category of children with disabilities as defined in this Article. For purposes of determining the eligibility of children from homes in which a language other than English is used, the State Board of Education shall include in the rules definitions for "qualified bilingual specialists" and "linguistically and culturally appropriate individualized educational programs". For purposes of this Section, as well as Sections 14-8.02a, 14-8.02b, and 14-8.02c of this Code, "parent" means a parent as defined in the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 U.S.C. 1401(23)).

(b) No child shall be eligible for special education facilities except with a carefully completed case study fully reviewed by professional personnel in a multidisciplinary staff conference and only upon the recommendation of qualified specialists or a qualified bilingual specialist, if available. At the conclusion of the multidisciplinary staff conference, the parent of the child shall be given a copy of the multidisciplinary conference summary report and recommendations, which includes options considered, and be informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation if they disagree with the evaluation findings conducted or obtained by the school district. If the school district's evaluation is shown to be inappropriate, the school district shall reimburse the parent for the cost of the independent evaluation. The State Board of Education shall, with advice from the State Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the inclusion of specific independent educational evaluators, prepare a list of suggested independent educational evaluators. The State Board of Education shall include on the list clinical psychologists licensed pursuant to the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. Such psychologists shall not be paid fees in excess of the amount that would be received by a school psychologist for performing the same services. The State Board of Education shall supply school districts with such list and make the list available to parents at their request. School districts shall make the list available to parents at the time they are informed of their right to obtain an independent educational evaluation. However, the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section within 5 days of any written parent request for an independent educational evaluation to show that its evaluation is appropriate. If the final decision is that the evaluation is appropriate, the parent still has a right to an independent educational evaluation, but not at public expense. An independent educational evaluation at public expense must be completed within 30 days of a parent written request unless the school district initiates an impartial due process hearing or the parent or school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30 day time period should be extended. If the due process hearing decision indicates that the parent is entitled to an independent educational evaluation, it must be completed within 30 days of the decision unless the parent or the school district offers reasonable grounds to show that such 30 day period should be extended. If a parent disagrees with the summary report or recommendations of the multidisciplinary conference or the findings of any educational evaluation which results therefrom, the school district shall not proceed with a placement based upon such evaluation and the child shall remain in his or her regular classroom setting. No child shall be eligible for admission to a special class for children with a mental disability who are educable or for children with a mental disability who are trainable except with a psychological evaluation and recommendation by a school psychologist. Consent shall be obtained from the parent of a child before any evaluation is conducted. If consent is not given by the parent or if the parent disagrees with the findings of the evaluation, then the school district may initiate an impartial due process hearing under this Section. The school district may evaluate the child if that is the decision resulting from the impartial due process hearing and the decision is not appealed or if the decision is affirmed on appeal. The determination of eligibility shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed within 60 school days from the date of written parental consent. In those instances when written parental consent is obtained with fewer than 60 pupil attendance days left in the school year, the eligibility determination shall be made and the IEP meeting shall be completed prior to the first day of the following school year. Special education and related services must be provided in accordance with the student's IEP no later than 10 school attendance days after notice is provided to the parents pursuant to Section 300.503 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations and implementing rules adopted by the State Board of Education. The appropriate program pursuant to the individualized educational program of students whose native tongue is a language other than English shall reflect the special education, cultural and linguistic needs. No later than September 1, 1993, the State Board of Education shall establish standards for the development, implementation and monitoring of appropriate bilingual special individualized educational programs. The State Board of Education shall further incorporate appropriate monitoring procedures to verify implementation of these standards. The district shall indicate to the parent and the State Board of Education the nature of the services the child will receive for the regular school term while waiting placement in the appropriate special education class.

If the child is deaf, hard of hearing, blind, or visually impaired and he or she might be eligible to receive services from the Illinois School for the Deaf or the Illinois School for the Visually Impaired, the school district shall notify the parents, in writing, of the existence of these schools and the services they provide and shall make a reasonable effort to inform the parents of the existence of other, local schools that provide similar services and the services that these other schools provide. This notification shall include without limitation information on school services, school admissions criteria, and school contact information.

In the development of the individualized education program for a student who has a disability on the autism spectrum (which includes autistic disorder, Asperger's disorder, pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified, childhood disintegrative disorder, and Rett Syndrome, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition (DSM-IV, 2000)), the IEP team shall consider all of the following factors:

(1) The verbal and nonverbal communication needs of the child.

(2) The need to develop social interaction skills and proficiencies.

(3) The needs resulting from the child's unusual responses to sensory experiences.

(4) The needs resulting from resistance to environmental change or change in daily routines.

(5) The needs resulting from engagement in repetitive activities and stereotyped movements.

(6) The need for any positive behavioral interventions, strategies, and supports to address any behavioral difficulties resulting from autism spectrum disorder.

(7) Other needs resulting from the child's disability that impact progress in the general curriculum, including social and emotional development. Public Act 95-257 does not create any new entitlement to a service, program, or benefit, but must not affect any entitlement to a service, program, or benefit created by any other law.

If the student may be eligible to participate in the Home-Based Support Services Program for Adults with Mental Disabilities authorized under the Developmental Disability and Mental Disability Services Act upon becoming an adult, the student's individualized education program shall include plans for (i) determining the student's eligibility for those home-based services, (ii) enrolling the student in the program of home-based services, and (iii) developing a plan for the student's most effective use of the home-based services after the student becomes an adult and no longer receives special educational services under this Article. The plans developed under this paragraph shall include specific actions to be taken by specified individuals, agencies, or officials.

(c) In the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind, it shall be presumed that proficiency in Braille reading and writing is essential for the student's satisfactory educational progress. For purposes of this subsection, the State Board of Education shall determine the criteria for a student to be classified as functionally blind. Students who are not currently identified as functionally blind who are also entitled to Braille instruction include: (i) those whose vision loss is so severe that they are unable to read and write at a level comparable to their peers solely through the use of vision, and (ii) those who show evidence of progressive vision loss that may result in functional blindness. Each student who is functionally blind shall be entitled to Braille reading and writing instruction that is sufficient to enable the student to communicate with the same level of proficiency as other students of comparable ability. Instruction should be provided to the extent that the student is physically and cognitively able to use Braille. Braille instruction may be used in combination with other special education services appropriate to the student's educational needs. The assessment of each student who is functionally blind for the purpose of developing the student's individualized education program shall include documentation of the student's strengths and weaknesses in Braille skills. Each person assisting in the development of the individualized education program for a student who is functionally blind shall receive information describing the benefits of Braille instruction. The individualized education program for each student who is functionally blind shall specify the appropriate learning medium or media based on the assessment report.

(d) To the maximum extent appropriate, the placement shall provide the child with the opportunity to be educated with children who do not have a disability; provided that children with disabilities who are recommended to be placed into regular education classrooms are provided with supplementary services to assist the children with disabilities to benefit from the regular classroom instruction and are included on the teacher's regular education class register. Subject to the limitation of the preceding sentence, placement in special classes, separate schools or other removal of the child with a disability from the regular educational environment shall occur only when the nature of the severity of the disability is such that education in the regular classes with the use of supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily. The placement of English learners with disabilities shall be in non-restrictive environments which provide for integration with peers who do not have disabilities in bilingual classrooms. Annually, each January, school districts shall report data on students from non-English speaking backgrounds receiving special education and related services in public and private facilities as prescribed in Section 2-3.30. If there is a disagreement between parties involved regarding the special education placement of any child, either in-state or out-of-state, the placement is subject to impartial due process procedures described in Article 10 of the Rules and Regulations to Govern the Administration and Operation of Special Education.

(e) No child who comes from a home in which a language other than English is the principal language used may be assigned to any class or program under this Article until he has been given, in the principal language used by the child and used in his home, tests reasonably related to his cultural environment. All testing and evaluation materials and procedures utilized for evaluation and placement shall not be linguistically, racially or culturally discriminatory.

(f) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to require any child to undergo any physical examination or medical treatment whose parents object thereto on the grounds that such examination or treatment conflicts with his religious beliefs.

(g) School boards or their designee shall provide to the parents of a child prior written notice of any decision (a) proposing to initiate or change, or (b) refusing to initiate or change, the identification, evaluation, or educational placement of the child or the provision of a free appropriate public education to their child, and the reasons therefor. Such written notification shall also inform the parent of the opportunity to present complaints with respect to any matter relating to the educational placement of the student, or the provision of a free appropriate public education and to have an impartial due process hearing on the complaint. The notice shall inform the parents in the parents' native language, unless it is clearly not feasible to do so, of their rights and all procedures available pursuant to this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446); it shall be the responsibility of the State Superintendent to develop uniform notices setting forth the procedures available under this Act and the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446) to be used by all school boards. The notice shall also inform the parents of the availability upon request of a list of free or low-cost legal and other relevant services available locally to assist parents in initiating an impartial due process hearing. The State Superintendent shall revise the uniform notices required by this subsection (g) to reflect current law and procedures at least once every 2 years. Any parent who is deaf, or does not normally communicate using spoken English, who participates in a meeting with a representative of a local educational agency for the purposes of developing an individualized educational program shall be entitled to the services of an interpreter.

(g-5) For purposes of this subsection (g-5), "qualified professional" means an individual who holds credentials to evaluate the child in the domain or domains for which an evaluation is sought or an intern working under the direct supervision of a qualified professional, including a master's or doctoral degree candidate.

To ensure that a parent can participate fully and effectively with school personnel in the development of appropriate educational and related services for his or her child, the parent, an independent educational evaluator, or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access to educational facilities, personnel, classrooms, and buildings and to the child as provided in this subsection (g-5). The requirements of this subsection (g-5) apply to any public school facility, building, or program and to any facility, building, or program supported in whole or in part by public funds. Prior to visiting a school, school building, or school facility, the parent, independent educational evaluator, or qualified professional may be required by the school district to inform the building principal or supervisor in writing of the proposed visit, the purpose of the visit, and the approximate duration of the visit. The visitor and the school district shall arrange the visit or visits at times that are mutually agreeable. Visitors shall comply with school safety, security, and visitation policies at all times. School district visitation policies must not conflict with this subsection (g-5). Visitors shall be required to comply with the requirements of applicable privacy laws, including those laws protecting the confidentiality of education records such as the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act and the Illinois School Student Records Act. The visitor shall not disrupt the educational process.

(1) A parent must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of observing his or her child in the child's current educational placement, services, or program or for the purpose of visiting an educational placement or program proposed for the child.

(2) An independent educational evaluator or a qualified professional retained by or on behalf of a parent or child must be afforded reasonable access of sufficient duration and scope for the purpose of conducting an evaluation of the child, the child's performance, the child's current educational program, placement, services, or environment, or any educational program, placement, services, or environment proposed for the child, including interviews of educational personnel, child observations, assessments, tests or assessments of the child's educational program, services, or placement or of any proposed educational program, services, or placement. If one or more interviews of school personnel are part of the evaluation, the interviews must be conducted at a mutually agreed upon time, date, and place that do not interfere with the school employee's school duties. The school district may limit interviews to personnel having information relevant to the child's current educational services, program, or placement or to a proposed educational service, program, or placement.

(h) (Blank).

(i) (Blank).

(j) (Blank).

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) (Blank).

(n) (Blank).

(o) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-122, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-8.02a)

Sec. 14-8.02a. Impartial due process hearing; civil action.

(a) This Section shall apply to all impartial due process hearings requested on or after July 1, 2005. Impartial due process hearings requested before July 1, 2005 shall be governed by the rules described in Public Act 89-652.

(a-5) For purposes of this Section and Section 14-8.02b of this Code, days shall be computed in accordance with Section 1.11 of the Statute on Statutes.

(b) The State Board of Education shall establish an impartial due process hearing system in accordance with this Section and may, with the advice and approval of the Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities, promulgate rules and regulations consistent with this Section to establish the rules and procedures for due process hearings.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(e) (Blank).

(f) An impartial due process hearing shall be convened upon the request of a parent, student if at least 18 years of age or emancipated, or a school district. A school district shall make a request in writing to the State Board of Education and promptly mail a copy of the request to the parents or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) at the parent's or student's last known address. A request made by the parent or student shall be made in writing to the superintendent of the school district where the student resides. The superintendent shall forward the request to the State Board of Education within 5 days after receipt of the request. The request shall be filed no more than 2 years following the date the person or school district knew or should have known of the event or events forming the basis for the request. The request shall, at a minimum, contain all of the following:

(1) The name of the student, the address of the student's residence, and the name of the school the student is attending.

(2) In the case of homeless children (as defined under the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11434a(2))), available contact information for the student and the name of the school the student is attending.

(3) A description of the nature of the problem relating to the actual or proposed placement, identification, services, or evaluation of the student, including facts relating to the problem.

(4) A proposed resolution of the problem to the extent known and available to the party at the time.

(f-5) Within 3 days after receipt of the hearing request, the State Board of Education shall appoint a due process hearing officer using a rotating appointment system and shall notify the hearing officer of his or her appointment.

For a school district other than a school district located in a municipality having a population exceeding 500,000, a hearing officer who is a current resident of the school district, special education cooperative, or other public entity involved in the hearing shall recuse himself or herself. A hearing officer who is a former employee of the school district, special education cooperative, or other public entity involved in the hearing shall immediately disclose the former employment to the parties and shall recuse himself or herself, unless the parties otherwise agree in writing. A hearing officer having a personal or professional interest that may conflict with his or her objectivity in the hearing shall disclose the conflict to the parties and shall recuse himself or herself unless the parties otherwise agree in writing. For purposes of this subsection an assigned hearing officer shall be considered to have a conflict of interest if, at any time prior to the issuance of his or her written decision, he or she knows or should know that he or she may receive remuneration from a party to the hearing within 3 years following the conclusion of the due process hearing.

A party to a due process hearing shall be permitted one substitution of hearing officer as a matter of right, in accordance with procedures established by the rules adopted by the State Board of Education under this Section. The State Board of Education shall randomly select and appoint another hearing officer within 3 days after receiving notice that the appointed hearing officer is ineligible to serve or upon receiving a proper request for substitution of hearing officer. If a party withdraws its request for a due process hearing after a hearing officer has been appointed, that hearing officer shall retain jurisdiction over a subsequent hearing that involves the same parties and is requested within one year from the date of withdrawal of the previous request, unless that hearing officer is unavailable.

Any party may raise facts that constitute a conflict of interest for the hearing officer at any time before or during the hearing and may move for recusal.

(g) Impartial due process hearings shall be conducted pursuant to this Section and any rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education consistent with this Section and other governing laws and regulations. The hearing shall address only those issues properly raised in the hearing request under subsection (f) of this Section or, if applicable, in the amended hearing request under subsection (g-15) of this Section. The hearing shall be closed to the public unless the parents request that the hearing be open to the public. The parents involved in the hearing shall have the right to have the student who is the subject of the hearing present. The hearing shall be held at a time and place which are reasonably convenient to the parties involved. Upon the request of a party, the hearing officer shall hold the hearing at a location neutral to the parties if the hearing officer determines that there is no cost for securing the use of the neutral location. Once appointed, the impartial due process hearing officer shall not communicate with the State Board of Education or its employees concerning the hearing, except that, where circumstances require, communications for administrative purposes that do not deal with substantive or procedural matters or issues on the merits are authorized, provided that the hearing officer promptly notifies all parties of the substance of the communication as a matter of record.

(g-5) Unless the school district has previously provided prior written notice to the parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) regarding the subject matter of the hearing request, the school district shall, within 10 days after receiving a hearing request initiated by a parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated), provide a written response to the request that shall include all of the following:

(1) An explanation of why the school district proposed or refused to take the action or actions described in the hearing request.

(2) A description of other options the IEP team considered and the reasons why those options were rejected.

(3) A description of each evaluation procedure, assessment, record, report, or other evidence the school district used as the basis for the proposed or refused action or actions.

(4) A description of the factors that are or were relevant to the school district's proposed or refused action or actions.

(g-10) When the hearing request has been initiated by a school district, within 10 days after receiving the request, the parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) shall provide the school district with a response that specifically addresses the issues raised in the school district's hearing request. The parent's or student's response shall be provided in writing, unless he or she is illiterate or has a disability that prevents him or her from providing a written response. The parent's or student's response may be provided in his or her native language, if other than English. In the event that illiteracy or another disabling condition prevents the parent or student from providing a written response, the school district shall assist the parent or student in providing the written response.

(g-15) Within 15 days after receiving notice of the hearing request, the non-requesting party may challenge the sufficiency of the request by submitting its challenge in writing to the hearing officer. Within 5 days after receiving the challenge to the sufficiency of the request, the hearing officer shall issue a determination of the challenge in writing to the parties. In the event that the hearing officer upholds the challenge, the party who requested the hearing may, with the consent of the non-requesting party or hearing officer, file an amended request. Amendments are permissible for the purpose of raising issues beyond those in the initial hearing request. In addition, the party who requested the hearing may amend the request once as a matter of right by filing the amended request within 5 days after filing the initial request. An amended request, other than an amended request as a matter of right, shall be filed by the date determined by the hearing officer, but in no event any later than 5 days prior to the date of the hearing. If an amended request, other than an amended request as a matter of right, raises issues that were not part of the initial request, the applicable timeline for a hearing, including the timeline under subsection (g-20) of this Section, shall recommence.

(g-20) Within 15 days after receiving a request for a hearing from a parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) or, in the event that the school district requests a hearing, within 15 days after initiating the request, the school district shall convene a resolution meeting with the parent and relevant members of the IEP team who have specific knowledge of the facts contained in the request for the purpose of resolving the problem that resulted in the request. The resolution meeting shall include a representative of the school district who has decision-making authority on behalf of the school district. Unless the parent is accompanied by an attorney at the resolution meeting, the school district may not include an attorney representing the school district.

The resolution meeting may not be waived unless agreed to in writing by the school district and the parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) or the parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) and the school district agree in writing to utilize mediation in place of the resolution meeting. If either party fails to cooperate in the scheduling or convening of the resolution meeting, the hearing officer may order an extension of the timeline for completion of the resolution meeting or, upon the motion of a party and at least 7 days after ordering the non-cooperating party to cooperate, order the dismissal of the hearing request or the granting of all relief set forth in the request, as appropriate.

In the event that the school district and the parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) agree to a resolution of the problem that resulted in the hearing request, the terms of the resolution shall be committed to writing and signed by the parent or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) and the representative of the school district with decision-making authority. The agreement shall be legally binding and shall be enforceable in any State or federal court of competent jurisdiction. In the event that the parties utilize the resolution meeting process, the process shall continue until no later than the 30th day following the receipt of the hearing request by the non-requesting party (or as properly extended by order of the hearing officer) to resolve the issues underlying the request, at which time the timeline for completion of the impartial due process hearing shall commence. The State Board of Education may, by rule, establish additional procedures for the conduct of resolution meetings.

(g-25) If mutually agreed to in writing, the parties to a hearing request may request State-sponsored mediation as a substitute for the resolution process described in subsection (g-20) of this Section or may utilize mediation at the close of the resolution process if all issues underlying the hearing request have not been resolved through the resolution process.

(g-30) If mutually agreed to in writing, the parties to a hearing request may waive the resolution process described in subsection (g-20) of this Section. Upon signing a written agreement to waive the resolution process, the parties shall be required to forward the written waiver to the hearing officer appointed to the case within 2 business days following the signing of the waiver by the parties. The timeline for the impartial due process hearing shall commence on the date of the signing of the waiver by the parties.

(g-35) The timeline for completing the impartial due process hearing, as set forth in subsection (h) of this Section, shall be initiated upon the occurrence of any one of the following events:

(1) The unsuccessful completion of the resolution process as described in subsection (g-20) of this Section.

(2) The mutual agreement of the parties to waive the resolution process as described in subsection (g-25) or (g-30) of this Section.

(g-40) The hearing officer shall convene a prehearing conference no later than 14 days before the scheduled date for the due process hearing for the general purpose of aiding in the fair, orderly, and expeditious conduct of the hearing. The hearing officer shall provide the parties with written notice of the prehearing conference at least 7 days in advance of the conference. The written notice shall require the parties to notify the hearing officer by a date certain whether they intend to participate in the prehearing conference. The hearing officer may conduct the prehearing conference in person or by telephone. Each party shall at the prehearing conference (1) disclose whether it is represented by legal counsel or intends to retain legal counsel; (2) clarify matters it believes to be in dispute in the case and the specific relief being sought; (3) disclose whether there are any additional evaluations for the student that it intends to introduce into the hearing record that have not been previously disclosed to the other parties; (4) disclose a list of all documents it intends to introduce into the hearing record, including the date and a brief description of each document; and (5) disclose the names of all witnesses it intends to call to testify at the hearing. The hearing officer shall specify the order of presentation to be used at the hearing. If the prehearing conference is held by telephone, the parties shall transmit the information required in this paragraph in such a manner that it is available to all parties at the time of the prehearing conference. The State Board of Education may, by rule, establish additional procedures for the conduct of prehearing conferences.

(g-45) The impartial due process hearing officer shall not initiate or participate in any ex parte communications with the parties, except to arrange the date, time, and location of the prehearing conference, due process hearing, or other status conferences convened at the discretion of the hearing officer and to receive confirmation of whether a party intends to participate in the prehearing conference.

(g-50) The parties shall disclose and provide to each other any evidence which they intend to submit into the hearing record no later than 5 days before the hearing. Any party to a hearing has the right to prohibit the introduction of any evidence at the hearing that has not been disclosed to that party at least 5 days before the hearing. The party requesting a hearing shall not be permitted at the hearing to raise issues that were not raised in the party's initial or amended request, unless otherwise permitted in this Section.

(g-55) All reasonable efforts must be made by the parties to present their respective cases at the hearing within a cumulative period of 7 days. When scheduling hearing dates, the hearing officer shall schedule the final day of the hearing no more than 30 calendar days after the first day of the hearing unless good cause is shown. This subsection (g-55) shall not be applied in a manner that (i) denies any party to the hearing a fair and reasonable allocation of time and opportunity to present its case in its entirety or (ii) deprives any party to the hearing of the safeguards accorded under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004 (Public Law 108-446), regulations promulgated under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004, or any other applicable law. The school district shall present evidence that the special education needs of the child have been appropriately identified and that the special education program and related services proposed to meet the needs of the child are adequate, appropriate, and available. Any party to the hearing shall have the right to (1) be represented by counsel and be accompanied and advised by individuals with special knowledge or training with respect to the problems of children with disabilities, at the party's own expense; (2) present evidence and confront and cross-examine witnesses; (3) move for the exclusion of witnesses from the hearing until they are called to testify, provided, however, that this provision may not be invoked to exclude the individual designated by a party to assist that party or its representative in the presentation of the case; (4) obtain a written or electronic verbatim record of the proceedings within 30 days of receipt of a written request from the parents by the school district; and (5) obtain a written decision, including findings of fact and conclusions of law, within 10 days after the conclusion of the hearing. If at issue, the school district shall present evidence that it has properly identified and evaluated the nature and severity of the student's suspected or identified disability and that, if the student has been or should have been determined eligible for special education and related services, that it is providing or has offered a free appropriate public education to the student in the least restrictive environment, consistent with procedural safeguards and in accordance with an individualized educational program. At any time prior to the conclusion of the hearing, the impartial due process hearing officer shall have the authority to require additional information and order independent evaluations for the student at the expense of the school district. The State Board of Education and the school district shall share equally the costs of providing a written or electronic verbatim record of the proceedings. Any party may request that the due process hearing officer issue a subpoena to compel the testimony of witnesses or the production of documents relevant to the resolution of the hearing. Whenever a person refuses to comply with any subpoena issued under this Section, the circuit court of the county in which that hearing is pending, on application of the impartial hearing officer or the party requesting the issuance of the subpoena, may compel compliance through the contempt powers of the court in the same manner as if the requirements of a subpoena issued by the court had been disobeyed.

(h) The impartial hearing officer shall issue a written decision, including findings of fact and conclusions of law, within 10 days after the conclusion of the hearing and send by certified mail a copy of the decision to the parents or student (if the student requests the hearing), the school district, the director of special education, legal representatives of the parties, and the State Board of Education. Unless the hearing officer has granted specific extensions of time at the request of a party, a final decision, including the clarification of a decision requested under this subsection, shall be reached and mailed to the parties named above not later than 45 days after the initiation of the timeline for conducting the hearing, as described in subsection (g-35) of this Section. The decision shall specify the educational and related services that shall be provided to the student in accordance with the student's needs and the timeline for which the school district shall submit evidence to the State Board of Education to demonstrate compliance with the hearing officer's decision in the event that the decision orders the school district to undertake corrective action. The hearing officer shall retain jurisdiction for the sole purpose of considering a request for clarification of the final decision submitted in writing by a party to the impartial hearing officer within 5 days after receipt of the decision. A copy of the request for clarification shall specify the portions of the decision for which clarification is sought and shall be mailed to all parties of record and to the State Board of Education. The request shall operate to stay implementation of those portions of the decision for which clarification is sought, pending action on the request by the hearing officer, unless the parties otherwise agree. The hearing officer shall issue a clarification of the specified portion of the decision or issue a partial or full denial of the request in writing within 10 days of receipt of the request and mail copies to all parties to whom the decision was mailed. This subsection does not permit a party to request, or authorize a hearing officer to entertain, reconsideration of the decision itself. The statute of limitations for seeking review of the decision shall be tolled from the date the request is submitted until the date the hearing officer acts upon the request. The hearing officer's decision shall be binding upon the school district and the parents unless a civil action is commenced.

(i) Any party to an impartial due process hearing aggrieved by the final written decision of the impartial due process hearing officer shall have the right to commence a civil action with respect to the issues presented in the impartial due process hearing. That civil action shall be brought in any court of competent jurisdiction within 120 days after a copy of the decision of the impartial due process hearing officer is mailed to the party as provided in subsection (h). The civil action authorized by this subsection shall not be exclusive of any rights or causes of action otherwise available. The commencement of a civil action under this subsection shall operate as a supersedeas. In any action brought under this subsection the Court shall receive the records of the impartial due process hearing, shall hear additional evidence at the request of a party, and, basing its decision on the preponderance of the evidence, shall grant such relief as the court determines is appropriate. In any instance where a school district willfully disregards applicable regulations or statutes regarding a child covered by this Article, and which disregard has been detrimental to the child, the school district shall be liable for any reasonable attorney's fees incurred by the parent in connection with proceedings under this Section.

(j) During the pendency of any administrative or judicial proceeding conducted pursuant to this Section, including mediation (if the school district or other public entity voluntarily agrees to participate in mediation), unless the school district and the parents or student (if at least 18 years of age or emancipated) otherwise agree, the student shall remain in his or her present educational placement and continue in his or her present eligibility status and special education and related services, if any. If mediation fails to resolve the dispute between the parties, or if the parties do not agree to use mediation, the parent (or student if 18 years of age or older or emancipated) shall have 10 days after the mediation concludes, or after a party declines to use mediation, to file a request for a due process hearing in order to continue to invoke the "stay-put" provisions of this subsection (j). If applying for initial admission to the school district, the student shall, with the consent of the parents (if the student is not at least 18 years of age or emancipated), be placed in the school district program until all such proceedings have been completed. The costs for any special education and related services or placement incurred following 60 school days after the initial request for evaluation shall be borne by the school district if the services or placement is in accordance with the final determination as to the special education and related services or placement that must be provided to the child, provided that during that 60-day 60 day period there have been no delays caused by the child's parent. The requirements and procedures of this subsection (j) shall be included in the uniform notices developed by the State Superintendent under subsection (g) of Section 14-8.02 of this Code.

(k) Whenever the parents of a child of the type described in Section 14-1.02 are not known or , are unavailable, or the child is a youth in care as defined in Section 4d of the Children and Family Services Act, a person shall be assigned to serve as surrogate parent for the child in matters relating to the identification, evaluation, and educational placement of the child and the provision of a free appropriate public education to the child. Persons shall be assigned as surrogate parents by the State Superintendent of Education. The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations establishing qualifications of those persons and their responsibilities and the procedures to be followed in making assignments of persons as surrogate parents. Surrogate parents shall not be employees of the school district, an agency created by joint agreement under Section 10-22.31, an agency involved in the education or care of the student, or the State Board of Education. Services of any person assigned as surrogate parent shall terminate if the parent becomes available unless otherwise requested by the parents. The assignment of a person as surrogate parent at no time supersedes, terminates, or suspends the parents' legal authority relative to the child. Any person participating in good faith as surrogate parent on behalf of the child before school officials or a hearing officer shall have immunity from civil or criminal liability that otherwise might result by reason of that participation, except in cases of willful and wanton misconduct.

(l) At all stages of the hearing, the hearing officer shall require that interpreters be made available by the school district for persons who are deaf or for persons whose normally spoken language is other than English.

(m) If any provision of this Section or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision or application does not affect other provisions or applications of the Section that can be given effect without the invalid application or provision, and to this end the provisions of this Section are severable, unless otherwise provided by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-122, eff. 8-18-17; 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; revised 1-22-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/14-13.01) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-13.01)

Sec. 14-13.01. Reimbursement payable by State; amounts for personnel and transportation.

(a) Through fiscal year 2017, for staff working on behalf of children who have not been identified as eligible for special education and for eligible children with physical disabilities, including all eligible children whose placement has been determined under Section 14-8.02 in hospital or home instruction, 1/2 of the teacher's salary but not more than $1,000 annually per child or $9,000 per teacher, whichever is less.

(a-5) A child qualifies for home or hospital instruction if it is anticipated that, due to a medical condition, the child will be unable to attend school, and instead must be instructed at home or in the hospital, for a period of 2 or more consecutive weeks or on an ongoing intermittent basis. For purposes of this Section, "ongoing intermittent basis" means that the child's medical condition is of such a nature or severity that it is anticipated that the child will be absent from school due to the medical condition for periods of at least 2 days at a time multiple times during the school year totaling at least 10 days or more of absences. There shall be no requirement that a child be absent from school a minimum number of days before the child qualifies for home or hospital instruction. In order to establish eligibility for home or hospital services, a student's parent or guardian must submit to the child's school district of residence a written statement from a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse stating the existence of such medical condition, the impact on the child's ability to participate in education, and the anticipated duration or nature of the child's absence from school. Home or hospital instruction may commence upon receipt of a written physician's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice registered nurse's statement in accordance with this Section, but instruction shall commence not later than 5 school days after the school district receives the physician's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice registered nurse's statement. Special education and related services required by the child's IEP or services and accommodations required by the child's federal Section 504 plan must be implemented as part of the child's home or hospital instruction, unless the IEP team or federal Section 504 plan team determines that modifications are necessary during the home or hospital instruction due to the child's condition.

(a-10) Through fiscal year 2017, eligible children to be included in any reimbursement under this paragraph must regularly receive a minimum of one hour of instruction each school day, or in lieu thereof of a minimum of 5 hours of instruction in each school week in order to qualify for full reimbursement under this Section. If the attending physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse for such a child has certified that the child should not receive as many as 5 hours of instruction in a school week, however, reimbursement under this paragraph on account of that child shall be computed proportionate to the actual hours of instruction per week for that child divided by 5.

(a-15) The State Board of Education shall establish rules governing the required qualifications of staff providing home or hospital instruction.

(b) For children described in Section 14-1.02, 80% of the cost of transportation approved as a related service in the Individualized Education Program for each student in order to take advantage of special educational facilities. Transportation costs shall be determined in the same fashion as provided in Section 29-5 of this Code. For purposes of this subsection (b), the dates for processing claims specified in Section 29-5 shall apply.

(c) Through fiscal year 2017, for each qualified worker, the annual sum of $9,000.

(d) Through fiscal year 2017, for one full-time full time qualified director of the special education program of each school district which maintains a fully approved program of special education, the annual sum of $9,000. Districts participating in a joint agreement special education program shall not receive such reimbursement if reimbursement is made for a director of the joint agreement program.

(e) (Blank).

(f) (Blank).

(g) Through fiscal year 2017, for readers, working with blind or partially seeing children, 1/2 of their salary but not more than $400 annually per child. Readers may be employed to assist such children and shall not be required to be certified but prior to employment shall meet standards set up by the State Board of Education.

(h) Through fiscal year 2017, for non-certified employees, as defined by rules promulgated by the State Board of Education, who deliver services to students with IEPs, 1/2 of the salary paid or $3,500 per employee, whichever is less.

(i) The State Board of Education shall set standards and prescribe rules for determining the allocation of reimbursement under this section on less than a full time basis and for less than a school year.

When any school district eligible for reimbursement under this Section operates a school or program approved by the State Superintendent of Education for a number of days in excess of the adopted school calendar but not to exceed 235 school days, such reimbursement shall be increased by 1/180 of the amount or rate paid hereunder for each day such school is operated in excess of 180 days per calendar year.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a payment under this Section or under Section 14-7.02, 14-7.02b, or 29-5 of this Code may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year or from evidence-based funding pursuant to Section 18-8.15 of this Code as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any payments or evidence-based funding to be classified under this paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of providing services.

No funding shall be provided to school districts under this Section after fiscal year 2017. In fiscal year 2018 and each fiscal year thereafter, all funding received by a school district from the State pursuant to Section 18-8.15 of this Code that is attributable to personnel reimbursements for special education pupils must be used for special education services authorized under this Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-443, eff. 8-25-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/17-2A) (from Ch. 122, par. 17-2A)

Sec. 17-2A. Interfund transfers.

(a) The school board of any district having a population of less than 500,000 inhabitants may, by proper resolution following a public hearing set by the school board or the president of the school board (that is preceded (i) by at least one published notice over the name of the clerk or secretary of the board, occurring at least 7 days and not more than 30 days prior to the hearing, in a newspaper of general circulation within the school district and (ii) by posted notice over the name of the clerk or secretary of the board, at least 48 hours before the hearing, at the principal office of the school board or at the building where the hearing is to be held if a principal office does not exist, with both notices setting forth the time, date, place, and subject matter of the hearing), transfer money from (1) the Educational Fund to the Operations and Maintenance Fund or the Transportation Fund, (2) the Operations and Maintenance Fund to the Educational Fund or the Transportation Fund, (3) the Transportation Fund to the Educational Fund or the Operations and Maintenance Fund, or (4) the Tort Immunity Fund to the Operations and Maintenance Fund of said district, provided that, except during the period from July 1, 2003 through June 30, 2020, such transfer is made solely for the purpose of meeting one-time, non-recurring expenses. Except during the period from July 1, 2003 through June 30, 2020 and except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this Section, any other permanent interfund transfers authorized by any provision or judicial interpretation of this Code for which the transferee fund is not precisely and specifically set forth in the provision of this Code authorizing such transfer shall be made to the fund of the school district most in need of the funds being transferred, as determined by resolution of the school board.

(b) (Blank).

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section or any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the school board of any school district (i) that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, (ii) that is an elementary district servicing students in grades K through 8, (iii) whose territory is in one county, (iv) that is eligible for Section 7002 Federal Impact Aid, and (v) that has no more than $81,000 in funds remaining from refinancing bonds that were refinanced a minimum of 5 years prior to January 20, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-926) may make a one-time transfer of the funds remaining from the refinancing bonds to the Operations and Maintenance Fund of the district by proper resolution following a public hearing set by the school board or the president of the school board, with notice as provided in subsection (a) of this Section, so long as the district meets the qualifications set forth in this subsection (c) on January 20, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-926).

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section or any other provision of this Code to the contrary, the school board of any school district (i) that is subject to the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, (ii) that is a community unit school district servicing students in grades K through 12, (iii) whose territory is in one county, (iv) that owns property designated by the United States as a Superfund site pursuant to the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act of 1980 (42 U.S.C. 9601 et seq.), and (v) that has an excess accumulation of funds in its bond fund, including funds accumulated prior to July 1, 2000, may make a one-time transfer of those excess funds accumulated prior to July 1, 2000 to the Operations and Maintenance Fund of the district by proper resolution following a public hearing set by the school board or the president of the school board, with notice as provided in subsection (a) of this Section, so long as the district meets the qualifications set forth in this subsection (d) on August 4, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-32) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 99-713, eff. 8-5-16; 99-922, eff. 1-17-17; 99-926, eff. 1-20-17; 100-32, eff. 8-4-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-8.05)

Sec. 18-8.05. Basis for apportionment of general State financial aid and supplemental general State aid to the common schools for the 1998-1999 through the 2016-2017 school years.

(A) General Provisions.

(1) The provisions of this Section relating to the calculation and apportionment of general State financial aid and supplemental general State aid apply to the 1998-1999 through the 2016-2017 school years. The system of general State financial aid provided for in this Section is designed to assure that, through a combination of State financial aid and required local resources, the financial support provided each pupil in Average Daily Attendance equals or exceeds a prescribed per pupil Foundation Level. This formula approach imputes a level of per pupil Available Local Resources and provides for the basis to calculate a per pupil level of general State financial aid that, when added to Available Local Resources, equals or exceeds the Foundation Level. The amount of per pupil general State financial aid for school districts, in general, varies in inverse relation to Available Local Resources. Per pupil amounts are based upon each school district's Average Daily Attendance as that term is defined in this Section.

(2) In addition to general State financial aid, school districts with specified levels or concentrations of pupils from low income households are eligible to receive supplemental general State financial aid grants as provided pursuant to subsection (H). The supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under subsection (H) shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(3) To receive financial assistance under this Section, school districts are required to file claims with the State Board of Education, subject to the following requirements:

(a) Any school district which fails for any given school year to maintain school as required by law, or to maintain a recognized school is not eligible to file for such school year any claim upon the Common School Fund. In case of nonrecognition of one or more attendance centers in a school district otherwise operating recognized schools, the claim of the district shall be reduced in the proportion which the Average Daily Attendance in the attendance center or centers bear to the Average Daily Attendance in the school district. A "recognized school" means any public school which meets the standards as established for recognition by the State Board of Education. A school district or attendance center not having recognition status at the end of a school term is entitled to receive State aid payments due upon a legal claim which was filed while it was recognized.

(b) School district claims filed under this Section are subject to Sections 18-9 and 18-12, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(c) If a school district operates a full year school under Section 10-19.1, the general State aid to the school district shall be determined by the State Board of Education in accordance with this Section as near as may be applicable.

(d) (Blank).

(4) Except as provided in subsections (H) and (L), the board of any district receiving any of the grants provided for in this Section may apply those funds to any fund so received for which that board is authorized to make expenditures by law.

School districts are not required to exert a minimum Operating Tax Rate in order to qualify for assistance under this Section.

(5) As used in this Section the following terms, when capitalized, shall have the meaning ascribed herein:

(a) "Average Daily Attendance": A count of pupil attendance in school, averaged as provided for in subsection (C) and utilized in deriving per pupil financial support levels.

(b) "Available Local Resources": A computation of local financial support, calculated on the basis of Average Daily Attendance and derived as provided pursuant to subsection (D).

(c) "Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes": Funds paid to local school districts pursuant to "An Act in relation to the abolition of ad valorem personal property tax and the replacement of revenues lost thereby, and amending and repealing certain Acts and parts of Acts in connection therewith", certified August 14, 1979, as amended (Public Act 81-1st S.S.-1).

(d) "Foundation Level": A prescribed level of per pupil financial support as provided for in subsection (B).

(e) "Operating Tax Rate": All school district property taxes extended for all purposes, except Bond and Interest, Summer School, Rent, Capital Improvement, and Vocational Education Building purposes.

(B) Foundation Level.

(1) The Foundation Level is a figure established by the State representing the minimum level of per pupil financial support that should be available to provide for the basic education of each pupil in Average Daily Attendance. As set forth in this Section, each school district is assumed to exert a sufficient local taxing effort such that, in combination with the aggregate of general State financial aid provided the district, an aggregate of State and local resources are available to meet the basic education needs of pupils in the district.

(2) For the 1998-1999 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,225. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,325. For the 2000-2001 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,425. For the 2001-2002 school year and 2002-2003 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,560. For the 2003-2004 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,810. For the 2004-2005 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $4,964. For the 2005-2006 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,164. For the 2006-2007 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,334. For the 2007-2008 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,734. For the 2008-2009 school year, the Foundation Level of support is $5,959.

(3) For the 2009-2010 school year and each school year thereafter, the Foundation Level of support is $6,119 or such greater amount as may be established by law by the General Assembly.

(C) Average Daily Attendance.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), an Average Daily Attendance figure shall be utilized. The Average Daily Attendance figure for formula calculation purposes shall be the monthly average of the actual number of pupils in attendance of each school district, as further averaged for the best 3 months of pupil attendance for each school district. In compiling the figures for the number of pupils in attendance, school districts and the State Board of Education shall, for purposes of general State aid funding, conform attendance figures to the requirements of subsection (F).

(2) The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (E) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated or the average of the attendance data for the 3 preceding school years, whichever is greater. The Average Daily Attendance figures utilized in subsection (H) shall be the requisite attendance data for the school year immediately preceding the school year for which general State aid is being calculated.

(D) Available Local Resources.

(1) For purposes of calculating general State aid pursuant to subsection (E), a representation of Available Local Resources per pupil, as that term is defined and determined in this subsection, shall be utilized. Available Local Resources per pupil shall include a calculated dollar amount representing local school district revenues from local property taxes and from Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes, expressed on the basis of pupils in Average Daily Attendance. Calculation of Available Local Resources shall exclude any tax amnesty funds received as a result of Public Act 93-26.

(2) In determining a school district's revenue from local property taxes, the State Board of Education shall utilize the equalized assessed valuation of all taxable property of each school district as of September 30 of the previous year. The equalized assessed valuation utilized shall be obtained and determined as provided in subsection (G).

(3) For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 3.00%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the applicable equalized assessed valuation for the district multiplied by 2.30%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure. For school districts maintaining grades 9 through 12, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be the applicable equalized assessed valuation of the district multiplied by 1.05%, and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

For partial elementary unit districts created pursuant to Article 11E of this Code, local property tax revenues per pupil shall be calculated as the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for elementary purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 2.06% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure, plus the product of the equalized assessed valuation for property within the partial elementary unit district for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, multiplied by 0.94% and divided by the district's Average Daily Attendance figure.

(4) The Corporate Personal Property Replacement Taxes paid to each school district during the calendar year one year before the calendar year in which a school year begins, divided by the Average Daily Attendance figure for that district, shall be added to the local property tax revenues per pupil as derived by the application of the immediately preceding paragraph (3). The sum of these per pupil figures for each school district shall constitute Available Local Resources as that term is utilized in subsection (E) in the calculation of general State aid.

(E) Computation of General State Aid.

(1) For each school year, the amount of general State aid allotted to a school district shall be computed by the State Board of Education as provided in this subsection.

(2) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is less than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, general State aid for that district shall be calculated as an amount equal to the Foundation Level minus Available Local Resources, multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(3) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil is equal to or greater than the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level and less than the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid per pupil shall be a decimal proportion of the Foundation Level derived using a linear algorithm. Under this linear algorithm, the calculated general State aid per pupil shall decline in direct linear fashion from 0.07 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 0.93 times the Foundation Level, to 0.05 times the Foundation Level for a school district with Available Local Resources equal to the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level. The allocation of general State aid for school districts subject to this paragraph 3 shall be the calculated general State aid per pupil figure multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(4) For any school district for which Available Local Resources per pupil equals or exceeds the product of 1.75 times the Foundation Level, the general State aid for the school district shall be calculated as the product of $218 multiplied by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(5) The amount of general State aid allocated to a school district for the 1999-2000 school year meeting the requirements set forth in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) shall be increased by an amount equal to the general State aid that would have been received by the district for the 1998-1999 school year by utilizing the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated in paragraph (4) of subsection (G) less the general State aid allotted for the 1998-1999 school year. This amount shall be deemed a one time increase, and shall not affect any future general State aid allocations.

(F) Compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(1) Each school district shall, by July 1 of each year, submit to the State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State Board of Education, attendance figures for the school year that began in the preceding calendar year. The attendance information so transmitted shall identify the average daily attendance figures for each month of the school year for each grade level served. Beginning with the general State aid claim form for the 2002-2003 school year, districts shall calculate Average Daily Attendance as provided in subdivisions (a), (b), and (c) of this paragraph (1).

(a) In districts that do not hold year-round classes, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(b) In districts in which all buildings hold year-round classes, days of attendance in July and August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May.

(c) In districts in which some buildings, but not all, hold year-round classes, for the non-year-round buildings, days of attendance in August shall be added to the month of September and any days of attendance in June shall be added to the month of May. The average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be computed as provided in subdivision (b) of this paragraph (1). To calculate the Average Daily Attendance for the district, the average daily attendance for the year-round buildings shall be multiplied by the days in session for the non-year-round buildings for each month and added to the monthly attendance of the non-year-round buildings.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, days of attendance by pupils shall be counted only for sessions of not less than 5 clock hours of school work per day under direct supervision of: (i) teachers, or (ii) non-teaching personnel or volunteer personnel when engaging in non-teaching duties and supervising in those instances specified in subsection (a) of Section 10-22.34 and paragraph 10 of Section 34-18, with pupils of legal school age and in kindergarten and grades 1 through 12. Days of attendance by pupils through verified participation in an e-learning program approved by the State Board of Education under Section 10-20.56 of the Code shall be considered as full days of attendance for purposes of this Section.

Days of attendance by tuition pupils shall be accredited only to the districts that pay the tuition to a recognized school.

(2) Days of attendance by pupils of less than 5 clock hours of school shall be subject to the following provisions in the compilation of Average Daily Attendance.

(a) Pupils regularly enrolled in a public school for only a part of the school day may be counted on the basis of 1/6 day for every class hour of instruction of 40 minutes or more attended pursuant to such enrollment, unless a pupil is enrolled in a block-schedule format of 80 minutes or more of instruction, in which case the pupil may be counted on the basis of the proportion of minutes of school work completed each day to the minimum number of minutes that school work is required to be held that day.

(b) (Blank).

(c) A session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance upon certification by the regional superintendent, and approved by the State Superintendent of Education to the extent that the district has been forced to use daily multiple sessions.

(d) A session of 3 or more clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance (1) when the remainder of the school day or at least 2 hours in the evening of that day is utilized for an in-service training program for teachers, up to a maximum of 5 days per school year, provided a district conducts an in-service training program for teachers in accordance with Section 10-22.39 of this Code; or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days may be used, in which event each such day may be counted as a day required for a legal school calendar pursuant to Section 10-19 of this Code; (1.5) when, of the 5 days allowed under item (1), a maximum of 4 days are used for parent-teacher conferences, or, in lieu of 4 such days, 2 full days are used, in which case each such day may be counted as a calendar day required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that the full-day, parent-teacher conference consists of (i) a minimum of 5 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences, (ii) both a minimum of 2 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences held in the evening following a full day of student attendance, as specified in subsection (F)(1)(c), and a minimum of 3 clock hours of parent-teacher conferences held on the day immediately following evening parent-teacher conferences, or (iii) multiple parent-teacher conferences held in the evenings following full days of student attendance, as specified in subsection (F)(1)(c), in which the time used for the parent-teacher conferences is equivalent to a minimum of 5 clock hours; and (2) when days in addition to those provided in items (1) and (1.5) are scheduled by a school pursuant to its school improvement plan adopted under Article 34 or its revised or amended school improvement plan adopted under Article 2, provided that (i) such sessions of 3 or more clock hours are scheduled to occur at regular intervals, (ii) the remainder of the school days in which such sessions occur are utilized for in-service training programs or other staff development activities for teachers, and (iii) a sufficient number of minutes of school work under the direct supervision of teachers are added to the school days between such regularly scheduled sessions to accumulate not less than the number of minutes by which such sessions of 3 or more clock hours fall short of 5 clock hours. Any full days used for the purposes of this paragraph shall not be considered for computing average daily attendance. Days scheduled for in-service training programs, staff development activities, or parent-teacher conferences may be scheduled separately for different grade levels and different attendance centers of the district.

(e) A session of not less than one clock hour of teaching hospitalized or homebound pupils on-site or by telephone to the classroom may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance, however these pupils must receive 4 or more clock hours of instruction to be counted for a full day of attendance.

(f) A session of at least 4 clock hours may be counted as a day of attendance for first grade pupils, and pupils in full day kindergartens, and a session of 2 or more hours may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance by pupils in kindergartens which provide only 1/2 day of attendance.

(g) For children with disabilities who are below the age of 6 years and who cannot attend 2 or more clock hours because of their disability or immaturity, a session of not less than one clock hour may be counted as 1/2 day of attendance; however for such children whose educational needs so require a session of 4 or more clock hours may be counted as a full day of attendance.

(h) A recognized kindergarten which provides for only 1/2 day of attendance by each pupil shall not have more than 1/2 day of attendance counted in any one day. However, kindergartens may count 2 1/2 days of attendance in any 5 consecutive school days. When a pupil attends such a kindergarten for 2 half days on any one school day, the pupil shall have the following day as a day absent from school, unless the school district obtains permission in writing from the State Superintendent of Education. Attendance at kindergartens which provide for a full day of attendance by each pupil shall be counted the same as attendance by first grade pupils. Only the first year of attendance in one kindergarten shall be counted, except in case of children who entered the kindergarten in their fifth year whose educational development requires a second year of kindergarten as determined under the rules and regulations of the State Board of Education.

(i) On the days when the assessment that includes a college and career ready determination is administered under subsection (c) of Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code, the day of attendance for a pupil whose school day must be shortened to accommodate required testing procedures may be less than 5 clock hours and shall be counted towards the 176 days of actual pupil attendance required under Section 10-19 of this Code, provided that a sufficient number of minutes of school work in excess of 5 clock hours are first completed on other school days to compensate for the loss of school work on the examination days.

(j) Pupils enrolled in a remote educational program established under Section 10-29 of this Code may be counted on the basis of one-fifth day of attendance for every clock hour of instruction attended in the remote educational program, provided that, in any month, the school district may not claim for a student enrolled in a remote educational program more days of attendance than the maximum number of days of attendance the district can claim (i) for students enrolled in a building holding year-round classes if the student is classified as participating in the remote educational program on a year-round schedule or (ii) for students enrolled in a building not holding year-round classes if the student is not classified as participating in the remote educational program on a year-round schedule.

(G) Equalized Assessed Valuation Data.

(1) For purposes of the calculation of Available Local Resources required pursuant to subsection (D), the State Board of Education shall secure from the Department of Revenue the value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue of all taxable property of every school district, together with (i) the applicable tax rate used in extending taxes for the funds of the district as of September 30 of the previous year and (ii) the limiting rate for all school districts subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

The Department of Revenue shall add to the equalized assessed value of all taxable property of each school district situated entirely or partially within a county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code (a) an amount equal to the total amount by which the homestead exemption allowed under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code for real property situated in that school district exceeds the total amount that would have been allowed in that school district if the maximum reduction under Section 15-176 was (i) $4,500 in Cook County or $3,500 in all other counties in tax year 2003 or (ii) $5,000 in all counties in tax year 2004 and thereafter and (b) an amount equal to the aggregate amount for the taxable year of all additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. The county clerk of any county that is or was subject to the provisions of Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code shall annually calculate and certify to the Department of Revenue for each school district all homestead exemption amounts under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and all amounts of additional exemptions under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of $30,000 or less. It is the intent of this paragraph that if the general homestead exemption for a parcel of property is determined under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code rather than Section 15-175, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, between the amount of the general homestead exemption allowed for that parcel of property under Section 15-176 or 15-177 of the Property Tax Code and the amount that would have been allowed had the general homestead exemption for that parcel of property been determined under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code. It is further the intent of this paragraph that if additional exemptions are allowed under Section 15-175 of the Property Tax Code for owners with a household income of less than $30,000, then the calculation of Available Local Resources shall not be affected by the difference, if any, because of those additional exemptions.

This equalized assessed valuation, as adjusted further by the requirements of this subsection, shall be utilized in the calculation of Available Local Resources.

(2) The equalized assessed valuation in paragraph (1) shall be adjusted, as applicable, in the following manner:

(a) For the purposes of calculating State aid under this Section, with respect to any part of a school district within a redevelopment project area in respect to which a municipality has adopted tax increment allocation financing pursuant to the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act, Sections 11-74.4-1 through 11-74.4-11 of the Illinois Municipal Code or the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law, Sections 11-74.6-1 through 11-74.6-50 of the Illinois Municipal Code, no part of the current equalized assessed valuation of real property located in any such project area which is attributable to an increase above the total initial equalized assessed valuation of such property shall be used as part of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid, as provided in Section 11-74.4-8 of the Tax Increment Allocation Redevelopment Act or in Section 11-74.6-35 of the Industrial Jobs Recovery Law. For the purpose of the equalized assessed valuation of the district, the total initial equalized assessed valuation or the current equalized assessed valuation, whichever is lower, shall be used until such time as all redevelopment project costs have been paid.

(b) The real property equalized assessed valuation for a school district shall be adjusted by subtracting from the real property value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue for the district an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under Section 18-170 of the Property Tax Code by 3.00% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12, by 2.30% for a district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8, or by 1.05% for a district maintaining grades 9 through 12 and adjusted by an amount computed by dividing the amount of any abatement of taxes under subsection (a) of Section 18-165 of the Property Tax Code by the same percentage rates for district type as specified in this subparagraph (b).

(3) For the 1999-2000 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district meets all of the criteria of this subsection (G)(3), the school district's Available Local Resources shall be calculated under subsection (D) using the district's Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation as calculated under this subsection (G)(3).

For purposes of this subsection (G)(3) the following terms shall have the following meanings:

"Budget Year": The school year for which general State aid is calculated and awarded under subsection (E).

"Base Tax Year": The property tax levy year used to calculate the Budget Year allocation of general State aid.

"Preceding Tax Year": The property tax levy year immediately preceding the Base Tax Year.

"Base Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Base Tax Year multiplied by the limiting rate as calculated by the County Clerk and defined in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

"Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension": The product of the equalized assessed valuation utilized by the County Clerk in the Preceding Tax Year multiplied by the Operating Tax Rate as defined in subsection (A).

"Extension Limitation Ratio": A numerical ratio, certified by the County Clerk, in which the numerator is the Base Tax Year's Tax Extension and the denominator is the Preceding Tax Year's Tax Extension.

"Operating Tax Rate": The operating tax rate as defined in subsection (A).

If a school district is subject to property tax extension limitations as imposed under the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of that district. For the 1999-2000 school year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the district's 1996 Equalized Assessed Valuation and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph for a school district that has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, for the 2000-2001 school year and each school year thereafter, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated by the State Board of Education shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of a school district as calculated under this subsection (G)(3) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation as calculated pursuant to subsections (G)(1) and (G)(2), then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid for the Budget Year pursuant to subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources under subsection (D). For the 2009-2010 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district has approved or does approve an increase in its limiting rate, pursuant to Section 18-190 of the Property Tax Code, affecting the Base Tax Year, the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district, as calculated by the State Board of Education, shall be equal to the product of the Equalized Assessed Valuation last used in the calculation of general State aid times an amount equal to one plus the percentage increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers for all items published by the United States Department of Labor for the 12-month calendar year preceding the Base Tax Year, plus the Equalized Assessed Valuation of new property, annexed property, and recovered tax increment value and minus the Equalized Assessed Valuation of disconnected property. New property and recovered tax increment value shall have the meanings set forth in the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.

Partial elementary unit districts created in accordance with Article 11E of this Code shall not be eligible for the adjustment in this subsection (G)(3) until the fifth year following the effective date of the reorganization.

(3.5) For the 2010-2011 school year and each school year thereafter, if a school district's boundaries span multiple counties, then the Department of Revenue shall send to the State Board of Education, for the purpose of calculating general State aid, the limiting rate and individual rates by purpose for the county that contains the majority of the school district's Equalized Assessed Valuation.

(4) For the purposes of calculating general State aid for the 1999-2000 school year only, if a school district experienced a triennial reassessment on the equalized assessed valuation used in calculating its general State financial aid apportionment for the 1998-1999 school year, the State Board of Education shall calculate the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation that would have been used to calculate the district's 1998-1999 general State aid. This amount shall equal the product of the equalized assessed valuation used to calculate general State aid for the 1997-1998 school year and the district's Extension Limitation Ratio. If the Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation of the school district as calculated under this paragraph (4) is less than the district's equalized assessed valuation utilized in calculating the district's 1998-1999 general State aid allocation, then for purposes of calculating the district's general State aid pursuant to paragraph (5) of subsection (E), that Extension Limitation Equalized Assessed Valuation shall be utilized to calculate the district's Available Local Resources.

(5) For school districts having a majority of their equalized assessed valuation in any county except Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, or Will, if the amount of general State aid allocated to the school district for the 1999-2000 school year under the provisions of subsection (E), (H), and (J) of this Section is less than the amount of general State aid allocated to the district for the 1998-1999 school year under these subsections, then the general State aid of the district for the 1999-2000 school year only shall be increased by the difference between these amounts. The total payments made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed $14,000,000. Claims shall be prorated if they exceed $14,000,000.

(H) Supplemental General State Aid.

(1) In addition to the general State aid a school district is allotted pursuant to subsection (E), qualifying school districts shall receive a grant, paid in conjunction with a district's payments of general State aid, for supplemental general State aid based upon the concentration level of children from low-income households within the school district. Supplemental State aid grants provided for school districts under this subsection shall be appropriated for distribution to school districts as part of the same line item in which the general State financial aid of school districts is appropriated under this Section.

(1.5) This paragraph (1.5) applies only to those school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall be the low-income eligible pupil count from the most recently available federal census divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district. If, however, (i) the percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count of a high school district with fewer than 400 students exceeds by 75% or more the percentage change in the total low-income eligible pupil count of contiguous elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, or (ii) a high school district within 2 counties and serving 5 elementary school districts, whose boundaries are coterminous with the high school district, has a percentage decrease from the 2 most recent federal censuses in the low-income eligible pupil count and there is a percentage increase in the total low-income eligible pupil count of a majority of the elementary school districts in excess of 50% from the 2 most recent federal censuses, then the high school district's low-income eligible pupil count from the earlier federal census shall be the number used as the low-income eligible pupil count for the high school district, for purposes of this subsection (H). The changes made to this paragraph (1) by Public Act 92-28 shall apply to supplemental general State aid grants for school years preceding the 2003-2004 school year that are paid in fiscal year 1999 or thereafter and to any State aid payments made in fiscal year 1994 through fiscal year 1998 pursuant to subsection 1(n) of Section 18-8 of this Code (which was repealed on July 1, 1998), and any high school district that is affected by Public Act 92-28 is entitled to a recomputation of its supplemental general State aid grant or State aid paid in any of those fiscal years. This recomputation shall not be affected by any other funding.

(1.10) This paragraph (1.10) applies to the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter through the 2016-2017 school year. For purposes of this subsection (H), the term "Low-Income Concentration Level" shall, for each fiscal year, be the low-income eligible pupil count as of July 1 of the immediately preceding fiscal year (as determined by the Department of Human Services based on the number of pupils who are eligible for at least one of the following low income programs: Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program, TANF, or Food Stamps, excluding pupils who are eligible for services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services, averaged over the 2 immediately preceding fiscal years for fiscal year 2004 and over the 3 immediately preceding fiscal years for each fiscal year thereafter) divided by the Average Daily Attendance of the school district.

(2) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 1998-1999, 1999-2000, and 2000-2001 school years only:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for any school year shall be $800 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for the 1998-1999 school year shall be $1,100 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,500 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for the 1998-99 school year shall be $1,900 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For the 1999-2000 school year, the per pupil amount specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be increased to $1,243, $1,600, and $2,000, respectively.

(f) For the 2000-2001 school year, the per pupil amounts specified in subparagraphs (b), (c), and (d) immediately above shall be $1,273, $1,640, and $2,050, respectively.

(2.5) Supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2002-2003 school year:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of less than 10%, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 10% and less than 20%, the grant for each school year shall be $675 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(c) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 20% and less than 35%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,330 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(d) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 35% and less than 50%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,362 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(e) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of at least 50% and less than 60%, the grant for each school year shall be $1,680 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(f) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 60% or more, the grant for each school year shall be $2,080 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(2.10) Except as otherwise provided, supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection (H) shall be provided as follows for the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter:

(a) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level of 15% or less, the grant for each school year shall be $355 multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

(b) For any school district with a Low Income Concentration Level greater than 15%, the grant for each school year shall be $294.25 added to the product of $2,700 and the square of the Low Income Concentration Level, all multiplied by the low income eligible pupil count.

For the 2003-2004 school year and each school year thereafter through the 2008-2009 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2009-2010 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.66. For the 2010-2011 school year only, the grant shall be no less than the grant for the 2002-2003 school year multiplied by 0.33. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph to the contrary, if for any school year supplemental general State aid grants are prorated as provided in paragraph (1) of this subsection (H), then the grants under this paragraph shall be prorated.

For the 2003-2004 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.25 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2004-2005 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.50 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year. For the 2005-2006 school year only, the grant shall be no greater than the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year added to the product of 0.75 multiplied by the difference between the grant amount calculated under subsection (a) or (b) of this paragraph (2.10), whichever is applicable, and the grant received during the 2002-2003 school year.

(3) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of more than 1,000 and less than 50,000 that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall submit a plan to the State Board of Education prior to October 30 of each year for the use of the funds resulting from this grant of supplemental general State aid for the improvement of instruction in which priority is given to meeting the education needs of disadvantaged children. Such plan shall be submitted in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by the State Board of Education.

(4) School districts with an Average Daily Attendance of 50,000 or more that qualify for supplemental general State aid pursuant to this subsection shall be required to distribute from funds available pursuant to this Section, no less than $261,000,000 in accordance with the following requirements:

(a) The required amounts shall be distributed to the attendance centers within the district in proportion to the number of pupils enrolled at each attendance center who are eligible to receive free or reduced-price lunches or breakfasts under the federal Child Nutrition Act of 1966 and under the National School Lunch Act during the immediately preceding school year.

(b) The distribution of these portions of supplemental and general State aid among attendance centers according to these requirements shall not be compensated for or contravened by adjustments of the total of other funds appropriated to any attendance centers, and the Board of Education shall utilize funding from one or several sources in order to fully implement this provision annually prior to the opening of school.

(c) Each attendance center shall be provided by the school district a distribution of noncategorical funds and other categorical funds to which an attendance center is entitled under law in order that the general State aid and supplemental general State aid provided by application of this subsection supplements rather than supplants the noncategorical funds and other categorical funds provided by the school district to the attendance centers.

(d) Any funds made available under this subsection that by reason of the provisions of this subsection are not required to be allocated and provided to attendance centers may be used and appropriated by the board of the district for any lawful school purpose.

(e) Funds received by an attendance center pursuant to this subsection shall be used by the attendance center at the discretion of the principal and local school council for programs to improve educational opportunities at qualifying schools through the following programs and services: early childhood education, reduced class size or improved adult to student classroom ratio, enrichment programs, remedial assistance, attendance improvement, and other educationally beneficial expenditures which supplement the regular and basic programs as determined by the State Board of Education. Funds provided shall not be expended for any political or lobbying purposes as defined by board rule.

(f) Each district subject to the provisions of this subdivision (H)(4) shall submit an acceptable plan to meet the educational needs of disadvantaged children, in compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, to the State Board of Education prior to July 15 of each year. This plan shall be consistent with the decisions of local school councils concerning the school expenditure plans developed in accordance with part 4 of Section 34-2.3. The State Board shall approve or reject the plan within 60 days after its submission. If the plan is rejected, the district shall give written notice of intent to modify the plan within 15 days of the notification of rejection and then submit a modified plan within 30 days after the date of the written notice of intent to modify. Districts may amend approved plans pursuant to rules promulgated by the State Board of Education.

Upon notification by the State Board of Education that the district has not submitted a plan prior to July 15 or a modified plan within the time period specified herein, the State aid funds affected by that plan or modified plan shall be withheld by the State Board of Education until a plan or modified plan is submitted.

If the district fails to distribute State aid to attendance centers in accordance with an approved plan, the plan for the following year shall allocate funds, in addition to the funds otherwise required by this subsection, to those attendance centers which were underfunded during the previous year in amounts equal to such underfunding.

For purposes of determining compliance with this subsection in relation to the requirements of attendance center funding, each district subject to the provisions of this subsection shall submit as a separate document by December 1 of each year a report of expenditure data for the prior year in addition to any modification of its current plan. If it is determined that there has been a failure to comply with the expenditure provisions of this subsection regarding contravention or supplanting, the State Superintendent of Education shall, within 60 days of receipt of the report, notify the district and any affected local school council. The district shall within 45 days of receipt of that notification inform the State Superintendent of Education of the remedial or corrective action to be taken, whether by amendment of the current plan, if feasible, or by adjustment in the plan for the following year. Failure to provide the expenditure report or the notification of remedial or corrective action in a timely manner shall result in a withholding of the affected funds.

The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and regulations to implement the provisions of this subsection. No funds shall be released under this subdivision (H)(4) to any district that has not submitted a plan that has been approved by the State Board of Education.

(I) (Blank).

(J) (Blank).

(K) Grants to Laboratory and Alternative Schools.

In calculating the amount to be paid to the governing board of a public university that operates a laboratory school under this Section or to any alternative school that is operated by a regional superintendent of schools, the State Board of Education shall require by rule such reporting requirements as it deems necessary.

As used in this Section, "laboratory school" means a public school which is created and operated by a public university and approved by the State Board of Education. The governing board of a public university which receives funds from the State Board under this subsection (K) or subsection (g) of Section 18-8.15 of this Code may not increase the number of students enrolled in its laboratory school from a single district, if that district is already sending 50 or more students, except under a mutual agreement between the school board of a student's district of residence and the university which operates the laboratory school. A laboratory school may not have more than 1,000 students, excluding students with disabilities in a special education program.

As used in this Section, "alternative school" means a public school which is created and operated by a Regional Superintendent of Schools and approved by the State Board of Education. Such alternative schools may offer courses of instruction for which credit is given in regular school programs, courses to prepare students for the high school equivalency testing program or vocational and occupational training. A regional superintendent of schools may contract with a school district or a public community college district to operate an alternative school. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be established by the regional superintendents of schools of the affected educational service regions. An alternative school serving more than one educational service region may be operated under such terms as the regional superintendents of schools of those educational service regions may agree.

Each laboratory and alternative school shall file, on forms provided by the State Superintendent of Education, an annual State aid claim which states the Average Daily Attendance of the school's students by month. The best 3 months' Average Daily Attendance shall be computed for each school. The general State aid entitlement shall be computed by multiplying the applicable Average Daily Attendance by the Foundation Level as determined under this Section.

(L) Payments, Additional Grants in Aid and Other Requirements.

(1) For a school district operating under the financial supervision of an Authority created under Article 34A, the general State aid otherwise payable to that district under this Section, but not the supplemental general State aid, shall be reduced by an amount equal to the budget for the operations of the Authority as certified by the Authority to the State Board of Education, and an amount equal to such reduction shall be paid to the Authority created for such district for its operating expenses in the manner provided in Section 18-11. The remainder of general State school aid for any such district shall be paid in accordance with Article 34A when that Article provides for a disposition other than that provided by this Article.

(2) (Blank).

(3) Summer school. Summer school payments shall be made as provided in Section 18-4.3.

(M) (Blank).

(N) (Blank).

(O) References.

(1) References in other laws to the various subdivisions of Section 18-8 as that Section existed before its repeal and replacement by this Section 18-8.05 shall be deemed to refer to the corresponding provisions of this Section 18-8.05, to the extent that those references remain applicable.

(2) References in other laws to State Chapter 1 funds shall be deemed to refer to the supplemental general State aid provided under subsection (H) of this Section.

(P) Public Act 93-838 and Public Act 93-808 make inconsistent changes to this Section. Under Section 6 of the Statute on Statutes there is an irreconcilable conflict between Public Act 93-808 and Public Act 93-838. Public Act 93-838, being the last acted upon, is controlling. The text of Public Act 93-838 is the law regardless of the text of Public Act 93-808.

(Q) State Fiscal Year 2015 Payments.

For payments made for State fiscal year 2015, the State Board of Education shall, for each school district, calculate that district's pro-rata share of a minimum sum of $13,600,000 or additional amounts as needed from the total net General State Aid funding as calculated under this Section that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. Each school district must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board of Education.

(R) State Fiscal Year 2016 Payments.

For payments made for State fiscal year 2016, the State Board of Education shall, for each school district, calculate that district's pro rata share of a minimum sum of $1 or additional amounts as needed from the total net General State Aid funding as calculated under this Section that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. Each school district must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board of Education.

(S) State Fiscal Year 2017 Payments.

For payments made for State fiscal year 2017, the State Board of Education shall, for each school district, calculate that district's pro rata share of a minimum sum of $1 or additional amounts as needed from the total net General State Aid funding as calculated under this Section that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. Each school district must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board of Education.

(T) State Fiscal Year 2018 Payments.

For payments made for State fiscal year 2018, the State Board of Education shall, for each school district, calculate that district's pro rata share of a minimum sum of $1 or additional amounts as needed from the total net evidence-based funding as calculated under Section 18-8.15 of this Code that shall be deemed attributable to the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, in a manner that ensures compliance with maintenance of State financial support requirements under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act. Each school district must use such funds only for the provision of special educational facilities and services, as defined in Section 14-1.08 of this Code, and must comply with any expenditure verification procedures adopted by the State Board of Education.

(Source: P.A. 99-2, eff. 3-26-15; 99-194, eff. 7-30-15; 99-523, eff. 6-30-16; 100-23, eff. 7-6-17; 100-147, eff. 1-1-18; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/18-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 18-12)

Sec. 18-12. Dates for filing State aid claims. The school board of each school district, a regional office of education, a laboratory school, or a State-authorized charter school shall require teachers, principals, or superintendents to furnish from records kept by them such data as it needs in preparing and certifying to the State Superintendent of Education its report of claims provided in Section 18-8.05 or 18-8.15 of this Code. The claim shall be based on the latest available equalized assessed valuation and tax rates, as provided in Section 18-8.05 or 18-8.15, shall use the average daily attendance as determined by the method outlined in Section 18-8.05 or 18-8.15, and shall be certified and filed with the State Superintendent of Education by June 21 for districts and State-authorized charter schools with an official school calendar end date before June 15 or within 2 weeks following the official school calendar end date for districts, regional offices of education, laboratory schools, or State-authorized charter schools with a school year end date of June 15 or later. Failure to so file by these deadlines constitutes a forfeiture of the right to receive payment by the State until such claim is filed. The State Superintendent of Education shall voucher for payment those claims to the State Comptroller as provided in Section 18-11.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, if any school district fails to provide the minimum school term specified in Section 10-19, the State aid claim for that year shall be reduced by the State Superintendent of Education in an amount equivalent to 1/176 or .56818% for each day less than the number of days required by this Code.

If the State Superintendent of Education determines that the failure to provide the minimum school term was occasioned by an act or acts of God, or was occasioned by conditions beyond the control of the school district which posed a hazardous threat to the health and safety of pupils, the State aid claim need not be reduced.

If a school district is precluded from providing the minimum hours of instruction required for a full day of attendance due to (A) an adverse weather condition, (B) a condition beyond the control of the school district that poses a hazardous threat to the health and safety of students, or (C) beginning with the 2016-2017 school year, the utilization of the school district's facilities for not more than 2 school days per school year by local or county authorities for the purpose of holding a memorial or funeral services in remembrance of a community member, then the partial day of attendance may be counted if (i) the school district has provided at least one hour of instruction prior to the closure of the school district, (ii) a school building has provided at least one hour of instruction prior to the closure of the school building, or (iii) the normal start time of the school district is delayed.

If, prior to providing any instruction, a school district must close one or more but not all school buildings after consultation with a local emergency response agency or due to a condition beyond the control of the school district, then the school district may claim attendance for up to 2 school days based on the average attendance of the 3 school days immediately preceding the closure of the affected school building or, if approved by the State Board of Education, utilize the provisions of an e-learning program for the affected school building as prescribed in Section 10-20.56 of this Code. The partial or no day of attendance described in this Section and the reasons therefore shall be certified within a month of the closing or delayed start by the school district superintendent to the regional superintendent of schools for forwarding to the State Superintendent of Education for approval.

Other than the utilization of any e-learning days as prescribed in Section 10-20.56 of this Code, no exception to the requirement of providing a minimum school term may be approved by the State Superintendent of Education pursuant to this Section unless a school district has first used all emergency days provided for in its regular calendar.

If the State Superintendent of Education declares that an energy shortage exists during any part of the school year for the State or a designated portion of the State, a district may operate the school attendance centers within the district 4 days of the week during the time of the shortage by extending each existing school day by one clock hour of school work, and the State aid claim shall not be reduced, nor shall the employees of that district suffer any reduction in salary or benefits as a result thereof. A district may operate all attendance centers on this revised schedule, or may apply the schedule to selected attendance centers, taking into consideration such factors as pupil transportation schedules and patterns and sources of energy for individual attendance centers.

Electronically submitted State aid claims shall be submitted by duly authorized district individuals over a secure network that is password protected. The electronic submission of a State aid claim must be accompanied with an affirmation that all of the provisions of Section Sections 18-8.05 or 18-8.15 and Sections , 10-22.5, and 24-4 of this Code are met in all respects.

(Source: P.A. 99-194, eff. 7-30-15; 99-657, eff. 7-28-16; 100-28, eff. 8-4-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/19-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-503)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in the Local Government Debt Limitation Act.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of August 14, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-757).

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects approved by the voters were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's prior and existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,285,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping of a new school building to be attached to and the alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is required because of the age and current condition of that school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,200,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $50,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board.

(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building, (ii) the existing school building should be demolished in its entirety or the existing school building should be demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building, and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election on February 2, 2010.

(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new elementary school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building will be demolished and the remaining portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $7,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-100) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the community unit school district created in the territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as approved at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-105) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, North Shore School District 112 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $150,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of new buildings and improving the sites thereof and the building and equipping of additions to, altering, repairing, equipping, and renovating existing buildings and improving the sites thereof are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $150,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-110) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Sandoval Community Unit School District 501 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 20, 2012.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required because of the age and current condition of the Sandoval Elementary School building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 19, 2022, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the election held on March 20, 2012.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-110) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund the bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-115) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Bureau Valley Community Unit School District 340 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $25,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuances of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the renovating and equipping of some existing school buildings, the building and equipping of new school buildings, and the demolishing of some existing school buildings are required as a result of the age and condition of existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2021, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $25,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-115) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-115) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-120) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Paxton-Buckley-Loda Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $28,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 8, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects as described in said proposition, relating to the building and equipping of one or more school buildings or additions to existing school buildings, are required as a result of the age and condition of the District's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $28,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 8, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-120) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-120) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-125) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hillsboro Community Unit School District 3 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $34,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) altering, repairing, and equipping the high school agricultural/vocational building, demolishing the high school main, cafeteria, and gym buildings, building and equipping a school building, and improving sites are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $34,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-125) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-125) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-130) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Waltham Community Consolidated School District 185 may incur indebtedness in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $9,500,000 to build and equip a new school building and improve the site thereof, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) A majority of the voters of the district voting on an advisory question voted in favor of the question regarding the use of funding sources to build a new school building without increasing property tax rates at the general election held on November 8, 2016.

(2) Prior to incurring the debt, the school board enters into intergovernmental agreements with the City of LaSalle to pledge moneys in a special tax allocation fund associated with tax increment financing districts LaSalle I and LaSalle III and with the Village of Utica to pledge moneys in a special tax allocation fund associated with tax increment financing district Utica I for the purposes of repaying the debt issued pursuant to this subsection (p-130). Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the intergovernmental agreement may extend these tax increment financing districts as necessary to ensure repayment of the debt.

(3) Prior to incurring the debt, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the debt is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(4) The debt is incurred, in one or more issuances, not later than January 1, 2021, and the aggregate principal amount of debt issued in all such issuances combined must not exceed $9,500,000.

The debt incurred under this subsection (p-130) and on any bonds issued to pay, refund, or continue to refund such debt shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Debt issued under this subsection (p-130) and any bonds issued to pay, refund, or continue to refund such debt must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-11 of this Code and subsection (b) of Section 17 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, to the contrary.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-390, eff. 8-18-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-735, eff. 8-5-16; 99-926, eff. 1-20-17; 100-531, eff. 9-22-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-503)

Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.

(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions limiting their indebtedness prescribed in the Local Government Debt Limitation Act.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9 through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness.

No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of the district included in the elementary and high school classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979, and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying the value of taxable property therein, including personal property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness, by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district under the provisions of this subsection (a).

(a-5) After January 1, 2018, no school district may issue bonds under Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code and rely on an exception to the debt limitations in this Section unless it has complied with the requirements of Section 21 of the Bond Issue Notification Act and the bonds have been approved by referendum.

(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and equipping additional building facilities under the following conditions:

(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next school year is estimated by the board of education to increase over the actual present enrollment by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual present enrollment of students has increased over the previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less than 200 students and the board of education determines that additional school sites or building facilities are required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and

(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having jurisdiction over the school district and the State Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment projection or increase and approve the need for such additional school sites or building facilities and the estimated cost thereof; and

(3) When the voters in the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of acquiring or improving such needed school sites or constructing and equipping such needed additional building facilities at an election called and held for that purpose. Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to the school district. The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the voters; or

(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3 of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose; or

(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1) through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school district has previously availed itself of the provisions of paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that additional facilities are needed to provide a quality educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in an election called by the school board on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this purpose.

In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on January 1, 1979.

The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.

(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10 (now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at such election for the purpose stated in the question.

(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that district under subsection (a):

(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, such replacement school buildings, or both such purposes.

(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of construction by the school district of a new school building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an existing school building that, because of mine subsidence damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of schools of the educational service region in which the district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for additional functions in, the new school building being constructed to replace a school building closed as the result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.

(e) (Blank).

(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district meeting the following criteria shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness:

(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of education of the district shall have determined by resolution that the enrollment of students in the district is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of the next succeeding 2 school years.

(2) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the improvements to be financed with the proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected enrollment increases.

(3) The board of education shall also determine by resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are the result of improvements made or expected to be made to passenger rail facilities located in the school district.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July 22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (f) are met.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of a school district and issued by a school district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:

(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of constructing a new high school building to replace two adjacent existing buildings which together house a single high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and which together are located on more than 10 acres and less than 11 acres of property.

(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing a new school building to replace the existing school building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the existing school building.

(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.

(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed valuation of less than $29,000,000.

(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which buildings were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after March 19, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;

(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing school buildings of the district, all of which existing buildings were originally constructed not less than 80 years ago;

(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after December 31, 1996; and

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000 and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the 1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;

(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build and equip a new high school, and the school district's existing high school was originally constructed not less than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that a new high school is needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately prior to the school district incurring such additional indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school district to exceed or increases the amount by which the aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under subsection (a):

(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was approved by a majority of the voters of the school district voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;

(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing high school;

(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes; and

(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness are issued, if at all, within 120 days of August 14, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-757).

(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;

(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement, renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more school buildings of the district, which buildings were originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;

(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or after March 17, 1998; and

(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness, not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;

(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school districts;

(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a new elementary school building to replace an existing multi-level elementary school building of the school district that is not accessible at all levels and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;

(iv) The voters of the school district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after July 1, 1998; and

(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the school district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by law to that district:

(i) The school district applies to the State Board of Education for a school construction project grant and submits a district facilities plan in support of its application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School Construction Law.

(ii) The school district's application and facilities plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant entitlement for a school construction project issued by, the State Board of Education under the School Construction Law.

(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is less than the amount certified by the Capital Development Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school construction project's cost that the district will be required to finance with non-grant funds in order to receive a school construction project grant under the School Construction Law.

(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to the school district under Section 5-15 of the School Construction Law.

(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this subsection (n) are met.

(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of the School Code.

(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) the school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000 and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 8,500;

(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites, build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary schools, and make technology and other improvements and additions to existing schools;

(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the sites and new or improved facilities are needed because of projected enrollment increases;

(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for the issuance of the bonds; and

(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The school district has an equalized assessed valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187 and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the 2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.

(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3 elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all existing school buildings in the district.

(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board of education determines by resolution that the project is needed because of expanding growth in the school district and a projected enrollment increase.

(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed 40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or additions to one or more existing buildings.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the new buildings or building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community consolidated school district maintaining grades K through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed valuation of the district.

(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and improve school sites and build and equip a school building.

(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled election.

(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines by resolution that the school sites and building additions are needed because of an increase in enrollment projected by the school board.

(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the district.

(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007, pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.

(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general election held on November 7, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school building, new junior high school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early childhood building, maintenance building, transportation facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of technology improvements to existing school buildings, and the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $450,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the general election held on November 7, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district have approved a proposition for the bond issue at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $225,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held on March 21, 2006. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and equipping of a new high school building; the addition of classrooms and support facilities at the high school, middle school, and elementary school; the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues, on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not exceed $18,500,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article 19.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the primary election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and equipping of a new school building and additions to existing school buildings are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings are required because of the age of the existing school buildings.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held in 2008. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17, 2007.

(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement of the site of and the building and equipping of a school building are required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary School building is required because of the age of that school building.

(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.

(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on April 17, 2007. The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new high school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing high school building, (ii) the existing high school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at a regular election held on or after November 4, 2008.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of the value of the taxable property in the district to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.

(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of mine subsidence in an existing school building and because of the age and condition of another existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $47,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 7, 2009.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.

(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on March 21, 2006.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects approved by the voters were and are required because of the age and condition of the school district's prior and existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,285,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping of a new school building to be attached to and the alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is required because of the age and current condition of that school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,200,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $50,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital Development Board.

(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building, (ii) the existing school building should be demolished in its entirety or the existing school building should be demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building, and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $32,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 9, 2013.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at the general primary election on February 2, 2010.

(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new elementary school building is required as a result of a projected increase in the enrollment of students in the district and the age and condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary School building will be demolished and the remaining portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii) the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $7,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the general primary election held on February 2, 2010.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $35,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-100) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, the community unit school district created in the territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as approved at the general primary election held on March 18, 2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of an existing school building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $17,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 4, 2014.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-100) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-105) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, North Shore School District 112 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $150,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of new buildings and improving the sites thereof and the building and equipping of additions to, altering, repairing, equipping, and renovating existing buildings and improving the sites thereof are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $150,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-105) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-110) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Sandoval Community Unit School District 501 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $2,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on March 20, 2012.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required because of the age and current condition of the Sandoval Elementary School building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issuances, on or before March 19, 2022, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $2,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at the election held on March 20, 2012.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-110) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund the bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(p-115) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Bureau Valley Community Unit School District 340 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $25,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuances of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the renovating and equipping of some existing school buildings, the building and equipping of new school buildings, and the demolishing of some existing school buildings are required as a result of the age and condition of existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on or before July 1, 2021, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $25,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-115) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-115) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-120) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Paxton-Buckley-Loda Community Unit School District 10 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $28,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after November 8, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects as described in said proposition, relating to the building and equipping of one or more school buildings or additions to existing school buildings, are required as a result of the age and condition of the District's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $28,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after November 8, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-120) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-120) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-125) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Hillsboro Community Unit School District 3 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $34,500,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) altering, repairing, and equipping the high school agricultural/vocational building, demolishing the high school main, cafeteria, and gym buildings, building and equipping a school building, and improving sites are required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $34,500,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after March 15, 2016.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-125) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection (p-125) and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-130) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Waltham Community Consolidated School District 185 may incur indebtedness in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $9,500,000 to build and equip a new school building and improve the site thereof, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) A majority of the voters of the district voting on an advisory question voted in favor of the question regarding the use of funding sources to build a new school building without increasing property tax rates at the general election held on November 8, 2016.

(2) Prior to incurring the debt, the school board enters into intergovernmental agreements with the City of LaSalle to pledge moneys in a special tax allocation fund associated with tax increment financing districts LaSalle I and LaSalle III and with the Village of Utica to pledge moneys in a special tax allocation fund associated with tax increment financing district Utica I for the purposes of repaying the debt issued pursuant to this subsection (p-130). Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the intergovernmental agreement may extend these tax increment financing districts as necessary to ensure repayment of the debt.

(3) Prior to incurring the debt, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and equipping of a new school building is required as a result of the age and condition of the district's existing buildings and (ii) the debt is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(4) The debt is incurred, in one or more issuances, not later than January 1, 2021, and the aggregate principal amount of debt issued in all such issuances combined must not exceed $9,500,000.

The debt incurred under this subsection (p-130) and on any bonds issued to pay, refund, or continue to refund such debt shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Debt issued under this subsection (p-130) and any bonds issued to pay, refund, or continue to refund such debt must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-11 of this Code and subsection (b) of Section 17 of the Local Government Debt Reform Act, to the contrary.

(p-133) (p-130) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section or of any other law, bonds heretofore or hereafter issued by East Prairie School District 73 with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,353,147 and approved by the voters of the district at the general election held on November 8, 2016, and any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund the bonds, shall not be considered indebtedness for the purposes of any statutory debt limitation and may mature within not to exceed 25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.

(p-135) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds, Brookfield LaGrange Park School District Number 95 may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $20,000,000, but only if all the following conditions are met:

(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April 4, 2017.

(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the additions and renovations to the Brook Park Elementary and S. E. Gross Middle School buildings are required to accommodate enrollment growth, replace outdated facilities, and create spaces consistent with 21st century learning and (ii) the issuance of the bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.

(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not later than 5 years after the date of the referendum approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed $20,000,000.

(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this Article.

(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish only those projects approved by the voters at an election held on or after April 4, 2017.

The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection (p-135) and on any bonds issued to refund or continue to refund such bonds shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.

(q) A school district must notify the State Board of Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision of law.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-390, eff. 8-18-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-735, eff. 8-5-16; 99-926, eff. 1-20-17, 100-503, eff. 6-1-18; 100-531, eff. 9-22-17; revised 11-6-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-20)

Sec. 21B-20. Types of licenses. Before July 1, 2013, the State Board of Education shall implement a system of educator licensure, whereby individuals employed in school districts who are required to be licensed must have one of the following licenses: (i) a professional educator license; (ii) a professional educator license with stipulations; or (iii) a substitute teaching license. References in law regarding individuals certified or certificated or required to be certified or certificated under Article 21 of this Code shall also include individuals licensed or required to be licensed under this Article. The first year of all licenses ends on June 30 following one full year of the license being issued.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to govern the requirements for licenses and endorsements under this Section.

(1) Professional Educator License. Persons who (i) have successfully completed an approved educator preparation program and are recommended for licensure by the Illinois institution offering the educator preparation program, (ii) have successfully completed the required testing under Section 21B-30 of this Code, (iii) have successfully completed coursework on the psychology of, the identification of, and the methods of instruction for the exceptional child, including without limitation children with learning disabilities, (iv) have successfully completed coursework in methods of reading and reading in the content area, and (v) have met all other criteria established by rule of the State Board of Education shall be issued a Professional Educator License. All Professional Educator Licenses are valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the license being issued. The Professional Educator License shall be endorsed with specific areas and grade levels in which the individual is eligible to practice.

Individuals can receive subsequent endorsements on the Professional Educator License. Subsequent endorsements shall require a minimum of 24 semester hours of coursework in the endorsement area, unless otherwise specified by rule, and passage of the applicable content area test.

(2) Educator License with Stipulations. An Educator License with Stipulations shall be issued an endorsement that limits the license holder to one particular position or does not require completion of an approved educator program or both.

An individual with an Educator License with Stipulations must not be employed by a school district or any other entity to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

An Educator License with Stipulations may be issued with the following endorsements:

(A) Provisional educator. A provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds an educator license from another state, U.S. territory, or foreign country and who, at the time of applying for an Illinois license, does not meet the minimum requirements under Section 21B-35 of this Code, but does, at a minimum, meet the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree, unless a master's degree is required for the endorsement, from a regionally accredited college or university or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States, unless a master's degree is required for the endorsement.

(ii) Has passed or passes a test of basic skills and content area test prior to or within one year after issuance of the provisional educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations. If an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations endorsed for provisional educator has not passed a test of basic skills and applicable content area test or tests within one year after issuance of the endorsement, the endorsement shall expire on June 30 following one full year of the endorsement being issued. If such an individual has passed the test of basic skills and applicable content area test or tests either prior to issuance of the endorsement or within one year after issuance of the endorsement, the endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 2 years of the license being issued, during which time any and all coursework deficiencies must be met and any and all additional testing deficiencies must be met.

In addition, a provisional educator endorsement for principals or superintendents may be issued if the individual meets the requirements set forth in subdivisions (1) and (3) of subsection (b-5) of Section 21B-35 of this Code. Applicants who have not been entitled by an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education shall not receive a provisional educator endorsement if the person completed an alternative licensure program in another state, unless the program has been determined to be equivalent to Illinois program requirements.

Notwithstanding any other requirements of this Section, a service member or spouse of a service member may obtain a Professional Educator License with Stipulations, and a provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas, if he or she holds a valid teaching certificate or license in good standing from another state, meets the qualifications of educators outlined in Section 21B-15 of this Code, and has not engaged in any misconduct that would prohibit an individual from obtaining a license pursuant to Illinois law, including without limitation any administrative rules of the State Board of Education.

In this Section, "service member" means any person who, at the time of application under this Section, is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or any reserve component of the United States Armed Forces or the National Guard of any state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.

A provisional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 2 years of the license being issued, provided that any remaining testing and coursework deficiencies are met as set forth in this Section. Failure to satisfy all stated deficiencies shall mean the individual, including any service member or spouse who has obtained a Professional Educator License with Stipulations and a provisional educator endorsement in a specific content area or areas, is ineligible to receive a Professional Educator License at that time. An Educator License with Stipulations endorsed for provisional educator shall not be renewed for individuals who hold an Educator License with Stipulations and who have held a position in a public school or non-public school recognized by the State Board of Education.

(B) Alternative provisional educator. An alternative provisional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Successfully completed the first phase of the Alternative Educator Licensure Program for Teachers, as described in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The alternative provisional educator endorsement is valid for 2 years of teaching and may be renewed for a third year by an individual meeting the requirements set forth in Section 21B-50 of this Code.

(C) Alternative provisional superintendent. An alternative provisional superintendent endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations entitles the holder to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent in a school district's central office. This endorsement may only be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited college or university with a minimum of a master's degree in a management field other than education.

(ii) Been employed for a period of at least 5 years in a management level position in a field other than education.

(iii) Successfully completed the first phase of an alternative route to superintendent endorsement program, as provided in Section 21B-55 of this Code.

(iv) Passed a test of basic skills and content area tests required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The endorsement may be registered for 2 fiscal years in order to complete one full year of serving as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(D) Resident teacher endorsement. A resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who, at the time of applying for the endorsement, has done all of the following:

(i) Graduated from a regionally accredited institution of higher education with a minimum of a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Enrolled in an approved Illinois educator preparation program.

(iii) Passed a test of basic skills and content area test, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

The resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 4 years of teaching and shall not be renewed.

A resident teacher may teach only under the direction of a licensed teacher, who shall act as the resident mentor teacher, and may not teach in place of a licensed teacher. A resident teacher endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall no longer be valid after June 30, 2017.

(E) Career and technical educator. A career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 60 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or an accredited trade and technical institution and has a minimum of 2,000 hours of experience outside of education in each area to be taught.

The career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed. For individuals who were issued the career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations on or after January 1, 2015, the license may be renewed if the individual passes a test of basic skills or test of work proficiency, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

An individual who holds a valid career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations but does not hold a bachelor's degree may substitute teach in career and technical education classrooms.

(F) Part-time provisional career and technical educator or provisional career and technical educator. A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement or a provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who has a minimum of 8,000 hours of work experience in the skill for which the applicant is seeking the endorsement. It is the responsibility of each employing school board and regional office of education to provide verification, in writing, to the State Superintendent of Education at the time the application is submitted that no qualified teacher holding a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations with a career and technical educator endorsement is available and that actual circumstances require such issuance.

The provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed for 5 years. For individuals who were issued the provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations on or after January 1, 2015, the license may be renewed if the individual passes a test of basic skills or test of work proficiency, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for teaching no more than 2 courses of study for grades 6 through 12. The part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed for 5 years if the individual makes application for renewal.

An individual who holds a provisional or part-time provisional career and technical educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations but does not hold a bachelor's degree may substitute teach in career and technical education classrooms.

(G) Transitional bilingual educator. A transitional bilingual educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued for the purpose of providing instruction in accordance with Article 14C of this Code to an applicant who provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Possesses adequate speaking, reading, and writing ability in the language other than English in which transitional bilingual education is offered.

(ii) Has the ability to successfully communicate in English.

(iii) Either possessed, within 5 years previous to his or her applying for a transitional bilingual educator endorsement, a valid and comparable teaching certificate or comparable authorization issued by a foreign country or holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

A transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall be valid for prekindergarten through grade 12, is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued, and shall not be renewed.

Persons holding a transitional bilingual educator endorsement shall not be employed to replace any presently employed teacher who otherwise would not be replaced for any reason.

(H) Language endorsement. In an effort to alleviate the shortage of teachers speaking a language other than English in the public schools, an individual who holds an Educator License with Stipulations may also apply for a language endorsement, provided that the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds a transitional bilingual endorsement.

(ii) Has demonstrated proficiency in the language for which the endorsement is to be issued by passing the applicable language content test required by the State Board of Education.

(iii) Holds a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or, for individuals educated in a country other than the United States, holds a degree from an institution of higher learning in a foreign country that the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board determines to be the equivalent of a bachelor's degree from a regionally accredited institution of higher learning in the United States.

(iv) Has passed a test of basic skills, as required under Section 21B-30 of this Code.

A language endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for prekindergarten through grade 12 for the same validity period as the individual's transitional bilingual educator endorsement on the Educator License with Stipulations and shall not be renewed.

(I) Visiting international educator. A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an individual who is being recruited by a particular school district that conducts formal recruitment programs outside of the United States to secure the services of qualified teachers and who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds the equivalent of a minimum of a bachelor's degree issued in the United States.

(ii) Has been prepared as a teacher at the grade level for which he or she will be employed.

(iii) Has adequate content knowledge in the subject to be taught.

(iv) Has an adequate command of the English language.

A holder of a visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations shall be permitted to teach in bilingual education programs in the language that was the medium of instruction in his or her teacher preparation program, provided that he or she passes the English Language Proficiency Examination or another test of writing skills in English identified by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A visiting international educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for 3 years and shall not be renewed.

(J) Paraprofessional educator. A paraprofessional educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who holds a high school diploma or its recognized equivalent and either holds an associate's degree or a minimum of 60 semester hours of credit from a regionally accredited institution of higher education or has passed a test of basic skills required under Section 21B-30 of this Code. The paraprofessional educator endorsement is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed through application and payment of the appropriate fee, as required under Section 21B-40 of this Code. An individual who holds only a paraprofessional educator endorsement is not subject to additional requirements in order to renew the endorsement.

(K) Chief school business official. A chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to an applicant who qualifies by having a master's degree or higher, 2 years of full-time administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 24 semester hours of graduate credit in a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of school business administrators and by passage of the applicable State tests, including a test of basic skills and applicable content area test.

The chief school business official endorsement may also be affixed to the Educator License with Stipulations of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree in business administration, finance, accounting, or public administration and who completes an additional 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and passes the applicable State tests, including a test of basic skills and applicable content area test. This endorsement shall be required for any individual employed as a chief school business official.

The chief school business official endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid until June 30 immediately following 5 years of the endorsement being issued and may be renewed if the license holder completes renewal requirements as required for individuals who hold a Professional Educator License endorsed for chief school business official under Section 21B-45 of this Code and such rules as may be adopted by the State Board of Education.

The State Board of Education shall adopt any rules necessary to implement Public Act 100-288 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(L) Provisional in-state educator. A provisional in-state educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations may be issued to a candidate who has completed an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education and who has not successfully completed an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness but who meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Holds at least a bachelor's degree.

(ii) Has completed an approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution.

(iii) Has passed a test of basic skills and applicable content area test, as required by Section 21B-30 of this Code.

(iv) Has attempted an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness and received a minimum score on that assessment, as established by the State Board of Education in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

A provisional in-state educator endorsement on an Educator License with Stipulations is valid for one full fiscal year after the date of issuance and may not be renewed.

(3) Substitute Teaching License. A Substitute Teaching License may be issued to qualified applicants for substitute teaching in all grades of the public schools, prekindergarten through grade 12. Substitute Teaching Licenses are not eligible for endorsements. Applicants for a Substitute Teaching License must hold a bachelor's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution of higher education.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for 5 years.

Substitute Teaching Licenses are valid for substitute teaching in every county of this State. If an individual has had his or her Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations suspended or revoked or has not met the renewal requirements for licensure, then that individual is not eligible to obtain a Substitute Teaching License.

A substitute teacher may only teach in the place of a licensed teacher who is under contract with the employing board. If, however, there is no licensed teacher under contract because of an emergency situation, then a district may employ a substitute teacher for no longer than 30 calendar days per each vacant position in the district if the district notifies the appropriate regional office of education within 5 business days after the employment of the substitute teacher in the emergency situation. An emergency situation is one in which an unforeseen vacancy has occurred and (i) a teacher is unable to fulfill his or her contractual duties or (ii) teacher capacity needs of the district exceed previous indications, and the district is actively engaged in advertising to hire a fully licensed teacher for the vacant position.

There is no limit on the number of days that a substitute teacher may teach in a single school district, provided that no substitute teacher may teach for longer than 90 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. A substitute teacher who holds a Professional Educator License or Educator License with Stipulations shall not teach for more than 120 school days for any one licensed teacher under contract in the same school year. The limitations in this paragraph (3) on the number of days a substitute teacher may be employed do not apply to any school district operating under Article 34 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-35, eff. 1-1-16; 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-8, eff. 7-1-17; 100-13, eff. 7-1-17; 100-288, eff. 8-24-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-25)

Sec. 21B-25. Endorsement on licenses. All licenses issued under paragraph (1) of Section 21B-20 of this Code shall be specifically endorsed by the State Board of Education for each content area, school support area, and administrative area for which the holder of the license is qualified. Recognized institutions approved to offer educator preparation programs shall be trained to add endorsements to licenses issued to applicants who meet all of the requirements for the endorsement or endorsements, including passing any required tests. The State Superintendent of Education shall randomly audit institutions to ensure that all rules and standards are being followed for entitlement or when endorsements are being recommended.

(1) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall establish, by rule, the grade level and subject area endorsements to be added to the Professional Educator License. These rules shall outline the requirements for obtaining each endorsement.

(2) In addition to any and all grade level and content area endorsements developed by rule, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall develop the requirements for the following endorsements:

(A) General administrative endorsement. A general administrative endorsement shall be added to a Professional Educator License, provided that an approved program has been completed. An individual holding a general administrative endorsement may work only as a principal or assistant principal or in a related or similar position, as determined by the State Superintendent of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

Beginning on September 1, 2014, the general administrative endorsement shall no longer be issued except to individuals who completed all coursework requirements for the receipt of the general administrative endorsement by September 1, 2014, who have completed all testing requirements by June 30, 2016, and who apply for the endorsement on or before June 30, 2016. Individuals who hold a valid and registered administrative certificate with a general administrative endorsement issued under Section 21-7.1 of this Code or a Professional Educator License with a general administrative endorsement issued prior to September 1, 2014 and who have served for at least one full year during the 5 years prior in a position requiring a general administrative endorsement shall, upon request to the State Board of Education and through July 1, 2015, have their respective general administrative endorsement converted to a principal endorsement on the Professional Educator License. Candidates shall not be admitted to an approved general administrative preparation program after September 1, 2012.

All other individuals holding a valid and registered administrative certificate with a general administrative endorsement issued pursuant to Section 21-7.1 of this Code or a general administrative endorsement on a Professional Educator License issued prior to September 1, 2014 shall have the general administrative endorsement converted to a principal endorsement on a Professional Educator License upon request to the State Board of Education and by completing one of the following pathways:

(i) Passage of the State principal assessment developed by the State Board of Education.

(ii) Through July 1, 2019, completion of an Illinois Educators' Academy course designated by the State Superintendent of Education.

(iii) Completion of a principal preparation program established and approved pursuant to Section 21B-60 of this Code and applicable rules.

Individuals who do not choose to convert the general administrative endorsement on the administrative certificate issued pursuant to Section 21-7.1 of this Code or on the Professional Educator License shall continue to be able to serve in any position previously allowed under paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 21-7.1 of this Code.

The general administrative endorsement on the Professional Educator License is available only to individuals who, prior to September 1, 2014, had such an endorsement on the administrative certificate issued pursuant to Section 21-7.1 of this Code or who already have a Professional Educator License and have completed a general administrative program and who do not choose to convert the general administrative endorsement to a principal endorsement pursuant to the options in this Section.

(B) Principal endorsement. A principal endorsement shall be affixed to a Professional Educator License of any holder who qualifies by having all of the following:

(i) Successful completion of a principal preparation program approved in accordance with Section 21B-60 of this Code and any applicable rules.

(ii) At least 4 total years of teaching or 4 total years of working in the capacity of school support personnel in an Illinois public school or nonpublic school recognized by the State Board of Education or in an out-of-state public school or out-of-state nonpublic school meeting out-of-state recognition standards comparable to those approved by the State Superintendent of Education; however, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall allow, by rules, for fewer than 4 years of experience based on meeting standards set forth in such rules, including without limitation a review of performance evaluations or other evidence of demonstrated qualifications.

(iii) A master's degree or higher from a regionally accredited college or university.

(C) Chief school business official endorsement. A chief school business official endorsement shall be affixed to the Professional Educator License of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree or higher, 2 years of full-time administrative experience in school business management or 2 years of university-approved practical experience, and a minimum of 24 semester hours of graduate credit in a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of school business administrators and by passage of the applicable State tests. The chief school business official endorsement may also be affixed to the Professional Educator License of any holder who qualifies by having a master's degree in business administration, finance, accounting, or public administration and who completes an additional 6 semester hours of internship in school business management from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and passes the applicable State tests. This endorsement shall be required for any individual employed as a chief school business official.

(D) Superintendent endorsement. A superintendent endorsement shall be affixed to the Professional Educator License of any holder who has completed a program approved by the State Board of Education for the preparation of superintendents of schools, has had at least 2 years of experience employed full-time in a general administrative position or as a full-time principal, director of special education, or chief school business official in the public schools or in a State-recognized nonpublic school in which the chief administrator is required to have the licensure necessary to be a principal in a public school in this State and where a majority of the teachers are required to have the licensure necessary to be instructors in a public school in this State, and has passed the required State tests; or of any holder who has completed a program that is not an Illinois-approved educator preparation program at an Illinois institution of higher education and that has recognition standards comparable to those approved by the State Superintendent of Education and holds the general administrative, principal, or chief school business official endorsement and who has had 2 years of experience as a principal, director of special education, or chief school business official while holding a valid educator license or certificate comparable in validity and educational and experience requirements and has passed the appropriate State tests, as provided in Section 21B-30 of this Code. The superintendent endorsement shall allow individuals to serve only as a superintendent or assistant superintendent.

(E) Teacher leader endorsement. It shall be the policy of this State to improve the quality of instructional leaders by providing a career pathway for teachers interested in serving in leadership roles, but not as principals. The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may issue a teacher leader endorsement under this subdivision (E). Persons who meet and successfully complete the requirements of the endorsement shall be issued a teacher leader endorsement on the Professional Educator License for serving in schools in this State. Teacher leaders may qualify to serve in such positions as department chairs, coaches, mentors, curriculum and instruction leaders, or other leadership positions as defined by the district. The endorsement shall be available to those teachers who (i) hold a Professional Educator License, (ii) hold a master's degree or higher from a regionally accredited institution, (iii) have completed a program of study that has been approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and (iv) have successfully demonstrated competencies as defined by rule.

A teacher who meets the requirements set forth in this Section and holds a teacher leader endorsement may evaluate teachers pursuant to Section 24A-5 of this Code, provided that the individual has completed the evaluation component required by Section 24A-3 of this Code and a teacher leader is allowed to evaluate personnel under the respective school district's collective bargaining agreement.

The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may adopt such rules as may be necessary to establish and implement the teacher leader endorsement program and to specify the positions for which this endorsement shall be required.

(F) Special education endorsement. A special education endorsement in one or more areas shall be affixed to a Professional Educator License for any individual that meets those requirements established by the State Board of Education in rules. Special education endorsement areas shall include without limitation the following:

(i) Learning Behavior Specialist I;

(ii) Learning Behavior Specialist II;

(iii) Speech Language Pathologist;

(iv) Blind or Visually Impaired;

(v) Deaf-Hard of Hearing;

(vi) Early Childhood Special Education; and

(vii) Director of Special Education.

Notwithstanding anything in this Code to the contrary, the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, may add additional areas of special education by rule.

(G) School support personnel endorsement. School support personnel endorsement areas shall include, but are not limited to, school counselor, marriage and family therapist, school psychologist, school speech and language pathologist, school nurse, and school social worker. This endorsement is for individuals who are not teachers or administrators, but still require licensure to work in an instructional support position in a public or State-operated elementary school, secondary school, or cooperative or joint agreement with a governing body or board of control or a charter school operating in compliance with the Charter Schools Law. The school support personnel endorsement shall be affixed to the Professional Educator License and shall meet all of the requirements established in any rules adopted to implement this subdivision (G). The holder of such an endorsement is entitled to all of the rights and privileges granted holders of any other Professional Educator License, including teacher benefits, compensation, and working conditions.

Beginning on January 1, 2014 and ending on April 30, 2014, a person holding a Professional Educator License with a school speech and language pathologist (teaching) endorsement may exchange his or her school speech and language pathologist (teaching) endorsement for a school speech and language pathologist (non-teaching) endorsement through application to the State Board of Education. There shall be no cost for this exchange.

(Source: P.A. 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-623, eff. 7-22-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-13, eff. 7-1-17; 100-267, eff. 8-22-17; 100-288, eff. 8-24-17; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-30)

Sec. 21B-30. Educator testing.

(a) This Section applies beginning on July 1, 2012.

(b) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall design and implement a system of examinations, which shall be required prior to the issuance of educator licenses. These examinations and indicators must be based on national and State professional teaching standards, as determined by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The State Board of Education may adopt such rules as may be necessary to implement and administer this Section.

(c) Applicants seeking a Professional Educator License or an Educator License with Stipulations shall be required to pass a test of basic skills before the license is issued, unless the endorsement the individual is seeking does not require passage of the test. All applicants completing Illinois-approved, teacher education or school service personnel preparation programs shall be required to pass the State Board of Education's recognized test of basic skills prior to starting their student teaching or starting the final semester of their internship, unless required earlier at the discretion of the recognized, Illinois institution in which they are completing their approved program. An individual who passes a test of basic skills does not need to do so again for subsequent endorsements or other educator licenses.

(d) All applicants seeking a State license shall be required to pass a test of content area knowledge for each area of endorsement for which there is an applicable test. There shall be no exception to this requirement. No candidate shall be allowed to student teach or serve as the teacher of record until he or she has passed the applicable content area test.

(e) (Blank). and completing their student teaching experience no later than August 31, 2015 Prior to September 1, 2015, passage The APT shall be available through August 31, 2020.

(f) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, beginning on September 1, 2015, all candidates completing teacher preparation programs in this State and all candidates subject to Section 21B-35 of this Code are required to pass an evidence-based assessment of teacher effectiveness approved by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. All recognized institutions offering approved teacher preparation programs must begin phasing in the approved teacher performance assessment no later than July 1, 2013.

(g) Tests of basic skills and content area knowledge and the assessment of professional teaching shall be the tests that from time to time are designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, and may be tests prepared by an educational testing organization or tests designed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The areas to be covered by a test of basic skills shall include reading, language arts, and mathematics. The test of content area knowledge shall assess content knowledge in a specific subject field. The tests must be designed to be racially neutral to ensure that no person taking the tests is discriminated against on the basis of race, color, national origin, or other factors unrelated to the person's ability to perform as a licensed employee. The score required to pass the tests shall be fixed by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. The tests shall be administered not fewer than 3 times a year at such time and place as may be designated by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.

The State Board shall implement a test or tests to assess the speaking, reading, writing, and grammar skills of applicants for an endorsement or a license issued under subdivision (G) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-20 of this Code in the English language and in the language of the transitional bilingual education program requested by the applicant.

(h) Except as provided in Section 34-6 of this Code, the provisions of this Section shall apply equally in any school district subject to Article 34 of this Code.

(i) The rules developed to implement and enforce the testing requirements under this Section shall include without limitation provisions governing test selection, test validation and determination of a passing score, administration of the tests, frequency of administration, applicant fees, frequency of applicants taking the tests, the years for which a score is valid, and appropriate special accommodations. The State Board of Education shall develop such rules as may be needed to ensure uniformity from year to year in the level of difficulty for each form of an assessment.

(Source: P.A. 98-361, eff. 1-1-14; 98-581, eff. 8-27-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-657, eff. 7-28-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; revised 1-23-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/21B-45)

Sec. 21B-45. Professional Educator License renewal.

(a) Individuals holding a Professional Educator License are required to complete the licensure renewal requirements as specified in this Section, unless otherwise provided in this Code.

Individuals holding a Professional Educator License shall meet the renewal requirements set forth in this Section, unless otherwise provided in this Code. If an individual holds a license endorsed in more than one area that has different renewal requirements, that individual shall follow the renewal requirements for the position for which he or she spends the majority of his or her time working.

(b) All Professional Educator Licenses not renewed as provided in this Section shall lapse on September 1 of that year. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, if a license holder's electronic mail address is available, the State Board of Education shall send him or her notification electronically that his or her license will lapse if not renewed, to be sent no more than 6 months prior to the license lapsing. Lapsed licenses may be immediately reinstated upon (i) payment by the applicant of a $500 penalty to the State Board of Education or (ii) the demonstration of proficiency by completing 9 semester hours of coursework from a regionally accredited institution of higher education in the content area that most aligns with one or more of the educator's endorsement areas. Any and all back fees, including without limitation registration fees owed from the time of expiration of the license until the date of reinstatement, shall be paid and kept in accordance with the provisions in Article 3 of this Code concerning an institute fund and the provisions in Article 21B of this Code concerning fees and requirements for registration. Licenses not registered in accordance with Section 21B-40 of this Code shall lapse after a period of 6 months from the expiration of the last year of registration or on January 1 of the fiscal year following initial issuance of the license. An unregistered license is invalid after September 1 for employment and performance of services in an Illinois public or State-operated school or cooperative and in a charter school. Any license or endorsement may be voluntarily surrendered by the license holder. A voluntarily surrendered license, except a substitute teaching license issued under Section 21B-20 of this Code, shall be treated as a revoked license. An Educator License with Stipulations with only a paraprofessional endorsement does not lapse.

(c) From July 1, 2013 through June 30, 2014, in order to satisfy the requirements for licensure renewal provided for in this Section, each professional educator licensee with an administrative endorsement who is working in a position requiring such endorsement shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, per fiscal year.

(d) Beginning July 1, 2014, in order to satisfy the requirements for licensure renewal provided for in this Section, each professional educator licensee may create a professional development plan each year. The plan shall address one or more of the endorsements that are required of his or her educator position if the licensee is employed and performing services in an Illinois public or State-operated school or cooperative. If the licensee is employed in a charter school, the plan shall address that endorsement or those endorsements most closely related to his or her educator position. Licensees employed and performing services in any other Illinois schools may participate in the renewal requirements by adhering to the same process.

Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the licensee's professional development activities shall align with one or more of the following criteria:

(1) activities are of a type that engage participants over a sustained period of time allowing for analysis, discovery, and application as they relate to student learning, social or emotional achievement, or well-being;

(2) professional development aligns to the licensee's performance;

(3) outcomes for the activities must relate to student growth or district improvement;

(4) activities align to State-approved standards; and

(5) higher education coursework.

(e) For each renewal cycle, each professional educator licensee shall engage in professional development activities. Prior to renewal, the licensee shall enter electronically into the Educator Licensure Information System (ELIS) the name, date, and location of the activity, the number of professional development hours, and the provider's name. The following provisions shall apply concerning professional development activities:

(1) Each licensee shall complete a total of 120 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in order to renew the license, except as otherwise provided in this Section.

(2) Beginning with his or her first full 5-year cycle, any licensee with an administrative endorsement who is not working in a position requiring such endorsement is not required to complete Illinois Administrators' Academy courses, as described in Article 2 of this Code. Such licensees must complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course within one year after returning to a position that requires the administrative endorsement.

(3) Any licensee with an administrative endorsement who is working in a position requiring such endorsement or an individual with a Teacher Leader endorsement serving in an administrative capacity at least 50% of the day shall complete one Illinois Administrators' Academy course, as described in Article 2 of this Code, each fiscal year in addition to 100 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in accordance with this Code.

(4) Any licensee holding a current National Board for Professional Teaching Standards (NBPTS) master teacher designation shall complete a total of 60 hours of professional development per 5-year renewal cycle in order to renew the license.

(5) Licensees working in a position that does not require educator licensure or working in a position for less than 50% for any particular year are considered to be exempt and shall be required to pay only the registration fee in order to renew and maintain the validity of the license.

(6) Licensees who are retired and qualify for benefits from a State retirement system shall notify the State Board of Education using ELIS, and the license shall be maintained in retired status. For any renewal cycle in which a licensee retires during the renewal cycle, the licensee must complete professional development activities on a prorated basis depending on the number of years during the renewal cycle the educator held an active license. If a licensee retires during a renewal cycle, the licensee must notify the State Board of Education using ELIS that the licensee wishes to maintain the license in retired status and must show proof of completion of professional development activities on a prorated basis for all years of that renewal cycle for which the license was active. An individual with a license in retired status shall not be required to complete professional development activities or pay registration fees until returning to a position that requires educator licensure. Upon returning to work in a position that requires the Professional Educator License, the licensee shall immediately pay a registration fee and complete renewal requirements for that year. A license in retired status cannot lapse. Beginning on January 6, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-920) through December 31, 2017, any licensee who has retired and whose license has lapsed for failure to renew as provided in this Section may reinstate that license and maintain it in retired status upon providing proof to the State Board of Education using ELIS that the licensee is retired and is not working in a position that requires a Professional Educator License.

(7) For any renewal cycle in which professional development hours were required, but not fulfilled, the licensee shall complete any missed hours to total the minimum professional development hours required in this Section prior to September 1 of that year. For any fiscal year or renewal cycle in which an Illinois Administrators' Academy course was required but not completed, the licensee shall complete any missed Illinois Administrators' Academy courses prior to September 1 of that year. The licensee may complete all deficient hours and Illinois Administrators' Academy courses while continuing to work in a position that requires that license until September 1 of that year.

(8) Any licensee who has not fulfilled the professional development renewal requirements set forth in this Section at the end of any 5-year renewal cycle is ineligible to register his or her license and may submit an appeal to the State Superintendent of Education for reinstatement of the license.

(9) If professional development opportunities were unavailable to a licensee, proof that opportunities were unavailable and request for an extension of time beyond August 31 to complete the renewal requirements may be submitted from April 1 through June 30 of that year to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board. If an extension is approved, the license shall remain valid during the extension period.

(10) Individuals who hold exempt licenses prior to December 27, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-610) shall commence the annual renewal process with the first scheduled registration due after December 27, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-610).

(11) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (e), if a licensee earns more than the required number of professional development hours during a renewal cycle, then the licensee may carry over any hours earned from April 1 through June 30 of the last year of the renewal cycle. Any hours carried over in this manner must be applied to the next renewal cycle. Illinois Administrators' Academy courses or hours earned in those courses may not be carried over.

(f) At the time of renewal, each licensee shall respond to the required questions under penalty of perjury.

(g) The following entities shall be designated as approved to provide professional development activities for the renewal of Professional Educator Licenses:

(1) The State Board of Education.

(2) Regional offices of education and intermediate service centers.

(3) Illinois professional associations representing the following groups that are approved by the State Superintendent of Education:

(A) school administrators;

(B) principals;

(C) school business officials;

(D) teachers, including special education teachers;

(E) school boards;

(F) school districts;

(G) parents; and

(H) school service personnel.

(4) Regionally accredited institutions of higher education that offer Illinois-approved educator preparation programs and public community colleges subject to the Public Community College Act.

(5) Illinois public school districts, charter schools authorized under Article 27A of this Code, and joint educational programs authorized under Article 10 of this Code for the purposes of providing career and technical education or special education services.

(6) A not-for-profit organization that, as of December 31, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-1147), has had or has a grant from or a contract with the State Board of Education to provide professional development services in the area of English Learning to Illinois school districts, teachers, or administrators.

(7) State agencies, State boards, and State commissions.

(8) Museums as defined in Section 10 of the Museum Disposition of Property Act.

(h) Approved providers under subsection (g) of this Section shall make available professional development opportunities that satisfy at least one of the following:

(1) increase the knowledge and skills of school and district leaders who guide continuous professional development;

(2) improve the learning of students;

(3) organize adults into learning communities whose goals are aligned with those of the school and district;

(4) deepen educator's content knowledge;

(5) provide educators with research-based instructional strategies to assist students in meeting rigorous academic standards;

(6) prepare educators to appropriately use various types of classroom assessments;

(7) use learning strategies appropriate to the intended goals;

(8) provide educators with the knowledge and skills to collaborate; or

(9) prepare educators to apply research to decision-making.

(i) Approved providers under subsection (g) of this Section shall do the following:

(1) align professional development activities to the State-approved national standards for professional learning;

(2) meet the professional development criteria for Illinois licensure renewal;

(3) produce a rationale for the activity that explains how it aligns to State standards and identify the assessment for determining the expected impact on student learning or school improvement;

(4) maintain original documentation for completion of activities; and

(5) provide license holders with evidence of completion of activities.

(j) The State Board of Education shall conduct annual audits of a subset of approved providers, except for school districts, which shall be audited by regional offices of education and intermediate service centers. Each approved provider, except for school districts, that is audited by a regional office of education or intermediate service center must be audited at least once every 5 years. The State Board of Education shall complete random audits of licensees.

(1) Approved providers shall annually submit to the State Board of Education a list of subcontractors used for delivery of professional development activities for which renewal credit was issued and other information as defined by rule.

(2) Approved providers shall annually submit data to the State Board of Education demonstrating how the professional development activities impacted one or more of the following:

(A) educator and student growth in regards to content knowledge or skills, or both;

(B) educator and student social and emotional growth; or

(C) alignment to district or school improvement plans.

(3) The State Superintendent of Education shall review the annual data collected by the State Board of Education, regional offices of education, and intermediate service centers in audits to determine if the approved provider has met the criteria and should continue to be an approved provider or if further action should be taken as provided in rules.

(k) Registration fees shall be paid for the next renewal cycle between April 1 and June 30 in the last year of each 5-year renewal cycle using ELIS. If all required professional development hours for the renewal cycle have been completed and entered by the licensee, the licensee shall pay the registration fees for the next cycle using a form of credit or debit card.

(l) Any professional educator licensee endorsed for school support personnel who is employed and performing services in Illinois public schools and who holds an active and current professional license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or a national certification board, as approved by the State Board of Education, related to the endorsement areas on the Professional Educator License shall be deemed to have satisfied the continuing professional development requirements provided for in this Section. Such individuals shall be required to pay only registration fees to renew the Professional Educator License. An individual who does not hold a license issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall complete professional development requirements for the renewal of a Professional Educator License provided for in this Section.

(m) Appeals to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board must be made within 30 days after receipt of notice from the State Superintendent of Education that a license will not be renewed based upon failure to complete the requirements of this Section. A licensee may appeal that decision to the State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board in a manner prescribed by rule.

(1) Each appeal shall state the reasons why the State Superintendent's decision should be reversed and shall be sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the State Board of Education.

(2) The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board shall review each appeal regarding renewal of a license within 90 days after receiving the appeal in order to determine whether the licensee has met the requirements of this Section. The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board may hold an appeal hearing or may make its determination based upon the record of review, which shall consist of the following:

(A) the regional superintendent of education's rationale for recommending nonrenewal of the license, if applicable;

(B) any evidence submitted to the State Superintendent along with the individual's electronic statement of assurance for renewal; and

(C) the State Superintendent's rationale for nonrenewal of the license.

(3) The State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board shall notify the licensee of its decision regarding license renewal by certified mail, return receipt requested, no later than 30 days after reaching a decision. Upon receipt of notification of renewal, the licensee, using ELIS, shall pay the applicable registration fee for the next cycle using a form of credit or debit card.

(n) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as may be necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-58, eff. 7-16-15; 99-130, eff. 7-24-15; 99-591, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-920, eff. 1-6-17; 100-13, eff. 7-1-17; 100-339, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-80)

Sec. 22-80. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(4) Student athletes who have sustained a concussion may need informal or formal accommodations, modifications of curriculum, and monitoring by medical or academic staff until the student is fully recovered. To that end, all schools are encouraged to establish a return-to-learn protocol that is based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and conduct baseline testing for student athletes.

(b) In this Section:

"Athletic trainer" means an athletic trainer licensed under the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act who is working under the supervision of a physician.

"Coach" means any volunteer or employee of a school who is responsible for organizing and supervising students to teach them or train them in the fundamental skills of an interscholastic athletic activity. "Coach" refers to both head coaches and assistant coaches.

"Concussion" means a complex pathophysiological process affecting the brain caused by a traumatic physical force or impact to the head or body, which may include temporary or prolonged altered brain function resulting in physical, cognitive, or emotional symptoms or altered sleep patterns and which may or may not involve a loss of consciousness.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Game official" means a person who officiates at an interscholastic athletic activity, such as a referee or umpire, including, but not limited to, persons enrolled as game officials by the Illinois High School Association or Illinois Elementary School Association.

"Interscholastic athletic activity" means any organized school-sponsored or school-sanctioned activity for students, generally outside of school instructional hours, under the direction of a coach, athletic director, or band leader, including, but not limited to, baseball, basketball, cheerleading, cross country track, fencing, field hockey, football, golf, gymnastics, ice hockey, lacrosse, marching band, rugby, soccer, skating, softball, swimming and diving, tennis, track (indoor and outdoor), ultimate Frisbee, volleyball, water polo, and wrestling. All interscholastic athletics are deemed to be interscholastic activities.

"Licensed healthcare professional" means a person who has experience with concussion management and who is a nurse, a psychologist who holds a license under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act and specializes in the practice of neuropsychology, a physical therapist licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, an occupational therapist licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, a physician assistant, or an athletic trainer.

"Nurse" means a person who is employed by or volunteers at a school and is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as a registered nurse, practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, including a charter school.

"Student" means an adolescent or child enrolled in a school.

(c) This Section applies to any interscholastic athletic activity, including practice and competition, sponsored or sanctioned by a school, the Illinois Elementary School Association, or the Illinois High School Association. This Section applies beginning with the 2016-2017 school year.

(d) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall appoint or approve a concussion oversight team. Each concussion oversight team shall establish a return-to-play protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to interscholastic athletics practice or competition following a force or impact believed to have caused a concussion. Each concussion oversight team shall also establish a return-to-learn protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to the classroom after that student is believed to have experienced a concussion, whether or not the concussion took place while the student was participating in an interscholastic athletic activity.

Each concussion oversight team must include to the extent practicable at least one physician. If a school employs an athletic trainer, the athletic trainer must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. If a school employs a nurse, the nurse must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. At a minimum, a school shall appoint a person who is responsible for implementing and complying with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols adopted by the concussion oversight team. At a minimum, a concussion oversight team may be composed of only one person and this person need not be a licensed healthcare professional, but it may not be a coach. A school may appoint other licensed healthcare professionals to serve on the concussion oversight team.

(e) A student may not participate in an interscholastic athletic activity for a school year until the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student have signed a form for that school year that acknowledges receiving and reading written information that explains concussion prevention, symptoms, treatment, and oversight and that includes guidelines for safely resuming participation in an athletic activity following a concussion. The form must be approved by the Illinois High School Association.

(f) A student must be removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition immediately if one of the following persons believes the student might have sustained a concussion during the practice or competition:

(1) a coach;

(2) a physician;

(3) a game official;

(4) an athletic trainer;

(5) the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student;

(6) the student; or

(7) any other person deemed appropriate under the school's return-to-play protocol.

(g) A student removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition under this Section may not be permitted to practice or compete again following the force or impact believed to have caused the concussion until:

(1) the student has been evaluated, using established medical protocols based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, by a treating physician (chosen by the student or the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student), an athletic trainer, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;

(2) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-play protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to play;

(3) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-learn protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to learn;

(4) the treating physician, the athletic trainer, or the physician assistant has provided a written statement indicating that, in the physician's professional judgment, it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn or the treating advanced practice registered nurse has provided a written statement indicating that it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn; and

(5) the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student:

(A) have acknowledged that the student has completed the requirements of the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols necessary for the student to return to play;

(B) have provided the treating physician's, athletic trainer's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) to the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols under this subsection (g) and the person who has supervisory responsibilities under this subsection (g); and

(C) have signed a consent form indicating that the person signing:

(i) has been informed concerning and consents to the student participating in returning to play in accordance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols;

(ii) understands the risks associated with the student returning to play and returning to learn and will comply with any ongoing requirements in the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols; and

(iii) consents to the disclosure to appropriate persons, consistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191), of the treating physician's, athletic trainer's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice registered nurse's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) and, if any, the return-to-play and return-to-learn recommendations of the treating physician, the athletic trainer, the physician assistant, or the advanced practice registered nurse, as the case may be.

A coach of an interscholastic athletics team may not authorize a student's return to play or return to learn.

The district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school shall supervise an athletic trainer or other person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play protocol and shall supervise the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-learn protocol. The person who has supervisory responsibilities under this paragraph may not be a coach of an interscholastic athletics team.

(h)(1) The Illinois High School Association shall approve, for coaches, game officials, and non-licensed healthcare professionals, training courses that provide for not less than 2 hours of training in the subject matter of concussions, including evaluation, prevention, symptoms, risks, and long-term effects. The Association shall maintain an updated list of individuals and organizations authorized by the Association to provide the training.

(2) The following persons must take a training course in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) from an authorized training provider at least once every 2 years:

(A) a coach of an interscholastic athletic activity;

(B) a nurse, licensed healthcare professional, or non-licensed healthcare professional who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team either on a volunteer basis or in his or her capacity as an employee, representative, or agent of a school; and

(C) a game official of an interscholastic athletic activity.

(3) A physician who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team shall, to the greatest extent practicable, periodically take an appropriate continuing medical education course in the subject matter of concussions.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (h):

(A) a coach, game official, or non-licensed healthcare professional, as the case may be, must take a course described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h);

(B) an athletic trainer must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an athletic trainer continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(C) a nurse must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a nurse continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(D) a physical therapist must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a physical therapist continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(E) a psychologist must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a psychologist continuing education sponsor approved by the Department;

(F) an occupational therapist must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an occupational therapist continuing education sponsor approved by the Department; and

(G) a physician assistant must take a concussion-related continuing education course from a physician assistant continuing education sponsor approved by the Department.

(5) Each person described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (h) must submit proof of timely completion of an approved course in compliance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) to the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school.

(6) A physician, licensed healthcare professional, or non-licensed healthcare professional who is not in compliance with the training requirements under this subsection (h) may not serve on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(7) A person required under this subsection (h) to take a training course in the subject of concussions must complete the training prior to serving on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(i) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall develop a school-specific emergency action plan for interscholastic athletic activities to address the serious injuries and acute medical conditions in which the condition of the student may deteriorate rapidly. The plan shall include a delineation of roles, methods of communication, available emergency equipment, and access to and a plan for emergency transport. This emergency action plan must be:

(1) in writing;

(2) reviewed by the concussion oversight team;

(3) approved by the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school;

(4) distributed to all appropriate personnel;

(5) posted conspicuously at all venues utilized by the school; and

(6) reviewed annually by all athletic trainers, first responders, coaches, school nurses, athletic directors, and volunteers for interscholastic athletic activities.

(j) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as necessary to administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-486, eff. 11-20-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-309, eff. 9-1-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age; exemptions age-Exemptions. Whoever has custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or (ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child to attend some public school in the district wherein the child resides the entire time it is in session during the regular school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during a required summer school program established under Section 10-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be required to attend the public schools:

1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school where children are taught the branches of education taught to children of corresponding age and grade in the public schools, and where the instruction of the child in the branches of education is in the English language;

2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to attend school, such disability being certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher of the school which the child attends; the exemptions in this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except where a female is unable to attend school due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence of such complication is certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician;

3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed according to the provisions of the law regulating child labor may be excused from attendance at school by the county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of the public school which the child should be attending, on certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the school board of the public school district in which the child resides. In districts having part-time part time continuation schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at least 8 hours each week;

4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in attendance at confirmation classes;

5. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to participate in any examination, study or work requirements on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day. Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations relative to absences for religious holidays including, but not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on any other day by reason of the observance of a religious holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian of a child who is to be excused from attending school due to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice, not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be required to submit a written excuse for such absence after returning to school;

6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B of this Code;

7. A child in any of grades 6 through 12 absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the purpose of sounding "Taps" at a military honors funeral held in this State for a deceased veteran. In order to be excused under this paragraph 7, the student shall notify the school's administration at least 2 days prior to the date of the absence and shall provide the school's administration with the date, time, and location of the military honors funeral. The school's administration may waive this 2-day notification requirement if the student did not receive at least 2 days advance notice, but the student shall notify the school's administration as soon as possible of the absence. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 shall be counted as if the student attended school for purposes of calculating the average daily attendance of students in the school district. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 must be allowed a reasonable time to make up school work missed during the absence. If the student satisfactorily completes the school work, the day of absence shall be counted as a day of compulsory attendance and he or she may not be penalized for that absence; and

8. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that his or her parent or legal guardian is an active duty member of the uniformed services and has been called to duty for, is on leave from, or has immediately returned from deployment to a combat zone or combat-support postings. Such a student shall be granted 5 days of excused absences in any school year and, at the discretion of the school board, additional excused absences to visit the student's parent or legal guardian relative to such leave or deployment of the parent or legal guardian. In the case of excused absences pursuant to this paragraph 8, the student and parent or legal guardian shall be responsible for obtaining assignments from the student's teacher prior to any period of excused absence and for ensuring that such assignments are completed by the student prior to his or her return to school from such period of excused absence.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-804, eff. 1-1-17; 100-185, eff. 8-18-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-671) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-671) this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include an age-appropriate developmental screening, an age-appropriate social and emotional screening, and the collection of data relating to asthma and obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. With respect to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening, the Department of Public Health must develop rules and appropriate revisions to the Child Health Examination form in conjunction with a statewide organization representing school boards; a statewide organization representing pediatricians; statewide organizations representing individuals holding Illinois educator licenses with school support personnel endorsements, including school social workers, school psychologists, and school nurses; a statewide organization representing children's mental health experts; a statewide organization representing school principals; the Director of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; and representatives of other appropriate State agencies and, at a minimum, must recommend the use of validated screening tools appropriate to the child's age or grade, and, with regard to the social and emotional screening, require recording only whether or not the screening was completed. The rules shall take into consideration the screening recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics and must be consistent with the State Board of Education's social and emotional learning standards. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, or licensed physician assistants shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months.".

(2.5) With respect to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening portion of the health examination, each child may present proof of having been screened in accordance with this Section and the rules adopted under this Section before October 15th of the school year. With regard to the social and emotional screening only, the examining health care provider shall only record whether or not the screening was completed. If the child fails to present proof of the developmental screening or the social and emotional screening portions of the health examination by October 15th of the school year, qualified school support personnel may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, offer the developmental screening or the social and emotional screening to the child. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of the developmental screening and social and emotional screening requirements to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with the rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain a developmental screening or a social and emotional screening for the child. Once a developmental screening or a social and emotional screening is completed and proof has been presented to the school, the school may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, make available appropriate school personnel to work with the parent or guardian, the child, and the provider who signed the screening form to obtain any appropriate evaluations and services as indicated on the form and in other information and documentation provided by the parents, guardians, or provider.

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to asthma and obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to asthma or obesity. The duty to summarize on the report form does not apply to social and emotional screenings. The confidentiality of the information and records relating to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening shall be determined by the statutes, rules, and professional ethics governing the type of provider conducting the screening. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations, eye examinations, and the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening portions of the health examination. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 or 18-8.15 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious belief that conflicts with the examination, test, immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining health care provider responsible for the performance of the child's health examination confirming that the provider provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student and to the community of the communicable diseases for which immunization is required in this State. However, the health care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that education was provided and does not allow a health care provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that are required to be disseminated by the federal National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare provider may consider including without limitation the nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the information outlined in the relevant vaccine information statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the Department of Public Health and shall be made available and used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed by the tenets of an established religious organization. However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. The local school authority is responsible for determining if the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption constitutes a valid religious objection. The local school authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, at the time the objection is presented.

If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form.

Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-927, eff. 6-1-17; 100-238, eff. 1-1-18; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)

Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.

(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian, nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(b) A charter school may be established under this Article by creating a new school or by converting an existing public school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3), in all new applications to establish a charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000, operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 93-3 do not apply to charter schools existing or approved on or before April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3).

(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with their teachers at remote locations and with students participating at different times.

From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This moratorium does not apply to a charter school with virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter school with virtual-schooling components already approved prior to April 1, 2013.

On or before March 1, 2014, the Commission shall submit to the General Assembly a report on the effect of virtual-schooling, including without limitation the effect on student performance, the costs associated with virtual-schooling, and issues with oversight. The report shall include policy recommendations for virtual-schooling.

(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by its board of directors or other governing body in the manner provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open Meetings Act.

(d) For purposes of this subsection (d), "non-curricular health and safety requirement" means any health and safety requirement created by statute or rule to provide, maintain, preserve, or safeguard safe or healthful conditions for students and school personnel or to eliminate, reduce, or prevent threats to the health and safety of students and school personnel. "Non-curricular health and safety requirement" does not include any course of study or specialized instructional requirement for which the State Board has established goals and learning standards or which is designed primarily to impart knowledge and skills for students to master and apply as an outcome of their education.

A charter school shall comply with all non-curricular health and safety requirements applicable to public schools under the laws of the State of Illinois. On or before September 1, 2015, the State Board shall promulgate and post on its Internet website a list of non-curricular health and safety requirements that a charter school must meet. The list shall be updated annually no later than September 1. Any charter contract between a charter school and its authorizer must contain a provision that requires the charter school to follow the list of all non-curricular health and safety requirements promulgated by the State Board and any non-curricular health and safety requirements added by the State Board to such list during the term of the charter. Nothing in this subsection (d) precludes an authorizer from including non-curricular health and safety requirements in a charter school contract that are not contained in the list promulgated by the State Board, including non-curricular health and safety requirements of the authorizing local school board.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks, instructional materials, and student activities.

(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an outside, independent contractor retained by the charter school. To ensure financial accountability for the use of public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form 990 the charter school filed that year with the federal Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer may require quarterly financial statements from each charter school.

(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of this Article, the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act, all federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools that pertain to special education and the instruction of English learners, and its charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local school board policies; however, a charter school is not exempt from the following:

(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for employment;

(2) Sections 10-20.14, 10-22.6, 24-24, 34-19, and 34-84a of this Code regarding discipline of students;

(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act;

(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of officers, directors, employees, and agents;

(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

(5.5) subsection (b) of Section 10-23.12 and subsection (b) of Section 34-18.6 of this Code;

(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;

(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report cards;

(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;

(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying prevention;

(10) Section 2-3.162 of this Code regarding student discipline reporting;

(11) Sections 22-80 and 27-8.1 of this Code; and

(12) Sections 10-20.60 and 34-18.53 of this Code; .

(13) (12) Sections 10-20.63 10-20.60 and 34-18.56 34-18.53 of this Code; and .

(14) (12) Section 26-18 of this Code.

The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g) is declaratory of existing law.

(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a school district, the governing body of a State college or university or public community college, or any other public or for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a school building and grounds or any other real property or facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service, activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter. However, a charter school that is established on or after April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and that operates in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to manage or operate the school during the period that commences on April 16, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-3) and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005 school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, a school district may charge a charter school reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings, grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a school district shall be provided by the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school contracts with a local school board or with the governing body of a State college or university or public community college shall be provided by the public entity at cost.

(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established by converting an existing school or attendance center to charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other costs for the operation and maintenance of school district facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject to negotiation between the charter school and the local school board and shall be set forth in the charter.

(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or grade level.

(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission, then the Commission charter school is its own local education agency.

(Source: P.A. 99-30, eff. 7-10-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-325, eff. 8-10-15; 99-456, eff. 9-15-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-927, eff. 6-1-17; 100-29, eff. 1-1-18; 100-156, eff. 1-1-18; 100-163, eff. 1-1-18; 100-413, eff. 1-1-18; 100-468, eff. 6-1-18; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/29-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 29-5)

Sec. 29-5. Reimbursement by State for transportation. Any school district, maintaining a school, transporting resident pupils to another school district's vocational program, offered through a joint agreement approved by the State Board of Education, as provided in Section 10-22.22 or transporting its resident pupils to a school which meets the standards for recognition as established by the State Board of Education which provides transportation meeting the standards of safety, comfort, convenience, efficiency and operation prescribed by the State Board of Education for resident pupils in kindergarten or any of grades 1 through 12 who: (a) reside at least 1 1/2 miles as measured by the customary route of travel, from the school attended; or (b) reside in areas where conditions are such that walking constitutes a hazard to the safety of the child when determined under Section 29-3; and (c) are transported to the school attended from pick-up points at the beginning of the school day and back again at the close of the school day or transported to and from their assigned attendance centers during the school day, shall be reimbursed by the State as hereinafter provided in this Section.

The State will pay the cost of transporting eligible pupils less the prior year assessed valuation in a dual school district maintaining secondary grades 9 to 12 inclusive times a qualifying rate of .05%; in elementary school districts maintaining grades K to 8 times a qualifying rate of .06%; and in unit districts maintaining grades K to 12, including optional elementary unit districts and combined high school - unit districts, times a qualifying rate of .07%; provided that for optional elementary unit districts and combined high school - unit districts, prior year assessed valuation for high school purposes, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, must be used. To be eligible to receive reimbursement in excess of 4/5 of the cost to transport eligible pupils, a school district shall have a Transportation Fund tax rate of at least .12%. If a school district does not have a .12% Transportation Fund tax rate, the amount of its claim in excess of 4/5 of the cost of transporting pupils shall be reduced by the sum arrived at by subtracting the Transportation Fund tax rate from .12% and multiplying that amount by the district's prior year equalized or assessed valuation, provided, that in no case shall said reduction result in reimbursement of less than 4/5 of the cost to transport eligible pupils.

The minimum amount to be received by a district is $16 times the number of eligible pupils transported.

When calculating the reimbursement for transportation costs, the State Board of Education may not deduct the number of pupils enrolled in early education programs from the number of pupils eligible for reimbursement if the pupils enrolled in the early education programs are transported at the same time as other eligible pupils.

Any such district transporting resident pupils during the school day to an area vocational school or another school district's vocational program more than 1 1/2 miles from the school attended, as provided in Sections 10-22.20a and 10-22.22, shall be reimbursed by the State for 4/5 of the cost of transporting eligible pupils.

School day means that period of time during which the pupil is required to be in attendance for instructional purposes.

If a pupil is at a location within the school district other than his residence for child care purposes at the time for transportation to school, that location may be considered for purposes of determining the 1 1/2 miles from the school attended.

Claims for reimbursement that include children who attend any school other than a public school shall show the number of such children transported.

Claims for reimbursement under this Section shall not be paid for the transportation of pupils for whom transportation costs are claimed for payment under other Sections of this Act.

The allowable direct cost of transporting pupils for regular, vocational, and special education pupil transportation shall be limited to the sum of the cost of physical examinations required for employment as a school bus driver; the salaries of full-time full or part-time drivers and school bus maintenance personnel; employee benefits excluding Illinois municipal retirement payments, social security payments, unemployment insurance payments and workers' compensation insurance premiums; expenditures to independent carriers who operate school buses; payments to other school districts for pupil transportation services; pre-approved contractual expenditures for computerized bus scheduling; expenditures for housing assistance and homeless prevention under Sections 1-17 and 1-18 of the Education for Homeless Children Act that are not in excess of the school district's actual costs for providing transportation services and are not otherwise claimed in another State or federal grant that permits those costs to a parent, a legal guardian, any other person who enrolled a pupil, or a homeless assistance agency that is part of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act's continuum of care for the area in which the district is located; the cost of gasoline, oil, tires, and other supplies necessary for the operation of school buses; the cost of converting buses' gasoline engines to more fuel efficient engines or to engines which use alternative energy sources; the cost of travel to meetings and workshops conducted by the regional superintendent or the State Superintendent of Education pursuant to the standards established by the Secretary of State under Section 6-106 of the Illinois Vehicle Code to improve the driving skills of school bus drivers; the cost of maintenance of school buses including parts and materials used; expenditures for leasing transportation vehicles, except interest and service charges; the cost of insurance and licenses for transportation vehicles; expenditures for the rental of transportation equipment; plus a depreciation allowance of 20% for 5 years for school buses and vehicles approved for transporting pupils to and from school and a depreciation allowance of 10% for 10 years for other transportation equipment so used. Each school year, if a school district has made expenditures to the Regional Transportation Authority or any of its service boards, a mass transit district, or an urban transportation district under an intergovernmental agreement with the district to provide for the transportation of pupils and if the public transit carrier received direct payment for services or passes from a school district within its service area during the 2000-2001 school year, then the allowable direct cost of transporting pupils for regular, vocational, and special education pupil transportation shall also include the expenditures that the district has made to the public transit carrier. In addition to the above allowable costs school districts shall also claim all transportation supervisory salary costs, including Illinois municipal retirement payments, and all transportation related building and building maintenance costs without limitation.

Special education allowable costs shall also include expenditures for the salaries of attendants or aides for that portion of the time they assist special education pupils while in transit and expenditures for parents and public carriers for transporting special education pupils when pre-approved by the State Superintendent of Education.

Indirect costs shall be included in the reimbursement claim for districts which own and operate their own school buses. Such indirect costs shall include administrative costs, or any costs attributable to transporting pupils from their attendance centers to another school building for instructional purposes. No school district which owns and operates its own school buses may claim reimbursement for indirect costs which exceed 5% of the total allowable direct costs for pupil transportation.

The State Board of Education shall prescribe uniform regulations for determining the above standards and shall prescribe forms of cost accounting and standards of determining reasonable depreciation. Such depreciation shall include the cost of equipping school buses with the safety features required by law or by the rules, regulations and standards promulgated by the State Board of Education, and the Department of Transportation for the safety and construction of school buses provided, however, any equipment cost reimbursed by the Department of Transportation for equipping school buses with such safety equipment shall be deducted from the allowable cost in the computation of reimbursement under this Section in the same percentage as the cost of the equipment is depreciated.

On or before August 15, annually, the chief school administrator for the district shall certify to the State Superintendent of Education the district's claim for reimbursement for the school year ending on June 30 next preceding. The State Superintendent of Education shall check and approve the claims and prepare the vouchers showing the amounts due for district reimbursement claims. Each fiscal year, the State Superintendent of Education shall prepare and transmit the first 3 vouchers to the Comptroller on the 30th day of September, December and March, respectively, and the final voucher, no later than June 20.

If the amount appropriated for transportation reimbursement is insufficient to fund total claims for any fiscal year, the State Board of Education shall reduce each school district's allowable costs and flat grant amount proportionately to make total adjusted claims equal the total amount appropriated.

For purposes of calculating claims for reimbursement under this Section for any school year beginning July 1, 1998, or thereafter, the equalized assessed valuation for a school district used to compute reimbursement shall be computed in the same manner as it is computed under paragraph (2) of subsection (G) of Section 18-8.05.

All reimbursements received from the State shall be deposited into the district's transportation fund or into the fund from which the allowable expenditures were made.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school district receiving a payment under this Section or under Section 14-7.02, 14-7.02b, or 14-13.01 of this Code may classify all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular fiscal year or from general State aid pursuant to Section 18-8.05 of this Code as funds received in connection with any funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation, any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not classify more funds as funds received in connection with the funding program than the district is entitled to receive in that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a district must be made by a resolution of its board of education. The resolution must identify the amount of any payments or general State aid to be classified under this paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith. This resolution is controlling as to the classification of funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of Education in a timely manner. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code. No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting requirements, or requirements of providing services.

Any school district with a population of not more than 500,000 must deposit all funds received under this Article into the transportation fund and use those funds for the provision of transportation services.

(Source: P.A. 100-332, eff. 8-25-17; 100-465, eff. 8-31-17; revised 9-22-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/32-7.3) (from Ch. 122, par. 32-7.3)

Sec. 32-7.3. Depositaries. The governing body of any special charter district, when requested by the treasurer or custodian of the funds of the district, shall designate one or more banks or savings and loan associations in which the funds in the custody of the treasurer or custodian may be kept. A bank or savings and loan association designated as a depositary shall continue as such until 10 days have elapsed after a new depositary is designated and has qualified by furnishing the statements of resources and liabilities as is required by this Section. When a new depositary is designated, the board of education or other governing body shall notify the sureties of the treasurer or custodian of that fact, in writing, at least 5 days before the transfer of funds. The treasurer or custodian shall be discharged from responsibility for all funds which he deposits in a depositary so designated while such funds are so deposited.

No bank or savings and loan association shall receive public funds as permitted by this Section, unless it has complied with the requirements established pursuant to Section 6 of the Public Funds Investment Act "An Act relating to certain investments of public funds by public agencies", approved July 23, 1943, as now or hereafter amended.

(Source: P.A. 83-541; revised 9-25-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.53)

Sec. 34-18.53. Breastfeeding accommodations for pupils.

(a) Each public school shall provide reasonable accommodations to a lactating pupil on a school campus to express breast milk, breastfeed an infant child, or address other needs related to breastfeeding. Reasonable accommodations under this Section include, but are not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Access to a private and secure room, other than a restroom, to express breast milk or breastfeed an infant child.

(2) Permission to bring onto a school campus a breast pump and any other equipment used to express breast milk.

(3) Access to a power source for a breast pump or any other equipment used to express breast milk.

(4) Access to a place to store expressed breast milk safely.

(b) A lactating pupil on a school campus must be provided a reasonable amount of time to accommodate her need to express breast milk or breastfeed an infant child.

(c) A public school shall provide the reasonable accommodations specified in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section only if there is at least one lactating pupil on the school campus.

(d) A public school may use an existing facility to meet the requirements specified in subsection (a) of this Section.

(e) A pupil may not incur an academic penalty as a result of her use, during the school day, of the reasonable accommodations specified in this Section and must be provided the opportunity to make up any work missed due to such use.

(f) In instances where a student files a complaint of noncompliance with the requirements of this Section, the public school shall implement the grievance procedure of 23 Ill. Adm. Code 200, including appeals procedures.

(Source: P.A. 100-29, eff. 1-1-18.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.54)

Sec. 34-18.54 34-18.53. Implicit bias training.

(a) The General Assembly makes the following findings:

(1) implicit racial bias influences evaluations of and behavior toward those who are the subject of the bias;

(2) understanding implicit racial bias is needed in order to reduce that bias;

(3) marginalized students would benefit from having access to educators who have worked to reduce their biases; and

(4) training that helps educators overcome implicit racial bias has implication for classroom interactions, student evaluation, and classroom engagement; it also affects student academic self-concept.

(b) The board shall require in-service training for school personnel to include training to develop cultural competency, including understanding and reducing implicit racial bias.

(c) As used in this Section, "implicit racial bias" means a preference, positive or negative, for a racial or ethnic group that operates outside of awareness. This bias has 3 different components: affective, behavioral, and cognitive.

(Source: P.A. 100-14, eff. 7-1-17; revised 10-21-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.55)

Sec. 34-18.55 34-18.53. Dual enrollment and dual credit notification. The board shall require the district's high schools to inform all 11th and 12th grade students of dual enrollment and dual credit opportunities at public community colleges for qualified students.

(Source: P.A. 100-133, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-21-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.56)

Sec. 34-18.56 34-18.53. Availability of feminine hygiene products.

(a) The General Assembly finds the following:

(1) Feminine hygiene products are a health care necessity and not an item that can be foregone or substituted easily.

(2) Access to feminine hygiene products is a serious and ongoing need in this State.

(3) When students do not have access to affordable feminine hygiene products, they may miss multiple days of school every month.

(4) When students have access to quality feminine hygiene products, they are able to continue with their daily lives with minimal interruption.

(b) In this Section:

"Feminine hygiene products" means tampons and sanitary napkins for use in connection with the menstrual cycle.

"School building" means any facility (i) that is owned or leased by the school district or over which the board has care, custody, and control and (ii) in which there is a public school serving students in grades 6 through 12.

(c) The school district shall make feminine hygiene products available, at no cost to students, in the bathrooms of school buildings.

(Source: P.A. 100-163, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-21-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.57)

Sec. 34-18.57 34-18.53. Booking stations on school grounds.

(a) There shall be no student booking station established or maintained on the grounds of any school.

(b) This prohibition shall be applied to student booking stations only, as defined in this Section. The prohibition does not prohibit or affect the establishment or maintenance of any place operated by or under the control of law enforcement personnel, school resource officers, or other security personnel that does not also qualify as a student booking station as defined in paragraph (2) of subsection (d) of this Section. The prohibition does not affect or limit the powers afforded law enforcement officers to perform their duties within schools as otherwise prescribed by law.

(c) When the underlying suspected or alleged criminal act is an act of violence, and isolation of a student or students is deemed necessary to the interest of public safety, and no other location is adequate for secure isolation of the student or students, offices as described in paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of this Section may be employed to detain students for a period no longer than that required to alleviate that threat to public safety.

(d) As used in this Section, "student booking station" means a building, office, room, or any indefinitely established space or site, mobile or fixed, which operates concurrently as:

(1) predominantly or regularly a place of operation for a municipal police department, county sheriff department, or other law enforcement agency, or under the primary control thereof; and

(2) a site at which students are detained in connection with criminal charges or allegations against those students, taken into custody, or engaged with law enforcement personnel in any process that creates a law enforcement record of that contact with law enforcement personnel or processes.

(Source: P.A. 100-204, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-21-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.58)

Sec. 34-18.58 34-18.53. School social worker. The board may employ school social workers who have graduated with a master's or higher degree in social work from an accredited graduate school of social work and have such additional qualifications as may be required by the State Board of Education and who hold a Professional Educator License with a school support personnel endorsement for school social work pursuant to Section 21B-25 of this Code. Only persons so licensed and endorsed may use the title "school social worker". A school social worker may provide individual and group services to the general student population and to students with disabilities pursuant to Article 14 of this Code and rules set forth in 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226, Special Education, adopted by the State Board of Education and may provide support and consultation to administrators, teachers, and other school personnel consistent with their professional qualifications and the provisions of this Code and other applicable laws. The school district may employ a sufficient number of school social workers to address the needs of their students and schools and may maintain the nationally recommended student-to-school social worker ratio of 250 to 1. A school social worker may not provide such services outside his or her employment to any student in the district or districts that employ the school social worker.

(Source: P.A. 100-356, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-21-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/34-18.59)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 34-18.59 34-18.53. School-grown produce. The school district may serve students produce grown and harvested by students in school-owned facilities utilizing hydroponics or aeroponics or in school-owned or community gardens if the soil and compost in which the produce is grown meets the standards adopted in 35 Ill. Adm. Code 830.503, if applicable, and the produce is served in accordance with the standards adopted in 77 Ill. Adm. Code 750.

(Source: P.A. 100-505, eff. 6-1-18; revised 10-21-17.)

Section 285. The Education for Homeless Children Act is amended by changing Section 1-20 as follows:

(105 ILCS 45/1-20)

Sec. 1-20. Enrollment. If the parents or guardians of a homeless child or youth choose to enroll the child in a school other than the school of origin, that school immediately shall enroll the homeless child or youth even if the child or youth is unable to produce records normally required for enrollment, such as previous academic records, medical records, proof of residency, or other documentation. Nothing in this Section subsection shall prohibit school districts from requiring parents or guardians of a homeless child to submit an address or such other contact information as the district may require from parents or guardians of nonhomeless children. It shall be the duty of the enrolling school to immediately contact the school last attended by the child or youth to obtain relevant academic and other records. If the child or youth must obtain immunizations, it shall be the duty of the enrolling school to promptly refer the child or youth for those immunizations.

(Source: P.A. 88-634, eff. 1-1-95; 88-686, eff. 1-24-95; revised 9-25-17.)

Section 290. The Public Community College Act is amended by changing Section 3-20.5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 805/3-20.5) (from Ch. 122, par. 103-20.5)

Sec. 3-20.5. (a) The board of each community college district shall ascertain, as near as practicable, annually, how much money must be raised by special tax for educational purposes and for operations and maintenance of facilities purposes for the next ensuing year. Such amounts shall be certified and returned to the county clerk on or before the last Tuesday in December, annually. The certificate shall be signed by the chairman and secretary, and may be in the following form:

CERTIFICATE OF TAX LEVY

We hereby certify that we require the sum of .... dollars to be levied as a special tax for educational purposes, and the sum of .... dollars to be levied as a special tax for operations and maintenance of facilities purposes, on the equalized assessed value of the taxable property of our district, for the year (insert year).

Signed on (insert date).

A .... B ...., Chairman

C .... D ...., Secretary

Community College Dist. No. ...., .... County (or Counties)

An amended certificate may be filed by the community college board within 10 days of receipt of official notification from the county clerk of the multiplier that will be applied to assessed value of the taxable property of the district, provided such multiplier will alter the amount of revenue received by the district from either local or State sources.

A failure by the board to file the certificate with the county clerk in the time required shall not vitiate the assessment.

(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 295. The Nursing Education Scholarship Law is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(110 ILCS 975/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 2753)

Sec. 3. Definitions. The following terms, whenever used or referred to, have the following meanings except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

(1) "Board" means the Board of Higher Education created by the Board of Higher Education Act.

(2) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(3) "Approved institution" means a public community college, private junior college, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, or public or private college or university with a pre-licensure nursing education program located in this State that has approval by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in a practical nursing program or a post-licensure nursing education program approved by the Illinois Board of Higher Education or any successor agency with similar authority.

(4) "Baccalaureate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a bachelor of science degree in nursing.

(5) "Enrollment" means the establishment and maintenance of an individual's status as a student in an approved institution, regardless of the terms used at the institution to describe such status.

(6) "Academic year" means the period of time from September 1 of one year through August 31 of the next year or as otherwise defined by the academic institution.

(7) "Associate degree in nursing program or hospital-based diploma in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to an associate degree in nursing, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing, or hospital-based diploma in nursing.

(8) "Graduate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a master of science degree in nursing or a doctorate of philosophy or doctorate of nursing degree in nursing.

(9) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(10) "Accepted for admission" means a student has completed the requirements for entry into an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program at an approved institution, as documented by the institution.

(11) "Fees" means those mandatory charges, in addition to tuition, that all enrolled students must pay, including required course or lab fees.

(12) "Full-time student" means a student enrolled for at least 12 hours per term or as otherwise determined by the academic institution.

(13) "Law" means the Nursing Education Scholarship Law.

(14) "Nursing employment obligation" means employment in this State as a registered professional nurse, licensed practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse in direct patient care for at least one year for each year of scholarship assistance received through the Nursing Education Scholarship Program.

(15) "Part-time student" means a person who is enrolled for at least one-third of the number of hours required per term by a school for its full-time students.

(16) "Practical nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution leading to a certificate in practical nursing.

(17) "Registered professional nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered professional nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act.

(18) "Licensed practical nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a licensed practical nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act.

(19) "School term" means an academic term, such as a semester, quarter, trimester, or number of clock hours, as defined by an approved institution.

(20) "Student in good standing" means a student maintaining a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least the academic grade of a "C".

(21) "Total and permanent disability" means a physical or mental impairment, disease, or loss of a permanent nature that prevents nursing employment with or without reasonable accommodation. Proof of disability shall be a declaration from the social security administration, Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, Department of Defense, or an insurer authorized to transact business in Illinois who is providing disability insurance coverage to a contractor.

(22) "Tuition" means the established charges of an institution of higher learning for instruction at that institution.

(23) "Nurse educator" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act, who has a graduate degree in nursing, and who is employed by an approved academic institution to educate registered nursing students, licensed practical nursing students, and registered nurses pursuing graduate degrees.

(24) "Nurse educator employment obligation" means employment in this State as a nurse educator for at least 2 years for each year of scholarship assistance received under Section 6.5 of this Law.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 96-805 this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 100-183, eff. 8-18-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-22-17.)

Section 300. The Student Loan Servicing Rights Act is amended by changing Section 20-50 as follows:

(110 ILCS 992/20-50)

(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a delayed effective date)

Sec. 20-50. Confidentiality.

(a) In order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, except as otherwise provided in federal Public Law 110-289, Section 1512, the requirements under any federal law or State law regarding the privacy or confidentiality of any information or material provided to the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, and any privilege arising under federal or State law, including the rules of any federal or State court, with respect to such information or material, shall continue to apply to information or material after the information or material has been disclosed to the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry. The information and material may be shared with all State and federal regulatory officials with student loan industry oversight authority without the loss of privilege or the loss of confidentiality protections provided by federal law or State law.

(b) In order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, the Secretary is authorized to enter into agreements or sharing arrangements with other governmental agencies, the Conference of State Bank Supervisors or other associations representing governmental agencies as established by rule, regulation, or order of the Secretary. The sharing of confidential supervisory information or any information or material described in subsection (a) of this Section pursuant to an agreement or sharing arrangement shall not result in the loss of privilege or the loss of confidentiality protections provided by federal law or State law.

(c) In order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, information or material that is subject to a privilege or confidentiality under subsection (a) of this Section shall not be subject to the following:

(1) disclosure under any State law governing the disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an agency of the State; or

(2) subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any private civil action or administrative process, unless with respect to any privilege held by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry with respect to the information or material, the person to whom such information or material pertains waives, in whole or in part, in the discretion of that person, that privilege.

(d) In order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, any other law relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information or any information or material described in subsection (a) of this Section that is inconsistent with subsection (a) of this Section shall be superseded by the requirements of this Section to the extent the other law provides less confidentiality or a weaker privilege.

(Source: P.A. 100-540, eff. 12-31-18; revised 12-14-17.)

Section 305. The Illinois Banking Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 48.3 as follows:

(205 ILCS 5/5) (from Ch. 17, par. 311)

Sec. 5. General corporate powers. A bank organized under this Act or subject hereto shall be a body corporate and politic and shall, without specific mention thereof in the charter, have all the powers conferred by this Act and the following additional general corporate powers:

(1) To sue and be sued, complain, and defend in its corporate name.

(2) To have a corporate seal, which may be altered at pleasure, and to use the same by causing it or a facsimile thereof to be impressed or affixed or in any manner reproduced, provided that the affixing of a corporate seal to an instrument shall not give the instrument additional force or effect, or change the construction thereof, and the use of a corporate seal is not mandatory.

(3) To make, alter, amend, and repeal bylaws, not inconsistent with its charter or with law, for the administration of the affairs of the bank. If this Act does not provide specific guidance in matters of corporate governance, the provisions of the Business Corporation Act of 1983 may be used if so provided in the bylaws, and if the bank is a limited liability company, the provisions of the Limited Liability Company Act shall be used.

(4) To elect or appoint and remove officers and agents of the bank and define their duties and fix their compensation.

(5) To adopt and operate reasonable bonus plans, profit-sharing plans, stock-bonus plans, stock-option plans, pension plans, and similar incentive plans for its directors, officers and employees.

(5.1) To manage, operate, and administer a fund for the investment of funds by a public agency or agencies, including any unit of local government or school district, or any person. The fund for a public agency shall invest in the same type of investments and be subject to the same limitations provided for the investment of public funds. The fund for public agencies shall maintain a separate ledger showing the amount of investment for each public agency in the fund. "Public funds" and "public agency" as used in this Section shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 1 of the Public Funds Investment Act.

(6) To make reasonable donations for the public welfare or for charitable, scientific, religious or educational purposes.

(7) To borrow or incur an obligation; and to pledge its assets:

(a) to secure its borrowings, its lease of personal or real property or its other nondeposit obligations;

(b) to enable it to act as agent for the sale of obligations of the United States;

(c) to secure deposits of public money of the United States, whenever required by the laws of the United States, including, without being limited to, revenues and funds the deposit of which is subject to the control or regulation of the United States or any of its officers, agents, or employees and Postal Savings funds;

(d) to secure deposits of public money of any state or of any political corporation or subdivision thereof, including, without being limited to, revenues and funds the deposit of which is subject to the control or regulation of any state or of any political corporation or subdivisions thereof or of any of their officers, agents, or employees;

(e) to secure deposits of money whenever required by the National Bankruptcy Act;

(f) (blank); and

(g) to secure trust funds commingled with the bank's funds, whether deposited by the bank or an affiliate of the bank, pursuant to Section 2-8 of the Corporate Fiduciary Act.

(8) To own, possess, and carry as assets all or part of the real estate necessary in or with which to do its banking business, either directly or indirectly through the ownership of all or part of the capital stock, shares or interests in any corporation, association, trust engaged in holding any part or parts or all of the bank premises, engaged in such business and in conducting a safe deposit business in the premises or part of them, or engaged in any activity that the bank is permitted to conduct in a subsidiary pursuant to paragraph (12) of this Section 5.

(9) To own, possess, and carry as assets other real estate to which it may obtain title in the collection of its debts or that was formerly used as a part of the bank premises, but title to any real estate except as herein permitted shall not be retained by the bank, either directly or by or through a subsidiary, as permitted by subsection (12) of this Section for a total period of more than 10 years after acquiring title, either directly or indirectly.

(10) To do any act, including the acquisition of stock, necessary to obtain insurance of its deposits, or part thereof, and any act necessary to obtain a guaranty, in whole or in part, of any of its loans or investments by the United States or any agency thereof, and any act necessary to sell or otherwise dispose of any of its loans or investments to the United States or any agency thereof, and to acquire and hold membership in the Federal Reserve System.

(11) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act or any other law, to do any act and to own, possess, and carry as assets property of the character, including stock, that is at the time authorized or permitted to national banks by an Act of Congress, but subject always to the same limitations and restrictions as are applicable to national banks by the pertinent federal law and subject to applicable provisions of the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law.

(12) To own, possess, and carry as assets stock of one or more corporations that is, or are, engaged in one or more of the following businesses:

(a) holding title to and administering assets acquired as a result of the collection or liquidating of loans, investments, or discounts; or

(b) holding title to and administering personal property acquired by the bank, directly or indirectly through a subsidiary, for the purpose of leasing to others, provided the lease or leases and the investment of the bank, directly or through a subsidiary, in that personal property otherwise comply with Section 35.1 of this Act; or

(c) carrying on or administering any of the activities excepting the receipt of deposits or the payment of checks or other orders for the payment of money in which a bank may engage in carrying on its general banking business; provided, however, that nothing contained in this paragraph (c) shall be deemed to permit a bank organized under this Act or subject hereto to do, either directly or indirectly through any subsidiary, any act, including the making of any loan or investment, or to own, possess, or carry as assets any property that if done by or owned, possessed, or carried by the State bank would be in violation of or prohibited by any provision of this Act.

The provisions of this subsection (12) shall not apply to and shall not be deemed to limit the powers of a State bank with respect to the ownership, possession, and carrying of stock that a State bank is permitted to own, possess, or carry under this Act.

Any bank intending to establish a subsidiary under this subsection (12) shall give written notice to the Commissioner 60 days prior to the subsidiary's commencing of business or, as the case may be, prior to acquiring stock in a corporation that has already commenced business. After receiving the notice, the Commissioner may waive or reduce the balance of the 60-day 60 day notice period. The Commissioner may specify the form of the notice, may designate the types of subsidiaries not subject to this notice requirement, and may promulgate rules and regulations to administer this subsection (12).

(13) To accept for payment at a future date not exceeding one year from the date of acceptance, drafts drawn upon it by its customers; and to issue, advise, or confirm letters of credit authorizing the holders thereof to draw drafts upon it or its correspondents.

(14) To own and lease personal property acquired by the bank at the request of a prospective lessee and upon the agreement of that person to lease the personal property provided that the lease, the agreement with respect thereto, and the amount of the investment of the bank in the property comply with Section 35.1 of this Act.

(15)(a) To establish and maintain, in addition to the main banking premises, branches offering any banking services permitted at the main banking premises of a State bank.

(b) To establish and maintain, after May 31, 1997, branches in another state that may conduct any activity in that state that is authorized or permitted for any bank that has a banking charter issued by that state, subject to the same limitations and restrictions that are applicable to banks chartered by that state.

(16) (Blank).

(17) To establish and maintain terminals, as authorized by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act.

(18) To establish and maintain temporary service booths at any International Fair held in this State which is approved by the United States Department of Commerce, for the duration of the international fair for the sole purpose of providing a convenient place for foreign trade customers at the fair to exchange their home countries' currency into United States currency or the converse. This power shall not be construed as establishing a new place or change of location for the bank providing the service booth.

(19) To indemnify its officers, directors, employees, and agents, as authorized for corporations under Section 8.75 of the Business Corporation Act of 1983.

(20) To own, possess, and carry as assets stock of, or be or become a member of, any corporation, mutual company, association, trust, or other entity formed exclusively for the purpose of providing directors' and officers' liability and bankers' blanket bond insurance or reinsurance to and for the benefit of the stockholders, members, or beneficiaries, or their assets or businesses, or their officers, directors, employees, or agents, and not to or for the benefit of any other person or entity or the public generally.

(21) To make debt or equity investments in corporations or projects, whether for profit or not for profit, designed to promote the development of the community and its welfare, provided that the aggregate investment in all of these corporations and in all of these projects does not exceed 10% of the unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus of the bank and provided that this limitation shall not apply to creditworthy loans by the bank to those corporations or projects. Upon written application to the Commissioner, a bank may make an investment that would, when aggregated with all other such investments, exceed 10% of the unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus of the bank. The Commissioner may approve the investment if he is of the opinion and finds that the proposed investment will not have a material adverse effect on the safety and soundness of the bank.

(22) To own, possess, and carry as assets the stock of a corporation engaged in the ownership or operation of a travel agency or to operate a travel agency as a part of its business.

(23) With respect to affiliate facilities:

(a) to conduct at affiliate facilities for and on behalf of another commonly owned bank, if so authorized by the other bank, all transactions that the other bank is authorized or permitted to perform; and

(b) to authorize a commonly owned bank to conduct for and on behalf of it any of the transactions it is authorized or permitted to perform at one or more affiliate facilities.

Any bank intending to conduct or to authorize a commonly owned bank to conduct at an affiliate facility any of the transactions specified in this paragraph (23) shall give written notice to the Commissioner at least 30 days before any such transaction is conducted at the affiliate facility.

(24) To act as the agent for any fire, life, or other insurance company authorized by the State of Illinois, by soliciting and selling insurance and collecting premiums on policies issued by such company; and to receive for services so rendered such fees or commissions as may be agreed upon between the bank and the insurance company for which it may act as agent; provided, however, that no such bank shall in any case assume or guarantee the payment of any premium on insurance policies issued through its agency by its principal; and provided further, that the bank shall not guarantee the truth of any statement made by an assured in filing his application for insurance.

(25) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act or any other law, to offer any product or service that is at the time authorized or permitted to any insured savings association or out-of-state bank by applicable law, provided that powers conferred only by this subsection (25):

(a) shall always be subject to the same limitations and restrictions that are applicable to the insured savings association or out-of-state bank for the product or service by such applicable law;

(b) shall be subject to applicable provisions of the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law;

(c) shall not include the right to own or conduct a real estate brokerage business for which a license would be required under the laws of this State; and

(d) shall not be construed to include the establishment or maintenance of a branch, nor shall they be construed to limit the establishment or maintenance of a branch pursuant to subsection (11).

Not less than 30 days before engaging in any activity under the authority of this subsection, a bank shall provide written notice to the Commissioner of its intent to engage in the activity. The notice shall indicate the specific federal or state law, rule, regulation, or interpretation the bank intends to use as authority to engage in the activity.

(26) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require the filing of a notice or application for approval with the United States Office of the Comptroller of the Currency or a bank supervisor of another state as a condition to the right of a State bank to exercise any of the powers conferred by this Section in this State.

(Source: P.A. 98-44, eff. 6-28-13; 99-362, eff. 8-13-15; revised 10-5-17.)

(205 ILCS 5/48.3) (from Ch. 17, par. 360.2)

Sec. 48.3. Disclosure of reports of examinations and confidential supervisory information; limitations.

(a) Any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the Secretary under this Act, the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, the Corporate Fiduciary Act, the Illinois Bank Holding Company Act of 1957, and the Foreign Banking Office Act, any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the state regulatory authority of another state that examines a branch of an Illinois State bank in that state, any document or record prepared or obtained in connection with or relating to any examination, visitation, or investigation, and any record prepared or obtained by the Secretary to the extent that the record summarizes or contains information derived from any report, document, or record described in this subsection shall be deemed "confidential supervisory information". Confidential supervisory information shall not include any information or record routinely prepared by a bank or other financial institution and maintained in the ordinary course of business or any information or record that is required to be made publicly available pursuant to State or federal law or rule. Confidential supervisory information shall be the property of the Secretary and shall only be disclosed under the circumstances and for the purposes set forth in this Section.

The Secretary may disclose confidential supervisory information only under the following circumstances:

(1) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the federal reserve bank of the federal reserve district in which the State bank is located or in which the parent or other affiliate of the State bank is located, any official or examiner thereof duly accredited for the purpose, or any other state regulator, federal regulator, or in the case of a foreign bank possessing a certificate of authority pursuant to the Foreign Banking Office Act or a license pursuant to the Foreign Bank Representative Office Act, the bank regulator in the country where the foreign bank is chartered, that the Secretary determines to have an appropriate regulatory interest. Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to limit the obligation of any member State bank to comply with the requirements relative to examinations and reports of the Federal Reserve Act and of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or the federal reserve bank of the federal reserve district in which the bank is located, nor to limit in any way the powers of the Secretary with reference to examinations and reports.

(2) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to the United States, any agency thereof that has insured a bank's deposits in whole or in part, or any official or examiner thereof duly accredited for the purpose. Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to limit the obligation relative to examinations and reports of any State bank, deposits in which are to any extent insured by the United States, any agency thereof, nor to limit in any way the powers of the Secretary with reference to examination and reports of such bank.

(2.5) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to a Federal Home Loan Bank in connection with any bank that is a member of the Federal Home Loan Bank or in connection with any application by the bank before the Federal Home Loan Bank. The confidential supervisory information shall remain the property of the Secretary and may not be further disclosed without the Secretary's permission.

(3) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities when the Secretary reasonably believes a bank, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, has been a victim of a crime.

(4) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to a bank or other financial institution, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, to be sent to the administrator of the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(5) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to a bank or other financial institution, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, relating to its performance of obligations under the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act to the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(6) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to a bank or other financial institution, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, under the federal Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act, Title 31, United States Code, Section 1051 et seq.

(6.5) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to any other agency or entity that the Secretary determines to have a legitimate regulatory interest.

(7) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information under any other statute that by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order.

(8) At the request of the affected bank or other financial institution, the Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to a bank or other financial institution, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, in connection with the obtaining of insurance coverage or the pursuit of an insurance claim for or on behalf of the bank or other financial institution; provided that, when possible, the Secretary shall disclose only relevant information while maintaining the confidentiality of financial records not relevant to such insurance coverage or claim and, when appropriate, may delete identifying data relating to any person or individual.

(9) The Secretary may furnish a copy of a report of any examination performed by the Secretary of the condition and affairs of any electronic data processing entity to the banks serviced by the electronic data processing entity.

(10) In addition to the foregoing circumstances, the Secretary may, but is not required to, furnish confidential supervisory information under the same circumstances authorized for the bank or financial institution pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, except that the Secretary shall provide confidential supervisory information under circumstances described in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section only upon the request of the bank or other financial institution.

(b) A bank or other financial institution or its officers, agents, and employees may disclose confidential supervisory information only under the following circumstances:

(1) to the board of directors of the bank or other financial institution, as well as the president, vice-president, cashier, and other officers of the bank or other financial institution to whom the board of directors may delegate duties with respect to compliance with recommendations for action, and to the board of directors of a bank holding company that owns at least 80% of the outstanding stock of the bank or other financial institution;

(2) to attorneys for the bank or other financial institution and to a certified public accountant engaged by the State bank or financial institution to perform an independent audit provided that the attorney or certified public accountant shall not permit the confidential supervisory information to be further disseminated;

(3) to any person who seeks to acquire a controlling interest in, or who seeks to merge with, the bank or financial institution, provided that all attorneys, certified public accountants, officers, agents, or employees of that person shall agree to be bound to respect the confidentiality of the confidential supervisory information and to not further disseminate the information therein contained;

(3.5) to a Federal Home Loan Bank of which it is a member;

(4) (blank); or

(5) to the bank's insurance company in relation to an insurance claim or the effort by the bank to procure insurance coverage, provided that, when possible, the bank shall disclose only information that is relevant to the insurance claim or that is necessary to procure the insurance coverage, while maintaining the confidentiality of financial information pertaining to customers. When appropriate, the bank may delete identifying data relating to any person.

The disclosure of confidential supervisory information by a bank or other financial institution pursuant to this subsection (b) and the disclosure of information to the Secretary or other regulatory agency in connection with any examination, visitation, or investigation shall not constitute a waiver of any legal privilege otherwise available to the bank or other financial institution with respect to the information.

(c) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other law, confidential supervisory information shall be the property of the Secretary and shall be privileged from disclosure to any person except as provided in this Section. No person in possession of confidential supervisory information may disclose that information for any reason or under any circumstances not specified in this Section without the prior authorization of the Secretary. Any person upon whom a demand for production of confidential supervisory information is made, whether by subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process, must withhold production of the confidential supervisory information and must notify the Secretary of the demand, at which time the Secretary is authorized to intervene for the purpose of enforcing the limitations of this Section or seeking the withdrawal or termination of the attempt to compel production of the confidential supervisory information.

(2) Any request for discovery or disclosure of confidential supervisory information, whether by subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process, shall be made to the Secretary, and the Secretary shall determine within 15 days whether to disclose the information pursuant to procedures and standards that the Secretary shall establish by rule. If the Secretary determines that such information will not be disclosed, the Secretary's decision shall be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and venue shall be in either Sangamon County or Cook County.

(3) Any court order that compels disclosure of confidential supervisory information may be immediately appealed by the Secretary, and the order shall be automatically stayed pending the outcome of the appeal.

(d) If any officer, agent, attorney, or employee of a bank or financial institution knowingly and willfully furnishes confidential supervisory information in violation of this Section, the Secretary may impose a civil monetary penalty up to $1,000 for the violation against the officer, agent, attorney, or employee.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff 1-1-18; 100-64, eff. 8-11-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 310. The Savings Bank Act is amended by changing Section 9012 as follows:

(205 ILCS 205/9012) (from Ch. 17, par. 7309-12)

Sec. 9012. Disclosure of reports of examinations and confidential supervisory information; limitations.

(a) Any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the Secretary under this Act, any report of examination, visitation, or investigation prepared by the state regulatory authority of another state that examines a branch of an Illinois State savings bank in that state, any document or record prepared or obtained in connection with or relating to any examination, visitation, or investigation, and any record prepared or obtained by the Secretary to the extent that the record summarizes or contains information derived from any report, document, or record described in this subsection shall be deemed confidential supervisory information. "Confidential supervisory information" shall not include any information or record routinely prepared by a savings bank and maintained in the ordinary course of business or any information or record that is required to be made publicly available pursuant to State or federal law or rule. Confidential supervisory information shall be the property of the Secretary and shall only be disclosed under the circumstances and for the purposes set forth in this Section.

The Secretary may disclose confidential supervisory information only under the following circumstances:

(1) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to federal and state depository institution regulators, or any official or examiner thereof duly accredited for the purpose. Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to limit the obligation of any savings bank to comply with the requirements relative to examinations and reports nor to limit in any way the powers of the Secretary relative to examinations and reports.

(2) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to the United States or any agency thereof that to any extent has insured a savings bank's deposits, or any official or examiner thereof duly accredited for the purpose. Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to limit the obligation relative to examinations and reports of any savings bank in which deposits are to any extent insured by the United States or any agency thereof nor to limit in any way the powers of the Secretary with reference to examination and reports of the savings bank.

(2.5) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to a Federal Home Loan Bank in connection with any savings bank that is a member of the Federal Home Loan Bank or in connection with any application by the savings bank before the Federal Home Loan Bank. The confidential supervisory information shall remain the property of the Secretary and may not be further disclosed without the Secretary's permission.

(3) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to the appropriate law enforcement authorities when the Secretary reasonably believes a savings bank, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, has been a victim of a crime.

(4) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information related to a savings bank, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, to the administrator of the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act.

(5) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to a savings bank, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, relating to its performance of obligations under the Illinois Income Tax Act and the Illinois Estate and Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Act to the Illinois Department of Revenue.

(6) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to a savings bank, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, under the federal Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act, 31 United States Code, Section 1051 et seq.

(7) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information to any other agency or entity that the Secretary determines to have a legitimate regulatory interest.

(8) The Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information as otherwise permitted or required by this Act and may furnish confidential supervisory information under any other statute that by its terms or by regulations promulgated thereunder requires the disclosure of financial records other than by subpoena, summons, warrant, or court order.

(9) At the request of the affected savings bank, the Secretary may furnish confidential supervisory information relating to the savings bank, which the Secretary has caused to be examined, in connection with the obtaining of insurance coverage or the pursuit of an insurance claim for or on behalf of the savings bank; provided that, when possible, the Secretary shall disclose only relevant information while maintaining the confidentiality of financial records not relevant to such insurance coverage or claim and, when appropriate, may delete identifying data relating to any person.

(10) The Secretary may furnish a copy of a report of any examination performed by the Secretary of the condition and affairs of any electronic data processing entity to the savings banks serviced by the electronic data processing entity.

(11) In addition to the foregoing circumstances, the Secretary may, but is not required to, furnish confidential supervisory information under the same circumstances authorized for the savings bank pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section, except that the Secretary shall provide confidential supervisory information under circumstances described in paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section only upon the request of the savings bank.

(b) A savings bank or its officers, agents, and employees may disclose confidential supervisory information only under the following circumstances:

(1) to the board of directors of the savings bank, as well as the president, vice-president, cashier, and other officers of the savings bank to whom the board of directors may delegate duties with respect to compliance with recommendations for action, and to the board of directors of a savings bank holding company that owns at least 80% of the outstanding stock of the savings bank or other financial institution.

(2) to attorneys for the savings bank and to a certified public accountant engaged by the savings bank to perform an independent audit; provided that the attorney or certified public accountant shall not permit the confidential supervisory information to be further disseminated.

(3) to any person who seeks to acquire a controlling interest in, or who seeks to merge with, the savings bank; provided that the person shall agree to be bound to respect the confidentiality of the confidential supervisory information and to not further disseminate the information other than to attorneys, certified public accountants, officers, agents, or employees of that person who likewise shall agree to be bound to respect the confidentiality of the confidential supervisory information and to not further disseminate the information.

(4) to the savings bank's insurance company, if the supervisory information contains information that is otherwise unavailable and is strictly necessary to obtaining insurance coverage or pursuing an insurance claim for or on behalf of the savings bank; provided that, when possible, the savings bank shall disclose only information that is relevant to obtaining insurance coverage or pursuing an insurance claim, while maintaining the confidentiality of financial information pertaining to customers; and provided further that, when appropriate, the savings bank may delete identifying data relating to any person.

(5) to a Federal Home Loan Bank of which it is a member.

The disclosure of confidential supervisory information by a savings bank pursuant to this subsection (b) and the disclosure of information to the Secretary or other regulatory agency in connection with any examination, visitation, or investigation shall not constitute a waiver of any legal privilege otherwise available to the savings bank with respect to the information.

(c) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any other law, confidential supervisory information shall be the property of the Secretary and shall be privileged from disclosure to any person except as provided in this Section. No person in possession of confidential supervisory information may disclose that information for any reason or under any circumstances not specified in this Section without the prior authorization of the Secretary. Any person upon whom a demand for production of confidential supervisory information is made, whether by subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process, must withhold production of the confidential supervisory information and must notify the Secretary of the demand, at which time the Secretary is authorized to intervene for the purpose of enforcing the limitations of this Section or seeking the withdrawal or termination of the attempt to compel production of the confidential supervisory information.

(2) Any request for discovery or disclosure of confidential supervisory information, whether by subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process, shall be made to the Secretary, and the Secretary shall determine within 15 days whether to disclose the information pursuant to procedures and standards that the Secretary shall establish by rule. If the Secretary determines that such information will not be disclosed, the Secretary's decision shall be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and venue shall be in either Sangamon County or Cook County.

(3) Any court order that compels disclosure of confidential supervisory information may be immediately appealed by the Secretary, and the order shall be automatically stayed pending the outcome of the appeal.

(d) If any officer, agent, attorney, or employee of a savings bank knowingly and willfully furnishes confidential supervisory information in violation of this Section, the Secretary may impose a civil monetary penalty up to $1,000 for the violation against the officer, agent, attorney, or employee.

(e) Subject to the limits of this Section, the Secretary also may promulgate regulations to set procedures and standards for disclosure of the following items:

(1) All fixed orders and opinions made in cases of appeals of the Secretary's actions.

(2) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the Secretary's office, but not otherwise made public.

(3) Nonconfidential portions of application files, including applications for new charters. The Secretary shall specify by rule as to what part of the files are confidential.

(4) Quarterly reports of income, deposits, and financial condition.

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-64, eff. 8-11-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 315. The Corporate Fiduciary Act is amended by changing Section 2-1 as follows:

(205 ILCS 620/2-1) (from Ch. 17, par. 1552-1)

Sec. 2-1. (a) Any corporation which has been or shall be incorporated under the general corporation laws of this State for the purpose of accepting and executing trusts, and any state bank, state savings and loan association, state savings bank, or other special corporation now or hereafter authorized by law to accept or execute trusts, may be appointed to act as a fiduciary in any capacity a natural person or corporation may act, and shall include, but not be limited to, acting as assignee or trustee by deed, and executor, guardian or trustee by will, custodian under the Illinois Uniform Transfers Transfer to Minors Act and such appointment shall be of like force as in case of appointment of a natural person and shall be designated a corporate fiduciary.

(b) No corporate fiduciary shall dissolve or cease its corporate existence without prior notice to and approval by the Commissioner and compliance with the requirements of Section 7-1 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-754; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 320. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 3-8 and 4-10 as follows:

(205 ILCS 635/3-8) (from Ch. 17, par. 2323-8)

Sec. 3-8. Discrimination and redlining prohibited. (a) It shall be considered discriminatory to refuse to grant loans or to vary the terms of loans or the application procedures for loans because of:

(i) in the case of the proposed borrower, said borrower's race, color, religion, national origin, age, gender or marital status; or

(ii) in the case of a mortgage loan, solely the geographic location of the proposed security.

(Source: P.A. 85-735; revised 11-8-17.)

(205 ILCS 635/4-10) (from Ch. 17, par. 2324-10)

Sec. 4-10. Rules and regulations of the Commissioner.

(a) In addition to such powers as may be prescribed by this Act, the Commissioner is hereby authorized and empowered to promulgate regulations consistent with the purposes of this Act, including, but not limited to:

(1) such rules and regulations in connection with the activities of licensees as may be necessary and appropriate for the protection of consumers in this State;

(2) such rules and regulations as may be necessary and appropriate to define improper or fraudulent business practices in connection with the activities of licensees in making mortgage loans;

(3) such rules and regulations as may define the terms used in this Act and as may be necessary and appropriate to interpret and implement the provisions of this Act; and

(4) such rules and regulations as may be necessary for the enforcement of this Act.

(b) The Commissioner is hereby authorized and empowered to make such specific rulings, demands, and findings as he or she may deem necessary for the proper conduct of the mortgage lending industry.

(c) A person or entity may make a written application to the Department for a written interpretation of this Act. The Department may then, in its sole discretion, choose to issue a written interpretation. To be valid, a written interpretation must be signed by the Secretary, or his or her designated Director of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Department's General Counsel. A written interpretation expires 2 years after the date that it was issued.

(d) No provision in this Act that imposes liability or establishes violations shall apply to any act taken by a person or entity in conformity with a written interpretation of this Act that is in effect at the time the act is taken, notwithstanding whether the written interpretation is later amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial or other authority to be by invalid for any reason.

(Source: P.A. 95-691, eff. 6-1-08; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 325. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-206 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-206) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-206)

Sec. 3-206. The Department shall prescribe a curriculum for training nursing assistants, habilitation aides, and child care aides.

(a) No person, except a volunteer who receives no compensation from a facility and is not included for the purpose of meeting any staffing requirements set forth by the Department, shall act as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide in a facility, nor shall any person, under any other title, not licensed, certified, or registered to render medical care by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, assist with the personal, medical, or nursing care of residents in a facility, unless such person meets the following requirements:

(1) Be at least 16 years of age, of temperate habits and good moral character, honest, reliable and trustworthy.

(2) Be able to speak and understand the English language or a language understood by a substantial percentage of the facility's residents.

(3) Provide evidence of employment or occupation, if any, and residence for 2 years prior to his present employment.

(4) Have completed at least 8 years of grade school or provide proof of equivalent knowledge.

(5) Begin a current course of training for nursing assistants, habilitation aides, or child care aides, approved by the Department, within 45 days of initial employment in the capacity of a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide at any facility. Such courses of training shall be successfully completed within 120 days of initial employment in the capacity of nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide at a facility. Nursing assistants, habilitation aides, and child care aides who are enrolled in approved courses in community colleges or other educational institutions on a term, semester or trimester basis, shall be exempt from the 120-day 120 day completion time limit. The Department shall adopt rules for such courses of training. These rules shall include procedures for facilities to carry on an approved course of training within the facility. The Department shall allow an individual to satisfy the supervised clinical experience requirement for placement on the Health Care Worker Registry under 77 Ill. Adm. Code 300.663 through supervised clinical experience at an assisted living establishment licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act. The Department shall adopt rules requiring that the Health Care Worker Registry include information identifying where an individual on the Health Care Worker Registry received his or her clinical training.

The Department may accept comparable training in lieu of the 120-hour 120 hour course for student nurses, foreign nurses, military personnel, or employees employes of the Department of Human Services.

The facility shall develop and implement procedures, which shall be approved by the Department, for an ongoing review process, which shall take place within the facility, for nursing assistants, habilitation aides, and child care aides.

At the time of each regularly scheduled licensure survey, or at the time of a complaint investigation, the Department may require any nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide to demonstrate, either through written examination or action, or both, sufficient knowledge in all areas of required training. If such knowledge is inadequate the Department shall require the nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide to complete inservice training and review in the facility until the nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide demonstrates to the Department, either through written examination or action, or both, sufficient knowledge in all areas of required training.

(6) Be familiar with and have general skills related to resident care.

(a-0.5) An educational entity, other than a secondary school, conducting a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide training program shall initiate a criminal history record check in accordance with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act prior to entry of an individual into the training program. A secondary school may initiate a criminal history record check in accordance with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act at any time during or after a training program.

(a-1) Nursing assistants, habilitation aides, or child care aides seeking to be included on the Health Care Worker Registry under the Health Care Worker Background Check Act on or after January 1, 1996 must authorize the Department of Public Health or its designee to request a criminal history record check in accordance with the Health Care Worker Background Check Act and submit all necessary information. An individual may not newly be included on the Health Care Worker Registry unless a criminal history record check has been conducted with respect to the individual.

(b) Persons subject to this Section shall perform their duties under the supervision of a licensed nurse.

(c) It is unlawful for any facility to employ any person in the capacity of nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide, or under any other title, not licensed by the State of Illinois to assist in the personal, medical, or nursing care of residents in such facility unless such person has complied with this Section.

(d) Proof of compliance by each employee with the requirements set out in this Section shall be maintained for each such employee by each facility in the individual personnel folder of the employee. Proof of training shall be obtained only from the Health Care Worker Registry.

(e) Each facility shall obtain access to the Health Care Worker Registry's web application, maintain the employment and demographic information relating to each employee, and verify by the category and type of employment that each employee subject to this Section meets all the requirements of this Section.

(f) Any facility that is operated under Section 3-803 shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(g) Each skilled nursing and intermediate care facility that admits persons who are diagnosed as having Alzheimer's disease or related dementias shall require all nursing assistants, habilitation aides, or child care aides, who did not receive 12 hours of training in the care and treatment of such residents during the training required under paragraph (5) of subsection (a), to obtain 12 hours of in-house training in the care and treatment of such residents. If the facility does not provide the training in-house, the training shall be obtained from other facilities, community colleges or other educational institutions that have a recognized course for such training. The Department shall, by rule, establish a recognized course for such training. The Department's rules shall provide that such training may be conducted in-house at each facility subject to the requirements of this subsection, in which case such training shall be monitored by the Department.

The Department's rules shall also provide for circumstances and procedures whereby any person who has received training that meets the requirements of this subsection shall not be required to undergo additional training if he or she is transferred to or obtains employment at a different facility or a facility other than a long-term care facility but remains continuously employed for pay as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide. Individuals who have performed no nursing or nursing-related services for a period of 24 consecutive months shall be listed as "inactive" and as such do not meet the requirements of this Section. Licensed sheltered care facilities shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-297, eff. 8-24-17; 100-432, eff. 8-25-17; revised 1-22-18.)

Section 330. The Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(210 ILCS 135/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1704)

Sec. 4. (a) Any community mental health or developmental services agency who wishes to develop and support a variety of community-integrated living arrangements may do so pursuant to a license issued by the Department under this Act. However, programs established under or otherwise subject to the Child Care Act of 1969, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, as now or hereafter amended, shall remain subject thereto, and this Act shall not be construed to limit the application of those Acts.

(b) The system of licensure established under this Act shall be for the purposes of:

(1) ensuring Insuring that all recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) ensuring Insuring that recipients' rights are protected and that all programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations;

(3) maintaining Maintaining the integrity of communities by requiring regular monitoring and inspection of placements and other services provided in community-integrated living arrangements.

The licensure system shall be administered by a quality assurance unit within the Department which shall be administratively independent of units responsible for funding of agencies or community services.

(c) As a condition of being licensed by the Department as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, the agency shall certify to the Department that:

(1) all All recipients residing in community-integrated living arrangements are receiving appropriate community-based services, including treatment, training and habilitation or rehabilitation;

(2) all All programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients are supervised by the agency; and

(3) all All programs provided to and placements arranged for recipients comply with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations.

(d) An applicant for licensure as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act shall submit an application pursuant to the application process established by the Department by rule and shall pay an application fee in an amount established by the Department, which amount shall not be more than $200.

(e) If an applicant meets the requirements established by the Department to be licensed as a community mental health or developmental services agency under this Act, after payment of the licensing fee, the Department shall issue a license valid for 3 years from the date thereof unless suspended or revoked by the Department or voluntarily surrendered by the agency.

(f) Upon application to the Department, the Department may issue a temporary permit to an applicant for up to a 2-year period to allow the holder of such permit reasonable time to become eligible for a license under this Act.

(g)(1) The Department may conduct site visits to an agency licensed under this Act, or to any program or placement certified by the agency, and inspect the records or premises, or both, of such agency, program or placement as it deems appropriate, for the purpose of determining compliance with this Act, the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and applicable Department rules and regulations. The Department shall conduct inspections of the records and premises of each community-integrated living arrangement certified under this Act at least once every 2 years.

(2) If the Department determines that an agency licensed under this Act is not in compliance with this Act or the rules and regulations promulgated under this Act, the Department shall serve a notice of violation upon the licensee. Each notice of violation shall be prepared in writing and shall specify the nature of the violation, the statutory provision or rule alleged to have been violated, and that the licensee submit a plan of correction to the Department if required. The notice shall also inform the licensee of any other action which the Department might take pursuant to this Act and of the right to a hearing.

(g-5) As determined by the Department, a disproportionate number or percentage of licensure complaints; a disproportionate number or percentage of substantiated cases of abuse, neglect, or exploitation involving an agency; an apparent unnatural death of an individual served by an agency; any egregious or life-threatening abuse or neglect within an agency; or any other significant event as determined by the Department shall initiate a review of the agency's license by the Department, as well as a review of its service agreement for funding. The Department shall adopt rules to establish the process by which the determination to initiate a review shall be made and the timeframe to initiate a review upon the making of such determination.

(h) Upon the expiration of any license issued under this Act, a license renewal application shall be required of and a license renewal fee in an amount established by the Department shall be charged to a community mental health or developmental services agency, provided that such fee shall not be more than $200.

(i) A public or private agency, association, partnership, corporation, or organization that has had a license revoked under subsection (b) of Section 6 of this Act may not apply for or possess a license under a different name.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 100-58, eff. 8-11-17; 100-313, eff. 8-24-17; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 335. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Sections 15, 17, 21, 25, 27.1, 86, 123C-18, 155.57, 400.1, 429, 469, 512.63, 531.03, and 1563 and by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 356z.25 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/15) (from Ch. 73, par. 627)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 15. Documents to be delivered to Director by incorporators. Upon the execution of the articles of incorporation, there shall be delivered to the Director:

(a) duplicate originals of the articles of incorporation;

(b) a copy of the by-laws adopted by the incorporators;

(c) the form of subscription agreement to be used by the company;

(d) 2 two organization bonds or the cash or securities provided for in Section 16; and

(e) the form of escrow agreement for the deposit of cash or securities.

(Source: P.A. 84-502; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/17) (from Ch. 73, par. 629)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 17. Publication of intention.

(1) Upon complying with the provisions of Section 15, the incorporators shall cause to be published in a newspaper of general circulation in this State, in the county where the principal office of the company is to be located, once each week for 3 three consecutive weeks, a notice setting forth:

(a) their intent to form the company and the proposed name thereof;

(b) the class or classes of insurance business in which the company proposes to engage; and

(c) the address where its principal office shall be located.

(2) Proof of such publication made by a certificate of the publisher or his agent shall be delivered to the Director.

(Source: Laws 1937, p. 696; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/21) (from Ch. 73, par. 633)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 21. Subscription agreement.

(1) The company and each subscriber shall enter into an agreement for the subscription to the shares of the company and such agreement shall also constitute an agreement between the several subscribers. It shall state:

(a) the price of the shares, terms, time, and medium of payment therefor;

(b) the part of the price that may be used for commission, promotion, organization, and other expenses;

(c) the name of the bank or trust company in this State in which the funds or securities are to be deposited pending the completion of the organization of the company; and

(d) that the total cash or securities received in payment will be returned to the subscribers who have made such payments in the event the organization of the company is not completed.

(2) Subscriptions to shares shall be irrevocable unless subscribers representing 50% fifty per centum or more of the amount subscribed consent to the revocation.

(3) Any subscription agreement may provide for payment in installments but in the case of subscriptions prior to the issuance of a certificate of authority to the company, such installments shall not extend beyond 2 two years from the date of the permit of the Director authorizing the solicitation of subscriptions.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 3735; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/25) (from Ch. 73, par. 637)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 25. Voluntary surrender of the articles of incorporation. At any time prior to the issuance of the certificate of authority to the company the articles of incorporation may be voluntarily surrendered and the company dissolved by written agreement filed with the Director, signed by a majority of the incorporators, and by subscribers representing at least two-thirds of the shares subscribed. Such surrender and dissolution shall become effective only upon the approval thereof by the Director. The Director shall approve the surrender of such articles of incorporation if upon investigation he shall find that:

(a) no insurance business has been transacted by the company; .

(b) all sums of money or securities, if any, collected upon subscriptions, have been returned to the subscribers; and

(c) all obligations of the company have been paid or discharged.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 3735; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/27.1) (from Ch. 73, par. 639.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 27.1. Treasury shares.) "Treasury shares" means (a) shares of a company which have been issued, have been subsequently acquired by and belong to the company, and have not, either by reason of the acquisition or thereafter, been cancelled or restored to the status of authorized but unissued shares and (b) shares declared and paid as a share dividend on the shares referred to in clause (a) or this clause (b) of this Section. Treasury shares shall be deemed to be "issued" shares but not outstanding shares and shall not be voted. Shares converted into or exchanged for other shares of the company shall not be deemed to be treasury shares.

(Source: P.A. 84-502; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/86) (from Ch. 73, par. 698)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 86. Scope of Article.

(1) This Article applies to all groups including incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters transacting an insurance business in this State through an attorney-in-fact under the name Lloyds or under a Lloyds plan of operation. Groups that meet the requirements of subsection (3) are referred to in this Code as "Lloyds", and incorporated and individual unincorporated underwriters are referred to as "underwriters".

(2) As used in this Code:

"Domestic Lloyds" means a Lloyds having its home office in this State. ;

"Foreign Lloyds" means a Lloyds having its home office in any state of the United States other than this State. ; and

"Alien Lloyds" means a Lloyds having its home office or principal place of business in any country other than the United States.

(3) A domestic Lloyds must: (i) be established pursuant to a statute or written charter; (ii) provide for governance by a board of directors or similar body; and (iii) establish and monitor standards of solvency of its underwriters. A foreign or alien Lloyds must be subject to requirements of its state or country of domicile. Those requirements must be substantially similar to those required of domestic Lloyds. Domestic, foreign, and alien Lloyds shall not be subject to Section 144 of this Code.

(4) All foreign and alien entities and individuals transacting an insurance business as domestic, foreign, or alien Lloyds shall notify the Director and the Secretary of State under the provisions of this Article, shall be regulated exclusively by the Director, and shall not be required to obtain a certificate of authority from the Secretary of State pursuant to any other law of this State so long as they solely transact business as a domestic, foreign, or alien Lloyds. Upon notification, the Secretary of State may require submission of additional information to determine whether a foreign or alien individual or entity is transacting business solely as a domestic, foreign, or alien Lloyds.

(Source: P.A. 90-794, eff. 8-14-98; 91-593, eff. 8-14-99; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/123C-18) (from Ch. 73, par. 735C-18)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 123C-18. Additional powers, rights, and obligations. In addition to the powers and duties set forth in the other provisions of this Article VIIC and to the extent not inconsistent with the provisions of this Article VIIC:

A. The provisions of Article XXVI, subsection E of Section 123B-3, subsection A of Section 123B-4, subsection A of Section 123B-8, and Sections 2.1, 131.4 through 131.12, 131.20, 131.20a(2)( , except as otherwise provided by subsection B of Section 123C-12) Section 123C-12B, 131.22, 133, 141.1, 141.2, 144.1, 144.2, 147, 148, 149, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155, 186.1, 186.2, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 407, 407.1, 407.2, 4l2, 415 and subsections (1) and (3) of Section 441 shall apply to captive insurance companies and all those having dealings therewith.

B. The provisions of subsection (2) of Section 9, Section 11, subsection (2) of Section 12, and Sections 27.1, 28, 28.2, 28.2a, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, and 35 shall apply to stock captive insurance companies and all those having dealings therewith.

C. The provisions of subsection (2) of Section 39, Section 41, subsections (1) and (2) of Section 42, and Sections 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, and 60 shall apply to mutual captive insurance companies and all those having dealings therewith.

D. The Director and each captive insurance company and all those having dealings therewith shall have the authorities, powers, rights, duties and obligations set forth in Section 144 (excluding paragraph (f) of subsection (4) of Section 144); provided, however, that:

(i) subsection (1) of Section 144 shall not apply to pure captive insurance companies; and

(ii) the Director may exempt any association captive insurance company and any industrial insured captive insurance company from the requirements of subsection (1) of Section 144, on terms and conditions established by the Director, upon a showing by any such captive insurance company and a determination by the Director that the limitations of subsection (1) of Section 144 are not necessary to protect the interests of policyholders in light of such captive insurance company's financial condition and the nature of the risks insured by such company.

E. Nothing in this Article or Code shall be deemed to prohibit the by-laws of a captive insurance company from providing for the allocation of underwriting or investment income or loss to the respective accounts of its members, or to prohibit a captive insurance company, if its by-laws so provide and the requirements of this Article are otherwise met, from distributing to a withdrawing member, whether by way of ordinary or liquidating distributions and whether the withdrawal of such member is voluntary or otherwise, on terms and conditions set forth in the by-laws, that member's share of the company's surplus, as well as that portion of the underwriting and investment income allocated to such withdrawing member for the period that such withdrawing member was a member of the mutual company; provided that (i) no such distribution may be made except out of earned, as distinguished from contributed, surplus, (ii) no such distribution shall be made if the surplus of the captive insurance company is less than the original surplus required for the kind or kinds of business authorized to be transacted by such company, or if the payment of such distribution would reduce its surplus to less than the minimum, and (iii) no such distribution shall be made without the approval of the Director if such distribution, together with other such distributions made within the period of 12 consecutive months ending on the date on which the proposed distribution is scheduled for payment or distribution, exceeds the greater of: (i) 10% of the company's surplus as regards policyholders as of the 31st day of December next preceding, or (ii) the net income of the company for the 12-month 12 month period ending the 31st day of December next preceding. For the purposes of this subsection, net income includes net realized capital gains in an amount not to exceed 20% of net unrealized capital gains. The right of a member of a captive insurance company to receive distributions under this Section shall be included within the provisions of paragraph (i) of subsection (1) of Section 205 in the event of liquidation or dissolution of such captive insurance company.

(Source: P.A. 88-297; 89-206, eff. 7-21-95; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/155.57) (from Ch. 73, par. 767.57)

Sec. 155.57. Filing, approval, and withdrawal of forms.)

(a) All policies, certificates of insurance, notices of proposed insurance, applications for insurance, endorsements, and riders delivered or issued for delivery in this State and the schedules of premium rates pertaining thereto shall be filed with the Director.

(b) The Director shall within a reasonable time after the filing of any such policies, certificates of insurance, notices of proposed insurance, applications for insurance, endorsements, and riders, disapprove any such form if the benefits provided therein are not reasonable in relation to the premium charge, or if it contains provisions which are unjust, unfair, inequitable, misleading, deceptive, or encourage misrepresentation of the coverage, or are contrary to any provision of this the Insurance Code or of any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder.

(c) If the Director notifies the insurer that the form is disapproved, it is unlawful thereafter for such insurer to issue or use such form. In such notice, the Director shall specify the reason for his disapproval and state that a hearing will be granted within 20 days after request in writing by the insurer. No such policy, certificate of insurance, notice of proposed insurance, nor any application, endorsement of rider, shall be issued or used until after it has been so filed and the Director has given his prior written approval thereto.

(d) The Director may at any time, after giving not less than 20 days prior written notice to the insurer, withdraw his approval of any such form on any ground set forth in subsection (b) above. The written notice of withdrawal shall state the reason for the action. The insurer may request a hearing within 10 days after receipt of the notice of withdrawal by giving the Director written notice of such request, together with a statement of its objections. The Director must then conduct a hearing in accordance with Sections 402 and 403. The withdrawal shall be stayed pending the issuance of the Director's orders following the hearing.

However, if it appears to the Director that the continued use of any such policy, certificate of insurance, notice of proposed insurance, application for insurance, endorsement, or rider by an insurer is hazardous to its policyholders or the public, the Director may take such action as is prescribed by Section 401.1.

(e) It is not lawful for the insurer to issue such forms or use them after the effective date of such withdrawal.

(f) If a group policy of credit life insurance or credit accident and health insurance has been or is delivered in another state State before or after October 1, 1975 (the effective date of Public Act 79-930) this amendatory Act of 1975, the insurer shall be required to file only the group certificate and notice of proposed insurance delivered or issued for delivery in this State as specified in subsections (b) and (d) of Section 155.57 of this Article and such forms shall be approved by the Director if they conform with the requirements so specified in said subsections and if the schedules of premium rates applicable to the insurance evidenced by such certificate or notice are not in excess of the insurer's schedules of premium rates filed with the Director; provided, however, the premium rate in effect on existing group policies may be continued until the first policy anniversary date following October 1, 1975 (the effective date of Public Act 79-930) this amendatory Act of 1975.

(g) Any order or final determination of the Director under the provisions of this Section section shall be subject to judicial review.

(Source: P.A. 79-930; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.25)

Sec. 356z.25. Coverage for treatment of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or managed care plan that is amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after July 18, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-24) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly shall provide coverage for treatment of pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute-onset neuropsychiatric syndrome, including, but not limited to, the use of intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.

If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome outlined in this Section, then the requirement that an insurer cover pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections and pediatric acute onset neuropsychiatric syndrome.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; revised 9-15-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.26)

Sec. 356z.26 356z.25. Synchronization.

(a) As used in this Section, "synchronization" means the coordination of medication refills for a patient taking 2 or more medications for one or more chronic conditions such that the patient's medications are refilled on the same schedule for a given time period.

(b) Every policy of health and accident insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed after August 18, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-138) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly that provides coverage for prescription drugs shall provide for synchronization of prescription drug refills on at least one occasion per insured per year, provided all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the prescription drugs are covered by the policy's clinical coverage policy or have been approved by a formulary exceptions process;

(2) the prescription drugs are maintenance medications as defined by the policy and have available refill quantities at the time of synchronization;

(3) the medications are not Schedule II, III, or IV controlled substances;

(4) the insured meets all utilization management criteria specific to the prescription drugs at the time of synchronization;

(5) the prescription drugs are of a formulation that can be safely split into short-fill periods to achieve synchronization; and

(6) the prescription drugs do not have special handling or sourcing needs as determined by the policy, contract, or agreement that require a single, designated pharmacy to fill or refill the prescription.

(c) When necessary to permit synchronization, the policy shall apply a prorated daily cost-sharing rate to any medication dispensed by a network pharmacy pursuant to this Section. No dispensing fees shall be prorated, and all dispensing fees shall be based on the number of prescriptions filled or refilled.

(Source: P.A. 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-15-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.27)

Sec. 356z.27 356z.25. Preexisting condition exclusion. No policy of individual or group accident and health insurance issued, amended, delivered, or renewed on or after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of Public Act 100-386) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly may impose any preexisting condition exclusion, as defined in the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, with respect to such plan or coverage.

(Source: P.A. 100-386, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-15-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/356z.28)

Sec. 356z.28 356z.25. Dry needling by a physical therapist. A group or individual policy of accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the health insurance market place is not required to provide coverage for dry needling performed by a physical therapist as described in Section 1.5 of the Illinois Physical Therapy Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-418, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-15-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/400.1) (from Ch. 73, par. 1012.1)

Sec. 400.1. Group or for master policy-certificate inland marine insurance authorized.

(1) Any insurance company authorized to write inland marine insurance in this State may issue group or master policy-certificate inland marine policies which may include coverages incidental or supplemental to the inland marine policy, if the insurer is authorized to write the class of coverage which is incidental or supplemental. No policy, certificate of insurance, memorandum of insurance, application for insurance, endorsement or rider, may be issued for delivery in this State unless a copy of the form thereof shall have been filed with the Director of Insurance and approved, or unless exempted from filing by such rules and regulations as may be promulgated by the Director.

(2) The Director shall within 90 days after the filing of such forms disapprove any such form if the benefits provided therein are not reasonable in relation to the premium charged, or if it contains provisions that are unjust, unfair, inequitable, misleading, deceptive, or encourage misrepresentation of the coverage, or are contrary to any provision of this the Insurance Code, or any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder. The Director may, upon written notice within such waiting period to the company which made the filing, extend such waiting period for an additional 30 days. A filing shall be deemed to meet the requirements of this Section unless disapproved by the Director within the waiting period or the extension thereof.

(3) If the Director notifies the insurer that the form is disapproved, the insurer shall not issue or use such form. In such notice the Director shall specify the reason for his disapproval. The company may request a hearing on such disapproval within 30 days after receipt of such disapproval. The Director shall grant a hearing subsequent to the receipt of such request.

(4) The Director may, at any time after a hearing held not less than 20 days after written notice to the insurer, withdraw his approval of any such form on any ground set forth in subsection (2) above. The written notice of such hearing shall state the reason for the proposed withdrawal.

(5) It is not lawful for the insurer to issue such forms or use them after the effective date of such withdrawal.

(6) The Director may at any time require the filing of the schedules of premium rates used or to be used in connection with the specific policy filings required.

(7) The Director shall promulgate such rules and regulations as he may deem necessary to provide for the filing and review of premium rates schedules, and for the disapproval of those he may deem to be inadequate, excessive or unfairly discriminatory.

(8) Any order or final determination of the Director under the provisions of this Section shall be subject to judicial review.

(Source: P.A. 79-931; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/429) (from Ch. 73, par. 1036)

Sec. 429. Procedure as to unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices which are not defined.

(1) Whenever the Director shall have reason to believe (a) that any person engaged in the business of insurance is engaging in this State in any method of competition or in any act or practice in the conduct of such business which is not defined in Section 424, as an unfair method of competition or an unfair or deceptive act or practice or that any person domiciled in or resident of this State engaged in the business of insurance is engaging in any other state, territory, province, possession, country, or district in which he or she is not licensed or otherwise authorized to transact business in any method of competition or in any act or practice in the conduct of such business which is not defined in Section 424, as an unfair method of competition or an unfair or deceptive act or practice, and (b) that such method of competition is unfair or that such act or practice is unfair or deceptive, or (c) that such unfair method of competition or such unfair or deceptive act or practice violates any of the provisions of this the Insurance Code or any other law of this State, or (d) that a proceeding by him or her in respect thereto would be to the interest of the public, he or she may issue and serve upon such person a statement of the charges in that respect and a notice of a hearing thereon to be held at a time and place fixed in the notice, which shall not be less than 10 days after the date of the service thereof. Each such hearing shall be conducted in the same manner as the hearings provided for in Section 426. The Director shall, after such hearing, make a report in writing in which he or she shall state his or her findings as to the facts, and he or she shall serve a copy thereof upon such person.

(2) If such report charges a violation of this Article and if such method of competition, act, or practice has not been discontinued, the Director may, through the Attorney General of this State, at any time after the service of such report cause a complaint to be filed in the Circuit Court of Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of this State within the county wherein the person resides or has his principal place of business, to enjoin and restrain such person from engaging in such method, act, or practice. The court shall have jurisdiction of the proceeding and shall have power to make and enter appropriate orders in connection therewith and to enter such orders as are ancillary to its jurisdiction or are necessary in its judgment to prevent injury to the public pendente lite.

(3) A transcript of the proceedings before the Director including all evidence taken and the report and findings shall be filed with such complaint. If either party shall apply to the court for leave to adduce additional evidence and shall show, to the satisfaction of the court, that such additional evidence is material and there were reasonable grounds for the failure to adduce such evidence in the proceedings before the Director the court may order such additional evidence to be taken before the Director and to be adduced upon the hearing in such manner and upon such terms and conditions as to the court may seem proper. The Director may modify his or her findings of fact or make new findings by reason of the additional evidence so taken, and he or she shall file such modified or new findings with the return of such additional evidence.

(4) If the court finds (a) that the method of competition complained of is unfair or that the act or practice complained of is unfair or deceptive, or (b) that such unfair method of competition or such unfair or deceptive act or practice is in violation of this the Insurance Code or any other law of this State and (c) that the proceeding by the Director with respect thereto is to the interest of public and (d) that the findings of the Director are supported by the evidence, it shall enter an order enjoining and restraining the continuance of such method of competition, act, or practice.

(Source: P.A. 83-346; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/469) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.16)

Sec. 469. Rebates prohibited. No broker or agent shall knowingly charge, demand, or receive a premium for any policy of insurance except in accordance with the provisions of this Article. No company or employee thereof, and no broker or agent shall pay, allow, or give, or offer to pay, allow, or give, directly or indirectly, as an inducement to insurance, or after insurance has been effected, any rebates, discount, abatement, credit, or reduction of the premium named in a policy of insurance, or any special favor or advantage in the dividends or other benefits to accrue thereon, or any valuable consideration or inducement whatever, not specified in the policy of insurance, except to the extent provided for in an applicable filing. No insured named in a policy of insurance, nor any employee of such insured shall knowingly receive or accept, directly or indirectly, any such rebate, discount, abatement, credit, or reduction of premium, or any such special favor or advantage or valuable consideration or inducement. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as prohibiting the payment of commissions or other compensation to duly licensed agents and brokers, nor as prohibiting any company from allowing or returning to its participating policyholders, members, or subscribers, dividends, savings, or unabsorbed premium deposits.

Sections 151 and 152 of this the Insurance Code shall not apply to any kind of insurance subject to this Article.

(Source: P.A. 76-943; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/512.63) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.59-63)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 512.63. Fees. (a) The fees required by this Article are as follows:

(1) Public Insurance Adjuster license annual fee, $100;

(2) registration of firms, $100;

(3) application fee for processing each request to take the written examination for a Public Adjuster license, $20.

(Source: P.A. 93-32, eff. 7-1-03; revised 11-8-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/531.03) (from Ch. 73, par. 1065.80-3)

Sec. 531.03. Coverage and limitations.

(1) This Article shall provide coverage for the policies and contracts specified in subsection paragraph (2) of this Section:

(a) to persons who, regardless of where they reside (except for non-resident certificate holders under group policies or contracts), are the beneficiaries, assignees or payees of the persons covered under paragraph (b) of this subsection subparagraph (1)(b), and

(b) to persons who are owners of or certificate holders under the policies or contracts (other than unallocated annuity contracts and structured settlement annuities) and in each case who:

(i) are residents; or

(ii) are not residents, but only under all of the following conditions:

(A) the insurer that issued the policies or contracts is domiciled in this State;

(B) the states in which the persons reside have associations similar to the Association created by this Article;

(C) the persons are not eligible for coverage by an association in any other state due to the fact that the insurer was not licensed in that state at the time specified in that state's guaranty association law.

(c) For unallocated annuity contracts specified in subsection (2), paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection (1) shall not apply and this Article shall (except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this subsection) provide coverage to:

(i) persons who are the owners of the unallocated annuity contracts if the contracts are issued to or in connection with a specific benefit plan whose plan sponsor has its principal place of business in this State; and

(ii) persons who are owners of unallocated annuity contracts issued to or in connection with government lotteries if the owners are residents.

(d) For structured settlement annuities specified in subsection (2), paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection (1) shall not apply and this Article shall (except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this subsection) provide coverage to a person who is a payee under a structured settlement annuity (or beneficiary of a payee if the payee is deceased), if the payee:

(i) is a resident, regardless of where the contract owner resides; or

(ii) is not a resident, but only under both of the following conditions:

(A) with regard to residency:

(I) the contract owner of the structured settlement annuity is a resident; or

(II) the contract owner of the structured settlement annuity is not a resident but the insurer that issued the structured settlement annuity is domiciled in this State and the state in which the contract owner resides has an association similar to the Association created by this Article; and

(B) neither the payee or beneficiary nor the contract owner is eligible for coverage by the association of the state in which the payee or contract owner resides.

(e) This Article shall not provide coverage to:

(i) a person who is a payee or beneficiary of a contract owner resident of this State if the payee or beneficiary is afforded any coverage by the association of another state; or

(ii) a person covered under paragraph (c) of this subsection (1), if any coverage is provided by the association of another state to that person.

(f) This Article is intended to provide coverage to a person who is a resident of this State and, in special circumstances, to a nonresident. In order to avoid duplicate coverage, if a person who would otherwise receive coverage under this Article is provided coverage under the laws of any other state, then the person shall not be provided coverage under this Article. In determining the application of the provisions of this paragraph in situations where a person could be covered by the association of more than one state, whether as an owner, payee, beneficiary, or assignee, this Article shall be construed in conjunction with other state laws to result in coverage by only one association.

(2)(a) This Article shall provide coverage to the persons specified in subsection paragraph (1) of this Section for direct, (i) nongroup life, health, annuity and supplemental policies, or contracts, (ii) for certificates under direct group policies or contracts, (iii) for unallocated annuity contracts and (iv) for contracts to furnish health care services and subscription certificates for medical or health care services issued by persons licensed to transact insurance business in this State under this the Illinois Insurance Code. Annuity contracts and certificates under group annuity contracts include but are not limited to guaranteed investment contracts, deposit administration contracts, unallocated funding agreements, allocated funding agreements, structured settlement agreements, lottery contracts and any immediate or deferred annuity contracts.

(b) This Article shall not provide coverage for:

(i) that portion of a policy or contract not guaranteed by the insurer, or under which the risk is borne by the policy or contract owner;

(ii) any such policy or contract or part thereof assumed by the impaired or insolvent insurer under a contract of reinsurance, other than reinsurance for which assumption certificates have been issued;

(iii) any portion of a policy or contract to the extent that the rate of interest on which it is based or the interest rate, crediting rate, or similar factor is determined by use of an index or other external reference stated in the policy or contract employed in calculating returns or changes in value:

(A) averaged over the period of 4 years prior to the date on which the member insurer becomes an impaired or insolvent insurer under this Article, whichever is earlier, exceeds the rate of interest determined by subtracting 2 percentage points from Moody's Corporate Bond Yield Average averaged for that same 4-year period or for such lesser period if the policy or contract was issued less than 4 years before the member insurer becomes an impaired or insolvent insurer under this Article, whichever is earlier; and

(B) on and after the date on which the member insurer becomes an impaired or insolvent insurer under this Article, whichever is earlier, exceeds the rate of interest determined by subtracting 3 percentage points from Moody's Corporate Bond Yield Average as most recently available;

(iv) any unallocated annuity contract issued to or in connection with a benefit plan protected under the federal Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, regardless of whether the federal Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation has yet become liable to make any payments with respect to the benefit plan;

(v) any portion of any unallocated annuity contract which is not issued to or in connection with a specific employee, union or association of natural persons benefit plan or a government lottery;

(vi) an obligation that does not arise under the express written terms of the policy or contract issued by the insurer to the contract owner or policy owner, including without limitation:

(A) a claim based on marketing materials;

(B) a claim based on side letters, riders, or other documents that were issued by the insurer without meeting applicable policy form filing or approval requirements;

(C) a misrepresentation of or regarding policy benefits;

(D) an extra-contractual claim; or

(E) a claim for penalties or consequential or incidental damages;

(vii) any stop-loss insurance, as defined in clause (b) of Class 1 or clause (a) of Class 2 of Section 4, and further defined in subsection (d) of Section 352;

(viii) any policy or contract providing any hospital, medical, prescription drug, or other health care benefits pursuant to Part C or Part D of Subchapter XVIII, Chapter 7 of Title 42 of the United States Code (commonly known as Medicare Part C & D) or any regulations issued pursuant thereto;

(ix) any portion of a policy or contract to the extent that the assessments required by Section 531.09 of this Code with respect to the policy or contract are preempted or otherwise not permitted by federal or State law;

(x) any portion of a policy or contract issued to a plan or program of an employer, association, or other person to provide life, health, or annuity benefits to its employees, members, or others to the extent that the plan or program is self-funded or uninsured, including, but not limited to, benefits payable by an employer, association, or other person under:

(A) a multiple employer welfare arrangement as defined in 29 U.S.C. Section 1144;

(B) a minimum premium group insurance plan;

(C) a stop-loss group insurance plan; or

(D) an administrative services only contract;

(xi) any portion of a policy or contract to the extent that it provides for:

(A) dividends or experience rating credits;

(B) voting rights; or

(C) payment of any fees or allowances to any person, including the policy or contract owner, in connection with the service to or administration of the policy or contract;

(xii) any policy or contract issued in this State by a member insurer at a time when it was not licensed or did not have a certificate of authority to issue the policy or contract in this State;

(xiii) any contractual agreement that establishes the member insurer's obligations to provide a book value accounting guaranty for defined contribution benefit plan participants by reference to a portfolio of assets that is owned by the benefit plan or its trustee, which in each case is not an affiliate of the member insurer;

(xiv) any portion of a policy or contract to the extent that it provides for interest or other changes in value to be determined by the use of an index or other external reference stated in the policy or contract, but which have not been credited to the policy or contract, or as to which the policy or contract owner's rights are subject to forfeiture, as of the date the member insurer becomes an impaired or insolvent insurer under this Code, whichever is earlier. If a policy's or contract's interest or changes in value are credited less frequently than annually, then for purposes of determining the values that have been credited and are not subject to forfeiture under this Section, the interest or change in value determined by using the procedures defined in the policy or contract will be credited as if the contractual date of crediting interest or changing values was the date of impairment or insolvency, whichever is earlier, and will not be subject to forfeiture; or

(xv) that portion or part of a variable life insurance or variable annuity contract not guaranteed by an insurer.

(3) The benefits for which the Association may become liable shall in no event exceed the lesser of:

(a) the contractual obligations for which the insurer is liable or would have been liable if it were not an impaired or insolvent insurer, or

(b)(i) with respect to any one life, regardless of the number of policies or contracts:

(A) $300,000 in life insurance death benefits, but not more than $100,000 in net cash surrender and net cash withdrawal values for life insurance;

(B) in health insurance benefits:

(I) $100,000 for coverages not defined as disability insurance or basic hospital, medical, and surgical insurance or major medical insurance or long-term care insurance, including any net cash surrender and net cash withdrawal values;

(II) $300,000 for disability insurance and $300,000 for long-term care insurance as defined in Section 351A-1 of this Code; and

(III) $500,000 for basic hospital medical and surgical insurance or major medical insurance;

(C) $250,000 in the present value of annuity benefits, including net cash surrender and net cash withdrawal values;

(ii) with respect to each individual participating in a governmental retirement benefit plan established under Section Sections 401, 403(b), or 457 of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code covered by an unallocated annuity contract or the beneficiaries of each such individual if deceased, in the aggregate, $250,000 in present value annuity benefits, including net cash surrender and net cash withdrawal values;

(iii) with respect to each payee of a structured settlement annuity or beneficiary or beneficiaries of the payee if deceased, $250,000 in present value annuity benefits, in the aggregate, including net cash surrender and net cash withdrawal values, if any; or

(iv) with respect to either (1) one contract owner provided coverage under subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this Section or (2) one plan sponsor whose plans own directly or in trust one or more unallocated annuity contracts not included in subparagraph (ii) of paragraph (b) of this subsection, $5,000,000 in benefits, irrespective of the number of contracts with respect to the contract owner or plan sponsor. However, in the case where one or more unallocated annuity contracts are covered contracts under this Article and are owned by a trust or other entity for the benefit of 2 or more plan sponsors, coverage shall be afforded by the Association if the largest interest in the trust or entity owning the contract or contracts is held by a plan sponsor whose principal place of business is in this State. In no event shall the Association be obligated to cover more than $5,000,000 in benefits with respect to all these unallocated contracts.

In no event shall the Association be obligated to cover more than (1) an aggregate of $300,000 in benefits with respect to any one life under subparagraphs (i), (ii), and (iii) of this paragraph (b) except with respect to benefits for basic hospital, medical, and surgical insurance and major medical insurance under item (B) of subparagraph (i) of this paragraph (b), in which case the aggregate liability of the Association shall not exceed $500,000 with respect to any one individual or (2) with respect to one owner of multiple nongroup policies of life insurance, whether the policy owner is an individual, firm, corporation, or other person and whether the persons insured are officers, managers, employees, or other persons, $5,000,000 in benefits, regardless of the number of policies and contracts held by the owner.

The limitations set forth in this subsection are limitations on the benefits for which the Association is obligated before taking into account either its subrogation and assignment rights or the extent to which those benefits could be provided out of the assets of the impaired or insolvent insurer attributable to covered policies. The costs of the Association's obligations under this Article may be met by the use of assets attributable to covered policies or reimbursed to the Association pursuant to its subrogation and assignment rights.

(4) In performing its obligations to provide coverage under Section 531.08 of this Code, the Association shall not be required to guarantee, assume, reinsure, or perform or cause to be guaranteed, assumed, reinsured, or performed the contractual obligations of the insolvent or impaired insurer under a covered policy or contract that do not materially affect the economic values or economic benefits of the covered policy or contract.

(Source: P.A. 96-1450, eff. 8-20-10; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 5/1563)

Sec. 1563. Fees. (a) The fees required by this Article are as follows:

(1) Public adjuster license fee of $250, payable once every 2 years.

(2) Business entity license fee of $250, payable once every 2 years.

(3) Application fee of $50 for processing each request to take the written examination for a public adjuster license.

(Source: P.A. 96-1332, eff. 1-1-11; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 340. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is amended by changing Sections 5-1 and 5-3 as follows:

(215 ILCS 125/5-1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1409A)

Sec. 5-1. Section 155 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall apply to Health Maintenance Organizations; except that no action shall be brought for an unreasonable delay in the settling of a claim if the delay is caused by the failure of the enrollee to execute a lien as requested by the health care plan.

(Source: P.A. 85-20; revised 10-5-17.)

(215 ILCS 125/5-3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1411.2)

Sec. 5-3. Insurance Code provisions.

(a) Health Maintenance Organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.22a, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g.5-1, 356m, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 364, 364.01, 367.2, 367.2-5, 367i, 368a, 368b, 368c, 368d, 368e, 370c, 370c.1, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1, paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of Section 367, and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(b) For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, Health Maintenance Organizations in the following categories are deemed to be "domestic companies":

(1) a corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act;

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of this State; or

(3) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a "domestic company" under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(c) In considering the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control of a Health Maintenance Organization pursuant to Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code,

(1) the Director shall give primary consideration to the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial conditions of the acquired Health Maintenance Organization after the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control takes effect;

(2)(i) the criteria specified in subsection (1)(b) of Section 131.8 of the Illinois Insurance Code shall not apply and (ii) the Director, in making his determination with respect to the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control, need not take into account the effect on competition of the merger, consolidation, or other acquisition of control;

(3) the Director shall have the power to require the following information:

(A) certification by an independent actuary of the adequacy of the reserves of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired;

(B) pro forma financial statements reflecting the combined balance sheets of the acquiring company and the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired as of the end of the preceding year and as of a date 90 days prior to the acquisition, as well as pro forma financial statements reflecting projected combined operation for a period of 2 years;

(C) a pro forma business plan detailing an acquiring party's plans with respect to the operation of the Health Maintenance Organization sought to be acquired for a period of not less than 3 years; and

(D) such other information as the Director shall require.

(d) The provisions of Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code and this Section 5-3 shall apply to the sale by any health maintenance organization of greater than 10% of its enrollee population (including without limitation the health maintenance organization's right, title, and interest in and to its health care certificates).

(e) In considering any management contract or service agreement subject to Section 141.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code, the Director (i) shall, in addition to the criteria specified in Section 141.2 of the Illinois Insurance Code, take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on the continuation of benefits to enrollees and the financial condition of the health maintenance organization to be managed or serviced, and (ii) need not take into account the effect of the management contract or service agreement on competition.

(f) Except for small employer groups as defined in the Small Employer Rating, Renewability and Portability Health Insurance Act and except for medicare supplement policies as defined in Section 363 of the Illinois Insurance Code, a Health Maintenance Organization may by contract agree with a group or other enrollment unit to effect refunds or charge additional premiums under the following terms and conditions:

(i) the amount of, and other terms and conditions with respect to, the refund or additional premium are set forth in the group or enrollment unit contract agreed in advance of the period for which a refund is to be paid or additional premium is to be charged (which period shall not be less than one year); and

(ii) the amount of the refund or additional premium shall not exceed 20% of the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable or unprofitable experience with respect to the group or other enrollment unit for the period (and, for purposes of a refund or additional premium, the profitable or unprofitable experience shall be calculated taking into account a pro rata share of the Health Maintenance Organization's administrative and marketing expenses, but shall not include any refund to be made or additional premium to be paid pursuant to this subsection (f)). The Health Maintenance Organization and the group or enrollment unit may agree that the profitable or unprofitable experience may be calculated taking into account the refund period and the immediately preceding 2 plan years.

The Health Maintenance Organization shall include a statement in the evidence of coverage issued to each enrollee describing the possibility of a refund or additional premium, and upon request of any group or enrollment unit, provide to the group or enrollment unit a description of the method used to calculate (1) the Health Maintenance Organization's profitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting refund to the group or enrollment unit or (2) the Health Maintenance Organization's unprofitable experience with respect to the group or enrollment unit and the resulting additional premium to be paid by the group or enrollment unit.

In no event shall the Illinois Health Maintenance Organization Guaranty Association be liable to pay any contractual obligation of an insolvent organization to pay any refund authorized under this Section.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-761, eff. 1-1-18; 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 345. The Limited Health Service Organization Act is amended by changing Section 4003 as follows:

(215 ILCS 130/4003) (from Ch. 73, par. 1504-3)

Sec. 4003. Illinois Insurance Code provisions. Limited health service organizations shall be subject to the provisions of Sections 133, 134, 136, 137, 139, 140, 141.1, 141.2, 141.3, 143, 143c, 147, 148, 149, 151, 152, 153, 154, 154.5, 154.6, 154.7, 154.8, 155.04, 155.37, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356v, 356z.10, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, 409, 412, 444, and 444.1 and Articles IIA, VIII 1/2, XII, XII 1/2, XIII, XIII 1/2, XXV, and XXVI of the Illinois Insurance Code. For purposes of the Illinois Insurance Code, except for Sections 444 and 444.1 and Articles XIII and XIII 1/2, limited health service organizations in the following categories are deemed to be domestic companies:

(1) a corporation under the laws of this State; or

(2) a corporation organized under the laws of another state, 30% or more of the enrollees of which are residents of this State, except a corporation subject to substantially the same requirements in its state of organization as is a domestic company under Article VIII 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 350. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(215 ILCS 159/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions.

"Accredited investor" means an accredited investor as defined in Rule 501(a) promulgated under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77 et seq.), as amended.

"Advertising" means any written, electronic, or printed communication or any communication by means of recorded telephone messages or transmitted on radio, television, the Internet, or similar communications media, including film strips, digital picture slides, motion pictures, and videos published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public in this State, for the purpose of creating an interest in or inducing a person to sell, assign, devise, bequest, or transfer the death benefit or ownership of a policy pursuant to a viatical settlement contract.

"Alien licensee" means a licensee incorporated or organized under the laws of any country other than the United States.

"Business of viatical settlements" means any activity involved in, but not limited to, the offering, soliciting, negotiating, procuring, effectuating, purchasing, investing, financing, monitoring, tracking, underwriting, selling, transferring, assigning, pledging, or hypothecating or in any other manner acquiring an interest in a life insurance policy by means of a viatical settlement contract or other agreement.

"Chronically ill" means having been certified within the preceding 12-month period by a licensed health professional as:

(1) being unable to perform, without substantial assistance from another individual and for at least 90 days due to a loss of functional capacity, at least 2 activities of daily living, including, but not limited to, eating, toileting, transferring, bathing, dressing, or continence;

(2) requiring substantial supervision to protect the individual from threats to health and safety due to severe cognitive impairment; or

(3) having a level of disability similar to that described in paragraph (1) as determined by the Secretary of Health and Human Services.

"Controlling person" means any person, firm, association, or corporation that directly or indirectly has the power to direct or cause to be directed the management, control, or activities of the viatical settlement provider.

"Director" means the Director of the Division of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Division" means the Division of Insurance of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Escrow agent" means an independent third-party person who, pursuant to a written agreement signed by the viatical settlement provider and viator, provides escrow services related to the acquisition of a life insurance policy pursuant to a viatical settlement contract. "Escrow agent" does not include any person associated or affiliated with or under the control of a licensee.

"Financial institution" means a financial institution as defined by the Financial Institutions Insurance Sales Law in Article XLIV of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Financing entity" means an underwriter, placement agent, lender, purchaser of securities, purchaser of a policy or certificate from a viatical settlement provider, credit enhancer, or an entity that has a direct ownership in a policy that is the subject of a viatical settlement contract, and to which both of the following apply:

(1) its principal activity related to the transaction is providing funds to effect the viatical settlement or purchase of one or more viaticated policies; and

(2) it has an agreement in writing with one or more licensed viatical settlement providers to finance the acquisition of viatical settlement contracts. "Financing entity" does not include an investor that is not an accredited investor.

"Financing transaction" means a transaction in which a viatical settlement provider obtains financing from a financing entity, including, without limitation, any secured or unsecured financing, securitization transaction, or securities offering that either is registered or exempt from registration under federal and State securities law.

"Foreign licensee" means any viatical settlement provider incorporated or organized under the laws of any state of the United States other than this State.

"Insurance producer" means an insurance producer as defined by Section 10 of Article XXXI of the Illinois Insurance Code.

"Licensee" means a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker.

"Life expectancy provider" means a person who determines or holds himself or herself out as determining life expectancies or mortality ratings used to determine life expectancies on behalf of or in connection with any of the following:

(1) A viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, or person engaged in the business of viatical settlements.

(2) A viatical investment as defined by Section 2.33 of the Illinois Securities Law of 1953 or a viatical settlement contract.

"NAIC" means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.

"Person" means an individual or a legal entity, including, without limitation, a partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, association, trust, business trust, or corporation.

"Policy" means an individual or group policy, group certificate, contract, or arrangement of insurance of the class defined by subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Illinois Insurance Code owned by a resident of this State, regardless of whether delivered or issued for delivery in this State.

"Qualified institutional buyer" means a qualified institutional buyer as defined in Rule 144 promulgated under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended.

"Related provider trust" means a titling trust or other trust established by a licensed viatical settlement provider or a financing entity for the sole purpose of holding the ownership or beneficial interest in purchased policies in connection with a financing transaction. The trust shall have a written agreement with the licensed viatical settlement provider under which the licensed viatical settlement provider is responsible for ensuring compliance with all statutory and regulatory requirements and under which the trust agrees to make all records and files related to viatical settlement transactions available to the Director as if those records and files were maintained directly by the licensed viatical settlement provider.

"Special purpose entity" means a corporation, partnership, trust, limited liability company, or other similar entity formed only to provide, directly or indirectly, access to institutional capital markets (i) for a financing entity or licensed viatical settlement provider; or (ii) in connection with a transaction in which the securities in the special purposes entity are acquired by the viator or by qualified institutional buyers or the securities pay a fixed rate of return commensurate with established asset-backed institutional capital markets.

"Stranger-originated life insurance" or "STOLI" means an act, practice, or arrangement to initiate a life insurance policy for the benefit of a third-party investor who, at the time of policy origination, has no insurable interest in the insured. STOLI practices include, but are not limited to, cases in which life insurance is purchased with resources or guarantees from or through a person or entity who, at the time of policy inception, could not lawfully initiate the policy himself or itself and where, at the time of policy inception, there is an arrangement or agreement, whether verbal or written, to directly or indirectly transfer the ownership of the policy or policy benefits to a third party. Trusts created to give the appearance of an insurable interest and used to initiate policies for investors violate insurance interest laws and the prohibition against wagering on life. STOLI arrangements do not include lawful viatical settlement contracts as permitted by this Act.

"Terminally ill" means certified by a physician as having an illness or physical condition that reasonably is expected to result in death in 24 months or less.

"Viatical settlement broker" means a licensed insurance producer who has been issued a license pursuant to paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 500-35 Section 500-35(a)(1) or 500-35(a)(2) of the Illinois Insurance Code who, working exclusively on behalf of a viator and for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, offers, solicits, promotes, or attempts to negotiate viatical settlement contracts between a viator and one or more viatical settlement providers or one or more viatical settlement brokers. "Viatical settlement broker" does not include an attorney, certified public accountant, or a financial planner accredited by a nationally recognized accreditation agency, who is retained to represent the viator and whose compensation is not paid directly or indirectly by the viatical settlement provider or purchaser.

"Viatical settlement contract" means any of the following:

(1) A written agreement between a viator and a viatical settlement provider establishing the terms under which compensation or anything of value is or will be paid, which compensation or value is less than the expected death benefits of the policy, in return for the viator's present or future assignment, transfer, sale, devise, or bequest of the death benefit or ownership of any portion of the insurance policy.

(2) A written agreement for a loan or other lending transaction, secured primarily by an individual life insurance policy or an individual certificate of a group life insurance policy.

(3) The transfer for compensation or value of ownership of a beneficial interest in a trust or other entity that owns such policy, if the trust or other entity was formed or availed of for the principal purpose of acquiring one or more life insurance contracts and the life insurance contract insures the life of a person residing in this State.

(4) A premium finance loan made for a life insurance policy by a lender to a viator on, before, or after the date of issuance of the policy in either of the following situations:

(A) The viator or the insured receives a guarantee of the viatical settlement value of the policy.

(B) The viator or the insured agrees to sell the policy or any portion of the policy's death benefit on any date before or after issuance of the policy.

"Viatical settlement contract" does not include any of the following acts, practices, or arrangements listed below in subparagraphs (a) through (i) of this definition of "viatical settlement contract", unless part of a plan, scheme, device, or artifice to avoid application of this Act; provided, however, that the list of excluded items contained in subparagraphs (a) through (i) is not intended to be an exhaustive list and that an act, practice, or arrangement that is not described below in subparagraphs (a) through (i) does not necessarily constitute a viatical settlement contract:

(a) A policy loan or accelerated death benefit made by the insurer pursuant to the policy's terms;

(b) Loan proceeds that are used solely to pay: (i) premiums for the policy and (ii) the costs of the loan, including, without limitation, interest, arrangement fees, utilization fees and similar fees, closing costs, legal fees and expenses, trustee fees and expenses, and third party collateral provider fees and expenses, including fees payable to letter of credit issuers;

(c) A loan made by a bank or other financial institution in which the lender takes an interest in a life insurance policy solely to secure repayment of a loan or, if there is a default on the loan and the policy is transferred, the transfer of such a policy by the lender, provided that neither the default itself nor the transfer of the policy in connection with the default is pursuant to an agreement or understanding with any other person for the purpose of evading regulation under this Act;

(d) A loan made by a lender that does not violate Article XXXIIa of the Illinois Insurance Code, provided that the premium finance loan is not described in this Act;

(e) An agreement in which all the parties (i) are closely related to the insured by blood or law or (ii) have a lawful substantial economic interest in the continued life, health, and bodily safety of the person insured, or trusts established primarily for the benefit of such parties;

(f) Any designation, consent, or agreement by an insured who is an employee of an employer in connection with the purchase by the employer, or trust established by the employer, of life insurance on the life of the employee;

(g) A bona fide business succession planning arrangement: (i) between one or more shareholders in a corporation or between a corporation and one or more of its shareholders or one or more trusts established by its shareholders; (ii) between one or more partners in a partnership or between a partnership and one or more of its partners or one or more trusts established by its partners; or (iii) between one or more members in a limited liability company or between a limited liability company and one or more of its members or one or more trusts established by its members;

(h) An agreement entered into by a service recipient, or a trust established by the service recipient, and a service provider, or a trust established by the service provider, who performs significant services for the service recipient's trade or business; or

(i) Any other contract, transaction, or arrangement exempted from the definition of viatical settlement contract by the Director based on the Director's determination that the contract, transaction, or arrangement is not of the type intended to be regulated by this Act.

"Viatical settlement investment agent" means a person who is an appointed or contracted agent of a licensed viatical settlement provider who solicits or arranges the funding for the purchase of a viatical settlement by a viatical settlement purchaser and who is acting on behalf of a viatical settlement provider. A viatical settlement investment agent is deemed to represent the viatical settlement provider of whom the viatical settlement investment agent is an appointed or contracted agent.

"Viatical settlement provider" means a person, other than a viator, who enters into or effectuates a viatical settlement contract with a viator. "Viatical settlement provider" does not include:

(1) a bank, savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or other financial institution that takes an assignment of a policy as collateral for a loan;

(2) a financial institution or premium finance company making premium finance loans and exempted by the Director from the licensing requirement under the premium finance laws where the institution or company takes an assignment of a life insurance policy solely as collateral for a premium finance loan;

(3) the issuer of the life insurance policy;

(4) an authorized or eligible insurer that provides stop loss coverage or financial guaranty insurance to a viatical settlement provider, purchaser, financing entity, special purpose entity, or related provider trust;

(5) An individual person who enters into or effectuates no more than one viatical settlement contract in a calendar year for the transfer of policies for any value less than the expected death benefit;

(6) a financing entity;

(7) a special purpose entity;

(8) a related provider trust;

(9) a viatical settlement purchaser; or

(10) any other person that the Director determines is consistent with the definition of viatical settlement provider.

"Viatical settlement purchaser" means a person who provides a sum of money as consideration for a life insurance policy or an interest in the death benefits of a life insurance policy, or a person who owns or acquires or is entitled to a beneficial interest in a trust that owns a viatical settlement contract or is the beneficiary of a life insurance policy, in each case where such policy has been or will be the subject of a viatical settlement contract, for the purpose of deriving an economic benefit. "Viatical settlement purchaser" does not include: (i) a licensee under this Act; (ii) an accredited investor or qualified institutional buyer; (iii) a financing entity; (iv) a special purpose entity; or (v) a related provider trust.

"Viaticated policy" means a life insurance policy that has been acquired by a viatical settlement provider pursuant to a viatical settlement contract.

"Viator" means the owner of a life insurance policy or a certificate holder under a group policy who enters or seeks to enter into a viatical settlement contract. For the purposes of this Act, a viator is not limited to an owner of a life insurance policy or a certificate holder under a group policy insuring the life of an individual with a terminal or chronic illness or condition, except where specifically addressed. "Viator" does not include:

(1) a licensee;

(2) a qualified institutional buyer;

(3) a financing entity;

(4) a special purpose entity; or

(5) a related provider trust.

(Source: P.A. 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 355. The Voluntary Health Services Plans Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(215 ILCS 165/10) (from Ch. 32, par. 604)

Sec. 10. Application of Insurance Code provisions. Health services plan corporations and all persons interested therein or dealing therewith shall be subject to the provisions of Articles IIA and XII 1/2 and Sections 3.1, 133, 136, 139, 140, 143, 143c, 149, 155.22a, 155.37, 354, 355.2, 355.3, 355b, 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356r, 356t, 356u, 356v, 356w, 356x, 356y, 356z.1, 356z.2, 356z.4, 356z.5, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.18, 356z.19, 356z.21, 356z.22, 356z.25, 356z.26, 364.01, 367.2, 368a, 401, 401.1, 402, 403, 403A, 408, 408.2, and 412, and paragraphs (7) and (15) of Section 367 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 100-24, eff. 7-18-17; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 360. The Unclaimed Life Insurance Benefits Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 35 as follows:

(215 ILCS 185/15)

Sec. 15. Insurer conduct.

(a) An insurer shall initially perform a comparison of its insureds', annuitants', and retained asset account holders' in-force policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force on or after January 1, 2017 by using the full Death Master File. The initial comparison shall be completed on or before December 31, 2017. An insurer required to perform a comparison of its insureds', annuitants', and retained asset account holders' in-force policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force on or after January 1, 2012 shall perform a comparison of policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force between January 1, 2012 and December 31, 2016 on or before December 31, 2018 by using the full Death Master File. An insurer required to perform a comparison of electronic searchable files concerning its insureds', annuitants', and retained asset account holders' in-force policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force on or after January 1, 2000 shall perform a comparison of policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force between January 1, 2000 and December 31, 2016 on or before December 31, 2018 by using the full Death Master File. Thereafter, an insurer shall perform a comparison on at least a semi-annual basis using the Death Master File update files for comparisons to identify potential matches of its insureds, annuitants, and retained asset account holders. In the event that one of the insurer's lines of business conducts a search for matches of its insureds, annuitants, and retained asset account holders against the Death Master File at intervals more frequently than semi-annually, then all lines of the insurer's business shall conduct searches for matches against the Death Master File with the same frequency. Within 6 months after acquisition of policies, annuity contracts, or retained asset accounts from another insurer, the acquiring insurer shall compare all newly acquired policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts that were not searched by the previous insurer in compliance with this Act against the complete Death Master File to identify potential matches of its insureds, annuitants, and retained asset account holders. Upon any subsequent acquisition of policies, annuity contracts, or retained asset accounts from another insurer, when the previous insurer has already conducted a search of the newly acquired policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts using the complete Death Master File, the acquiring insurer shall compare all newly acquired policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts using all of the Death Master File updates since the time the previous insurer conducted the complete search to identify potential matches of its insureds, annuitants, and retained asset account holders.

An insured, an annuitant, or a retained asset account holder is presumed dead if the date of his or her death is indicated by the comparison required in this subsection (a), unless the insurer has competent and substantial evidence that the person is living, including, but not limited to, a contact made by the insurer with the person or his or her legal representative.

For those potential matches identified as a result of a Death Master File match, the insurer shall within 120 days after the date of death notice, if the insurer has not been contacted by a beneficiary, determine whether benefits are due in accordance with the applicable policy or contract and, if benefits are due in accordance with the applicable policy or contract:

(1) use good faith efforts, which shall be documented by the insurer, to locate the beneficiary or beneficiaries; the Department shall establish by administrative rule minimum standards for what constitutes good faith efforts to locate a beneficiary, which shall include: (A) searching insurer records; (B) the appropriate use of First Class United States mail, e-mail addresses, and telephone calls; and (C) reasonable efforts by insurers to obtain updated contact information for the beneficiary or beneficiaries; good faith efforts shall not include additional attempts to contact the beneficiary at an address already confirmed not to be current; and

(2) provide the appropriate claims forms or instructions to the beneficiary or beneficiaries to make a claim, including the need to provide an official death certificate if applicable under the policy or annuity contract.

(b) Insurers shall implement procedures to account for the following when conducting searches of the Death Master File:

(1) common nicknames, initials used in lieu of a first or middle name, use of a middle name, compound first and middle names, and interchanged first and middle names;

(2) compound last names, maiden or married names, and hyphens, blank spaces, or apostrophes in last names;

(3) transposition of the "month" and "date" portions of the date of birth; and

(4) incomplete social security numbers.

(c) To the extent permitted by law, an insurer may disclose the minimum necessary personal information about the insured, annuity owner, retained asset account holder, or beneficiary to a person whom the insurer reasonably believes may be able to assist the insurer with locating the beneficiary or a person otherwise entitled to payment of the claims proceeds.

(d) An insurer or its service provider shall not charge any beneficiary or other authorized representative for any fees or costs associated with a Death Master File search or verification of a Death Master File match conducted pursuant to this Act.

(e) The benefits from a policy, annuity contract, or a retained asset account, plus any applicable accrued interest, shall first be payable to the designated beneficiaries or owners and, in the event the beneficiaries or owners cannot be found, shall be reported and delivered to the State Treasurer pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. Nothing in this subsection (e) is intended to alter the amounts reportable under the existing provisions of the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act or to allow the imposition of additional statutory interest under Article XIV of the Illinois Insurance Code.

(f) Failure to meet any requirement of this Section with such frequency as to constitute a general business practice is a violation of Section 424 of the Illinois Insurance Code. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create or imply a private cause of action for a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-893, eff. 1-1-17; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-543, eff. 1-1-18; revised 12-8-17.)

(215 ILCS 185/35)

Sec. 35. Application.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), and (d), the provisions of this Act apply to policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force at any time on or after January 1, 2012.

(b) For an insurer that has entered into a written agreement with the State Treasurer on or before December 31, 2018 to resolve an unclaimed property examination pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act or the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act, the provisions of this Act apply to policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force on or after January 1, 2017.

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (a), the provisions of this Act shall apply to policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts in force at any time on or after January 1, 2000 to the extent that an insurer has electronic searchable files concerning such policies, annuity contracts, and retained asset accounts.

(d) This Act does not apply to a lapsed or terminated policy with no benefits payable that was compared against the Death Master File within the 18 months following the date of the lapse or termination of the applicable policy or that was searched more than 18 months prior to the most recent comparison against the Death Master File conducted by the insurer.

(Source: P.A. 99-893, eff. 1-1-17; 100-543, eff. 1-1-18; revised 12-14-17.)

Section 365. The Public Utilities Act is amended by changing Section 13-703 as follows:

(220 ILCS 5/13-703) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 13-703)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2020)

Sec. 13-703. (a) The Commission shall design and implement a program whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications device capable of servicing the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability together with a single party line, at no charge additional to the basic exchange rate, to any subscriber who is certified as having a hearing or speech disability by a hearing care professional, as defined in the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, a speech-language pathologist, or a qualified State agency and to any subscriber which is an organization serving the needs of those persons with a hearing or speech disability as determined and specified by the Commission pursuant to subsection (d).

(b) The Commission shall design and implement a program, whereby each telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service shall provide a telecommunications relay system, using third party intervention to connect those persons having a hearing or speech disability with persons of normal hearing by way of intercommunications devices and the telephone system, making available reasonable access to all phases of public telephone service to persons who have a hearing or speech disability. In order to design a telecommunications relay system which will meet the requirements of those persons with a hearing or speech disability available at a reasonable cost, the Commission shall initiate an investigation and conduct public hearings to determine the most cost-effective method of providing telecommunications relay service to those persons who have a hearing or speech disability when using telecommunications devices and therein solicit the advice, counsel, and physical assistance of Statewide nonprofit consumer organizations that serve persons with hearing or speech disabilities in such hearings and during the development and implementation of the system. The Commission shall phase in this program, on a geographical basis, as soon as is practicable, but no later than June 30, 1990.

(c) The Commission shall establish a competitively neutral rate recovery mechanism that establishes charges in an amount to be determined by the Commission for each line of a subscriber to allow telecommunications carriers providing local exchange service to recover costs as they are incurred under this Section. Beginning no later than April 1, 2016, and on a yearly basis thereafter, the Commission shall initiate a proceeding to establish the competitively neutral amount to be charged or assessed to subscribers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service in a manner consistent with this subsection (c) and subsection (f) of this Section. The Commission shall issue its order establishing the competitively neutral amount to be charged or assessed to subscribers of telecommunications carriers and wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and purchasers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service on or prior to June 1 of each year, and such amount shall take effect June 1 of each year.

Telecommunications carriers, wireless carriers, Interconnected VoIP service providers, and sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall have 60 days from the date the Commission files its order to implement the new rate established by the order.

(d) The Commission shall determine and specify those organizations serving the needs of those persons having a hearing or speech disability that shall receive a telecommunications device and in which offices the equipment shall be installed in the case of an organization having more than one office. For the purposes of this Section, "organizations serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities" means centers for independent living as described in Section 12a of the Rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities Act and not-for-profit organizations whose primary purpose is serving the needs of those persons with hearing or speech disabilities. The Commission shall direct the telecommunications carriers subject to its jurisdiction and this Section to comply with its determinations and specifications in this regard.

(e) As used in this Section:

"Prepaid wireless telecommunications service" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Retail transaction" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Seller" has the meaning given to that term under Section 10 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act.

"Telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service" includes, without otherwise limiting the meaning of the term, telecommunications carriers which are purely mutual concerns, having no rates or charges for services, but paying the operating expenses by assessment upon the members of such a company and no other person.

"Wireless carrier" has the meaning given to that term under Section 2 of the Emergency Telephone System Act.

(f) Interconnected VoIP service providers, sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service, and wireless carriers in Illinois shall collect and remit assessments determined in accordance with this Section in a competitively neutral manner in the same manner as a telecommunications carrier providing local exchange service. However, the assessment imposed on consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall be collected by the seller from the consumer and imposed per retail transaction as a percentage of that retail transaction on all retail transactions occurring in this State. The assessment on subscribers of wireless carriers and consumers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall not be imposed or collected prior to June 1, 2016.

Sellers of prepaid wireless telecommunications service shall remit the assessments to the Department of Revenue on the same form and in the same manner which they remit the fee collected under the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act. For the purposes of display on the consumers' receipts, the rates of the fee collected under the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act and the assessment under this Section may be combined. In administration and enforcement of this Section, the provisions of Sections 15 and 20 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act (except subsections (a), (a-5), (b-5), (e), and (e-5) of Section 15 and subsections (c) and (e) of Section 20 of the Prepaid Wireless 9-1-1 Surcharge Act and, from June 29, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 99-6), the seller shall be permitted to deduct and retain 3% of the assessments that are collected by the seller from consumers and that are remitted and timely filed with the Department) that are not inconsistent with this Section, shall apply, as far as practicable, to the subject matter of this Section to the same extent as if those provisions were included in this Section. Beginning on January 1, 2018, the seller is allowed to deduct and retain 3% of the assessments that are collected by the seller from consumers and that are remitted timely and timely filed with the Department, but only if the return is filed electronically as provided in Section 3 of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. Sellers who demonstrate that they do not have access to the Internet or demonstrate hardship in filing electronically may petition the Department to waive the electronic filing requirement. The Department shall deposit all assessments and penalties collected under this Section into the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury. On or before the 25th day of each calendar month, the Department shall prepare and certify to the Comptroller the amount available to the Commission for distribution out of the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund. The amount certified shall be the amount (not including credit memoranda) collected during the second preceding calendar month by the Department, plus an amount the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were erroneously paid to a different taxing body or fund. The amount paid to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund shall not include any amount equal to the amount of refunds made during the second preceding calendar month by the Department to retailers under this Section or any amount that the Department determines is necessary to offset any amounts which were payable to a different taxing body or fund but were erroneously paid to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund. The Commission shall distribute all the funds to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation and the funds may only be used in accordance with the provisions of this Section. The Department shall deduct 2% of all amounts deposited in the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation Fund during every year of remitted assessments. Of the 2% deducted by the Department, one-half shall be transferred into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund to reimburse the Department for its direct costs of administering the collection and remittance of the assessment. The remaining one-half shall be transferred into the Public Utility Fund to reimburse the Commission for its costs of distributing to the Illinois Telecommunications Access Corporation the amount certified by the Department for distribution. The amount to be charged or assessed under subsections (c) and (f) is not imposed on a provider or the consumer for wireless Lifeline service where the consumer does not pay the provider for the service. Where the consumer purchases from the provider optional minutes, texts, or other services in addition to the federally funded Lifeline benefit, a consumer must pay the charge or assessment, and it must be collected by the seller according to this subsection (f).

Interconnected VoIP services shall not be considered an intrastate telecommunications service for the purposes of this Section in a manner inconsistent with federal law or Federal Communications Commission regulation.

(g) The provisions of this Section are severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(h) The Commission may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-6, eff. 6-29-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-847, eff. 8-19-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-20, eff. 7-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-303, eff. 8-24-17; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 370. The Gas Transmission Facilities Act is amended by changing Section 1.03 as follows:

(220 ILCS 25/1.03) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 571.03)

Sec. 1.03. "Private energy entity" includes every person, corporation, political subdivision, and public agency of the State who generates or produces natural gas for energy for his or its own consumption or the consumption of his or its tenants or for direct sale to others, excluding sales for resale, and every person, corporation, political subdivision, and public agency of the State who buys natural gas at the wellhead for his or its own consumption or the consumption of his or its tenants and not for sale to others. A private energy entity shall not be found to be a public utility as defined by the "Public Utilities Act", approved June 29, 1921, as amended, merely because of its activities in transmitting natural gas.

(Source: P.A. 83-1290; revised 9-27-17.)

Section 375. The Illinois Underground Utility Facilities Damage Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 2.2 as follows:

(220 ILCS 50/2.2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 1602.2)

Sec. 2.2. Underground utility facilities. (a) "Underground utility facilities" or "facilities" means and includes wires, ducts, fiber optic cable, conduits, pipes, sewers, and cables and their connected appurtenances installed beneath the surface of the ground by:

(1) a public utility as defined in the Public Utilities Act;

(2) a municipally owned or mutually owned utility providing a similar utility service;

(3) a pipeline entity transporting gases, crude oil, petroleum products, or other hydrocarbon materials within the State;

(4) a telecommunications carrier as defined in the Universal Telephone Service Protection Law of 1985, or by a company described in Section 1 of the Telephone Company Act;

(5) a community antenna television system, as defined in the Illinois Municipal Code or the Counties Code;

(6) a holder, as that term is defined in the Cable and Video Competition Law of 2007;

(7) any other entity owning or operating underground facilities that transport generated electrical power to other utility owners or operators or transport generated electrical power within the internal electric grid of a wind turbine generation farm; and

(8) an electric cooperative as defined in the Public Utilities Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-714, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 380. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 2304)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.

"Dentist" means a person who has received a general license pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and who may perform any intraoral and extraoral procedure required in the practice of dentistry and to whom is reserved the responsibilities specified in Section 17.

"Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license under this Act to perform dental services as authorized by Section 18.

"Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental services as authorized by Section 17.

"Expanded function dental assistant" means a dental assistant who has completed the training required by Section 17.1 of this Act.

"Dental laboratory" means a person, firm or corporation which:

(i) engages in making, providing, repairing or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and

(ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to provide such services; and

(iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or dentists.

"Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a dental assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the procedure, remain in the dental facility while the procedure is performed, and approve the work performed by the dental hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the patient, but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all times in the treatment room.

"General supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist requiring that the patient be a patient of record, that the dentist examine the patient in accordance with Section 18 prior to treatment by the dental hygienist, and that the dentist authorize the procedures which are being carried out by a notation in the patient's record, but not requiring that a dentist be present when the authorized procedures are being performed. The issuance of a prescription to a dental laboratory by a dentist does not constitute general supervision.

"Public member" means a person who is not a health professional. For purposes of board membership, any person with a significant financial interest in a health service or profession is not a public member.

"Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with the examination, diagnosis, treatment planning and care of conditions within the human oral cavity and its adjacent tissues and structures, as further specified in Section 17.

"Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of dentistry which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to the following: endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics, pediatric dentistry, periodontics, prosthodontics, and oral and maxillofacial radiology.

"Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty license pursuant to Section 11(b).

"Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates or is employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making, providing, repairing or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.

"Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent patient care.

"Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified registered nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's most recent dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental history and on whom the dentist has performed an examination and evaluated the condition to be treated.

"Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness, immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public Health and training certified by the National Incident Management System or the National Disaster Life Support Foundation.

"Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one location to another in order to establish a location where dental services can be provided.

"Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours of clinical experience and has completed at least 42 clock hours of additional structured courses in dental education approved by rule by the Department in advanced areas specific to public health dentistry, including, but not limited to, emergency procedures for medically compromised patients, pharmacology, medical recordkeeping procedures, geriatric dentistry, pediatric dentistry, pathology, and other areas of study as determined by the Department, and works in a public health setting pursuant to a written public health supervision agreement as defined by rule by the Department with a dentist working in or contracted with a local or State government agency or institution or who is providing services as part of a certified school-based program or school-based oral health program.

"Public health setting" means a federally qualified health center; a federal, State, or local public health facility; Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; or a certified school-based health center or school-based oral health program.

"Public health supervision" means the supervision of a public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a written public health supervision agreement with that public health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured and whose household income is not greater than 200% of the federal poverty level.

(Source: P.A. 99-25, eff. 1-1-16; 99-492, eff. 12-31-15; 99-680, eff. 1-1-17; 100-215, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 385. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control;

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a willful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and required by the Adult Protective Services Act.

(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the Adult Protective Services Act.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the Licensing Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device.

(D) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 99-270, eff. 1-1-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(225 ILCS 60/54.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)

Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses without full practice authority, and prescribing psychologists.

(a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may enter into collaborative agreements with no more than 5 full-time equivalent physician assistants, except in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center as set forth by Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for the purpose of providing medical consultation, and no employment relationship is required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement shall be for services in the same area of practice or specialty as the collaborating physician in his or her clinical medical practice. A written collaborative agreement shall be adequate with respect to collaboration with advanced practice registered nurses if all of the following apply:

(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice registered nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience.

(2) The advanced practice registered nurse provides services based upon a written collaborative agreement with the collaborating physician, except as set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must provide delivery services in order to participate with a certified nurse midwife.

(3) Methods of communication are available with the collaborating physician in person or through telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to address patient care needs.

(b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. Collaboration shall be adequate if:

(1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders; and

(2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or physician participates through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia services in a hospital shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.

(c) The collaborating physician shall have access to the medical records of all patients attended by a physician assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to the medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) (Blank).

(e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse solely on the basis of having signed a supervision agreement or guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a standing delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has reason to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.

(f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(g) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(h) (Blank).

(i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

(j) As set forth in Section 22.2 of this Act, a licensee under this Act may not directly or indirectly divide, share, or split any professional fee or other form of compensation for professional services with anyone in exchange for a referral or otherwise, other than as provided in Section 22.2.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-453, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 390. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric physicians, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (1) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (1), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means:

(1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders;

(2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders;

(3) participation in drug and device selection;

(4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows:

(A) in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications;

(B) vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; and

(C) administration of injections of alpha-hydroxyprogesterone caproate, pursuant to a valid prescription, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures;

(5) vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures;

(6) drug regimen review;

(7) drug or drug-related research;

(8) the provision of patient counseling;

(9) the practice of telepharmacy;

(10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care;

(11) medication therapy management; and

(12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records.

A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, podiatric physician, or optometrist, within the limits of his or her license their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (1) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA registration number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA registration numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, partnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the Hospital Licensing Act, or the University of Illinois Hospital Act "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" or "device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronically transmitted prescription" means a prescription that is created, recorded, or stored by electronic means; issued and validated with an electronic signature; and transmitted by electronic means directly from the prescriber to a pharmacy. An electronic prescription is not an image of a physical prescription that is transferred by electronic means from computer to computer, facsimile to facsimile, or facsimile to computer.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or licensee's license file maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(gg) "Email address of record" means the designated email address recorded by the Department in the applicant's application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(Source: P.A. 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 100-208, eff. 1-1-18; 100-497, eff. 9-8-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:

(a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified optometrist within the limits of his or her license, or prevent him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide patients such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;

(b) the sale of compressed gases;

(c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, according to the latest editions of the following authoritative pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic, habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;

(d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock medication;

(e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes; provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating thereto and governing the same, and those which are required under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison" printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;

(f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision agreement;

(g) the delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed podiatric physician to an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with a written collaborative agreement under Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act; and

(h) the sale or distribution of dialysate or devices necessary to perform home peritoneal renal dialysis for patients with end-stage renal disease, provided that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) the dialysate, comprised of dextrose or icodextrin, or devices are approved or cleared by the federal Food and Drug Administration, as required by federal law;

(2) the dialysate or devices are lawfully held by a manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent, which is properly registered with the Board as a manufacturer or wholesaler;

(3) the dialysate or devices are held and delivered to the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent in the original, sealed packaging from the manufacturing facility;

(4) the dialysate or devices are delivered only upon receipt of a physician's prescription by a licensed pharmacy in which the prescription is processed in accordance with provisions set forth in this Act, and the transmittal of an order from the licensed pharmacy to the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent; and

(5) the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent delivers the dialysate or devices directly to: (i) a patient with end-stage renal disease, or his or her designee, for the patient's self-administration of the dialysis therapy or (ii) a health care provider or institution for administration or delivery of the dialysis therapy to a patient with end-stage renal disease.

This paragraph (h) does not include any other drugs for peritoneal dialysis, except dialysate, as described in item (1) of this paragraph (h). All records of sales and distribution of dialysate to patients made pursuant to this paragraph (h) must be retained in accordance with Section 18 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-218, eff. 8-18-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 395. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:

(A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or other health and movement-related conditions, classifying these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the ongoing on-going effects of the interventions.

(B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through the use of the effective properties of physical measures and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

(C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, functional limitation, or disability, including the promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and wellness.

(D) Engaging in administration, consultation, education, and research.

"Physical therapy" includes, but is not limited to: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical medication used in generally accepted physical therapy procedures when such medication is either prescribed by the patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice registered nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the patient's dentist or used following the physician's orders or written instructions, (f) supervision or teaching of physical therapy, and (g) dry needling in accordance with Section 1.5. "Physical therapy" does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic technique or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, other physical therapist, or other health care provider any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.

(2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

(5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.

(6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.

(7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician.

(8) "State" includes:

(a) the states of the United States of America;

(b) the District of Columbia; and

(c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the physical therapy treatment program as established by the licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the planning or major modification of patient programs.

(10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has received on the job training, specific to the facility in which he is employed.

(11) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a person licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

(12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-418, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 400. The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:

(225 ILCS 203/90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2027)

Sec. 90. Penalties. (a) Any natural person who violates any of the following provisions shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a corporation or other business entity that violates any of the following provision commits a business offense punishable by a fine of up to $1,000:

(1) Practicing or attempting to practice as a boiler and pressure vessel repairer without a license;

(2) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license, practice or business, or any other thing of value by fraudulent representation;

(3) Permitting, directing, or authorizing any person in one's employ or under one's direction or supervision to work or serve as a licensee if that individual does not possess an appropriate valid license.

Whenever any person is punished as a repeat offender under this Section, the State Fire Marshal or the Board may proceed to obtain a permanent injunction against the person under Section 10.

If any person in making any oath or affidavit required by this Act swears falsely, such person is guilty of perjury and upon conviction thereof may be punished accordingly.

A natural person who violates any Section of this Act other than this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense, and a corporation or other business entity that violates any Section of this Act commits a business offense punishable by a fine of up to $1,000 $1000 for the first offense.

Second or subsequent offenses in violation of any Section of this Act, including this Section, are Class 4 felonies if committed by a natural person, or a business offense punishable by a fine of up to $5,000 if committed by a corporation or other business entity.

(Source: P.A. 89-467, eff. 1-1-97; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 405. The Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989 is amended by changing Section 29 as follows:

(225 ILCS 315/29) (from Ch. 111, par. 8129)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 29. Administrative Review Law; venue. (a) All final administrative decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law, and its rules. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for review resides, but if the party is not a resident of this State, the venue shall be in Sangamon County.

(Source: P.A. 88-363; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 410. The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of 1989 is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(225 ILCS 330/13) (from Ch. 111, par. 3263)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 13. Minimum standards for enrollment as a Surveyor Intern.. To enroll as a Surveyor Intern, an applicant must be:

(1) a graduate of an approved land surveying curriculum of at least 4 years who has passed an examination in the fundamentals of surveying, as defined by rule;

(2) an applicant in the last year of an approved land surveying or related science curriculum who passes an examination in the fundamentals of surveying, as defined by rule, and furnishes proof that the applicant graduated within a 12-month period following the examination; or

(3) a graduate of a baccalaureate curriculum of at least 4 years, including at least 24 semester hours of land surveying courses from an approved land surveying curriculum and the related science courses, as defined by rule, who passes an examination in the fundamentals of surveying, as defined by rule.

(Source: P.A. 100-171, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 415. The Collection Agency Act is amended by changing Section 9.22 as follows:

(225 ILCS 425/9.22) (from Ch. 111, par. 2034)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 9.22. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and incorporated herein as if all of the provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act that provides that at hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful requirements for retention, continuation or renewal of the license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed or emailed to the applicant or licensee at the address of record or email address of record.

(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 100-132, eff. 8-18-17; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 420. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended by changing Sections 1-10 and 20-20 as follows:

(225 ILCS 454/1-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 1-10. Definitions. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Act" means the Real Estate License Act of 2000.

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Agency" means a relationship in which a broker or licensee, whether directly or through an affiliated licensee, represents a consumer by the consumer's consent, whether express or implied, in a real property transaction.

"Applicant" means any person, as defined in this Section, who applies to the Department for a valid license as a managing broker, broker, or leasing agent.

"Blind advertisement" means any real estate advertisement that does not include the sponsoring broker's business name and that is used by any licensee regarding the sale or lease of real estate, including his or her own, licensed activities, or the hiring of any licensee under this Act. The broker's business name in the case of a franchise shall include the franchise affiliation as well as the name of the individual firm.

"Board" means the Real Estate Administration and Disciplinary Board of the Department as created by Section 25-10 of this Act.

"Branch office" means a sponsoring broker's office other than the sponsoring broker's principal office.

"Broker" means an individual, partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or registered limited liability partnership other than a leasing agent who, whether in person or through any media or technology, for another and for compensation, or with the intention or expectation of receiving compensation, either directly or indirectly:

(1) Sells, exchanges, purchases, rents, or leases real estate.

(2) Offers to sell, exchange, purchase, rent, or lease real estate.

(3) Negotiates, offers, attempts, or agrees to negotiate the sale, exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of real estate.

(4) Lists, offers, attempts, or agrees to list real estate for sale, rent, lease, or exchange.

(5) Buys, sells, offers to buy or sell, or otherwise deals in options on real estate or improvements thereon.

(6) Supervises the collection, offer, attempt, or agreement to collect rent for the use of real estate.

(7) Advertises or represents himself or herself as being engaged in the business of buying, selling, exchanging, renting, or leasing real estate.

(8) Assists or directs in procuring or referring of leads or prospects, intended to result in the sale, exchange, lease, or rental of real estate.

(9) Assists or directs in the negotiation of any transaction intended to result in the sale, exchange, lease, or rental of real estate.

(10) Opens real estate to the public for marketing purposes.

(11) Sells, rents, leases, or offers for sale or lease real estate at auction.

(12) Prepares or provides a broker price opinion or comparative market analysis as those terms are defined in this Act, pursuant to the provisions of Section 10-45 of this Act.

"Brokerage agreement" means a written or oral agreement between a sponsoring broker and a consumer for licensed activities to be provided to a consumer in return for compensation or the right to receive compensation from another. Brokerage agreements may constitute either a bilateral or a unilateral agreement between the broker and the broker's client depending upon the content of the brokerage agreement. All exclusive brokerage agreements shall be in writing.

"Broker price opinion" means an estimate or analysis of the probable selling price of a particular interest in real estate, which may provide a varying level of detail about the property's condition, market, and neighborhood and information on comparable sales. The activities of a real estate broker or managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a broker price opinion if no compensation is paid to the broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the sale or rental of real estate.

"Client" means a person who is being represented by a licensee.

"Comparative market analysis" is an analysis or opinion regarding pricing, marketing, or financial aspects relating to a specified interest or interests in real estate that may be based upon an analysis of comparative market data, the expertise of the real estate broker or managing broker, and such other factors as the broker or managing broker may deem appropriate in developing or preparing such analysis or opinion. The activities of a real estate broker or managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a comparative market analysis if no compensation is paid to the broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the sale or rental of real estate.

"Compensation" means the valuable consideration given by one person or entity to another person or entity in exchange for the performance of some activity or service. Compensation shall include the transfer of valuable consideration, including without limitation the following:

(1) commissions;

(2) referral fees;

(3) bonuses;

(4) prizes;

(5) merchandise;

(6) finder fees;

(7) performance of services;

(8) coupons or gift certificates;

(9) discounts;

(10) rebates;

(11) a chance to win a raffle, drawing, lottery, or similar game of chance not prohibited by any other law or statute;

(12) retainer fee; or

(13) salary.

"Confidential information" means information obtained by a licensee from a client during the term of a brokerage agreement that (i) was made confidential by the written request or written instruction of the client, (ii) deals with the negotiating position of the client, or (iii) is information the disclosure of which could materially harm the negotiating position of the client, unless at any time:

(1) the client permits the disclosure of information given by that client by word or conduct;

(2) the disclosure is required by law; or

(3) the information becomes public from a source other than the licensee.

"Confidential information" shall not be considered to include material information about the physical condition of the property.

"Consumer" means a person or entity seeking or receiving licensed activities.

"Coordinator" means the Coordinator of Real Estate created in Section 25-15 of this Act.

"Credit hour" means 50 minutes of classroom instruction in course work that meets the requirements set forth in rules adopted by the Department.

"Customer" means a consumer who is not being represented by the licensee but for whom the licensee is performing ministerial acts.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Designated agency" means a contractual relationship between a sponsoring broker and a client under Section 15-50 of this Act in which one or more licensees associated with or employed by the broker are designated as agent of the client.

"Designated agent" means a sponsored licensee named by a sponsoring broker as the legal agent of a client, as provided for in Section 15-50 of this Act.

"Dual agency" means an agency relationship in which a licensee is representing both buyer and seller or both landlord and tenant in the same transaction. When the agency relationship is a designated agency, the question of whether there is a dual agency shall be determined by the agency relationships of the designated agent of the parties and not of the sponsoring broker.

"Education provider" means a school licensed by the Department offering courses in pre-license, post-license, or continuing education required by this Act.

"Employee" or other derivative of the word "employee", when used to refer to, describe, or delineate the relationship between a sponsoring broker and a managing broker, broker, or a leasing agent, shall be construed to include an independent contractor relationship, provided that a written agreement exists that clearly establishes and states the relationship. All responsibilities of a broker shall remain.

"Escrow moneys" means all moneys, promissory notes or any other type or manner of legal tender or financial consideration deposited with any person for the benefit of the parties to the transaction. A transaction exists once an agreement has been reached and an accepted real estate contract signed or lease agreed to by the parties. Escrow moneys includes without limitation earnest moneys and security deposits, except those security deposits in which the person holding the security deposit is also the sole owner of the property being leased and for which the security deposit is being held.

"Electronic means of proctoring" means a methodology providing assurance that the person taking a test and completing the answers to questions is the person seeking licensure or credit for continuing education and is doing so without the aid of a third party or other device.

"Exclusive brokerage agreement" means a written brokerage agreement that provides that the sponsoring broker has the sole right, through one or more sponsored licensees, to act as the exclusive designated agent or representative of the client and that meets the requirements of Section 15-75 of this Act.

"Inoperative" means a status of licensure where the licensee holds a current license under this Act, but the licensee is prohibited from engaging in licensed activities because the licensee is unsponsored or the license of the sponsoring broker with whom the licensee is associated or by whom he or she is employed is currently expired, revoked, suspended, or otherwise rendered invalid under this Act.

"Interactive delivery method" means delivery of a course by an instructor through a medium allowing for 2-way communication between the instructor and a student in which either can initiate or respond to questions.

"Leads" means the name or names of a potential buyer, seller, lessor, lessee, or client of a licensee.

"Leasing Agent" means a person who is employed by a broker to engage in licensed activities limited to leasing residential real estate who has obtained a license as provided for in Section 5-5 of this Act.

"License" means the document issued by the Department certifying that the person named thereon has fulfilled all requirements prerequisite to licensure under this Act.

"Licensed activities" means those activities listed in the definition of "broker" under this Section.

"Licensee" means any person, as defined in this Section, who holds a valid unexpired license as a managing broker, broker, or leasing agent.

"Listing presentation" means a communication between a managing broker or broker and a consumer in which the licensee is attempting to secure a brokerage agreement with the consumer to market the consumer's real estate for sale or lease.

"Managing broker" means a broker who has supervisory responsibilities for licensees in one or, in the case of a multi-office company, more than one office and who has been appointed as such by the sponsoring broker.

"Medium of advertising" means any method of communication intended to influence the general public to use or purchase a particular good or service or real estate.

"Ministerial acts" means those acts that a licensee may perform for a consumer that are informative or clerical in nature and do not rise to the level of active representation on behalf of a consumer. Examples of these acts include without limitation (i) responding to phone inquiries by consumers as to the availability and pricing of brokerage services, (ii) responding to phone inquiries from a consumer concerning the price or location of property, (iii) attending an open house and responding to questions about the property from a consumer, (iv) setting an appointment to view property, (v) responding to questions of consumers walking into a licensee's office concerning brokerage services offered or particular properties, (vi) accompanying an appraiser, inspector, contractor, or similar third party on a visit to a property, (vii) describing a property or the property's condition in response to a consumer's inquiry, (viii) completing business or factual information for a consumer on an offer or contract to purchase on behalf of a client, (ix) showing a client through a property being sold by an owner on his or her own behalf, or (x) referral to another broker or service provider.

"Office" means a broker's place of business where the general public is invited to transact business and where records may be maintained and licenses displayed, whether or not it is the broker's principal place of business.

"Person" means and includes individuals, entities, corporations, limited liability companies, registered limited liability partnerships, and partnerships, foreign or domestic, except that when the context otherwise requires, the term may refer to a single individual or other described entity.

"Personal assistant" means a licensed or unlicensed person who has been hired for the purpose of aiding or assisting a sponsored licensee in the performance of the sponsored licensee's job.

"Pocket card" means the card issued by the Department to signify that the person named on the card is currently licensed under this Act.

"Pre-renewal period" means the period between the date of issue of a currently valid license and the license's expiration date.

"Proctor" means any person, including, but not limited to, an instructor, who has a written agreement to administer examinations fairly and impartially with a licensed education provider.

"Real estate" means and includes leaseholds as well as any other interest or estate in land, whether corporeal, incorporeal, freehold, or non-freehold and whether the real estate is situated in this State or elsewhere. "Real estate" does not include property sold, exchanged, or leased as a timeshare or similar vacation item or interest, vacation club membership, or other activity formerly regulated under the Real Estate Timeshare Act of 1999 (repealed).

"Regular employee" means a person working an average of 20 hours per week for a person or entity who would be considered as an employee under the Internal Revenue Service eleven main tests in three categories being behavioral control, financial control and the type of relationship of the parties, formerly the twenty factor test.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person authorized by the Secretary to act in the Secretary's stead.

"Sponsoring broker" means the broker who has issued a sponsor card to a licensed managing broker, broker, or a leasing agent.

"Sponsor card" means the temporary permit issued by the sponsoring broker certifying that the managing broker, broker, or leasing agent named thereon is employed by or associated by written agreement with the sponsoring broker, as provided for in Section 5-40 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 100-188, eff. 1-1-18; 100-534, eff. 9-22-17; revised 10-2-17.)

(225 ILCS 454/20-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 20-20. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, may place on probation, suspend, or revoke any license, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not to exceed $25,000 upon any licensee or applicant under this Act or any person who holds himself or herself out as an applicant or licensee or against a licensee in handling his or her own property, whether held by deed, option, or otherwise, for any one or any combination of the following causes:

(1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(2) The conviction of or plea of guilty or plea of nolo contendere to a felony or misdemeanor in this State or any other jurisdiction; or the entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction. Action taken under this paragraph (2) for a misdemeanor or an administrative sanction is limited to a misdemeanor or administrative sanction that has as an essential element dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses or by means of a confidence game.

(3) Inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, or a mental illness or disability.

(4) Practice under this Act as a licensee in a retail sales establishment from an office, desk, or space that is not separated from the main retail business by a separate and distinct area within the establishment.

(5) Having been disciplined by another state, the District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as or the equivalent of one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified copy of the record of the action by the other state or jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

(6) Engaging in the practice of real estate brokerage without a license or after the licensee's license or temporary permit was expired or while the license was inoperative.

(7) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam.

(8) Aiding or abetting an applicant to subvert or cheat on the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education exam administered pursuant to this Act.

(9) Advertising that is inaccurate, misleading, or contrary to the provisions of the Act.

(10) Making any substantial misrepresentation or untruthful advertising.

(11) Making any false promises of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce.

(12) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or the making of false promises through licensees, employees, agents, advertising, or otherwise.

(13) Any misleading or untruthful advertising, or using any trade name or insignia of membership in any real estate organization of which the licensee is not a member.

(14) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without providing written notice to all parties for whom the licensee acts.

(15) Representing or attempting to represent a broker other than the sponsoring broker.

(16) Failure to account for or to remit any moneys or documents coming into his or her possession that belong to others.

(17) Failure to maintain and deposit in a special account, separate and apart from personal and other business accounts, all escrow moneys belonging to others entrusted to a licensee while acting as a broker, escrow agent, or temporary custodian of the funds of others or failure to maintain all escrow moneys on deposit in the account until the transactions are consummated or terminated, except to the extent that the moneys, or any part thereof, shall be:

(A) disbursed prior to the consummation or termination (i) in accordance with the written direction of the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, (ii) in accordance with directions providing for the release, payment, or distribution of escrow moneys contained in any written contract signed by the principals to the transaction or their duly authorized agents, or (iii) pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(B) deemed abandoned and transferred to the Office of the State Treasurer to be handled as unclaimed property pursuant to the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. Escrow moneys may be deemed abandoned under this subparagraph (B) only: (i) in the absence of disbursement under subparagraph (A); (ii) in the absence of notice of the filing of any claim in a court of competent jurisdiction; and (iii) if 6 months have elapsed after the receipt of a written demand for the escrow moneys from one of the principals to the transaction or the principal's duly authorized agent.

The account shall be noninterest bearing, unless the character of the deposit is such that payment of interest thereon is otherwise required by law or unless the principals to the transaction specifically require, in writing, that the deposit be placed in an interest bearing account.

(18) Failure to make available to the Department all escrow records and related documents maintained in connection with the practice of real estate within 24 hours of a request for those documents by Department personnel.

(19) Failing to furnish copies upon request of documents relating to a real estate transaction to a party who has executed that document.

(20) Failure of a sponsoring broker to timely provide information, sponsor cards, or termination of licenses to the Department.

(21) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public.

(22) Commingling the money or property of others with his or her own money or property.

(23) Employing any person on a purely temporary or single deal basis as a means of evading the law regarding payment of commission to nonlicensees on some contemplated transactions.

(24) Permitting the use of his or her license as a broker to enable a leasing agent or unlicensed person to operate a real estate business without actual participation therein and control thereof by the broker.

(25) Any other conduct, whether of the same or a different character from that specified in this Section, that constitutes dishonest dealing.

(26) Displaying a "for rent" or "for sale" sign on any property without the written consent of an owner or his or her duly authorized agent or advertising by any means that any property is for sale or for rent without the written consent of the owner or his or her authorized agent.

(27) Failing to provide information requested by the Department, or otherwise respond to that request, within 30 days of the request.

(28) Advertising by means of a blind advertisement, except as otherwise permitted in Section 10-30 of this Act.

(29) Offering guaranteed sales plans, as defined in clause (A) of this subdivision (29), except to the extent hereinafter set forth:

(A) A "guaranteed sales plan" is any real estate purchase or sales plan whereby a licensee enters into a conditional or unconditional written contract with a seller, prior to entering into a brokerage agreement with the seller, by the terms of which a licensee agrees to purchase a property of the seller within a specified period of time at a specific price in the event the property is not sold in accordance with the terms of a brokerage agreement to be entered into between the sponsoring broker and the seller.

(B) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide the details and conditions of the plan in writing to the party to whom the plan is offered.

(C) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall provide to the party to whom the plan is offered evidence of sufficient financial resources to satisfy the commitment to purchase undertaken by the broker in the plan.

(D) Any licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan shall undertake to market the property of the seller subject to the plan in the same manner in which the broker would market any other property, unless the agreement with the seller provides otherwise.

(E) The licensee cannot purchase seller's property until the brokerage agreement has ended according to its terms or is otherwise terminated.

(F) Any licensee who fails to perform on a guaranteed sales plan in strict accordance with its terms shall be subject to all the penalties provided in this Act for violations thereof and, in addition, shall be subject to a civil fine payable to the party injured by the default in an amount of up to $25,000.

(30) Influencing or attempting to influence, by any words or acts, a prospective seller, purchaser, occupant, landlord, or tenant of real estate, in connection with viewing, buying, or leasing real estate, so as to promote or tend to promote the continuance or maintenance of racially and religiously segregated housing or so as to retard, obstruct, or discourage racially integrated housing on or in any street, block, neighborhood, or community.

(31) Engaging in any act that constitutes a violation of any provision of Article 3 of the Illinois Human Rights Act, whether or not a complaint has been filed with or adjudicated by the Human Rights Commission.

(32) Inducing any party to a contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement to break the contract of sale or lease or brokerage agreement for the purpose of substituting, in lieu thereof, a new contract for sale or lease or brokerage agreement with a third party.

(33) Negotiating a sale, exchange, or lease of real estate directly with any person if the licensee knows that the person has an exclusive brokerage agreement with another broker, unless specifically authorized by that broker.

(34) When a licensee is also an attorney, acting as the attorney for either the buyer or the seller in the same transaction in which the licensee is acting or has acted as a managing broker or broker.

(35) Advertising or offering merchandise or services as free if any conditions or obligations necessary for receiving the merchandise or services are not disclosed in the same advertisement or offer. These conditions or obligations include without limitation the requirement that the recipient attend a promotional activity or visit a real estate site. As used in this subdivision (35), "free" includes terms such as "award", "prize", "no charge", "free of charge", "without charge", and similar words or phrases that reasonably lead a person to believe that he or she may receive or has been selected to receive something of value, without any conditions or obligations on the part of the recipient.

(36) (Blank).

(37) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued by the Department.

(38) Paying or failing to disclose compensation in violation of Article 10 of this Act.

(39) Requiring a party to a transaction who is not a client of the licensee to allow the licensee to retain a portion of the escrow moneys for payment of the licensee's commission or expenses as a condition for release of the escrow moneys to that party.

(40) Disregarding or violating any provision of this Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act or aiding or abetting any individual, partnership, registered limited liability partnership, limited liability company, or corporation in disregarding any provision of this Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act.

(41) Failing to provide the minimum services required by Section 15-75 of this Act when acting under an exclusive brokerage agreement.

(42) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that results in a managing broker, broker, or leasing agent's inability to practice with reasonable skill or safety.

(43) Enabling, aiding, or abetting an auctioneer, as defined in the Auction License Act, to conduct a real estate auction in a manner that is in violation of this Act.

(44) Permitting any leasing agent or temporary leasing agent permit holder to engage in activities that require a broker's or managing broker's license.

(b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license until the individual submits to the examination if the Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 100-22, eff. 1-1-18; 100-188, eff. 1-1-18; 100-534, eff. 9-22-17; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 425. The Illinois Dead Animal Disposal Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(225 ILCS 610/12) (from Ch. 8, par. 160)

Sec. 12. The Department shall make such reasonable regulations for the carrying on and conduct of such business as it may deem advisable and all persons engaged in such business shall comply therewith. The Department, or its representatives, in performing the duties vested in it under this Act is empowered to enter, during usual working hours, any premises, buildings, or other places where dead animals or used cooking grease and cooking oil may be found, for the purpose of administering the provisions of this Act.

Licensees shall comply with rules, bulletins, manuals of procedure and guidelines pertaining to renderers and blenders and the handling and distribution of condemned or inedible meat or poultry products which implement the Federal federal Meat Inspection Act and the federal Poultry Products Inspection Act. Such rules, bulletins, manuals and guidelines shall become effective on the date designated by the United States Department of Agriculture.

(Source: P.A. 98-785, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 430. The Meat and Poultry Inspection Act is amended by changing Section 5.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 650/5.1)

Sec. 5.1. Type I licenses.

(a) A Type I establishment licensed under this Act who sells or offers for sale meat, meat product, poultry, and poultry product shall, except as otherwise provided:

(1) shall be Be permitted to receive meat, meat product, poultry, and poultry product for cutting, processing, preparing, packing, wrapping, chilling, freezing, sharp freezing, or storing, provided it bears an official mark of State of Illinois or of Federal Inspection; .

(2) shall be Be permitted to receive live animals and poultry for slaughter, provided all animals and poultry are properly presented for prescribed inspection to a Department employee; and .

(3) may May accept meat, meat product, poultry, and poultry product for sharp freezing or storage provided that the product is inspected product.

(b) Before being granted or renewing official inspection, an establishment must develop written sanitation Standard Operating Procedures as required by 8 Ill. Adm. Code 125.141.

(c) Before being granted official inspection, an establishment must conduct a hazard analysis and develop and validate an HACCP plan as required by 8 Ill. Adm. Code 125.142. A conditional grant of inspection shall be issued for a period not to exceed 90 days, during which period the establishment must validate its HACCP plan.

Any establishment subject to inspection under this Act that believes, or has reason to believe, that an adulterated or misbranded meat or meat food product received by or originating from the establishment has entered into commerce shall promptly notify the Director with regard to the type, amount, origin, and destination of the meat or meat food product.

The Director shall require that each Type I establishment subject to inspection under this Act shall, at a minimum:

(1) prepare and maintain current procedures for the recall of all meat, poultry, meat food products, and poultry food products with a mark of inspection produced and shipped by the establishment;

(2) document each reassessment of the process control plans of the establishment; and

(3) upon request, make the procedures and reassessed process control plans available to inspectors appointed by the Director for review and copying.

(d) Any establishment licensed under the authority of this Act that receives wild game carcasses shall comply with the following requirements regarding wild game carcasses:

(1) Wild game carcasses shall be dressed prior to entering the processing or refrigerated areas of the licensed establishment.

(2) Wild game carcasses stored in the refrigerated area of the licensed establishment shall be kept separate and apart from inspected products.

(3) A written request shall be made to the Department on an annual basis if a licensed establishment is suspending operations regarding an amenable product due to handling of wild game carcasses.

(4) A written procedure for handling wild game shall be approved by the Department.

(5) All equipment used that comes in contact with wild game shall be thoroughly cleaned and sanitized prior to use on animal or poultry carcasses.

(Source: P.A. 98-611, eff. 12-27-13; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 435. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is amended by changing Section 28 as follows:

(230 ILCS 5/28) (from Ch. 8, par. 37-28)

Sec. 28. Except as provided in subsection (g) of Section 27 of this Act, moneys collected shall be distributed according to the provisions of this Section 28.

(a) Thirty per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Fund in the State Treasury.

(b) In addition, 4.5% of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the State treasury into a special Fund to be known as the Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Fund.

(c) Fifty per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes under the provisions of this Act shall be paid into the Agricultural Premium Fund.

(d) Seven per cent of the total of all monies received by the State as privilege taxes shall be paid into the Fair and Exposition Fund in the State treasury; provided, however, that when all bonds issued prior to July 1, 1984 by the Metropolitan Fair and Exposition Authority shall have been paid or payment shall have been provided for upon a refunding of those bonds, thereafter 1/12 of $1,665,662 of such monies shall be paid each month into the Build Illinois Fund, and the remainder into the Fair and Exposition Fund. All excess monies shall be allocated to the Department of Agriculture for distribution to county fairs for premiums and rehabilitation as set forth in the Agricultural Fair Act.

(e) The monies provided for in Section 30 shall be paid into the Illinois Thoroughbred Breeders Fund.

(f) The monies provided for in Section 31 shall be paid into the Illinois Standardbred Breeders Fund.

(g) Until January 1, 2000, that part representing 1/2 of the total breakage in Thoroughbred, Harness, Appaloosa, Arabian, and Quarter Horse racing in the State shall be paid into the Illinois Race Track Improvement Fund as established in Section 32.

(h) All other monies received by the Board under this Act shall be paid into the Horse Racing Fund.

(i) The salaries of the Board members, secretary, stewards, directors of mutuels, veterinarians, representatives, accountants, clerks, stenographers, inspectors and other employees of the Board, and all expenses of the Board incident to the administration of this Act, including, but not limited to, all expenses and salaries incident to the taking of saliva and urine samples in accordance with the rules and regulations of the Board shall be paid out of the Agricultural Premium Fund.

(j) The Agricultural Premium Fund shall also be used:

(1) for the expenses of operating the Illinois State Fair and the DuQuoin State Fair, including the payment of prize money or premiums;

(2) for the distribution to county fairs, vocational agriculture section fairs, agricultural societies, and agricultural extension clubs in accordance with the Agricultural Fair Act, as amended;

(3) for payment of prize monies and premiums awarded and for expenses incurred in connection with the International Livestock Exposition and the Mid-Continent Livestock Exposition held in Illinois, which premiums, and awards must be approved, and paid by the Illinois Department of Agriculture;

(4) for personal service of county agricultural advisors and county home advisors;

(5) for distribution to agricultural home economic extension councils in accordance with "An Act in relation to additional support and finance for the Agricultural and Home Economic Extension Councils in the several counties in this State and making an appropriation therefor", approved July 24, 1967, as amended;

(6) for research on equine disease, including a development center therefor;

(7) for training scholarships for study on equine diseases to students at the University of Illinois College of Veterinary Medicine;

(8) for the rehabilitation, repair and maintenance of the Illinois and DuQuoin State Fair Grounds and the structures and facilities thereon and the construction of permanent improvements on such Fair Grounds, including such structures, facilities and property located on such State Fair Grounds which are under the custody and control of the Department of Agriculture;

(9) (blank);

(10) for the expenses of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity under Sections 605-620, 605-625, and 605-630 of the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law (20 ILCS 605/605-620, 605/605-625, and 605/605-630);

(11) for remodeling, expanding, and reconstructing facilities destroyed by fire of any Fair and Exposition Authority in counties with a population of 1,000,000 or more inhabitants;

(12) for the purpose of assisting in the care and general rehabilitation of veterans with disabilities of any war and their surviving spouses and orphans;

(13) for expenses of the Department of State Police for duties performed under this Act;

(14) for the Department of Agriculture for soil surveys and soil and water conservation purposes;

(15) for the Department of Agriculture for grants to the City of Chicago for conducting the Chicagofest;

(16) for the State Comptroller for grants and operating expenses authorized by the Illinois Global Partnership Act.

(k) To the extent that monies paid by the Board to the Agricultural Premium Fund are in the opinion of the Governor in excess of the amount necessary for the purposes herein stated, the Governor shall notify the Comptroller and the State Treasurer of such fact, who, upon receipt of such notification, shall transfer such excess monies from the Agricultural Premium Fund to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-110, eff. 8-15-17; revised 9-28-17.)

Section 440. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by changing Sections 4-4 and 6-11 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/4-4) (from Ch. 43, par. 112)

Sec. 4-4. Each local liquor control commissioner shall also have the following powers, functions, and duties with respect to licenses, other than licenses to manufacturers, importing distributors, distributors, foreign importers, non-resident dealers, non-beverage users, brokers, railroads, airplanes, and boats: .

1. To grant and or suspend for not more than 30 thirty days or revoke for cause all local licenses issued to persons for premises within his jurisdiction;

2. To enter or to authorize any law enforcing officer to enter at any time upon any premises licensed hereunder to determine whether any of the provisions of this Act or any rules or regulations adopted by him or by the State Commission have been or are being violated, and at such time to examine said premises of said licensee in connection therewith;

3. To notify the Secretary of State where a club incorporated under the General Not for Profit Corporation Act of 1986 or a foreign corporation functioning as a club in this State under a certificate of authority issued under that Act has violated this Act by selling or offering for sale at retail alcoholic liquors without a retailer's license;

4. To receive a complaint from any citizen within his jurisdiction that any of the provisions of this Act, or any rules or regulations adopted pursuant hereto, have been or are being violated and to act upon the complaint such complaints in the manner hereinafter provided;

5. To receive local license fees and pay the same forthwith to the city, village, town, or county treasurer, as the case may be.

Each local liquor commissioner also has the duty to notify the Secretary of State of any convictions or dispositions of court supervision for a violation of Section 6-20 of this Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

In counties and municipalities, the local liquor control commissioners shall also have the power to levy fines in accordance with Section 7-5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-166, eff. 1-1-08; revised 9-26-17.)

(235 ILCS 5/6-11)

Sec. 6-11. Sale near churches, schools, and hospitals.

(a) No license shall be issued for the sale at retail of any alcoholic liquor within 100 feet of any church, school other than an institution of higher learning, hospital, home for aged or indigent persons or for veterans, their spouses or children or any military or naval station, provided, that this prohibition shall not apply to hotels offering restaurant service, regularly organized clubs, or to restaurants, food shops or other places where sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on if the place of business so exempted is not located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, unless required by local ordinance; nor to the renewal of a license for the sale at retail of alcoholic liquor on premises within 100 feet of any church or school where the church or school has been established within such 100 feet since the issuance of the original license. In the case of a church, the distance of 100 feet shall be measured to the nearest part of any building used for worship services or educational programs and not to property boundaries.

(b) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor to a restaurant, the primary business of which is the sale of goods baked on the premises if (i) the restaurant is newly constructed and located on a lot of not less than 10,000 square feet, (ii) the restaurant costs at least $1,000,000 to construct, (iii) the licensee is the titleholder to the premises and resides on the premises, and (iv) the construction of the restaurant is completed within 18 months of July 10, 1998 (the effective date of Public Act 90-617).

(c) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to a restaurant if (1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food and the applicant is a completely new owner of the restaurant, (2) the immediately prior owner or operator of the premises where the restaurant is located operated the premises as a restaurant and held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the restaurant for at least part of the 24 months before the change of ownership, and (3) the restaurant is located 75 or more feet from a school.

(d) In the interest of further developing Illinois' economy in the area of commerce, tourism, convention, and banquet business, nothing in this Section shall prohibit issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic beverages to a restaurant, banquet facility, grocery store, or hotel having not fewer than 150 guest room accommodations located in a municipality of more than 500,000 persons, notwithstanding the proximity of such hotel, restaurant, banquet facility, or grocery store to any church or school, if the licensed premises described on the license are located within an enclosed mall or building of a height of at least 6 stories, or 60 feet in the case of a building that has been registered as a national landmark, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 56,010 square feet of floor space in a single story building in an open mall of at least 3.96 acres that is adjacent to a public school that opened as a boys technical high school in 1934, or in a grocery store having a minimum of 31,000 square feet of floor space in a single story building located a distance of more than 90 feet but less than 100 feet from a high school that opened in 1928 as a junior high school and became a senior high school in 1933, and in each of these cases if the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business carried on by the licensee.

For purposes of this Section, a "banquet facility" is any part of a building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a license to a church or private school to sell at retail alcoholic liquor if any such sales are limited to periods when groups are assembled on the premises solely for the promotion of some common object other than the sale or consumption of alcoholic liquors.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a church or church affiliated school located in a home rule municipality or in a municipality with 75,000 or more inhabitants from locating within 100 feet of a property for which there is a preexisting license to sell alcoholic liquor at retail. In these instances, the local zoning authority may, by ordinance adopted simultaneously with the granting of an initial special use zoning permit for the church or church affiliated school, provide that the 100-foot restriction in this Section shall not apply to that church or church affiliated school and future retail liquor licenses.

(g) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises within 100 feet, but not less than 90 feet, of a public school if (1) the premises have been continuously licensed to sell alcoholic liquor for a period of at least 50 years, (2) the premises are located in a municipality having a population of over 500,000 inhabitants, (3) the licensee is an individual who is a member of a family that has held the previous 3 licenses for that location for more than 25 years, (4) the principal of the school and the alderman of the ward in which the school is located have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that they do not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (g), and (5) the local liquor control commissioner has received the written consent of a majority of the registered voters who live within 200 feet of the premises.

(h) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio area attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food,

(2) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises,

(3) the premises are less than 1,000 square feet,

(4) the premises are owned by the University of Illinois,

(5) the premises are immediately adjacent to property owned by a church and are not less than 20 nor more than 40 feet from the church space used for worship services, and

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(i) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 300,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church, synagogue, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church, synagogue, or other place of worship are at least 100 feet apart, on parallel streets, and separated by an alley; and

(2) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(j) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a theater that is within 100 feet of a church if (1) the church owns the theater, (2) the church leases the theater to one or more entities, and (3) the theater is used by at least 5 different not-for-profit theater groups.

(k) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are parallel, on different streets, and separated by an alley;

(2) the southeast corner of the premises are at least 350 feet from the southwest corner of the school;

(3) the school was built in 1978;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and has held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises at a different location for more than 7 years; and

(7) the premises is at least 2,300 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 6,100 and 6,150 square feet.

(l) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 80 feet apart and no greater than 85 feet apart;

(3) the applicant is the owner of the restaurant and on November 15, 2006 held a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor for the business to be conducted on the premises for at least 14 different locations;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the premises is at least 3,200 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 7,150 and 7,200 square feet; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(m) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises and the church are perpendicular, and the primary entrance of the premises faces South while the primary entrance of the church faces West and the distance between the two entrances is more than 100 feet;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises lot line and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(3) the church was established at the current location in 1916 and the present structure was erected in 1925;

(4) the premises is a single story, single use building with at least 1,750 square feet and no more than 2,000 square feet;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(6) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises; and

(7) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(n) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(2) the school is located within subarea E of City of Chicago Residential Business Planned Development Number 70;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food; and

(5) the administration of City of Chicago School District 299 has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of the license.

(o) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises is located on a street that runs perpendicular to the street on which the church is located;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 60 feet;

(6) the premises is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is between 3,600 and 4,000 square feet; and

(7) the premises was built in the year 1909.

For purposes of this subsection (o), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(p) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the shortest distance between the backdoor of the premises, which is used as an emergency exit, and the church is at least 80 feet;

(2) the church was established at the current location in 1889; and

(3) liquor has been sold on the premises since at least 1985.

(q) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church-owned property if:

(1) the premises is located within a larger building operated as a grocery store;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 720 square feet and the area of the larger building exceeds 18,000 square feet;

(3) the larger building containing the premises is within 100 feet of the nearest property line of a church-owned property on which a church-affiliated school is located;

(4) the sale of liquor is not the principal business carried on within the larger building;

(5) the primary entrance of the larger building and the premises and the primary entrance of the church-affiliated school are on different, parallel streets, and the distance between the 2 primary entrances is more than 100 feet;

(6) the larger building is separated from the church-owned property and church-affiliated school by an alley;

(7) the larger building containing the premises and the church building front are on perpendicular streets and are separated by a street; and

(8) (Blank).

(r) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance, renewal, or maintenance of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the primary entrance of the church and the primary entrance of the restaurant are at least 100 feet apart;

(2) the restaurant has operated on the ground floor and lower level of a multi-story, multi-use building for more than 40 years;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is conducted primarily in the below-grade level of the restaurant to which the only public access is by a staircase located inside the restaurant; and

(5) the restaurant has held a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises for more than 40 years.

(s) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population more than 5,000 and less than 10,000 and is within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the church was established at the location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued;

(2) a license for sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was first issued before January 1, 2007; and

(3) a license for the sale of alcoholic liquor on the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 2007, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days.

(t) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant that is established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and a church if:

(1) the restaurant is located inside a five-story building with over 16,800 square feet of commercial space;

(2) the area of the premises does not exceed 31,050 square feet;

(3) the area of the restaurant does not exceed 5,800 square feet;

(4) the building has no less than 78 condominium units;

(5) the construction of the building in which the restaurant is located was completed in 2006;

(6) the building has 10 storefront properties, 3 of which are used for the restaurant;

(7) the restaurant will open for business in 2010;

(8) the building is north of the school and separated by an alley; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church and either the alderman of the ward in which the school is located or the principal of the school have delivered a written statement to the local liquor control commissioner stating that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (t).

(u) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises operates as a restaurant and has been in operation since February 2008;

(2) the applicant is the owner of the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(5) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(6) the rear lot of the school and the rear corner of the building that the premises occupy are separated by an alley;

(7) the distance from the southwest corner of the property line of the school and the northeast corner of the building that the premises occupy is at least 16 feet, 5 inches;

(8) the distance from the rear door of the premises to the southwest corner of the property line of the school is at least 93 feet;

(9) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(10) the school's main structure was erected in 1902 and an addition was built to the main structure in 1959; and

(11) the principal of the school and the alderman in whose district the premises are located have expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(v) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the total land area of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is more than 600,000 square feet;

(2) the premises for which the license or renewal is sought has more than 600 parking stalls;

(3) the total area of all buildings on the premises for which the license or renewal is sought exceeds 140,000 square feet;

(4) the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is separated from the property line of the school by a street;

(5) the distance from the school's property line to the property line of the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is at least 60 feet;

(6) as of June 14, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-9), the premises for which the license or renewal is sought is located in the Illinois Medical District.

(w) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises occupy the first floor and basement of a 2-story building that is 106 years old;

(4) the premises is at least 7,000 square feet and located on a lot that is at least 11,000 square feet;

(5) the premises is located directly west of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(6) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(7) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 130 feet; and

(8) the church has been at its location for at least 40 years.

(x) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the church has been operating in its current location since 1973;

(3) the premises has been operating in its current location since 1988;

(4) the church and the premises are owned by the same parish;

(5) the premises is used for cultural and educational purposes;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his support of the issuance of the license;

(8) the premises is a 2-story building of approximately 23,000 square feet; and

(9) the premises houses a ballroom on its ground floor of approximately 5,000 square feet.

(y) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) according to the municipality, the distance between the east property line of the premises and the west property line of the school is 97.8 feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the school has been operating since 1959;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the school are located on the same street;

(7) the street on which the entrances of the premises and the school are located is a major diagonal thoroughfare;

(8) the premises is a single-story building of approximately 2,900 square feet; and

(9) the premises is used for commercial purposes only.

(z) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is a free-standing building that has "drive-through" pharmacy service;

(8) the premises has approximately 14,490 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 799 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs east-west and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aa) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain having over 100 locations within the municipality;

(4) the licensee has over 8,000 locations nationwide;

(5) the licensee has locations in all 50 states;

(6) the premises is located in the North-East quadrant of the municipality;

(7) the premises is located across the street from a national grocery chain outlet;

(8) the premises has approximately 16,148 square feet of retail space;

(9) the premises has approximately 992 square feet of pharmacy space;

(10) the premises is located on a major arterial street that runs north-south and accepts truck traffic; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(4) the premises is across the street from the church;

(5) the street on which the premises and the church are located is a major arterial street that runs east-west;

(6) the church is an elder-led and Bible-based Assyrian church;

(7) the premises and the church are both single-story buildings;

(8) the storefront directly west of the church is being used as a restaurant; and

(9) the distance between the northern-most property line of the premises and the southern-most property line of the church is 65 feet.

(cc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors at the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of October 25, 2011, the licensee has 1,767 stores operating nationwide, 87 stores operating in the State, and 10 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 124,000 square feet of space in the basement and first and second floors of a building located across the street from a school;

(6) the school opened in August of 2009 and occupies approximately 67,000 square feet of space; and

(7) the building in which the premises shall be located has been listed on the National Register of Historic Places since April 17, 1970.

(dd) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that was purchased from the municipality at a fair market price;

(2) the premises is constructed on land that was previously used as a parking facility for public safety employees;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(4) the main entrance to the store is more than 100 feet from the main entrance to the school;

(5) the premises is to be new construction;

(6) the school is a private school;

(7) the principal of the school has given written approval for the license;

(8) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license;

(9) the grocery store level of the premises is between 60,000 and 70,000 square feet; and

(10) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates 2 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality.

(ee) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and is within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the premises is constructed on land that once contained an industrial steel facility;

(2) the premises is located on land that has undergone environmental remediation;

(3) the premises is located within a retail complex containing retail stores where some of the stores sell alcoholic beverages;

(4) the principal activity of any restaurant in the retail complex is the sale of food, and the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the grocery store;

(6) the entrance to any business that sells alcoholic liquor is more than 100 feet from the entrance to the school;

(7) the alderman of the ward where the premises is located has given written approval of the issuance of the license; and

(8) the principal of the school has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(ff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises is a one and one-half-story building of approximately 10,000 square feet;

(4) the school is a City of Chicago School District 299 school;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the school are at least 300 feet apart and no more than 400 feet apart;

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his support for the issuance of the license; and

(7) the principal of the school has expressed, in writing, that there is no objection to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ff).

(gg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established in a premises that is located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the property on which the church is located and the property on which the premises are located are both within a district originally listed on the National Register of Historic Places on February 14, 1979;

(3) the property on which the premises are located contains one or more multi-story buildings that are at least 95 years old and have no more than three stories;

(4) the building in which the church is located is at least 120 years old;

(5) the property on which the church is located is immediately adjacent to and west of the property on which the premises are located;

(6) the western boundary of the property on which the premises are located is no less than 118 feet in length and no more than 122 feet in length;

(7) as of December 31, 2012, both the church property and the property on which the premises are located are within 250 feet of City of Chicago Business-Residential Planned Development Number 38;

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For the purposes of this subsection, "banquet facility" means the part of the building that is located on the floor above a restaurant and caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(hh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a hotel and at an outdoor patio area attached to the hotel that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the hotel;

(2) the hotel is located within the City of Chicago Business Planned Development Number 468; and

(3) the hospital is located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(ii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant and at an outdoor patio area attached to the restaurant that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is not the principal business carried on by the licensee and is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the restaurant has been operated on the street level of a 2-story building located on a corner lot since 2008;

(3) the restaurant is between 3,700 and 4,000 square feet and sits on a lot that is no more than 6,200 square feet;

(4) the primary entrance to the restaurant and the primary entrance to the church are located on the same street;

(5) the street on which the restaurant and the church are located is a major east-west street;

(6) the restaurant and the church are separated by a one-way northbound street;

(7) the church is located to the west of and no more than 65 feet from the restaurant; and

(8) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing.

(jj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located east of the church, on perpendicular streets, and separated by an alley;

(4) the distance between the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church is at least 175 feet;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 40 feet;

(6) the licensee has been operating at the premises since 2012;

(7) the church was constructed in 1904;

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(9) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (jj).

(kk) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 169,048 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from a tuition-based preschool; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the licensee shall only sell packaged liquors on the premises;

(3) the licensee is a national retail chain;

(4) as of February 27, 2013, the licensee had 1,778 stores operating nationwide, 89 operating in this State, and 11 stores operating within the municipality;

(5) the licensee shall occupy approximately 191,535 square feet of space within a building that is located across the street from an elementary school; and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(mm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within premises and at an outdoor patio or sidewalk cafe, or both, attached to premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and that are within 100 feet of a hospital if:

(1) the primary business of the restaurant consists of the sale of food where the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) as a restaurant, the premises may or may not offer catering as an incidental part of food service;

(3) the primary business of the restaurant is conducted in space owned by a hospital or an entity owned or controlled by, under common control with, or that controls a hospital, and the chief hospital administrator has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(4) the hospital is an adult acute care facility primarily located within the City of Chicago Institutional Planned Development Number 3.

(nn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a theater;

(3) the premises are a building that was constructed in 1913 and opened on May 24, 1915 as a vaudeville theater, and the premises were converted to a motion picture theater in 1935;

(4) the church was constructed in 1889 with a stone exterior;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart;

(6) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(oo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a premises that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a mosque, church, or other place of worship if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the mosque, church, or other place of worship are perpendicular and are on different streets;

(2) the primary entrance to the premises faces West and the primary entrance to the mosque, church, or other place of worship faces South;

(3) the distance between the 2 primary entrances is at least 100 feet;

(4) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established in a location within 100 feet of the premises after a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued;

(5) the mosque, church, or other place of worship was established on or around January 1, 2011;

(6) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises was first issued on or before January 1, 1985;

(7) a license for the sale of alcohol at the premises has been continuously in effect since January 1, 1985, except for interruptions between licenses of no more than 90 days; and

(8) the premises are a single-story, single-use building of at least 3,000 square feet and no more than 3,380 square feet.

(pp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor incidental to the sale of food within a restaurant or banquet facility established on premises that are located in a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of at least one church if:

(1) the sale of liquor shall not be the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the premises are at least 2,000 square feet and no more than 10,000 square feet and is located in a single-story building;

(3) the property on which the premises are located is within an area that, as of 2009, was designated as a Renewal Community by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development;

(4) the property on which the premises are located and the properties on which the churches are located are on the same street;

(5) the property on which the premises are located is immediately adjacent to and east of the property on which at least one of the churches is located;

(6) the property on which the premises are located is across the street and southwest of the property on which another church is located;

(7) the principal religious leaders of the churches have indicated their support for the issuance of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman in whose ward the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

For purposes of this subsection (pp), "banquet facility" means the part of the building that caters to private parties and where the sale of alcoholic liquors is not the principal business.

(qq) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor on premises that are located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the primary entrance of the premises and the closest entrance of the church or school are at least 200 feet apart and no greater than 300 feet apart;

(2) the shortest distance between the premises and the church or school is at least 66 feet apart and no greater than 81 feet apart;

(3) the premises are a single-story, steel-framed commercial building with at least 18,042 square feet, and was constructed in 1925 and 1997;

(4) the owner of the business operated within the premises has been the general manager of a similar supermarket within one mile from the premises, which has had a valid license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor since 2002, and is in good standing with the City of Chicago;

(5) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(6) the alderman of the ward has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the principal of the school has indicated his or her support to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(rr) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a club that leases space to a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried out on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a building of approximately 1,750 square feet and is rented by the owners of the grocery store from a family member;

(4) the property line of the premises is approximately 68 feet from the property line of the club;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the club where the school leases space are at least 100 feet apart;

(6) the director of the club renting space to the school has indicated his or her consent to the issuance of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman in whose district the premises are located has expressed his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing.

(ss) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are located within a 15 unit building with 13 residential apartments and 2 commercial spaces, and the licensee will occupy both commercial spaces;

(2) a restaurant has been operated on the premises since June 2011;

(3) the restaurant currently occupies 1,075 square feet, but will be expanding to include 975 additional square feet;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(5) the premises are located south of the church and on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 93 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(7) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 72 feet;

(8) the building in which the restaurant is located was built in 1910;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (ss).

(tt) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises was previously authorized by a package goods liquor license;

(4) the premises are at least 40,000 square feet with 25 parking spaces in the contiguous surface lot to the north of the store and 93 parking spaces on the roof;

(5) the shortest distance between the lot line of the parking lot of the premises and the exterior wall of the church is at least 80 feet;

(6) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 180 feet;

(7) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 257 feet from the main entrance of the premises; and

(8) the applicant is the owner of 10 similar grocery stores within the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 30 years.

(uu) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are located in a building that is approximately 68,000 square feet with 157 parking spaces on property that was previously vacant land;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 500 feet from the entrance of the premises, which faces north;

(5) the church and the premises are separated by an alley;

(6) the applicant is the owner of 9 similar grocery stores in the City of Chicago and the surrounding area and has been in business for more than 40 years; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(vv) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is primary to the sale of food;

(3) the premises are located south of the church and on perpendicular streets and are separated by a driveway;

(4) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 100 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(5) the shortest distance between any part of the premises and any part of the church is at least 15 feet;

(6) the premises are less than 100 feet from the church center, but greater than 100 feet from the area within the building where church services are held;

(7) the premises are 25,830 square feet and sit on a lot that is 0.48 acres;

(8) the premises were once designated as a Korean American Presbyterian Church and were once used as a Masonic Temple;

(9) the premises were built in 1910;

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license; and

(11) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (vv).

For the purposes of this subsection (vv), "premises" means a place of business together with a privately owned outdoor location that is adjacent to the place of business.

(ww) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the school is located within Sub Area III of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended; and

(2) the premises are located within Sub Area I, Sub Area II, or Sub Area IV of City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development Number 523, as amended.

(xx) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of wine or wine-related products is the exclusive business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart and are located on different streets;

(3) the building in which the premises are located and the building in which the church is located are separated by an alley;

(4) the premises consists of less than 2,000 square feet of floor area dedicated to the sale of wine or wine-related products;

(5) the premises are located on the first floor of a 2-story building that is at least 99 years old and has a residential unit on the second floor; and

(6) the principal religious leader at the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(yy) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 27-story hotel containing 191 guest rooms;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises and is limited to a restaurant located on the first floor of the hotel;

(3) the hotel is adjacent to the church;

(4) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(5) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (yy); and

(6) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(zz) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are a 15-story hotel containing 143 guest rooms;

(2) the premises are approximately 85,691 square feet;

(3) a restaurant is operated on the premises;

(4) the restaurant is located in the first floor lobby of the hotel;

(5) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(6) the hotel is located approximately 50 feet from the church and is separated from the church by a public street on the ground level and by air space on the upper level, which is where the public entrances are located;

(7) the site is zoned as DX-16;

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has delivered a written statement that he or she does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (zz); and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(aaa) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the grocery store;

(2) the premises are newly constructed on land that was formerly used by the Young Men's Christian Association;

(3) the grocery store is located within a planned development that was approved by the municipality in 2007;

(4) the premises are located in a multi-building, mixed-use complex;

(5) the entrance to the grocery store is located more than 200 feet from the entrance to the school;

(6) the entrance to the grocery store is located across the street from the back of the school building, which is not used for student or public access;

(7) the grocery store executed a binding lease for the property in 2008;

(8) the premises consist of 2 levels and occupy more than 80,000 square feet;

(9) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality; and

(10) the director of the school has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(bbb) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the premises are located in a single-story building of primarily brick construction containing at least 6 commercial units constructed before 1940;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are less than 4,000 square feet;

(5) the church established its congregation in 1891 and completed construction of the church building in 1990;

(6) the premises are located south of the church;

(7) the premises and church are located on the same street and are separated by a one-way westbound street; and

(8) the principal religious leader of the church has not indicated his or her opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(ccc) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a full-service grocery store at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) as of March 14, 2007, the premises are located in a City of Chicago Residential-Business Planned Development No. 1052;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the operation of a grocery store and comprises no more than 10% of the total in-store sales;

(4) the owner and operator of the grocery store operates at least 10 other grocery stores that have alcoholic liquor licenses within the same municipality;

(5) the premises are new construction when the license is first issued;

(6) the constructed premises are to be no less than 50,000 square feet;

(7) the school is a private church-affiliated school;

(8) the premises and the property containing the church and church-affiliated school are located on perpendicular streets and the school and church are adjacent to one another;

(9) the pastor of the church and school has expressed, in writing, support for the issuance of the license; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ddd) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the business has been issued a license from the municipality to allow the business to operate a theater on the premises;

(2) the theater has less than 200 seats;

(3) the premises are approximately 2,700 to 3,100 square feet of space;

(4) the premises are located to the north of the church;

(5) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any church within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(6) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of any school within 100 feet of the premises are located either on a different street or across a right-of-way from the premises;

(7) the premises are located in a building that is at least 100 years old; and

(8) any church or school located within 100 feet of the premises has indicated its support for the issuance or renewal of the license to the premises in writing.

(eee) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the applicant on the premises;

(3) a family-owned restaurant has operated on the premises since 1957;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 90 years old;

(5) the distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the church is at least 20 feet;

(6) the church was established at its current location and the present structure was erected before 1900;

(7) the primary entrance of the premises is at least 75 feet from the primary entrance of the church;

(8) the school is affiliated with the church;

(9) the principal religious leader at the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance of the license in writing;

(10) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(11) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her lack of an objection to the issuance of the license.

(fff) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a grocery store;

(3) the premises are a one-story building containing approximately 10,000 square feet and are rented by the owners of the grocery store;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises occurs in a retail area of the grocery store that is approximately 3,500 square feet;

(5) the grocery store has operated at the location since 1984;

(6) the grocery store is closed on Sundays;

(7) the property on which the premises are located is a corner lot that is bound by 3 streets and an alley, where one street is a one-way street that runs north-south, one street runs east-west, and one street runs northwest-southeast;

(8) the property line of the premises is approximately 16 feet from the property line of the building where the church is located;

(9) the premises are separated from the building containing the church by a public alley;

(10) the primary entrance of the premises and the primary entrance of the church are at least 100 feet apart;

(11) representatives of the church have delivered a written statement that the church does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection (fff); and

(12) the alderman of the ward in which the grocery store is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ggg) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church and school if:

(1) a residential retirement home formerly operated on the premises and the premises are being converted into a new apartment living complex containing studio and one-bedroom apartments with ground floor retail space;

(2) the restaurant and lobby coffee house are located within a Community Shopping District within the municipality;

(3) the premises are located in a single-building, mixed-use complex that, in addition to the restaurant and lobby coffee house, contains apartment residences, a fitness center for the residents of the apartment building, a lobby designed as a social center for the residents, a rooftop deck, and a patio with a dog run for the exclusive use of the residents;

(4) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the primary business activity of the apartment complex, restaurant, or lobby coffee house;

(5) the entrance to the apartment residence is more than 310 feet from the entrance to the school and church;

(6) the entrance to the apartment residence is located at the end of the block around the corner from the south side of the school building;

(7) the school is affiliated with the church;

(8) the pastor of the parish, principal of the school, and the titleholder to the church and school have given written consent to the issuance of the license;

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has given written consent to the issuance of the license; and

(10) the neighborhood block club has given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(hhh) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license to sell alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a home for indigent persons or a church if:

(1) a restaurant operates on the premises and has been in operation since January of 2014;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(3) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(4) the premises occupy the first floor of a 3-story building that is at least 100 years old;

(5) the primary entrance to the premises is more than 100 feet from the primary entrance to the home for indigent persons, which opened in 1989 and is operated to address homelessness and provide shelter;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the home for indigent persons are located on different streets;

(7) the executive director of the home for indigent persons has given written consent to the issuance of the license;

(8) the entrance to the premises is located within 100 feet of a Buddhist temple;

(9) the entrance to the premises is more than 100 feet from where any worship or educational programming is conducted by the Buddhist temple and is located in an area used only for other purposes; and

(10) the president and the board of directors of the Buddhist temple have given written consent to the issuance of the license.

(iii) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a home for the aged if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee on the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the operation of a restaurant;

(3) the premises are on the ground floor of a multi-floor, university-affiliated housing facility;

(4) the premises occupy 1,916 square feet of space, with the total square footage from which liquor will be sold, served, and consumed to be 900 square feet;

(5) the premises are separated from the home for the aged by an alley;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises and the primary entrance to the home for the aged are at least 500 feet apart and located on different streets;

(7) representatives of the home for the aged have expressed, in writing, that the home does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection; and

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the restaurant is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(jjj) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) as of January 1, 2016, the premises were used for the sale of alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises and were authorized to do so pursuant to a retail tavern license held by an individual as the sole proprietor of the premises;

(2) the primary entrance to the school and the primary entrance to the premises are on the same street;

(3) the school was founded in 1949;

(4) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1930;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated is immediately across the street from the school; and

(6) the school has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(kkk) (Blank).

(lll) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a synagogue or school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises are located on the same street on which the synagogue or school is located;

(4) the primary entrance to the premises and the closest entrance to the synagogue or school is at least 100 feet apart;

(5) the shortest distance between the premises and the synagogue or school is at least 65 feet apart and no greater than 70 feet apart;

(6) the premises are between 1,800 and 2,000 square feet;

(7) the synagogue was founded in 1861; and

(8) the leader of the synagogue has indicated, in writing, the synagogue's support for the issuance or renewal of the license.

(mmm) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(3) the restaurant has been run by the same family for at least 19 consecutive years;

(4) the premises are located in a 3-story building in the most easterly part of the first floor;

(5) the building in which the premises are located has residential housing on the second and third floors;

(6) the primary entrance to the premises is on a north-south street around the corner and across an alley from the primary entrance to the church, which is on an east-west street;

(7) the primary entrance to the church and the primary entrance to the premises are more than 160 feet apart; and

(8) the church has expressed, in writing, its support for the issuance of a license under this subsection.

(nnn) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant or lobby coffee house at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school and church or synagogue if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food in a restaurant;

(3) the front door of the synagogue faces east on the next north-south street east of and parallel to the north-south street on which the restaurant is located where the restaurant's front door faces west;

(4) the closest exterior pedestrian entrance that leads to the school or the synagogue is across an east-west street and at least 300 feet from the primary entrance to the restaurant;

(5) the nearest church-related or school-related building is a community center building;

(6) the restaurant is on the ground floor of a 3-story building constructed in 1896 with a brick façade;

(7) the restaurant shares the ground floor with a theater, and the second and third floors of the building in which the restaurant is located consists of residential housing;

(8) the leader of the synagogue and school has expressed, in writing, that the synagogue does not object to the issuance of a license under this subsection; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises is located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ooo) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 2,000 but less than 5,000 inhabitants in a county with a population in excess of 3,000,000 and within 100 feet of a home for the aged if:

(1) as of March 1, 2016, the premises were used to sell alcohol pursuant to a retail tavern and packaged goods license issued by the municipality and held by a limited liability company as the proprietor of the premises;

(2) the home for the aged was completed in 2015;

(3) the home for the aged is a 5-story structure;

(4) the building in which the premises are situated is directly adjacent to the home for the aged;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1950;

(6) the home for the aged has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license; and

(7) the president of the municipality has expressed in writing that he or she does not object to the issuance or renewal of the license.

(ppp) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or churches if:

(1) the shortest distance between the premises and a church is at least 78 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(2) the premises are a single-story, brick commercial building and between 3,600 to 4,000 square feet and the original building was built before 1922;

(3) the premises are located in a B3-2 zoning district;

(4) the premises are separated from the buildings containing the churches by a street;

(5) the previous owners of the business located on the premises held a liquor license for at least 10 years;

(6) the new owner of the business located on the premises has managed 2 other food and liquor stores since 1997;

(7) the principal religious leaders at the places of worship have indicated their support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(8) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing.

(qqq) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the premises are located on the opposite side of the same street on which the church is located;

(4) the church is located on a corner lot;

(5) the shortest distance between the premises and the church is at least 90 feet apart and no greater than 95 feet apart;

(6) the premises are at least 3,000 but no more than 5,000 square feet;

(7) the church's original chapel was built in 1858;

(8) the church's first congregation was organized in 1860; and

(9) the leaders of the church and the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, their support for the issuance of the license.

(rrr) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a restaurant or banquet facility established within premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the sale of alcoholic liquor is not the principal business carried on by the licensee at the premises;

(3) the immediately prior owner or the operator of the restaurant or banquet facility held a valid retail license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at the premises for at least part of the 24 months before a change of ownership;

(4) the premises are located immediately east and across the street from an elementary school;

(5) the premises and elementary school are part of an approximately 100-acre campus owned by the church;

(6) the school opened in 1999 and was named after the founder of the church; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(sss) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the premises are at least 5,300 square feet and located in a building that was built prior to 1940;

(2) the shortest distance between the property line of the premises and the exterior wall of the building in which the church is located is at least 109 feet;

(3) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 118 feet;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 602 feet from the main entrance of the premises;

(5) the shortest distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the school is at least 177 feet;

(6) the applicant has been in business for more than 10 years;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(8) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(ttt) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church or school if:

(1) the premises are at least 59,000 square feet and located in a building that was built prior to 1940;

(2) the shortest distance between the west property line of the premises and the exterior wall of the church is at least 99 feet;

(3) the distance between the building in which the church is located and the building in which the premises are located is at least 102 feet;

(4) the main entrance to the church faces west and is at least 457 feet from the main entrance of the premises;

(5) the shortest distance between the property line of the premises and the property line of the school is at least 66 feet;

(6) the applicant has been in business for more than 10 years;

(7) the principal religious leader of the church has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing;

(8) the principal of the school has indicated in writing that he or she is not opposed to the issuance of the license; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(uuu) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a place of worship if:

(1) the sale of liquor is incidental to the sale of food;

(2) the premises are at least 7,100 square feet;

(3) the shortest distance between the north property line of the premises and the nearest exterior wall of the place of worship is at least 86 feet;

(4) the main entrance to the place of worship faces north and is more than 150 feet from the main entrance of the premises;

(5) the applicant has been in business for more than 20 years at the location;

(6) the principal religious leader of the place of worship has indicated his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(7) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(vvv) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of 2 churches if:

(1) as of January 1, 2015, the premises were used for the sale of alcoholic liquor for consumption on the premises and the sale was authorized pursuant to a retail tavern license held by an individual as the sole proprietor of the premises;

(2) a primary entrance of the church situated to the south of the premises is located on a street running perpendicular to the street upon which a primary entrance of the premises is situated;

(3) the church located to the south of the premises is a 3-story structure that was constructed in 2006;

(4) a parking lot separates the premises from the church located to the south of the premises;

(5) the building in which the premises are situated was constructed before 1930;

(6) the building in which the premises are situated is a 2-story, mixed-use commercial and residential structure containing more than 20,000 total square feet and containing at least 7 residential units on the second floor and 3 commercial units on the first floor;

(7) the building in which the premises are situated is immediately adjacent to the church located to the north of the premises;

(8) the primary entrance of the church located to the north of the premises and the primary entrance of the premises are located on the same street;

(9) the churches have not indicated their opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has expressed, in writing, his or her support for the issuance of the license.

(www) Notwithstanding any provision of this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of licenses authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor within a restaurant at premises located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a school if:

(1) the sale of alcoholic liquor is incidental to the sale of food and is not the principal business of the restaurant;

(2) the building in which the restaurant is located was constructed in 1909 and is a 2-story structure;

(3) the restaurant has been operating continuously since 1962, has been located at the existing premises since 1989, and has been owned and operated by the same family, which also operates a deli in a building located immediately to the east and adjacent and connected to the restaurant;

(4) the entrance to the restaurant is more than 200 feet from the entrance to the school;

(5) the building in which the restaurant is located and the building in which the school is located are separated by a traffic-congested major street;

(6) the building in which the restaurant is located faces a public park located to the east of the school, cannot be seen from the windows of the school, and is not directly across the street from the school;

(7) the school building is located 2 blocks from a major private university;

(8) the school is a public school that has pre-kindergarten through eighth grade classes, is an open enrollment school, and has a preschool program that has earned a Gold Circle of Quality award;

(9) the local school council has given written consent for the issuance of the liquor license; and

(10) the alderman of the ward in which the premises are located has given written consent for the issuance of the liquor license.

(xxx) (Blank).

(yyy) (sss) Notwithstanding any provision in this Section to the contrary, nothing in this Section shall prohibit the issuance or renewal of a license authorizing the sale of alcoholic liquor at a store that is located within a municipality with a population in excess of 1,000,000 inhabitants and within 100 feet of a church if:

(1) the premises are primarily used for the sale of alcoholic liquor;

(2) on January 1, 2017, the store was authorized to sell alcoholic liquor pursuant to a package goods liquor license;

(3) on January 1, 2017, the store occupied approximately 5,560 square feet and will be expanded to include 440 additional square feet for the purpose of storage;

(4) the store was in existence before the church;

(5) the building in which the store is located was built in 1956 and is immediately south of the church;

(6) the store and church are separated by an east-west street;

(7) the owner of the store received his first liquor license in 1986;

(8) the church has not indicated its opposition to the issuance or renewal of the license in writing; and

(9) the alderman of the ward in which the store is located has expressed his or her support for the issuance or renewal of the license.

(Source: P.A. 99-46, eff. 7-15-15; 99-47, eff. 7-15-15; 99-477, eff. 8-27-15; 99-484, eff. 10-30-15; 99-558, eff. 7-15-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-936, eff. 2-24-17; 100-36, eff. 8-4-17; 100-38, eff. 8-4-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-12-17.)

Section 445. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5, 5-8, 5-16.8, 5A-8, 6-1.3, 11-6, and 12-5 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)

Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided, which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home, or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic services; (10) dental services, including prevention and treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic, screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14) transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; (15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the laws of this State. The term "any other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered under the medical assistance program under this Article for persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, reproductive health care that is otherwise legal in Illinois shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order documentation.

Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services may provide the following services to persons eligible for assistance under this Article who are participating in education, training or employment programs operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to the Department of Public Aid:

(1) dental services provided by or under the supervision of a dentist; and

(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the person may select.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no cost to render dental services through an enrolled not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through which dental services covered under this Section are performed. The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under this provision.

The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.

The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental formula is medically necessary.

The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women 35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical assistance under this Article, as follows:

(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening and MRI of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(E) A screening MRI when medically necessary, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

All screenings shall include a physical breast exam, instruction on self-examination and information regarding the frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography and includes breast tomosynthesis. As used in this Section, the term "breast tomosynthesis" means a radiologic procedure that involves the acquisition of projection images over the stationary breast to produce cross-sectional digital three-dimensional images of the breast. If, at any time, the Secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services, or its successor agency, promulgates rules or regulations to be published in the Federal Register or publishes a comment in the Federal Register or issues an opinion, guidance, or other action that would require the State, pursuant to any provision of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), including, but not limited to, 42 U.S.C. 18031(d)(3)(B) or any successor provision, to defray the cost of any coverage for breast tomosynthesis outlined in this paragraph, then the requirement that an insurer cover breast tomosynthesis is inoperative other than any such coverage authorized under Section 1902 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. 1396a, and the State shall not assume any obligation for the cost of coverage for breast tomosynthesis set forth in this paragraph.

On and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that all networks of care for adult clients of the Department include access to at least one breast imaging Center of Imaging Excellence as certified by the American College of Radiology.

On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased reimbursement for digital mammography.

The Department shall convene an expert panel including representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish quality standards for mammography.

On and after January 1, 2017, providers participating in a breast cancer treatment quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be reimbursed for breast cancer treatment at a rate that is no lower than 95% of the Medicare program's rates for the data elements included in the breast cancer treatment quality program.

The Department shall convene an expert panel, including representatives of hospitals, free standing breast cancer treatment centers, breast cancer quality organizations, and doctors, including breast surgeons, reconstructive breast surgeons, oncologists, and primary care providers to establish quality standards for breast cancer treatment.

Subject to federal approval, the Department shall establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other hospital-based mammography facilities. By January 1, 2016, the Department shall report to the General Assembly on the status of the provision set forth in this paragraph.

The Department shall establish a methodology to remind women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. The Department shall work with experts in breast cancer outreach and patient navigation to optimize these reminders and shall establish a methodology for evaluating their effectiveness and modifying the methodology based on the evaluation.

The Department shall establish a performance goal for primary care providers with respect to their female patients over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers who meet that goal.

The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. On or after July 1, 2016, the pilot program shall be expanded to include one site in western Illinois, one site in southern Illinois, one site in central Illinois, and 4 sites within metropolitan Chicago. An evaluation of the pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot program.

The Department shall require all networks of care to develop a means either internally or by contract with experts in navigation and community outreach to navigate cancer patients to comprehensive care in a timely fashion. The Department shall require all networks of care to include access for patients diagnosed with cancer to at least one academic commission on cancer-accredited cancer program as an in-network covered benefit.

Any medical or health care provider shall immediately recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of Human Services.

All medical providers providing medical assistance to pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from the Department on the availability of services under the Drug Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing case management services for addicted women, including information on appropriate referrals for other social services that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment for addiction.

The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of medical assistance.

Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.

The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations governing the dispensing of health services under this Article as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters, information dissemination and educational activities for medical and health care providers, and consistency in procedures to the Illinois Department.

The Illinois Department may develop and contract with Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code. Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the sponsor organization be a medical organization.

The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with medical providers for physician services, inpatient and outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:

(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and providing certain services, which shall be determined by the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such services.

(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate financial incentives to encourage the development of Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.

(3) Persons receiving medical services through Partnerships may receive medical and case management services above the level usually offered through the medical assistance program.

Medical providers shall be required to meet certain qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the delivery of high quality medical services. These qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois Department and may be higher than qualifications for participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications for participation by medical providers, only with the prior written approval of the Illinois Department.

Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided services may be accessed from therapeutically certified optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service providers.

The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to maintain records that document the medical care and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that if an audit is initiated within the required retention period then the records must be retained until the audit is completed and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall require health care providers to make available, when authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required to maintain and retain business and professional records sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, details and receipt of the health care provided to persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment is being made are actually being received by eligible recipients. Within 90 days after September 16, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1439), the Illinois Department shall establish a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices and any other items recognized as medical equipment and supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall, by July 1, 2016, test the viability of the new system and implement any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms in order to allow for the direct acceptance and payment of nursing home claims.

Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-963), establish procedures to permit ID/DD facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act and MC/DD facilities licensed under the MC/DD Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. Following development of these procedures, the Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or structural changes to its information technology platforms are implemented.

The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of medical services, other than an individual practitioner or group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical Assistance program established under this Article to disclose all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships, associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies, institutions or other legal entities providing any form of health care services in this State under this Article.

The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of medical services desiring to participate in the medical assistance program established under this Article disclose, under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens for the Illinois Department.

Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause. Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without penalty.

The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of the vendor.

Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other screening as required by federal or State law.

The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during the conditional enrollment period.

To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which medical goods or services were provided, with the following exceptions:

(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period shall not begin until the date on the written notice from the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is complete.

(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries which result in an inability to receive, process, or adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin until the provider has been notified of the error.

(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois Department initiates the monthly billing process.

(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 when local government funds finance federal participation for claims payments.

For claims for services rendered during a period for which a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be filed within 180 days after the Department determines the applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final adjudication by the primary payer.

In the case of long term care facilities, within 45 calendar days of receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, new admissions with associated admission documents shall be submitted through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human Services using required admission forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents, including all prescreening information, must be submitted through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.

Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for payment under the medical assistance program, and the State shall have no liability for payment of those claims.

To the extent consistent with applicable information and privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department access to confidential and other information and data necessary to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not limited to: information pertaining to licensure; certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; employment; supplemental security income; social security numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; corporate information; and death records.

The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department shall set forth a request for information to identify the benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case management system with link analysis. Such a request for information shall not be considered as a request for proposal or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to take any action or acquire any products or services.

The Illinois Department shall establish policies, procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized for such recipient by the Department. Notwithstanding any provision of Section 5-5f to the contrary, the Department may, by rule, exempt certain replacement wheelchair parts from prior approval and, for wheelchairs, wheelchair parts, wheelchair accessories, and related seating and positioning items, determine the wholesale price by methods other than actual acquisition costs.

The Department shall require, by rule, all providers of durable medical equipment to be accredited by an accreditation organization approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and recognized by the Department in order to bill the Department for providing durable medical equipment to recipients. No later than 15 months after the effective date of the rule adopted pursuant to this paragraph, all providers must meet the accreditation requirement.

The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and development of non-institutional services in areas of the State where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants for institutional and home and community-based long term care; if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care eligibility criteria for institutional and home and community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and stakeholders representing the institutional and home and community-based long term care interests. This Section shall not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of care eligibility criteria for community-based services in circumstances where federal approval has been granted.

The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical assistance under this Code.

The Illinois Department shall report annually to the General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of 1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:

(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of medical services by public aid recipients;

(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of the various medical services by medical vendors;

(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and

(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the Illinois Department.

The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall include suggested legislation for consideration by the General Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services under this Section shall be limited to services associated with kidney transplantation.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be covered under both fee for service and managed care medical assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject to any (1) utilization control, other than those established under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient placement criteria, (2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) lifetime restriction limit mandate.

On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees related to the dispensing and administration of the opioid antagonist, shall be covered under the medical assistance program for persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

Upon federal approval, the Department shall provide coverage and reimbursement for all drugs that are approved for marketing by the federal Food and Drug Administration and that are recommended by the federal Public Health Service or the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for pre-exposure prophylaxis and related pre-exposure prophylaxis services, including, but not limited to, HIV and sexually transmitted infection screening, treatment for sexually transmitted infections, medical monitoring, assorted labs, and counseling to reduce the likelihood of HIV infection among individuals who are not infected with HIV but who are at high risk of HIV infection.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-236, eff. 8-3-15; 99-407 (see Section 20 of P.A. 99-588 for the effective date of P.A. 99-407); 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-588, eff. 7-20-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-772, eff. 1-1-17; 99-895, eff. 1-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-395, eff. 1-1-18; 100-449, eff. 1-1-18; 100-538, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-26-17.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-8)

Sec. 5-8. Practitioners. In supplying medical assistance, the Illinois Department may provide for the legally authorized services of (i) persons licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended, except as hereafter in this Section stated, whether under a general or limited license, (ii) persons licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as advanced practice registered nurses, regardless of whether or not the persons have written collaborative agreements, (iii) persons licensed or registered under other laws of this State to provide dental, medical, pharmaceutical, optometric, podiatric, or nursing services, or other remedial care recognized under State law, (iv) persons licensed under other laws of this State as a clinical social worker, and (v) persons licensed under other laws of this State as physician assistants. The Department shall adopt rules, no later than 90 days after January 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-621) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, for the legally authorized services of persons licensed under other laws of this State as a clinical social worker. The utilization of the services of persons engaged in the treatment or care of the sick, which persons are not required to be licensed or registered under the laws of this State, is not prohibited by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-621, eff. 1-1-17; 100-453, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-538, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-26-17.)

(305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)

Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical assistance program shall (i) provide the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, and 356z.26 356z.25 of the Illinois Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions of Sections 356z.19, 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the Illinois Insurance Code.

On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with Section 5-5e.

To ensure full access to the benefits set forth in this Section, on and after January 1, 2016, the Department shall ensure that provider and hospital reimbursement for post-mastectomy care benefits required under this Section are no lower than the Medicare reimbursement rate.

(Source: P.A. 99-433, eff. 8-21-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-138, eff. 8-18-17; revised 1-29-18.)

(305 ILCS 5/5A-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-8)

Sec. 5A-8. Hospital Provider Fund.

(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Hospital Provider Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.

(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving moneys in accordance with Section 5A-6 and disbursing moneys only for the following purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of law:

(1) For making payments to hospitals as required under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the Illinois Department from hospitals or hospital providers through error or mistake in performing the activities authorized under this Code.

(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by the Illinois Department or its agent in performing activities under this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.

(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable to the federal government for payments from this Fund which are required to be paid by State warrant.

(5) For making transfers, as those transfers are authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of moneys to be deposited into the Fund.

(6) For making transfers to any other fund in the State treasury, but transfers made under this paragraph (6) shall not exceed the amount transferred previously from that other fund into the Hospital Provider Fund plus any interest that would have been earned by that fund on the monies that had been transferred.

(6.5) For making transfers to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, except that transfers made under this paragraph (6.5) shall not exceed $60,000,000 in the aggregate.

(7) For making transfers not exceeding the following amounts, related to State fiscal years 2013 through 2018, to the following designated funds:

Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust

Fund..............................$20,000,000

Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$30,000,000

General Revenue Fund.................$80,000,000.

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.1) (Blank).

(7.5) (Blank).

(7.8) (Blank).

(7.9) (Blank).

(7.10) For State fiscal year 2014, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Healthcare Provider Relief Fund......$100,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

The additional amount of transfers in this paragraph (7.10), authorized by Public Act 98-651, shall be made within 10 State business days after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651). That authority shall remain in effect even if Public Act 98-651 does not become law until State fiscal year 2015.

(7.10a) For State fiscal years 2015 through 2018, for making transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts related to each State fiscal year:

Healthcare Provider Relief Fund......$50,000,000

Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section 5A-4.

(7.11) (Blank).

(7.12) For State fiscal year 2013, for increasing by 21/365ths the transfer of the moneys resulting from the assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012 and transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal year:

Healthcare Provider Relief Fund.......$2,870,000

Since the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services approval of the assessment authorized under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2, received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and the payment methodologies to hospitals required under Section 5A-12.4 was not received by the Department until State fiscal year 2014 and since the Department made retroactive payments during State fiscal year 2014 related to the referenced period of June 2012, the transfer authority granted in this paragraph (7.12) is extended through the date that is 10 State business days after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-651).

(7.13) In addition to any other transfers authorized under this Section, for State fiscal years 2017 and 2018, for making transfers to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund of moneys collected from the ACA Assessment Adjustment authorized under subsections (a) and (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and paid by hospital providers under Section 5A-4 into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 for each State fiscal year. Timing of transfers to the Healthcare Provider Relief Fund under this paragraph shall be at the discretion of the Department, but no less frequently than quarterly.

(8) For making refunds to hospital providers pursuant to Section 5A-10.

(9) For making payment to capitated managed care organizations as described in subsections (s) and (t) of Section 5A-12.2 of this Code.

Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers authorized under paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection, shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois Department.

(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:

(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois Department from the hospital provider assessment imposed by this Article.

(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the Fund.

(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with the administration of this Article.

(3.5) As applicable, proceeds from surety bond payments payable to the Department as referenced in subsection (s) of Section 5A-12.2 of this Code.

(4) Moneys transferred from another fund in the State treasury.

(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any other source, including interest earned thereon.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-516, eff. 6-30-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; revised 2-15-17.)

(305 ILCS 5/6-1.3) (from Ch. 23, par. 6-1.3)

Sec. 6-1.3. Utilization of aid available under other provisions of Code. The person must have been determined ineligible for aid under the federally funded programs to aid refugees and Articles III, IV or V. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the use of General Assistance funds to pay any portion of the costs of care and maintenance in a residential drug abuse treatment program licensed by the Department of Human Services, or in a County Nursing Home, or in a private nursing home, retirement home or other facility for the care of the elderly, of a person otherwise eligible to receive General Assistance except for the provisions of this paragraph.

A person otherwise eligible for aid under the federally funded programs to aid refugees or Articles III, IV or V who fails or refuses to comply with provisions of this Code or other laws, or rules and regulations of the Illinois Department, which would qualify him for aid under those programs or Articles, shall not receive General Assistance under this Article nor shall any of his dependents whose eligibility is contingent upon such compliance receive General Assistance.

Persons and families who are ineligible for aid under Article IV due to having received benefits under Article IV for any maximum time limits set under the Illinois Temporary Assistance for to Needy Families (TANF) Plan shall not be eligible for General Assistance under this Article unless the Illinois Department or the local governmental unit, by rule, specifies that those persons or families may be eligible.

(Source: P.A. 89-507, eff. 7-1-97; 90-17, eff. 7-1-97; revised 10-4-17.)

(305 ILCS 5/11-6) (from Ch. 23, par. 11-6)

Sec. 11-6. Decisions on applications. Within 10 days after a decision is reached on an application, the applicant shall be notified in writing of the decision. If the applicant resides in a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act or a supportive living facility authorized under Section 5-5.01a, the facility shall also receive written notice of the decision, provided that the notification is related to a Department payment for services received by the applicant in the facility. Only facilities enrolled in and subject to a provider agreement under the medical assistance program under Article V may receive such notices of decisions. The Department shall consider eligibility for, and the notice shall contain a decision on, each of the following assistance programs for which the client may be eligible based on the information contained in the application: Temporary Assistance for to Needy Families, Medical Assistance, Aid to the Aged, Blind and Disabled, General Assistance (in the City of Chicago), and food stamps. No decision shall be required for any assistance program for which the applicant has expressly declined in writing to apply. If the applicant is determined to be eligible, the notice shall include a statement of the amount of financial aid to be provided and a statement of the reasons for any partial grant amounts. If the applicant is determined ineligible for any public assistance the notice shall include the reason why the applicant is ineligible. If the application for any public assistance is denied, the notice shall include a statement defining the applicant's right to appeal the decision. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall determine the date on which assistance shall begin for applicants determined eligible. That date may be no later than 30 days after the date of the application.

Under no circumstances may any application be denied solely to meet an application-processing deadline.

(Source: P.A. 96-206, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-4-17.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-5)

Sec. 12-5. Appropriations; uses; federal grants; report to General Assembly. From the sums appropriated by the General Assembly, the Illinois Department shall order for payment by warrant from the State Treasury grants for public aid under Articles III, IV, and V, including grants for funeral and burial expenses, and all costs of administration of the Illinois Department and the County Departments relating thereto. Moneys appropriated to the Illinois Department for public aid under Article VI may be used, with the consent of the Governor, to co-operate with federal, State, and local agencies in the development of work projects designed to provide suitable employment for persons receiving public aid under Article VI. The Illinois Department, with the consent of the Governor, may be the agent of the State for the receipt and disbursement of federal funds or commodities for public aid purposes under Article VI and for related purposes in which the co-operation of the Illinois Department is sought by the federal government, and, in connection therewith, may make necessary expenditures from moneys appropriated for public aid under any Article of this Code and for administration. The Illinois Department, with the consent of the Governor, may be the agent of the State for the receipt and disbursement of federal funds pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 and may make necessary expenditures from monies appropriated to it for operations, administration, and grants, including payment to the Health Insurance Reserve Fund for group insurance costs at the rate certified by the Department of Central Management Services. All amounts received by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 shall be deposited in the Immigration Reform and Control Fund. All amounts received into the Immigration Reform and Control Fund as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

All grants received by the Illinois Department for programs funded by the Federal Social Services Block Grant shall be deposited in the Social Services Block Grant Fund. All funds received into the Social Services Block Grant Fund as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund. All funds received into the Social Services Block Grant fund for reimbursement for expenditure out of the Local Initiative Fund shall be transferred into the Local Initiative Fund. Any other federal funds received into the Social Services Block Grant Fund shall be transferred to the DHS Special Purposes Trust Fund. All federal funds received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement for Employment and Training Programs for expenditures made by the Illinois Department from grants, gifts, or legacies as provided in Section 12-4.18 or made by an entity other than the Illinois Department and all federal funds received from the Emergency Contingency Fund for State Temporary Assistance for Needy Families Programs established by the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited into the Employment and Training Fund.

Eighty percent of the federal financial participation funds received by the Illinois Department under the Title IV-A Emergency Assistance program as reimbursement for expenditures made from the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services appropriations for the costs of providing services in behalf of Department of Children and Family Services clients shall be deposited into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

All federal funds, except those covered by the foregoing 3 paragraphs, received as reimbursement for expenditures from the General Revenue Fund shall be deposited in the General Revenue Fund for administrative and distributive expenditures properly chargeable by federal law or regulation to aid programs established under Articles III through XII and Titles IV, XVI, XIX and XX of the Federal Social Security Act. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department under Sections 12-4.6, 12-4.18 and 12-4.19 that are required by Section 12-10 of this Code to be paid into the DHS Special Purposes Trust Fund shall be deposited into the DHS Special Purposes Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department pursuant to the Child Support Enforcement Program established by Title IV-D of the Social Security Act shall be deposited in the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund as required under Section 12-10.2 or in the Child Support Administrative Fund as required under Section 12-10.2a of this Code. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Articles V and VI of this Code that are required by Section 15-2 of this Code to be paid into the County Provider Trust Fund shall be deposited into the County Provider Trust Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for hospital inpatient, hospital ambulatory care, and disproportionate share hospital expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5A-8 of this Code to be paid into the Hospital Provider Fund shall be deposited into the Hospital Provider Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5B-8 of this Code to be paid into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund shall be deposited into the Long-Term Care Provider Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for medical assistance program expenditures made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code that are required by Section 5C-7 of this Code to be paid into the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability shall be deposited into the Care Provider Fund for Persons with a Developmental Disability. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department for trauma center adjustment payments that are required by Section 5-5.03 of this Code and made under Title XIX of the Social Security Act and Article V of this Code shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Any other federal funds received by the Illinois Department as reimbursement for expenses for early intervention services paid from the Early Intervention Services Revolving Fund shall be deposited into that Fund.

The Illinois Department shall report to the General Assembly at the end of each fiscal quarter the amount of all funds received and paid into the Social Services Block Grant Fund and the Local Initiative Fund and the expenditures and transfers of such funds for services, programs and other purposes authorized by law. Such report shall be filed with the Speaker, Minority Leader and Clerk of the House, with the President, Minority Leader and Secretary of the Senate, with the Chairmen of the House and Senate Appropriations Committees, the House Human Resources Committee and the Senate Public Health, Welfare and Corrections Committee, or the successor standing Committees of each as provided by the rules of the House and Senate, respectively, with the Legislative Research Unit and with the State Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-933, Article 5, Section 5-130, eff. 1-27-17; 99-933, Article 15, Section 15-50, eff. 1-27-17; revised 2-15-17.)

Section 450. The Energy Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 13 as follows:

(305 ILCS 20/13)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 13. Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund.

(a) The Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the State Treasury. The Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund is authorized to receive moneys from voluntary donations from individuals, foundations, corporations, and other sources, moneys received pursuant to Section 17, and, by statutory deposit, the moneys collected pursuant to this Section. The Fund is also authorized to receive voluntary donations from individuals, foundations, corporations, and other sources. Subject to appropriation, the Department shall use moneys from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund for payments to electric or gas public utilities, municipal electric or gas utilities, and electric cooperatives on behalf of their customers who are participants in the program authorized by Sections 4 and 18 of this Act, for the provision of weatherization services and for administration of the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund. The yearly expenditures for weatherization may not exceed 10% of the amount collected during the year pursuant to this Section. The yearly administrative expenses of the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund may not exceed 10% of the amount collected during that year pursuant to this Section, except when unspent funds from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund are reallocated from a previous year; any unspent balance of the 10% administrative allowance may be utilized for administrative expenses in the year they are reallocated.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 16-111 of the Public Utilities Act but subject to subsection (k) of this Section, each public utility, electric cooperative, as defined in Section 3.4 of the Electric Supplier Act, and municipal utility, as referenced in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act, that is engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas within the State of Illinois shall, effective January 1, 1998, assess each of its customer accounts a monthly Energy Assistance Charge for the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund. The delivering public utility, municipal electric or gas utility, or electric or gas cooperative for a self-assessing purchaser remains subject to the collection of the fee imposed by this Section. The monthly charge shall be as follows:

(1) $0.48 per month on each account for residential electric service;

(2) $0.48 per month on each account for residential gas service;

(3) $4.80 per month on each account for non-residential electric service which had less than 10 megawatts of peak demand during the previous calendar year;

(4) $4.80 per month on each account for non-residential gas service which had distributed to it less than 4,000,000 therms of gas during the previous calendar year;

(5) $360 per month on each account for non-residential electric service which had 10 megawatts or greater of peak demand during the previous calendar year; and

(6) $360 per month on each account for non-residential gas service which had 4,000,000 or more therms of gas distributed to it during the previous calendar year.

The incremental change to such charges imposed by this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall not (i) be used for any purpose other than to directly assist customers and (ii) be applicable to utilities serving less than 100,000 customers in Illinois on January 1, 2009.

In addition, electric and gas utilities have committed, and shall contribute, a one-time payment of $22 million to the Fund, within 10 days after the effective date of the tariffs established pursuant to Sections 16-111.8 and 19-145 of the Public Utilities Act to be used for the Department's cost of implementing the programs described in Section 18 of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, the Arrearage Reduction Program described in Section 18, and the programs described in Section 8-105 of the Public Utilities Act. If a utility elects not to file a rider within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, then the contribution from such utility shall be made no later than February 1, 2010.

(c) For purposes of this Section:

(1) "residential electric service" means electric utility service for household purposes delivered to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate, or electric utility service for household purposes delivered to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit;

(2) "residential gas service" means gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling of 2 or fewer units which is billed under a residential rate, or gas utility service for household purposes distributed to a dwelling unit or units which is billed under a residential rate and is registered by a separate meter for each dwelling unit;

(3) "non-residential electric service" means electric utility service which is not residential electric service; and

(4) "non-residential gas service" means gas utility service which is not residential gas service.

(d) Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, each public utility engaged in the delivery of electricity or the distribution of natural gas shall file with the Illinois Commerce Commission tariffs incorporating the Energy Assistance Charge in other charges stated in such tariffs, which shall become effective no later than the beginning of the first billing cycle following such filing.

(e) The Energy Assistance Charge assessed by electric and gas public utilities shall be considered a charge for public utility service.

(f) By the 20th day of the month following the month in which the charges imposed by the Section were collected, each public utility, municipal utility, and electric cooperative shall remit to the Department of Revenue all moneys received as payment of the Energy Assistance Charge on a return prescribed and furnished by the Department of Revenue showing such information as the Department of Revenue may reasonably require; provided, however, that a utility offering an Arrearage Reduction Program or Supplemental Arrearage Reduction Program pursuant to Section 18 of this Act shall be entitled to net those amounts necessary to fund and recover the costs of such Programs as authorized by that Section that is no more than the incremental change in such Energy Assistance Charge authorized by Public Act 96-33. If a customer makes a partial payment, a public utility, municipal utility, or electric cooperative may elect either: (i) to apply such partial payments first to amounts owed to the utility or cooperative for its services and then to payment for the Energy Assistance Charge or (ii) to apply such partial payments on a pro-rata basis between amounts owed to the utility or cooperative for its services and to payment for the Energy Assistance Charge.

(g) The Department of Revenue shall deposit into the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund all moneys remitted to it in accordance with subsection (f) of this Section; provided, however, that the amounts remitted by each utility shall be used to provide assistance to that utility's customers. The utilities shall coordinate with the Department to establish an equitable and practical methodology for implementing this subsection (g) beginning with the 2010 program year.

(h) On or before December 31, 2002, the Department shall prepare a report for the General Assembly on the expenditure of funds appropriated from the Low-Income Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund for the program authorized under Section 4 of this Act.

(i) The Department of Revenue may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(j) The Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity may establish such rules as it deems necessary to implement this Section.

(k) The charges imposed by this Section shall only apply to customers of municipal electric or gas utilities and electric or gas cooperatives if the municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or an electric cooperative makes an affirmative decision to impose the charge provided by this Section, the municipal electric or gas utility or electric cooperative shall inform the Department of Revenue in writing of such decision when it begins to impose the charge. If a municipal electric or gas utility or electric or gas cooperative does not assess this charge, the Department may not use funds from the Supplemental Low-Income Energy Assistance Fund to provide benefits to its customers under the program authorized by Section 4 of this Act.

In its use of federal funds under this Act, the Department may not cause a disproportionate share of those federal funds to benefit customers of systems which do not assess the charge provided by this Section.

This Section is repealed on January 1, 2025 unless renewed by action of the General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-429, eff. 8-16-13; 99-457, eff. 1-1-16; 99-906, eff. 6-1-17; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 455. The Urban Renewal Consolidation Act of 1961 is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:

(315 ILCS 30/19) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 91.119)

Sec. 19. Prior to making a sale or conveyance of any part of the real property within the area of a redevelopment project pursuant to any of the foregoing Sections sections of this Act, the Department shall prepare and approve a plan for the development or redevelopment of the project area and shall submit the same to the governing body of the municipality in which the real property is situated for their approval. The Department shall not make a sale or conveyance of any part of the real property in the project area until such time as the plan has been approved by the governing body of the municipality in which the real property is situated; provided, however, that any plan for the development or redevelopment of a project area heretofore prepared and approved by a land clearance commission pursuant to the "Blighted Areas Redevelopment Act of 1947," approved July 2, 1947, as amended, and heretofore approved by the State Housing Board and the governing body of the municipality shall be sufficient to authorize a sale pursuant to this Section. At the time of making any such sale or conveyance, the purchaser shall agree to reimburse any public utility as defined in the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, as amended, for the costs of relocation of the facilities of such public utility made necessary by the plan for the development or redevelopment of the project area, except and excluding, however, any such costs to the extent incurred for the relocation of such facilities located, prior to the development or redevelopment, in a public way or public property which retains its character as such thereafter.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 3308; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 460. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Sections 7.4 and 7.14 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/7.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.4)

Sec. 7.4. (a) The Department shall be capable of receiving reports of suspected child abuse or neglect 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Whenever the Department receives a report alleging that a child is a truant as defined in Section 26-2a of the The School Code, as now or hereafter amended, the Department shall notify the superintendent of the school district in which the child resides and the appropriate superintendent of the educational service region. The notification to the appropriate officials by the Department shall not be considered an allegation of abuse or neglect under this Act.

(a-5) The Department of Children and Family Services may implement a "differential response program" in accordance with criteria, standards, and procedures prescribed by rule. The program may provide that, upon receiving a report, the Department shall determine whether to conduct a family assessment or an investigation as appropriate to prevent or provide a remedy for child abuse or neglect.

For purposes of this subsection (a-5), "family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege substantial child endangerment. "Family assessment" does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.

For purposes of this subsection (a-5), "investigation" means fact-gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent abuse or neglect that determines whether a report of suspected child abuse or neglect should be indicated or unfounded and whether child protective services are needed.

Under the "differential response program" implemented under this subsection (a-5), the Department:

(1) Shall conduct an investigation on reports involving substantial child abuse or neglect.

(2) Shall begin an immediate investigation if, at any time when it is using a family assessment response, it determines that there is reason to believe that substantial child abuse or neglect or a serious threat to the child's safety exists.

(3) May conduct a family assessment for reports that do not allege substantial child endangerment. In determining that a family assessment is appropriate, the Department may consider issues, including, but not limited to, child safety, parental cooperation, and the need for an immediate response.

(4) Shall promulgate criteria, standards, and procedures that shall be applied in making this determination, taking into consideration the Child Endangerment Risk Assessment Protocol of the Department.

(5) May conduct a family assessment on a report that was initially screened and assigned for an investigation.

In determining that a complete investigation is not required, the Department must document the reason for terminating the investigation and notify the local law enforcement agency or the Department of State Police if the local law enforcement agency or Department of State Police is conducting a joint investigation.

Once it is determined that a "family assessment" will be implemented, the case shall not be reported to the central register of abuse and neglect reports.

During a family assessment, the Department shall collect any available and relevant information to determine child safety, risk of subsequent abuse or neglect, and family strengths.

Information collected includes, but is not limited to, when relevant: information with regard to the person reporting the alleged abuse or neglect, including the nature of the reporter's relationship to the child and to the alleged offender, and the basis of the reporter's knowledge for the report; the child allegedly being abused or neglected; the alleged offender; the child's caretaker; and other collateral sources having relevant information related to the alleged abuse or neglect. Information relevant to the assessment must be asked for, and may include:

(A) The child's sex and age, prior reports of abuse or neglect, information relating to developmental functioning, credibility of the child's statement, and whether the information provided under this paragraph (A) is consistent with other information collected during the course of the assessment or investigation.

(B) The alleged offender's age, a record check for prior reports of abuse or neglect, and criminal charges and convictions. The alleged offender may submit supporting documentation relevant to the assessment.

(C) Collateral source information regarding the alleged abuse or neglect and care of the child. Collateral information includes, when relevant: (i) a medical examination of the child; (ii) prior medical records relating to the alleged maltreatment or care of the child maintained by any facility, clinic, or health care professional, and an interview with the treating professionals; and (iii) interviews with the child's caretakers, including the child's parent, guardian, foster parent, child care provider, teachers, counselors, family members, relatives, and other persons who may have knowledge regarding the alleged maltreatment and the care of the child.

(D) Information on the existence of domestic abuse and violence in the home of the child, and substance abuse.

Nothing in this subsection (a-5) precludes the Department from collecting other relevant information necessary to conduct the assessment or investigation. Nothing in this subsection (a-5) shall be construed to allow the name or identity of a reporter to be disclosed in violation of the protections afforded under Section 7.19 of this Act.

After conducting the family assessment, the Department shall determine whether services are needed to address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent abuse or neglect.

Upon completion of the family assessment, if the Department concludes that no services shall be offered, then the case shall be closed. If the Department concludes that services shall be offered, the Department shall develop a family preservation plan and offer or refer services to the family.

At any time during a family assessment, if the Department believes there is any reason to stop the assessment and conduct an investigation based on the information discovered, the Department shall do so.

The procedures available to the Department in conducting investigations under this Act shall be followed as appropriate during a family assessment.

If the Department implements a differential response program authorized under this subsection (a-5), the Department shall arrange for an independent evaluation of the program for at least the first 3 years of implementation to determine whether it is meeting the goals in accordance with Section 2 of this Act.

The Department may adopt administrative rules necessary for the execution of this Section, in accordance with Section 4 of the Children and Family Services Act.

The Department shall submit a report to the General Assembly by January 15, 2018 on the implementation progress and recommendations for additional needed legislative changes.

(b)(1) The following procedures shall be followed in the investigation of all reports of suspected abuse or neglect of a child, except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) If, during a family assessment authorized by subsection (a-5) or an investigation, it appears that the immediate safety or well-being of a child is endangered, that the family may flee or the child disappear, or that the facts otherwise so warrant, the Child Protective Service Unit shall commence an investigation immediately, regardless of the time of day or night. All other investigations shall be commenced within 24 hours of receipt of the report. Upon receipt of a report, the Child Protective Service Unit shall conduct a family assessment authorized by subsection (a-5) or begin an initial investigation and make an initial determination whether the report is a good faith indication of alleged child abuse or neglect.

(3) Based on an initial investigation, if the Unit determines the report is a good faith indication of alleged child abuse or neglect, then a formal investigation shall commence and, pursuant to Section 7.12 of this Act, may or may not result in an indicated report. The formal investigation shall include: direct contact with the subject or subjects of the report as soon as possible after the report is received; an evaluation of the environment of the child named in the report and any other children in the same environment; a determination of the risk to such children if they continue to remain in the existing environments, as well as a determination of the nature, extent and cause of any condition enumerated in such report; the name, age and condition of other children in the environment; and an evaluation as to whether there would be an immediate and urgent necessity to remove the child from the environment if appropriate family preservation services were provided. After seeing to the safety of the child or children, the Department shall forthwith notify the subjects of the report in writing, of the existence of the report and their rights existing under this Act in regard to amendment or expungement. To fulfill the requirements of this Section, the Child Protective Service Unit shall have the capability of providing or arranging for comprehensive emergency services to children and families at all times of the day or night.

(4) If (i) at the conclusion of the Unit's initial investigation of a report, the Unit determines the report to be a good faith indication of alleged child abuse or neglect that warrants a formal investigation by the Unit, the Department, any law enforcement agency or any other responsible agency and (ii) the person who is alleged to have caused the abuse or neglect is employed or otherwise engaged in an activity resulting in frequent contact with children and the alleged abuse or neglect are in the course of such employment or activity, then the Department shall, except in investigations where the Director determines that such notification would be detrimental to the Department's investigation, inform the appropriate supervisor or administrator of that employment or activity that the Unit has commenced a formal investigation pursuant to this Act, which may or may not result in an indicated report. The Department shall also notify the person being investigated, unless the Director determines that such notification would be detrimental to the Department's investigation.

(c) In an investigation of a report of suspected abuse or neglect of a child by a school employee at a school or on school grounds, the Department shall make reasonable efforts to follow the following procedures:

(1) Investigations involving teachers shall not, to the extent possible, be conducted when the teacher is scheduled to conduct classes. Investigations involving other school employees shall be conducted so as to minimize disruption of the school day. The school employee accused of child abuse or neglect may have his superior, his association or union representative and his attorney present at any interview or meeting at which the teacher or administrator is present. The accused school employee shall be informed by a representative of the Department, at any interview or meeting, of the accused school employee's due process rights and of the steps in the investigation process. These due process rights shall also include the right of the school employee to present countervailing evidence regarding the accusations. In an investigation in which the alleged perpetrator of abuse or neglect is a school employee, including, but not limited to, a school teacher or administrator, and the recommendation is to determine the report to be indicated, in addition to other procedures as set forth and defined in Department rules and procedures, the employee's due process rights shall also include: (i) the right to a copy of the investigation summary; (ii) the right to review the specific allegations which gave rise to the investigation; and (iii) the right to an administrator's teleconference which shall be convened to provide the school employee with the opportunity to present documentary evidence or other information that supports his or her position and to provide information before a final finding is entered.

(2) If a report of neglect or abuse of a child by a teacher or administrator does not involve allegations of sexual abuse or extreme physical abuse, the Child Protective Service Unit shall make reasonable efforts to conduct the initial investigation in coordination with the employee's supervisor.

If the Unit determines that the report is a good faith indication of potential child abuse or neglect, it shall then commence a formal investigation under paragraph (3) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(3) If a report of neglect or abuse of a child by a teacher or administrator involves an allegation of sexual abuse or extreme physical abuse, the Child Protective Unit shall commence an investigation under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of this Section.

(c-5) In any instance in which a report is made or caused to made by a school district employee involving the conduct of a person employed by the school district, at the time the report was made, as required under Section 4 of this Act, the Child Protective Service Unit shall send a copy of its final finding report to the general superintendent of that school district.

(c-10) The Department may recommend that a school district remove a school employee who is the subject of an investigation from his or her employment position pending the outcome of the investigation; however, all employment decisions regarding school personnel shall be the sole responsibility of the school district or employer. The Department may not require a school district to remove a school employee from his or her employment position or limit the school employee's duties pending the outcome of an investigation.

(d) If the Department has contact with an employer, or with a religious institution or religious official having supervisory or hierarchical authority over a member of the clergy accused of the abuse of a child, in the course of its investigation, the Department shall notify the employer or the religious institution or religious official, in writing, when a report is unfounded so that any record of the investigation can be expunged from the employee's or member of the clergy's personnel or other records. The Department shall also notify the employee or the member of the clergy, in writing, that notification has been sent to the employer or to the appropriate religious institution or religious official informing the employer or religious institution or religious official that the Department's investigation has resulted in an unfounded report.

(e) Upon request by the Department, the Department of State Police and law enforcement agencies are authorized to provide criminal history record information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355) to properly designated employees of the Department of Children and Family Services if the Department determines the information is necessary to perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and Family Services Act. The request shall be in the form and manner required by the Department of State Police. Any information obtained by the Department of Children and Family Services under this Section is confidential and may not be transmitted outside the Department of Children and Family Services other than to a court of competent jurisdiction or unless otherwise authorized by law. Any employee of the Department of Children and Family Services who transmits confidential information in violation of this Section or causes the information to be transmitted in violation of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor unless the transmittal of the information is authorized by this Section or otherwise authorized by law.

(f) For purposes of this Section, "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-68, eff. 1-1-18; 100-176, eff. 1-1-18; 100-191, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-4-17.)

(325 ILCS 5/7.14) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.14)

Sec. 7.14. All reports in the central register shall be classified in one of three categories: "indicated", "unfounded" or "undetermined", as the case may be. Prior to classifying the report, the person making the classification shall determine whether the child named in the report is the subject of an action under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 who is in the custody or guardianship of the Department or who has an open intact family services case with the Department or is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If the child is either is the subject of an action under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and is in the custody or guardianship of the Department or has an open intact family services case with the Department or is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department intends to classify the report as indicated, the Department shall, within 45 days of classification of the report, transmit a copy of the report to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed for the child under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or to a guardian ad litem appointed under Section 5-610 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. If the child is either is the subject of an action under Article V of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and is in the custody or guardianship of the Department or has an open intact family services case with the Department or is the subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department intends to classify the report as unfounded, the Department shall, within 45 days of deciding its intent to classify the report as unfounded, transmit a copy of the report and written notice of the Department's intent to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed for the child under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, or to a guardian ad litem appointed under Section 5-610 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department's obligation under this Section to provide reports to a guardian ad litem appointed under Section 5-610 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for a minor with an open intact family services case applies only if the guardian ad litem notified the Department in writing of the representation. All information identifying the subjects of an unfounded report shall be expunged from the register forthwith, except as provided in Section 7.7. Unfounded reports may only be made available to the Child Protective Service Unit when investigating a subsequent report of suspected abuse or maltreatment involving a child named in the unfounded report; and to the subject of the report, provided the Department has not expunged the file in accordance with Section 7.7. The Child Protective Service Unit shall not indicate the subsequent report solely based upon the existence of the prior unfounded report or reports. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, an unfounded report shall not be admissible in any judicial or administrative proceeding or action except for proceedings under Sections 2-10 and 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 involving a petition filed under Section 2-13 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging abuse or neglect to the same child, a sibling of the child, or the same perpetrator. Identifying information on all other records shall be removed from the register no later than 5 years after the report is indicated. However, if another report is received involving the same child, his sibling or offspring, or a child in the care of the persons responsible for the child's welfare, or involving the same alleged offender, the identifying information may be maintained in the register until 5 years after the subsequent case or report is closed.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, identifying information in indicated reports involving serious physical injury to a child as defined by the Department in rules, may be retained longer than 5 years after the report is indicated or after the subsequent case or report is closed, and may not be removed from the register except as provided by the Department in rules. Identifying information in indicated reports involving sexual penetration of a child, sexual molestation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, torture of a child, or the death of a child, as defined by the Department in rules, shall be retained for a period of not less than 50 years after the report is indicated or after the subsequent case or report is closed.

For purposes of this Section, "child" includes an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-349, eff. 1-1-16; 100-158, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-4-17.)

Section 465. The Advisory Council on Early Identification and Treatment of Mental Health Conditions Act is amended by changing Sections 5 and 10 as follows:

(405 ILCS 115/5)

Sec. 5. Findings. The General Assembly finds that:

(1) the medical science is clear that mental health treatment works to improve mental health conditions and manage symptoms but it can take, on average, 10 years for a child or young adult with a significant condition to receive the right diagnosis and treatment from the time the first symptoms began, and nearly two-thirds of children and adults never get treatment;

(2) long treatment lags can lead to debilitating conditions and permanent disability;

(3) suicide, often due to untreated depression, is the second leading cause of death in this State for children and young adults ranging in age from 10 to 34;

(4) between 40% to 50% of heroin and other drug addiction begins to self-medicate an underlying, untreated mental health condition;

(5) important State reforms on improving access to mental health and substance use treatment are underway and others are pending, but more needs to be done to address this State's serious systemic challenges to early identification and treatment of mental health conditions;

(6) the medical and mental health treatment communities across this State are implementing many evidence-based best practices on early screening, identification and treatment of mental health conditions, including co-located and integrated care, despite limited resources and major access to care challenges across the State; and

(7) establishing an Advisory Council on Early Identification and Treatment of Mental Health Conditions to:

(A) report and share information on evidence-based best practices related to early identification and treatment being implemented across this State and other states;

(B) assist in advancing all providers to move toward implementation of evidence-based best practices, irrespective of payer such as Medicaid or private insurance; ,

(C) identify the barriers to statewide implementation of early identification and treatment across all providers; and

(D) reduce the stigma of mental health conditions by treating them like any other medical condition;

will outline the path to enabling thousands of children, youth, and young adults in this State living with mental health conditions, including those related to trauma, to get the early diagnosis and treatment they need to effectively manage their condition and avoid potentially life-long debilitating symptoms.

(Source: P.A. 100-184, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-28-17.)

(405 ILCS 115/10)

Sec. 10. Advisory Council on Early Identification and Treatment of Mental Health Conditions.

(a) There is created the Advisory Council on Early Identification and Treatment of Mental Health Conditions within the Department of Human Services. The Department of Human Services shall provide administrative support for the Advisory Council. The report, recommendations, and action plan required by this Section shall reflect the consensus of a majority of the Council.

(b) The Advisory Council shall:

(1) review and identify evidence-based best practice models and promising practices supported by peer-reviewed literature being implemented in this State and other states on regular screening and early identification of mental health and substance use conditions in children and young adults, including depression, bipolar bi-polar disorder, schizophrenia, and other similar conditions, beginning at the age endorsed by the American Academy of Pediatrics, through young adulthood, irrespective of coverage by public or private health insurance, resulting in early treatment;

(2) identify evidence-based mental health prevention and promotion initiatives;

(3) identify strategies to enable additional medical providers and community-based providers to implement evidence-based best practices on regular screening, and early identification and treatment of mental health conditions;

(4) identify barriers to the success of early screening, identification and treatment of mental health conditions across this State, including but not limited to, treatment access challenges, specific mental health workforce issues, regional challenges, training and knowledge-base needs of providers, provider infrastructure needs, reimbursement and payment issues, and public and private insurance coverage issues;

(5) based on the findings in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this subsection (b), develop a set of recommendations and an action plan to address the barriers to early and regular screening and identification of mental health conditions in children, adolescents and young adults in this State; and

(6) complete and deliver the recommendations and action plan required by paragraph (5) of this subsection (b) to the Governor and the General Assembly within one year of the first meeting of the Advisory Council. ; and

Upon (7) upon completion and delivery of the recommendations and action plan to the Governor and General Assembly, the Advisory Council shall be dissolved.

(c) The Advisory Council shall be composed of no more than 27 members and 3 ex officio members, including:

(1) Two members of the House of Representatives, one appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and one appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.

(2) Two members of the Senate, one appointed by the President of the Senate and one appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.

(3) One representative of the Office of the Governor appointed by the Governor.

(4) Twenty-two members of the public as follows; however, provider representatives selected shall include a balance of those delivering care to persons with private health insurance and those serving underserved populations:

(A) Four pediatricians recommended by a statewide organization that represents pediatricians, one from the Chicago area, one from suburban Chicago, one from central Illinois, and one from downstate Illinois, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(B) Four family primary care physicians recommended by a statewide organization that represents family physicians, one from the Chicago area, one from suburban Chicago, one from central Illinois, and one from downstate Illinois, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(C) Two advanced practice registered nurses recommended by a statewide organization that represents advanced practice registered nurses, one from Chicago and one from central or downstate Illinois, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(D) Two psychiatrists, including one child psychiatrist, recommended by a statewide organization that represents psychiatrists, one from the Chicago metropolitan region and one from central or downstate Illinois, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(E) Two psychologists, including one child psychologist, recommended by a statewide organization that represents psychologists, one from the Chicago metropolitan region and one from central or downstate Illinois, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(F) One representative from an organization that advocates for families and youth with mental health conditions who is a parent with a child living with a mental health condition, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(G) Two community mental health service providers recommended by a statewide organization that represents community mental health providers, one from the Chicago metropolitan region and one from central Illinois or downstate Illinois, appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

(H) Two substance use treatment providers recommended by a statewide organization that represents substance use treatment providers, one from the Chicago metropolitan region, one from central or downstate Illinois, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(I) One representative from an organization that advocates for families and youth with mental health conditions who is an individual with lived experience of a mental health condition, appointed by the President of the Senate.

(J) Two representatives from private insurance companies, one appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives and one appointed by the President of the Senate.

(K) The following 3 officials shall serve as ex officio members:

(i) the Director of Public Health, or his or her designee;

(ii) the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, or his or her designee; and

(iii) the Director of the Division of Mental Health within the Department of Human Services, or his or her designee.

(d) Members shall serve without compensation and are responsible for the cost of all reasonable and necessary travel expenses connected to Advisory Council business. Advisory Council members shall not be reimbursed by the State for these costs. Advisory Council members shall be appointed within 60 days after January 1, 2018 (the effective date of this Act). The Advisory Council shall hold its initial meeting within 60 days after at least 50% of the members have been appointed. One representative from the pediatricians or primary care physicians and one representative from the mental health treatment community shall be the co-chairs of the Advisory Council. At the first meeting of the Advisory Council, the members shall select a 7-person 7 person Steering Committee that includes include the co-chairs. The Advisory Council may establish committees that address specific issues or populations and may appoint persons with relevant expertise who are not appointed members of the Advisory Council to serve on the committees as needed.

(Source: P.A. 100-184, eff. 1-1-18; revised 1-22-18.)

Section 470. The Crematory Regulation Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 18/5)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-526)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Comptroller in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Comptroller of any change of address within 14 days, and such changes must be made either through the Comptroller's website or by contacting the Comptroller. The address of record shall be the permanent street address of the crematory.

"Alternative container" means a receptacle, other than a casket, in which human remains are transported to the crematory and placed in the cremation chamber for cremation. An alternative container shall be (i) composed of readily combustible or consumable materials suitable for cremation, (ii) able to be closed in order to provide a complete covering for the human remains, (iii) resistant to leakage or spillage, (iv) rigid enough for handling with ease, and (v) able to provide protection for the health, safety, and personal integrity of crematory personnel.

"Authorizing agent" means a person legally entitled to order the cremation and final disposition of specific human remains.

"Body parts" means limbs or other portions of the anatomy that are removed from a person or human remains for medical purposes during treatment, surgery, biopsy, autopsy, or medical research; or human bodies or any portion of bodies that have been donated to science for medical research purposes.

"Burial transit permit" means a permit for disposition of a dead human body as required by Illinois law.

"Casket" means a rigid container that is designed for the encasement of human remains, is usually constructed of wood, metal, or like material and ornamented and lined with fabric, and may or may not be combustible.

"Comptroller" means the Comptroller of the State of Illinois.

"Cremated remains" means all human remains recovered after the completion of the cremation, which may possibly include the residue of any foreign matter including casket material, bridgework, or eyeglasses, that was cremated with the human remains.

"Cremation" means the technical process, using heat and flame, or alkaline hydrolysis that reduces human remains to bone fragments. The reduction takes place through heat and evaporation or through hydrolysis. Cremation shall include the processing, and may include the pulverization, of the bone fragments.

"Cremation chamber" means the enclosed space within which the cremation takes place.

"Cremation interment container" means a rigid outer container that, subject to a cemetery's rules and regulations, is composed of concrete, steel, fiberglass, or some similar material in which an urn is placed prior to being interred in the ground, and which is designed to withstand prolonged exposure to the elements and to support the earth above the urn.

"Cremation room" means the room in which the cremation chamber is located.

"Crematory" means the building or portion of a building that houses the cremation room and the holding facility.

"Crematory authority" means the legal entity which is licensed by the Comptroller to operate a crematory and to perform cremations.

"Final disposition" means the burial, cremation, or other disposition of a dead human body or parts of a dead human body.

"Funeral director" means a person known by the title of "funeral director", "funeral director and embalmer", or other similar words or titles, licensed by the State to practice funeral directing or funeral directing and embalming.

"Funeral establishment" means a building or separate portion of a building having a specific street address and location and devoted to activities relating to the shelter, care, custody, and preparation of a deceased human body and may contain facilities for funeral or wake services.

"Holding facility" means an area that (i) is designated for the retention of human remains prior to cremation, (ii) complies with all applicable public health law, (iii) preserves the health and safety of the crematory authority personnel, and (iv) is secure from access by anyone other than authorized persons. A holding facility may be located in a cremation room.

"Human remains" means the body of a deceased person, including any form of body prosthesis that has been permanently attached or implanted in the body.

"Licensee" means an entity licensed under this Act. An entity that holds itself as a licensee or that is accused of unlicensed practice is considered a licensee for purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

"Niche" means a compartment or cubicle for the memorialization and permanent placement of an urn containing cremated remains.

"Person" means any person, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or other entity, and in the case of any such business organization, its officers, partners, members, or shareholders possessing 25% or more of ownership of the entity.

"Processing" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation process to unidentifiable bone fragments by manual or mechanical means.

"Pulverization" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation process to granulated particles by manual or mechanical means.

"Scattering area" means an area which may be designated by a cemetery and located on dedicated cemetery property or property used for outdoor recreation or natural resource conservation owned by the Department of Natural Resources and designated as a scattering area, where cremated remains, which have been removed from their container, can be mixed with, or placed on top of, the soil or ground cover.

"Temporary container" means a receptacle for cremated remains, usually composed of cardboard, plastic or similar material, that can be closed in a manner that prevents the leakage or spillage of the cremated remains or the entrance of foreign material, and is a single container of sufficient size to hold the cremated remains until an urn is acquired or the cremated remains are scattered.

"Urn" means a receptacle designed to encase the cremated remains.

(Source: P.A. 100-97, eff. 1-1-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-526)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Comptroller in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Comptroller of any change of address within 14 days, and such changes must be made either through the Comptroller's website or by contacting the Comptroller. The address of record shall be the permanent street address of the crematory.

"Alternative container" means a receptacle, other than a casket, in which human remains are transported to the crematory and placed in the cremation chamber for cremation. An alternative container shall be (i) composed of readily combustible or consumable materials suitable for cremation, (ii) able to be closed in order to provide a complete covering for the human remains, (iii) resistant to leakage or spillage, (iv) rigid enough for handling with ease, and (v) able to provide protection for the health, safety, and personal integrity of crematory personnel.

"Authorizing agent" means a person legally entitled to order the cremation and final disposition of specific human remains. "Authorizing agent" includes an institution of medical, mortuary, or other sciences as provided in Section 20 of the Disposition of Remains of the Indigent Act.

"Body parts" means limbs or other portions of the anatomy that are removed from a person or human remains for medical purposes during treatment, surgery, biopsy, autopsy, or medical research; or human bodies or any portion of bodies that have been donated to science for medical research purposes.

"Burial transit permit" means a permit for disposition of a dead human body as required by Illinois law.

"Casket" means a rigid container that is designed for the encasement of human remains, is usually constructed of wood, metal, or like material and ornamented and lined with fabric, and may or may not be combustible.

"Comptroller" means the Comptroller of the State of Illinois.

"Cremated remains" means all human remains recovered after the completion of the cremation, which may possibly include the residue of any foreign matter including casket material, bridgework, or eyeglasses, that was cremated with the human remains.

"Cremation" means the technical process, using heat and flame, or alkaline hydrolysis that reduces human remains to bone fragments. The reduction takes place through heat and evaporation or through hydrolysis. Cremation shall include the processing, and may include the pulverization, of the bone fragments.

"Cremation chamber" means the enclosed space within which the cremation takes place.

"Cremation interment container" means a rigid outer container that, subject to a cemetery's rules and regulations, is composed of concrete, steel, fiberglass, or some similar material in which an urn is placed prior to being interred in the ground, and which is designed to withstand prolonged exposure to the elements and to support the earth above the urn.

"Cremation room" means the room in which the cremation chamber is located.

"Crematory" means the building or portion of a building that houses the cremation room and the holding facility.

"Crematory authority" means the legal entity which is licensed by the Comptroller to operate a crematory and to perform cremations.

"Final disposition" means the burial, cremation, or other disposition of a dead human body or parts of a dead human body.

"Funeral director" means a person known by the title of "funeral director", "funeral director and embalmer", or other similar words or titles, licensed by the State to practice funeral directing or funeral directing and embalming.

"Funeral establishment" means a building or separate portion of a building having a specific street address and location and devoted to activities relating to the shelter, care, custody, and preparation of a deceased human body and may contain facilities for funeral or wake services.

"Holding facility" means an area that (i) is designated for the retention of human remains prior to cremation, (ii) complies with all applicable public health law, (iii) preserves the health and safety of the crematory authority personnel, and (iv) is secure from access by anyone other than authorized persons. A holding facility may be located in a cremation room.

"Human remains" means the body of a deceased person, including any form of body prosthesis that has been permanently attached or implanted in the body.

"Licensee" means an entity licensed under this Act. An entity that holds itself as a licensee or that is accused of unlicensed practice is considered a licensee for purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

"Niche" means a compartment or cubicle for the memorialization and permanent placement of an urn containing cremated remains.

"Person" means any person, partnership, association, corporation, limited liability company, or other entity, and in the case of any such business organization, its officers, partners, members, or shareholders possessing 25% or more of ownership of the entity.

"Processing" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation process to unidentifiable bone fragments by manual or mechanical means.

"Pulverization" means the reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation process to granulated particles by manual or mechanical means.

"Scattering area" means an area which may be designated by a cemetery and located on dedicated cemetery property or property used for outdoor recreation or natural resource conservation owned by the Department of Natural Resources and designated as a scattering area, where cremated remains, which have been removed from their container, can be mixed with, or placed on top of, the soil or ground cover.

"Temporary container" means a receptacle for cremated remains, usually composed of cardboard, plastic or similar material, that can be closed in a manner that prevents the leakage or spillage of the cremated remains or the entrance of foreign material, and is a single container of sufficient size to hold the cremated remains until an urn is acquired or the cremated remains are scattered.

"Urn" means a receptacle designed to encase the cremated remains.

(Source: P.A. 100-97, eff. 1-1-18; 100-526, eff. 6-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 475. The Tattoo and Body Piercing Establishment Registration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 54/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Aseptic technique" means a practice that prevents and hinders the transmission of disease-producing microorganisms from one person or place to another.

"Body piercing" means penetrating the skin to make a hole, mark, or scar that is generally permanent in nature. "Body piercing" does not include practices that are considered medical procedures or the puncturing of the outer perimeter or lobe of the ear using a pre-sterilized, single-use stud and clasp ear piercing system.

"Client" means the person, customer, or patron whose skin will be tattooed or pierced.

"Communicable disease" means a disease that can be transmitted from person to person directly or indirectly, including diseases transmitted via blood or body fluids.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health or other health authority designated as its agent.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health or his or her designee.

"Establishment" means a body-piercing operation, a tattooing operation, or a combination of both operations in a multiple-type establishment.

"Ink cup" means a small container for an individual portion of pigment that may be installed in a holder or palette and in which a small amount of pigment of a given color is placed.

"Multi-type establishment" means an operation encompassing both body piercing and tattooing on the same premises and under the same management.

"Person" means any individual, group of individuals, association, trust, partnership, corporation, or limited liability company.

"Procedure area" means the immediate area where instruments and supplies are placed during a procedure.

"Operator" means an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other entity engaged in the business of owning, managing, or offering services of body piercing or tattooing.

"Sanitation" means the effective bactericidal and veridical treatment of clean equipment surfaces by a process that effectively destroys pathogens.

"Single use" means items that are intended for one time and one person use only and are to then be discarded.

"Sterilize" means to destroy all living organisms including spores.

"Tattooing" means making permanent marks on the skin of a live human being by puncturing the skin and inserting indelible colors. "Tattooing" includes imparting permanent makeup on the skin, such as permanent lip coloring and permanent eyeliner. "Tattooing" does not include any of the following:

(1) The practice of electrology as defined in the Electrologist Electrology Licensing Act.

(2) The practice of acupuncture as defined in the Acupuncture Practice Licensing Act.

(3) The use, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, of colors, dyes, or pigments for the purpose of obscuring scar tissue or imparting color to the skin for cosmetic, medical, or figurative purposes.

(Source: P.A. 99-117, eff. 1-1-16; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 480. The Public Health Standing Orders Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 125/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Health care personnel" means persons working within the scope of their licensure or training and experience with a public health clinic who provide medical services, including volunteers and staff not employed by the public health clinic.

"Public health clinic" has the same meaning as provided in subsection (c) of Section 6-101 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Immunities Act.

"Public health standing orders physician" has the same meaning as provided in subsection (d) of Section 6-101 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Immunities Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-589, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 485. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act is amended by changing Section 160 as follows:

(410 ILCS 130/160)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2020)

Sec. 160. Annual reports. (a) The Department of Public Health shall submit to the General Assembly a report, by September 30 of each year, that does not disclose any identifying information about registered qualifying patients, registered caregivers, or physicians, but does contain, at a minimum, all of the following information based on the fiscal year for reporting purposes:

(1) the number of applications and renewals filed for registry identification cards or registrations;

(2) the number of qualifying patients and designated caregivers served by each dispensary during the report year;

(3) the nature of the debilitating medical conditions of the qualifying patients;

(4) the number of registry identification cards or registrations revoked for misconduct;

(5) the number of physicians providing written certifications for qualifying patients; and

(6) the number of registered medical cannabis cultivation centers or registered dispensing organizations.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 490. The Consent by Minors to Health Care Services Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, 3, and 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)

Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of a health care service by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a chiropractic physician, a licensed optometrist, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant executed by a married person who is a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by a pregnant woman who is a minor, or by any person 18 years of age or older, is not voidable because of such minority, and, for such purpose, a married person who is a minor, a parent who is a minor, a pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 years of age or older, is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-378, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(410 ILCS 210/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for limited primary care services.

(a) The consent to the performance of primary care services by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, a chiropractic physician, or a licensed optometrist executed by a minor seeking care is not voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, a minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age under the following circumstances:

(1) the health care professional reasonably believes that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and risks of any proposed primary care or services; and

(2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as a minor seeking care by:

(A) an adult relative;

(B) a representative of a homeless service agency that receives federal, State, county, or municipal funding to provide those services or that is otherwise sanctioned by a local continuum of care;

(C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this State;

(D) a public school homeless liaison or school social worker;

(E) a social service agency providing services to at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or

(F) a representative of a religious organization.

(b) A health care professional rendering primary care services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall be presumed.

(c) The confidential nature of any communication between a health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the time of communication, of any additional persons present at the request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care professional's disclosure of confidential information to the additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has coverage for the services provided.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a minor in their absence.

(e) For the purposes of this Section:

"Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Primary care services" means health care services that include screening, counseling, immunizations, medication, and treatment of illness and conditions customarily provided by licensed health care professionals in an out-patient setting, eye care services, excluding advanced optometric procedures, provided by optometrists, and services provided by chiropractic physicians according to the scope of practice of chiropractic physicians under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. "Primary care services" does not include invasive care, beyond standard injections, laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-378, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(410 ILCS 210/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)

Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may consent to the performance upon his or her child of a health care service by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a chiropractic physician, a licensed optometrist, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant or a dental procedure by a licensed dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall not be voidable because of such minority, but, for such purpose, a parent who is a minor shall be deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and shall have the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-378, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)

Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a chiropractic physician, a licensed optometrist, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant renders emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist renders emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the physician, chiropractic physician, optometrist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not reasonably feasible under the circumstances without adversely affecting the condition of such minor's health.

(b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to authorize a hospital, physician, chiropractic physician, optometrist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish health care services or counseling related to the diagnosis or treatment of any disease or injury arising from such offense. The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis or treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to later disaffirmance, because of minority.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-378, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(410 ILCS 210/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 4505)

Sec. 5. Counseling; informing parent or guardian. Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, who provides diagnosis or treatment or any licensed clinical psychologist or professionally trained social worker with a master's degree or any qualified person employed (i) by an organization licensed or funded by the Department of Human Services, (ii) by units of local government, or (iii) by agencies or organizations operating drug abuse programs funded or licensed by the Federal Government or the State of Illinois or any qualified person employed by or associated with any public or private alcoholism or drug abuse program licensed by the State of Illinois who provides counseling to a minor patient who has come into contact with any sexually transmitted disease referred to in Section 4 of this Act may, but shall not be obligated to, inform the parent, parents, or guardian of the minor as to the treatment given or needed. Any person described in this Section who provides counseling to a minor who abuses drugs or alcohol or has a family member who abuses drugs or alcohol shall not inform the parent, parents, guardian, or other responsible adult of the minor's condition or treatment without the minor's consent unless that action is, in the person's judgment, necessary to protect the safety of the minor, a family member, or another individual.

Any such person shall, upon the minor's consent, make reasonable efforts to involve the family of the minor in his or her treatment, if the person furnishing the treatment believes that the involvement of the family will not be detrimental to the progress and care of the minor. Reasonable effort shall be extended to assist the minor in accepting the involvement of his or her family in the care and treatment being given.

(Source: P.A. 100-378, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 495. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 335/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Birth center" means a facility licensed by the Department under paragraph (6) of Section 35 of the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

"Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital, birth center, or other institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

"Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or labor or delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn infant, including hospitalization.

"Opt-out testing" means an approach in which an HIV test is offered to the patient, such that the patient is notified that HIV testing may occur unless the patient opts out by declining the test.

"Third trimester" means the 27th week of pregnancy through delivery.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-265, eff. 8-22-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

Section 500. The Vital Records Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 24.6 as follows:

(410 ILCS 535/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 73-1)

Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1) "Vital records" means records of births, deaths, fetal deaths, marriages, dissolution of marriages, and data related thereto.

(2) "System of vital records" includes the registration, collection, preservation, amendment, and certification of vital records, and activities related thereto.

(3) "Filing" means the presentation of a certificate, report, or other record provided for in this Act, of a birth, death, fetal death, adoption, marriage, or dissolution of marriage, for registration by the Office of Vital Records.

(4) "Registration" means the acceptance by the Office of Vital Records and the incorporation in its official records of certificates, reports, or other records provided for in this Act, of births, deaths, fetal deaths, adoptions, marriages, or dissolution of marriages.

(5) "Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, which after such separation breathes or shows any other evidence of life such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles, whether or not the umbilical cord has been cut or the placenta is attached.

(6) "Fetal death" means death prior to the complete expulsion or extraction from its mother of a product of human conception, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy; the death is indicated by the fact that after such separation the fetus does not breathe or show any other evidence of life such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles.

(7) "Dead body" means a lifeless human body or parts of such body or bones thereof from the state of which it may reasonably be concluded that death has occurred.

(8) "Final disposition" means the burial, cremation, or other disposition of a dead human body or fetus or parts thereof.

(9) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in Illinois or any other state State.

(10) "Institution" means any establishment, public or private, which provides in-patient medical, surgical, or diagnostic care or treatment, or nursing, custodial, or domiciliary care to 2 or more unrelated individuals, or to which persons are committed by law.

(11) "Department" means the Department of Public Health of the State of Illinois.

(12) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(13) "Licensed health care professional" means a person licensed to practice as a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant in Illinois or any other state.

(14) "Licensed mental health professional" means a person who is licensed or registered to provide mental health services by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or a board of registration duly authorized to register or grant licenses to persons engaged in the practice of providing mental health services in Illinois or any other state.

(15) "Intersex condition" means a condition in which a person is born with a reproductive or sexual anatomy or chromosome pattern that does not fit typical definitions of male or female.

(16) (13) "Homeless person" means an individual who meets the definition of "homeless" under Section 103 of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 11302) or an individual residing in any of the living situations described in 42 U.S.C. 11434a(2).

(Source: P.A. 100-360, eff. 1-1-18; 100-506, eff. 1-1-18; revised 9-29-17.)

(410 ILCS 535/24.6)

Sec. 24.6. Access to records; State Treasurer. Any information contained in the vital records shall be made available at no cost to the State Treasurer for administrative purposes related to the Revised Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-543, eff. 1-1-18; revised 12-14-17.)

Section 505. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by changing Sections 5, 22.15, 29, 41, 42, 44.1, 55, and 55.6 as follows:

(415 ILCS 5/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1005)

Sec. 5. Pollution Control Board.

(a) There is hereby created an independent board to be known as the Pollution Control Board.

On and after August 11, 2003 (the effective date of Public Act 93-509), the Board shall consist of 5 technically qualified members, no more than 3 of whom may be of the same political party, to be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. Members shall have verifiable technical, academic, or actual experience in the field of pollution control or environmental law and regulation.

One member shall be appointed for a term ending July 1, 2004, 2 shall be appointed for terms ending July 1, 2005, and 2 shall be appointed for terms ending July 1, 2006. Thereafter, all members shall hold office for 3 years from the first day of July in the year in which they were appointed, except in case of an appointment to fill a vacancy. In case of a vacancy in the office when the Senate is not in session, the Governor may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of the Senate, when he or she shall nominate some person to fill such office; and any person so nominated, who is confirmed by the Senate, shall hold the office during the remainder of the term.

Members of the Board shall hold office until their respective successors have been appointed and qualified. Any member may resign from office, such resignation to take effect when a successor has been appointed and has qualified.

Board members shall be paid $37,000 per year or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater, and the Chairman shall be paid $43,000 per year or an amount set by the Compensation Review Board, whichever is greater. Each member shall devote his or her entire time to the duties of the office, and shall hold no other office or position of profit, nor engage in any other business, employment, or vocation. Each member shall be reimbursed for expenses necessarily incurred and shall make a financial disclosure upon appointment.

The Board may employ one assistant for each member and 2 assistants for the Chairman. The Board also may employ and compensate hearing officers to preside at hearings under this Act, and such other personnel as may be necessary. Hearing officers shall be attorneys licensed to practice law in Illinois.

The Board may have an Executive Director; if so, the Executive Director shall be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate. The salary and duties of the Executive Director shall be fixed by the Board.

The Governor shall designate one Board member to be Chairman, who shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor.

The Board shall hold at least one meeting each month and such additional meetings as may be prescribed by Board rules. In addition, special meetings may be called by the Chairman or by any 2 Board members, upon delivery of 48 hours written notice to the office of each member. All Board meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of all meetings shall be given at least 48 hours in advance of each meeting. In emergency situations in which a majority of the Board certifies that exigencies of time require the requirements of public notice and of 24 hour written notice to members may be dispensed with, and Board members shall receive such notice as is reasonable under the circumstances.

Three members of the Board shall constitute a quorum to transact business; and the affirmative vote of 3 members is necessary to adopt any order. The Board shall keep a complete and accurate record of all its meetings.

(b) The Board shall determine, define and implement the environmental control standards applicable in the State of Illinois and may adopt rules and regulations in accordance with Title VII of this Act.

(c) The Board shall have authority to act for the State in regard to the adoption of standards for submission to the United States under any federal law respecting environmental protection. Such standards shall be adopted in accordance with Title VII of the Act and upon adoption shall be forwarded to the Environmental Protection Agency for submission to the United States pursuant to subsections (l) and (m) of Section 4 of this Act. Nothing in this paragraph shall limit the discretion of the Governor to delegate authority granted to the Governor under any federal law.

(d) The Board shall have authority to conduct proceedings upon complaints charging violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order; upon administrative citations; upon petitions for variances, adjusted standards, or time-limited water quality standards; upon petitions for review of the Agency's final determinations on permit applications in accordance with Title X of this Act; upon petitions to remove seals under Section 34 of this Act; and upon other petitions for review of final determinations which are made pursuant to this Act or Board rule and which involve a subject which the Board is authorized to regulate. The Board may also conduct other proceedings as may be provided by this Act or any other statute or rule.

(e) In connection with any proceeding pursuant to subsection (b) or (d) of this Section, the Board may subpoena and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of evidence reasonably necessary to resolution of the matter under consideration. The Board shall issue such subpoenas upon the request of any party to a proceeding under subsection (d) of this Section or upon its own motion.

(f) The Board may prescribe reasonable fees for permits required pursuant to this Act. Such fees in the aggregate may not exceed the total cost to the Agency for its inspection and permit systems. The Board may not prescribe any permit fees which are different in amount from those established by this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-934, eff. 1-27-17; 99-937, eff. 2-24-17; revised 2-27-17.)

(415 ILCS 5/22.15) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1022.15)

Sec. 22.15. Solid Waste Management Fund; fees.

(a) There is hereby created within the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the "Solid Waste Management Fund", to be constituted from the fees collected by the State pursuant to this Section, from repayments of loans made from the Fund for solid waste projects, from registration fees collected pursuant to the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act, and from amounts transferred into the Fund pursuant to Public Act 100-433 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly. Moneys received by the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity in repayment of loans made pursuant to the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(b) The Agency shall assess and collect a fee in the amount set forth herein from the owner or operator of each sanitary landfill permitted or required to be permitted by the Agency to dispose of solid waste if the sanitary landfill is located off the site where such waste was produced and if such sanitary landfill is owned, controlled, and operated by a person other than the generator of such waste. The Agency shall deposit all fees collected into the Solid Waste Management Fund. If a site is contiguous to one or more landfills owned or operated by the same person, the volumes permanently disposed of by each landfill shall be combined for purposes of determining the fee under this subsection.

(1) If more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall either pay a fee of 95 cents per cubic yard or, alternatively, the owner or operator may weigh the quantity of the solid waste permanently disposed of with a device for which certification has been obtained under the Weights and Measures Act and pay a fee of $2.00 per ton of solid waste permanently disposed of. In no case shall the fee collected or paid by the owner or operator under this paragraph exceed $1.55 per cubic yard or $3.27 per ton.

(2) If more than 100,000 cubic yards but not more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $52,630.

(3) If more than 50,000 cubic yards but not more than 100,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $23,790.

(4) If more than 10,000 cubic yards but not more than 50,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $7,260.

(5) If not more than 10,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at a site in a calendar year, the owner or operator shall pay a fee of $1050.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Agency shall establish rules relating to the collection of the fees authorized by this Section. Such rules shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) necessary records identifying the quantities of solid waste received or disposed;

(2) the form and submission of reports to accompany the payment of fees to the Agency;

(3) the time and manner of payment of fees to the Agency, which payments shall not be more often than quarterly; and

(4) procedures setting forth criteria establishing when an owner or operator may measure by weight or volume during any given quarter or other fee payment period.

(e) Pursuant to appropriation, all monies in the Solid Waste Management Fund shall be used by the Agency and the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity for the purposes set forth in this Section and in the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act, including for the costs of fee collection and administration, and for the administration of (1) the Consumer Electronics Recycling Act and (2) until January 1, 2020, the Electronic Products Recycling and Reuse Act.

(f) The Agency is authorized to enter into such agreements and to promulgate such rules as are necessary to carry out its duties under this Section and the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act.

(g) On the first day of January, April, July, and October of each year, beginning on July 1, 1996, the State Comptroller and Treasurer shall transfer $500,000 from the Solid Waste Management Fund to the Hazardous Waste Fund. Moneys transferred under this subsection (g) shall be used only for the purposes set forth in item (1) of subsection (d) of Section 22.2.

(h) The Agency is authorized to provide financial assistance to units of local government for the performance of inspecting, investigating and enforcement activities pursuant to Section 4(r) at nonhazardous solid waste disposal sites.

(i) The Agency is authorized to conduct household waste collection and disposal programs.

(j) A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, in which a solid waste disposal facility is located may establish a fee, tax, or surcharge with regard to the permanent disposal of solid waste. All fees, taxes, and surcharges collected under this subsection shall be utilized for solid waste management purposes, including long-term monitoring and maintenance of landfills, planning, implementation, inspection, enforcement and other activities consistent with the Solid Waste Management Act and the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, or for any other environment-related purpose, including but not limited to an environment-related public works project, but not for the construction of a new pollution control facility other than a household hazardous waste facility. However, the total fee, tax or surcharge imposed by all units of local government under this subsection (j) upon the solid waste disposal facility shall not exceed:

(1) 60¢ per cubic yard if more than 150,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year, unless the owner or operator weighs the quantity of the solid waste received with a device for which certification has been obtained under the Weights and Measures Act, in which case the fee shall not exceed $1.27 per ton of solid waste permanently disposed of.

(2) $33,350 if more than 100,000 cubic yards, but not more than 150,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(3) $15,500 if more than 50,000 cubic yards, but not more than 100,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(4) $4,650 if more than 10,000 cubic yards, but not more than 50,000 cubic yards, of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

(5) $$650 if not more than 10,000 cubic yards of non-hazardous solid waste is permanently disposed of at the site in a calendar year.

The corporate authorities of the unit of local government may use proceeds from the fee, tax, or surcharge to reimburse a highway commissioner whose road district lies wholly or partially within the corporate limits of the unit of local government for expenses incurred in the removal of nonhazardous, nonfluid municipal waste that has been dumped on public property in violation of a State law or local ordinance.

A county or Municipal Joint Action Agency that imposes a fee, tax, or surcharge under this subsection may use the proceeds thereof to reimburse a municipality that lies wholly or partially within its boundaries for expenses incurred in the removal of nonhazardous, nonfluid municipal waste that has been dumped on public property in violation of a State law or local ordinance.

If the fees are to be used to conduct a local sanitary landfill inspection or enforcement program, the unit of local government must enter into a written delegation agreement with the Agency pursuant to subsection (r) of Section 4. The unit of local government and the Agency shall enter into such a written delegation agreement within 60 days after the establishment of such fees. At least annually, the Agency shall conduct an audit of the expenditures made by units of local government from the funds granted by the Agency to the units of local government for purposes of local sanitary landfill inspection and enforcement programs, to ensure that the funds have been expended for the prescribed purposes under the grant.

The fees, taxes or surcharges collected under this subsection (j) shall be placed by the unit of local government in a separate fund, and the interest received on the moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The monies in the fund may be accumulated over a period of years to be expended in accordance with this subsection.

A unit of local government, as defined in the Local Solid Waste Disposal Act, shall prepare and distribute to the Agency, in April of each year, a report that details spending plans for monies collected in accordance with this subsection. The report will at a minimum include the following:

(1) The total monies collected pursuant to this subsection.

(2) The most current balance of monies collected pursuant to this subsection.

(3) An itemized accounting of all monies expended for the previous year pursuant to this subsection.

(4) An estimation of monies to be collected for the following 3 years pursuant to this subsection.

(5) A narrative detailing the general direction and scope of future expenditures for one, 2 and 3 years.

The exemptions granted under Sections 22.16 and 22.16a, and under subsection (k) of this Section, shall be applicable to any fee, tax or surcharge imposed under this subsection (j); except that the fee, tax or surcharge authorized to be imposed under this subsection (j) may be made applicable by a unit of local government to the permanent disposal of solid waste after December 31, 1986, under any contract lawfully executed before June 1, 1986 under which more than 150,000 cubic yards (or 50,000 tons) of solid waste is to be permanently disposed of, even though the waste is exempt from the fee imposed by the State under subsection (b) of this Section pursuant to an exemption granted under Section 22.16.

(k) In accordance with the findings and purposes of the Illinois Solid Waste Management Act, beginning January 1, 1989 the fee under subsection (b) and the fee, tax or surcharge under subsection (j) shall not apply to:

(1) waste Waste which is hazardous waste; or

(2) waste Waste which is pollution control waste; or

(3) waste Waste from recycling, reclamation or reuse processes which have been approved by the Agency as being designed to remove any contaminant from wastes so as to render such wastes reusable, provided that the process renders at least 50% of the waste reusable; or

(4) non-hazardous Non-hazardous solid waste that is received at a sanitary landfill and composted or recycled through a process permitted by the Agency; or

(5) any Any landfill which is permitted by the Agency to receive only demolition or construction debris or landscape waste.

(Source: P.A. 100-103, eff. 8-11-17; 100-433, eff. 8-25-17; revised 9-29-17.)

(415 ILCS 5/29) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1029)

Sec. 29. (a) Any person adversely affected or threatened by any rule or regulation of the Board may obtain a determination of the validity or application of such rule or regulation by petition under subsection (a) of Section 41 of this Act for judicial review of the Board's final order adopting the rule or regulation. For purposes of the 35-day appeal period of subsection (a) of Section 41, a person is deemed to have been served with the Board's final order on the date on which the rule or regulation becomes effective pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(b) Action by the Board in adopting any regulation for which judicial review could have been obtained under Section 41 of this Act shall not be subject to review regarding the regulation's validity or application in any subsequent proceeding under Title VIII, Title IX, or Section 40 of this Act.

(c) This Section does not apply to orders entered by the Board pursuant to Section 38.5 of this Act. Final orders entered by the Board pursuant to Section 38.5 of this Act are subject to judicial review under subsection (j) of that Section. Interim orders entered by the Board pursuant to Section 38.5 are not subject to judicial review under this Section or Section 38.5.

(Source: P.A. 99-934, eff. 1-27-17; 99-937, eff. 2-24-17; revised 2-27-17.)

(415 ILCS 5/41) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1041)

Sec. 41. Judicial review.

(a) Any party to a Board hearing, any person who filed a complaint on which a hearing was denied, any person who has been denied a variance or permit under this Act, any party adversely affected by a final order or determination of the Board, and any person who participated in the public comment process under subsection (8) of Section 39.5 of this Act may obtain judicial review, by filing a petition for review within 35 days from the date that a copy of the order or other final action sought to be reviewed was served upon the party affected by the order or other final Board action complained of, under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as amended and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, except that review shall be afforded directly in the Appellate Court for the District in which the cause of action arose and not in the Circuit Court. For purposes of this subsection (a), the date of service of the Board's final order is the date on which the party received a copy of the order from the Board. Review of any rule or regulation promulgated by the Board shall not be limited by this Section but may also be had as provided in Section 29 of this Act.

(b) Any final order of the Board under this Act shall be based solely on the evidence in the record of the particular proceeding involved, and any such final order for permit appeals, enforcement actions and variance proceedings, shall be invalid if it is against the manifest weight of the evidence. Notwithstanding this subsection, the Board may include such conditions in granting a variance and may adopt such rules and regulations as the policies of this Act may require. If an objection is made to a variance condition, the board shall reconsider the condition within not more than 75 days from the date of the objection.

(c) No challenge to the validity of a Board order shall be made in any enforcement proceeding under Title XII of this Act as to any issue that could have been raised in a timely petition for review under this Section.

(d) If there is no final action by the Board within 120 days on a request for a variance which is subject to subsection (c) of Section 38 or a permit appeal which is subject to paragraph (a) (3) of Section 40 or paragraph (d) of Section 40.2 or Section 40.3, the petitioner shall be entitled to an Appellate Court order under this subsection. If a hearing is required under this Act and was not held by the Board, the Appellate Court shall order the Board to conduct such a hearing, and to make a decision within 90 days from the date of the order. If a hearing was held by the Board, or if a hearing is not required under this Act and was not held by the Board, the Appellate Court shall order the Board to make a decision within 90 days from the date of the order.

The Appellate Court shall retain jurisdiction during the pendency of any further action conducted by the Board under an order by the Appellate Court. The Appellate Court shall have jurisdiction to review all issues of law and fact presented upon appeal.

(e) This Section does not apply to orders entered by the Board pursuant to Section 38.5 of this Act. Final orders entered by the Board pursuant to Section 38.5 of this Act are subject to judicial review under subsection (j) of that Section. Interim orders entered by the Board pursuant to Section 38.5 are not subject to judicial review under this Section or Section 38.5.

(Source: P.A. 99-463, eff. 1-1-16; 99-934, eff. 1-27-17; 99-937, eff. 2-24-17; revised 2-27-17.)

(415 ILCS 5/42) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1042)

Sec. 42. Civil penalties.

(a) Except as provided in this Section, any person that violates any provision of this Act or any regulation adopted by the Board, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or that violates any order of the Board pursuant to this Act, shall be liable for a civil penalty of not to exceed $50,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for each day during which the violation continues; such penalties may, upon order of the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction, be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act.

(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section:

(1) Any person that violates Section 12(f) of this Act or any NPDES permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the NPDES permit program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(2) Any person that violates Section 12(g) of this Act or any UIC permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State UIC program for all wells, except Class II wells as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty not to exceed $2,500 per day of violation; provided, however, that any person who commits such violations relating to the State UIC program for Class II wells, as defined by the Board under this Act, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $10,000 for the violation and an additional civil penalty of not to exceed $1,000 for each day during which the violation continues.

(3) Any person that violates Sections 21(f), 21(g), 21(h) or 21(i) of this Act, or any RCRA permit or term or condition thereof, or any filing requirement, regulation or order relating to the State RCRA program, shall be liable to a civil penalty of not to exceed $25,000 per day of violation.

(4) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (o) of Section 21 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency. Such penalties shall be made payable to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(4-5) In an administrative citation action under Section 31.1 of this Act, any person found to have violated any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21, Section 22.51, Section 22.51a, or subsection (k) of Section 55 of this Act shall pay a civil penalty of $1,500 for each violation of each such provision, plus any hearing costs incurred by the Board and the Agency, except that the civil penalty amount shall be $3,000 for each violation of any provision of subsection (p) of Section 21, Section 22.51, Section 22.51a, or subsection (k) of Section 55 that is the person's second or subsequent adjudication violation of that provision. The penalties shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection Trust Fund Act; except that if a unit of local government issued the administrative citation, 50% of the civil penalty shall be payable to the unit of local government.

(5) Any person who violates subsection 6 of Section 39.5 of this Act or any CAAPP permit, or term or condition thereof, or any fee or filing requirement, or any duty to allow or carry out inspection, entry or monitoring activities, or any regulation or order relating to the CAAPP shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $10,000 per day of violation.

(6) Any owner or operator of a community water system that violates subsection (b) of Section 18.1 or subsection (a) of Section 25d-3 of this Act shall, for each day of violation, be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $5 for each of the premises connected to the affected community water system.

(7) Any person who violates Section 52.5 of this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty of up to $1,000 for the first violation of that Section and a civil penalty of up to $2,500 for a second or subsequent violation of that Section.

(b.5) In lieu of the penalties set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this Section, any person who fails to file, in a timely manner, toxic chemical release forms with the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-2 of this Act shall be liable for a civil penalty of $100 per day for each day the forms are late, not to exceed a maximum total penalty of $6,000. This daily penalty shall begin accruing on the thirty-first day after the date that the person receives the warning notice issued by the Agency pursuant to Section 25b-6 of this Act; and the penalty shall be paid to the Agency. The daily accrual of penalties shall cease as of January 1 of the following year. All penalties collected by the Agency pursuant to this subsection shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.

(c) Any person that violates this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order and causes the death of fish or aquatic life shall, in addition to the other penalties provided by this Act, be liable to pay to the State an additional sum for the reasonable value of the fish or aquatic life destroyed. Any money so recovered shall be placed in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in the State Treasury.

(d) The penalties provided for in this Section may be recovered in a civil action.

(e) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the request of the Agency or on his own motion, institute a civil action for an injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to restrain violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order, or to require such other actions as may be necessary to address violations of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, shall bring such actions in the name of the people of the State of Illinois. Without limiting any other authority which may exist for the awarding of attorney's fees and costs, the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction may award costs and reasonable attorney's fees, including the reasonable costs of expert witnesses and consultants, to the State's Attorney or the Attorney General in a case where he has prevailed against a person who has committed a willful wilful, knowing, or repeated violation of this Act, any rule or regulation adopted under this Act, any permit or term or condition of a permit, or any Board order.

Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which the Attorney General has prevailed shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund created in Section 22.2 of this Act. Any funds collected under this subsection (f) in which a State's Attorney has prevailed shall be retained by the county in which he serves.

(g) All final orders imposing civil penalties pursuant to this Section shall prescribe the time for payment of such penalties. If any such penalty is not paid within the time prescribed, interest on such penalty at the rate set forth in subsection (a) of Section 1003 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, shall be paid for the period from the date payment is due until the date payment is received. However, if the time for payment is stayed during the pendency of an appeal, interest shall not accrue during such stay.

(h) In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subdivisions (a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(5), (b)(6), or (b)(7) of this Section, the Board is authorized to consider any matters of record in mitigation or aggravation of penalty, including, but not limited to, the following factors:

(1) the duration and gravity of the violation;

(2) the presence or absence of due diligence on the part of the respondent in attempting to comply with requirements of this Act and regulations thereunder or to secure relief therefrom as provided by this Act;

(3) any economic benefits accrued by the respondent because of delay in compliance with requirements, in which case the economic benefits shall be determined by the lowest cost alternative for achieving compliance;

(4) the amount of monetary penalty which will serve to deter further violations by the respondent and to otherwise aid in enhancing voluntary compliance with this Act by the respondent and other persons similarly subject to the Act;

(5) the number, proximity in time, and gravity of previously adjudicated violations of this Act by the respondent;

(6) whether the respondent voluntarily self-disclosed, in accordance with subsection (i) of this Section, the non-compliance to the Agency;

(7) whether the respondent has agreed to undertake a "supplemental environmental project"," which means an environmentally beneficial project that a respondent agrees to undertake in settlement of an enforcement action brought under this Act, but which the respondent is not otherwise legally required to perform; and

(8) whether the respondent has successfully completed a Compliance Commitment Agreement under subsection (a) of Section 31 of this Act to remedy the violations that are the subject of the complaint.

In determining the appropriate civil penalty to be imposed under subsection (a) or paragraph (1), (2), (3), (5), (6), or (7) of subsection (b) of this Section, the Board shall ensure, in all cases, that the penalty is at least as great as the economic benefits, if any, accrued by the respondent as a result of the violation, unless the Board finds that imposition of such penalty would result in an arbitrary or unreasonable financial hardship. However, such civil penalty may be off-set in whole or in part pursuant to a supplemental environmental project agreed to by the complainant and the respondent.

(i) A person who voluntarily self-discloses non-compliance to the Agency, of which the Agency had been unaware, is entitled to a 100% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based on the economic benefit of non-compliance if the person can establish the following:

(1) that either the regulated entity is a small entity or the non-compliance was discovered through an environmental audit or a compliance management system documented by the regulated entity as reflecting the regulated entity's due diligence in preventing, detecting, and correcting violations;

(2) that the non-compliance was disclosed in writing within 30 days of the date on which the person discovered it;

(3) that the non-compliance was discovered and disclosed prior to:

(i) the commencement of an Agency inspection, investigation, or request for information;

(ii) notice of a citizen suit;

(iii) the filing of a complaint by a citizen, the Illinois Attorney General, or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred;

(iv) the reporting of the non-compliance by an employee of the person without that person's knowledge; or

(v) imminent discovery of the non-compliance by the Agency;

(4) that the non-compliance is being corrected and any environmental harm is being remediated in a timely fashion;

(5) that the person agrees to prevent a recurrence of the non-compliance;

(6) that no related non-compliance events have occurred in the past 3 years at the same facility or in the past 5 years as part of a pattern at multiple facilities owned or operated by the person;

(7) that the non-compliance did not result in serious actual harm or present an imminent and substantial endangerment to human health or the environment or violate the specific terms of any judicial or administrative order or consent agreement;

(8) that the person cooperates as reasonably requested by the Agency after the disclosure; and

(9) that the non-compliance was identified voluntarily and not through a monitoring, sampling, or auditing procedure that is required by statute, rule, permit, judicial or administrative order, or consent agreement.

If a person can establish all of the elements under this subsection except the element set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection, the person is entitled to a 75% reduction in the portion of the penalty that is not based upon the economic benefit of non-compliance.

For the purposes of this subsection (i), "small entity" has the same meaning as in Section 221 of the federal Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 601).

(j) In addition to any other remedy or penalty that may apply, whether civil or criminal, any person who violates Section 22.52 of this Act shall be liable for an additional civil penalty of up to 3 times the gross amount of any pecuniary gain resulting from the violation.

(k) In addition to any other remedy or penalty that may apply, whether civil or criminal, any person who violates subdivision (a)(7.6) of Section 31 of this Act shall be liable for an additional civil penalty of $2,000.

(Source: P.A. 99-934, eff. 1-27-17; 100-436, eff. 8-25-17; revised 1-22-18.)

(415 ILCS 5/44.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-512)

Sec. 44.1. (a) In addition to all other civil and criminal penalties provided by law, any person convicted of a criminal violation of this Act or the regulations adopted thereunder shall forfeit to the State (1) an amount equal to the value of all profits earned, savings realized, and benefits incurred as a direct or indirect result of such violation, and (2) any vehicle or conveyance used in the perpetration of such violation, except as provided in subsection (b).

(b) Forfeiture of conveyances shall be subject to the following exceptions:

(1) No conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it is proven that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance consented to or was privy to the covered violation.

(2) No conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any covered violation which the owner proves to have been committed without his knowledge or consent.

(3) A forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he neither had knowledge of nor consented to the covered violation.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (d), all property subject to forfeiture under this Section shall be seized pursuant to the order of a circuit court.

(d) Property subject to forfeiture under this Section may be seized by the Director or any peace officer without process:

(1) if the seizure is incident to an inspection under an administrative inspection warrant, or incident to the execution of a criminal search or arrest warrant;

(2) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Act; or

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety.

(e) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to eviction or replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings. When property is seized under this Act, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) secure the property or remove the property to a place designated by him; or

(3) require the sheriff of the county in which the seizure occurs to take custody of the property and secure or remove it to an appropriate location for disposition in accordance with law.

(f) All amounts forfeited under item (1) of subsection (a) shall be apportioned in the following manner:

(1) 40% shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund created in Section 22.2;

(2) 30% shall be paid to the office of the Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, whichever brought and prosecuted the action; and

(3) 30% shall be paid to the law enforcement agency which investigated the violation.

Any funds received under this subsection (f) shall be used solely for the enforcement of the environmental protection laws of this State.

(g) When property is forfeited under this Section the court may order:

(1) that the property shall be made available for the official use of the Agency, the Office of the Attorney General, the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the law enforcement agency which investigated the violation, to be used solely for the enforcement of the environmental protection laws of this State;

(2) the sheriff of the county in which the forfeiture occurs to take custody of the property and remove it for disposition in accordance with law; or

(3) the sheriff of the county in which the forfeiture occurs to sell that which is not required to be destroyed by law and which is not harmful to the public. The proceeds of such sale shall be used for payment of all proper expenses of the proceedings for forfeiture and sale, including expenses of seizure, maintenance of custody, advertising and court costs, and the balance, if any, shall be apportioned pursuant to subsection (f).

(Source: P.A. 100-173, eff. 1-1-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-512)

Sec. 44.1. (a) In addition to all other civil and criminal penalties provided by law, any person convicted of a criminal violation of this Act or the regulations adopted thereunder shall forfeit to the State (1) an amount equal to the value of all profits earned, savings realized, and benefits incurred as a direct or indirect result of such violation, and (2) any vehicle or conveyance used in the perpetration of such violation, except as provided in subsection (b).

(b) Forfeiture of conveyances shall be subject to the following exceptions:

(1) No conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this Section unless it is proven that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance consented to or was privy to the covered violation.

(2) No conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this Section by reason of any covered violation which the owner proves to have been committed without his knowledge or consent.

(3) A forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if he neither had knowledge of nor consented to the covered violation.

(c) Except as provided in subsection (d), all property subject to forfeiture under this Section shall be seized pursuant to the order of a circuit court.

(d) Property subject to forfeiture under this Section may be seized by the Director or any peace officer without process:

(1) if the seizure is incident to an inspection under an administrative inspection warrant, or incident to the execution of a criminal search or arrest warrant;

(2) if the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this Act; or

(3) if there is probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety.

(e) Property taken or detained under this Section shall not be subject to eviction or replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the Director subject only to the order and judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings. When property is seized under this Act, the Director may:

(1) place the property under seal;

(2) secure the property or remove the property to a place designated by him; or

(3) require the sheriff of the county in which the seizure occurs to take custody of the property and secure or remove it to an appropriate location for disposition in accordance with law.

(f) All amounts forfeited under item (1) of subsection (a) shall be apportioned in the following manner:

(1) 40% shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund created in Section 22.2;

(2) 30% shall be paid to the office of the Attorney General or the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, whichever brought and prosecuted the action; and

(3) 30% shall be paid to the law enforcement agency which investigated the violation.

Any funds received under this subsection (f) shall be used solely for the enforcement of the environmental protection laws of this State.

(g) When property is forfeited under this Section the court may order:

(1) that the property shall be made available for the official use of the Agency, the Office of the Attorney General, the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the law enforcement agency which investigated the violation, to be used solely for the enforcement of the environmental protection laws of this State;

(2) the sheriff of the county in which the forfeiture occurs to take custody of the property and remove it for disposition in accordance with law; or

(3) the sheriff of the county in which the forfeiture occurs to sell that which is not required to be destroyed by law and which is not harmful to the public. The proceeds of such sale shall be used for payment of all proper expenses of the proceedings for forfeiture and sale, including expenses of seizure, maintenance of custody, advertising and court costs, and the balance, if any, shall be apportioned pursuant to subsection (f).

(h) Property seized or forfeited under this Section is subject to reporting under the Seizure and Forfeiture Reporting Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-173, eff. 1-1-18; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-2-17.)

(415 ILCS 5/55) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1055)

Sec. 55. Prohibited activities.

(a) No person shall:

(1) Cause or allow the open dumping of any used or waste tire.

(2) Cause or allow the open burning of any used or waste tire.

(3) Except at a tire storage site which contains more than 50 used tires, cause or allow the storage of any used tire unless the tire is altered, reprocessed, converted, covered, or otherwise prevented from accumulating water.

(4) Cause or allow the operation of a tire storage site except in compliance with Board regulations.

(5) Abandon, dump or dispose of any used or waste tire on private or public property, except in a sanitary landfill approved by the Agency pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board.

(6) Fail to submit required reports, tire removal agreements, or Board regulations.

(b) (Blank.)

(b-1) No person shall knowingly mix any used or waste tire, either whole or cut, with municipal waste, and no owner or operator of a sanitary landfill shall accept any used or waste tire for final disposal; except that used or waste tires, when separated from other waste, may be accepted if the sanitary landfill provides and maintains a means for shredding, slitting, or chopping whole tires and so treats whole tires and, if approved by the Agency in a permit issued under this Act, uses the used or waste tires for alternative uses, which may include on-site practices such as lining of roadways with tire scraps, alternative daily cover, or use in a leachate collection system. In the event the physical condition of a used or waste tire makes shredding, slitting, chopping, reuse, reprocessing, or other alternative use of the used or waste tire impractical or infeasible, then the sanitary landfill, after authorization by the Agency, may accept the used or waste tire for disposal.

(c) Any person who sells new or used tires at retail or operates a tire storage site or a tire disposal site which contains more than 50 used or waste tires shall give notice of such activity to the Agency. Any person engaging in such activity for the first time after January 1, 1990, shall give notice to the Agency within 30 days after the date of commencement of the activity. The form of such notice shall be specified by the Agency and shall be limited to information regarding the following:

(1) the name and address of the owner and operator;

(2) the name, address and location of the operation;

(3) the type of operations involving used and waste tires (storage, disposal, conversion or processing); and

(4) the number of used and waste tires present at the location.

(d) Beginning January 1, 1992, no person shall cause or allow the operation of:

(1) a tire storage site which contains more than 50 used tires, unless the owner or operator, by January 1, 1992 (or the January 1 following commencement of operation, whichever is later) and January 1 of each year thereafter, (i) registers the site with the Agency, except that the registration requirement in this item (i) does not apply in the case of a tire storage site required to be permitted under subsection (d-5), (ii) certifies to the Agency that the site complies with any applicable standards adopted by the Board pursuant to Section 55.2, (iii) reports to the Agency the number of tires accumulated, the status of vector controls, and the actions taken to handle and process the tires, and (iv) pays the fee required under subsection (b) of Section 55.6; or

(2) a tire disposal site, unless the owner or operator (i) has received approval from the Agency after filing a tire removal agreement pursuant to Section 55.4, or (ii) has entered into a written agreement to participate in a consensual removal action under Section 55.3.

The Agency shall provide written forms for the annual registration and certification required under this subsection (d).

(d-4) On or before January 1, 2015, the owner or operator of each tire storage site that contains used tires totaling more than 10,000 passenger tire equivalents, or at which more than 500 tons of used tires are processed in a calendar year, shall submit documentation demonstrating its compliance with Board rules adopted under this Title. This documentation must be submitted on forms and in a format prescribed by the Agency.

(d-5) Beginning July 1, 2016, no person shall cause or allow the operation of a tire storage site that contains used tires totaling more than 10,000 passenger tire equivalents, or at which more than 500 tons of used tires are processed in a calendar year, without a permit granted by the Agency or in violation of any conditions imposed by that permit, including periodic reports and full access to adequate records and the inspection of facilities, as may be necessary to ensure compliance with this Act and with regulations and standards adopted under this Act.

(d-6) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a tire storage site in violation of the financial assurance rules established by the Board under subsection (b) of Section 55.2 of this Act. In addition to the remedies otherwise provided under this Act, the State's Attorney of the county in which the violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the request of the Agency or on his or her own motion, institute a civil action for an immediate injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to restrain any violation of this subsection (d-6) or to require any other action as may be necessary to abate or mitigate any immediate danger or threat to public health or the environment at the site. Injunctions to restrain a violation of this subsection (d-6) may include, but are not limited to, the required removal of all tires for which financial assurance is not maintained and a prohibition against the acceptance of tires in excess of the amount for which financial assurance is maintained.

(e) No person shall cause or allow the storage, disposal, treatment or processing of any used or waste tire in violation of any regulation or standard adopted by the Board.

(f) No person shall arrange for the transportation of used or waste tires away from the site of generation with a person known to openly dump such tires.

(g) No person shall engage in any operation as a used or waste tire transporter except in compliance with Board regulations.

(h) No person shall cause or allow the combustion of any used or waste tire in an enclosed device unless a permit has been issued by the Agency authorizing such combustion pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board for the control of air pollution and consistent with the provisions of Section 9.4 of this Act.

(i) No person shall cause or allow the use of pesticides to treat tires except as prescribed by Board regulations.

(j) No person shall fail to comply with the terms of a tire removal agreement approved by the Agency pursuant to Section 55.4.

(k) No person shall:

(1) Cause or allow water to accumulate in used or waste tires. The prohibition set forth in this paragraph (1) of subsection (k) shall not apply to used or waste tires located at a residential household, as long as not more than 4 used or waste tires at the site are covered and kept dry.

(2) Fail to collect a fee required under Section 55.8 of this Title.

(3) Fail to file a return required under Section 55.10 of this Title.

(4) Transport used or waste tires in violation of the registration and vehicle placarding requirements adopted by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 100-103, eff. 8-11-17; 100-327, eff. 8-24-17; revised 10-2-17.)

(415 ILCS 5/55.6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1055.6)

Sec. 55.6. Used Tire Management Fund.

(a) There is hereby created in the State Treasury a special fund to be known as the Used Tire Management Fund. There shall be deposited into the Fund all monies received as (1) recovered costs or proceeds from the sale of used tires under Section 55.3 of this Act, (2) repayment of loans from the Used Tire Management Fund, or (3) penalties or punitive damages for violations of this Title, except as provided by subdivision (b)(4) or (b)(4-5) of Section 42.

(b) Beginning January 1, 1992, in addition to any other fees required by law, the owner or operator of each site required to be registered or permitted under subsection (d) or (d-5) of Section 55 shall pay to the Agency an annual fee of $100. Fees collected under this subsection shall be deposited into the Environmental Protection Permit and Inspection Fund.

(c) Pursuant to appropriation, monies up to an amount of $4 million per fiscal year from the Used Tire Management Fund shall be allocated as follows:

(1) 38% shall be available to the Agency for the following purposes, provided that priority shall be given to item (i):

(i) To undertake preventive, corrective or removal action as authorized by and in accordance with Section 55.3, and to recover costs in accordance with Section 55.3.

(ii) For the performance of inspection and enforcement activities for used and waste tire sites.

(iii) (Blank).

(iv) To provide financial assistance to units of local government for the performance of inspecting, investigating and enforcement activities pursuant to subsection (r) of Section 4 at used and waste tire sites.

(v) To provide financial assistance for used and waste tire collection projects sponsored by local government or not-for-profit corporations.

(vi) For the costs of fee collection and administration relating to used and waste tires, and to accomplish such other purposes as are authorized by this Act and regulations thereunder.

(vii) To provide financial assistance to units of local government and private industry for the purposes of:

(A) assisting in the establishment of facilities and programs to collect, process, and utilize used and waste tires and tire-derived materials;

(B) demonstrating the feasibility of innovative technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire-derived materials; and

(C) applying demonstrated technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire-derived materials.

(2) For fiscal years beginning prior to July 1, 2004, 23% shall be available to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity for the following purposes, provided that priority shall be given to item (A):

(A) To provide grants or loans for the purposes of:

(i) assisting units of local government and private industry in the establishment of facilities and programs to collect, process and utilize used and waste tires and tire derived materials;

(ii) demonstrating the feasibility of innovative technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing and utilizing used and waste tires and tire derived materials; and

(iii) applying demonstrated technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire derived materials.

(B) To develop educational material for use by officials and the public to better understand and respond to the problems posed by used tires and associated insects.

(C) (Blank).

(D) To perform such research as the Director deems appropriate to help meet the purposes of this Act.

(E) To pay the costs of administration of its activities authorized under this Act.

(2.1) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2004 and for all fiscal years thereafter, 23% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(3) 25% shall be available to the Illinois Department of Public Health for the following purposes:

(A) To investigate threats or potential threats to the public health related to mosquitoes and other vectors of disease associated with the improper storage, handling and disposal of tires, improper waste disposal, or natural conditions.

(B) To conduct surveillance and monitoring activities for mosquitoes and other arthropod vectors of disease, and surveillance of animals which provide a reservoir for disease-producing organisms.

(C) To conduct training activities to promote vector control programs and integrated pest management as defined in the Vector Control Act.

(D) To respond to inquiries, investigate complaints, conduct evaluations and provide technical consultation to help reduce or eliminate public health hazards and nuisance conditions associated with mosquitoes and other vectors.

(E) To provide financial assistance to units of local government for training, investigation and response to public nuisances associated with mosquitoes and other vectors of disease.

(4) 2% shall be available to the Department of Agriculture for its activities under the Illinois Pesticide Act relating to used and waste tires.

(5) 2% shall be available to the Pollution Control Board for administration of its activities relating to used and waste tires.

(6) 10% shall be available to the University of Illinois for the Prairie Research Institute to perform research to study the biology, distribution, population ecology, and biosystematics of tire-breeding arthropods, especially mosquitoes, and the diseases they spread.

(d) By January 1, 1998, and biennially thereafter, each State agency receiving an appropriation from the Used Tire Management Fund shall report to the Governor and the General Assembly on its activities relating to the Fund.

(e) Any monies appropriated from the Used Tire Management Fund, but not obligated, shall revert to the Fund.

(f) In administering the provisions of subdivisions (1), (2) and (3) of subsection (c) of this Section, the Agency, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, and the Illinois Department of Public Health shall ensure that appropriate funding assistance is provided to any municipality with a population over 1,000,000 or to any sanitary district which serves a population over 1,000,000.

(g) Pursuant to appropriation, monies in excess of $4 million per fiscal year from the Used Tire Management Fund shall be used as follows:

(1) 55% shall be available to the Agency for the following purposes, provided that priority shall be given to subparagraph (A):

(A) To undertake preventive, corrective or renewed action as authorized by and in accordance with Section 55.3 and to recover costs in accordance with Section 55.3.

(B) To provide financial assistance to units of local government and private industry for the purposes of:

(i) assisting in the establishment of facilities and programs to collect, process, and utilize used and waste tires and tire-derived materials;

(ii) demonstrating the feasibility of innovative technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire-derived materials; and

(iii) applying demonstrated technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire-derived materials.

(C) To provide grants to public universities for vector-related research, disease-related research, and for related laboratory-based equipment and field-based equipment.

(2) For fiscal years beginning prior to July 1, 2004, 45% shall be available to the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity to provide grants or loans for the purposes of:

(i) assisting units of local government and private industry in the establishment of facilities and programs to collect, process and utilize waste tires and tire derived material;

(ii) demonstrating the feasibility of innovative technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire derived materials; and

(iii) applying demonstrated technologies as a means of collecting, storing, processing, and utilizing used and waste tires and tire derived materials.

(3) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2004 and for all fiscal years thereafter, 45% shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 100-103, eff. 8-11-17; 100-327, eff. 8-24-17; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 510. The Solid Waste Planning and Recycling Act is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:

(415 ILCS 15/11) (from Ch. 85, par. 5961)

Sec. 11. (a) It shall be a violation of this Act for any person:

(1) To cause or assist in the violation of Section 9 or 10 of this Act or any regulation promulgated hereunder.

(2) To fail to adhere to the schedule set forth in, or pursuant to, this Act for adopting and reviewing a waste management plan.

(3) To fail to implement the recycling component of an adopted waste management plan.

(Source: P.A. 85-1198; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 515. The Spent Nuclear Fuel Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(420 ILCS 15/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 230.24)

Sec. 4. The State's States Attorney in a county where a violation occurs or Attorney General may institute a civil action for immediate injunction to halt any activity which is in violation of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 81-1516, Art. II; revised 10-21-15.)

Section 520. The Smoke Detector Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(425 ILCS 60/4) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 804)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-200)

Sec. 4. (a) Willful failure to install or maintain in operating condition any smoke detector required by this Act shall be a Class B misdemeanor.

(b) Tampering with, removing, destroying, disconnecting or removing the batteries from any installed smoke detector, except in the course of inspection, maintenance or replacement of the detector, shall be a Class A misdemeanor in the case of a first conviction, and a Class 4 felony in the case of a second or subsequent conviction.

(Source: P.A. 85-143.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-200)

Sec. 4. (a) Except as provided in subsection (c), willful failure to install or maintain in operating condition any smoke detector required by this Act shall be a Class B misdemeanor.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (c), tampering with, removing, destroying, disconnecting or removing the batteries from any installed smoke detector, except in the course of inspection, maintenance or replacement of the detector, shall be a Class A misdemeanor in the case of a first conviction, and a Class 4 felony in the case of a second or subsequent conviction.

(c) A party in violation of the battery requirements of subsection (e) of Section 3 of this Act shall be provided with 90 days' day's warning with which to rectify that violation. If that party fails to rectify the violation within that 90-day 90 day period, he or she may be assessed a fine of up to $100, and may be fined $100 every 30 days thereafter until either the violation is rectified or the cumulative amount of fines assessed reaches $1,500. The provisions of subsection (a) and (b) of this Section shall apply only after the penalty provided under this subsection (c) has been exhausted to the extent that a violating party has reached the $1,500 cumulative fine threshold and has failed to rectify the violation.

If the alleged violation has been corrected prior to or on the date of the hearing scheduled to adjudicate the alleged violation, then the violation shall be dismissed.

(Source: P.A. 100-200, eff. 1-1-23; revised 10-2-17.)

Section 525. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing Sections 2.35 and 3.19 as follows:

(520 ILCS 5/2.35) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.35)

Sec. 2.35. Wild game birds or fur-bearing mammals.

(a) Migratory game birds, or any part or parts thereof, may be possessed only in accordance with the regulations of the federal government Federal Government.

(b) Except as provided in Sections 3.21, 3.23, 3.27, 3.28, and 3.30, it is unlawful to possess wild game birds or wild game mammals or any parts thereof in excess of the legally established daily limit or possession limit, whichever applies.

(c) Except as provided in this Code, it is unlawful to have in possession the green hides of fur-bearing mammals without a valid hunting or trapping license.

(d) Failure to establish proof of the legality of the possession in another state or country and of importation into this State, shall be prima facie evidence that migratory game birds and game birds or any parts thereof, and fur-bearing mammals or any parts thereof, were taken within this State.

(e) For all those species to which a daily or possession limit shall apply, each hunter shall maintain his bag of such species separately and distinctly from those of all other hunters.

(f) No person shall receive or have in custody any protected species belonging to another person, except in the personal abodes of the donor or recipient, unless such protected species are tagged in accordance with Section 2.30b of this Code or tagged with the hunter's or trapper's name, address, total number of species, and the date such species were taken.

(Source: P.A. 100-123, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(520 ILCS 5/3.19) (from Ch. 61, par. 3.19)

Sec. 3.19. Permit requirements. Each resident fur buyer, nonresident fur buyer, non-resident auction participant, fur-bearing fur bearing mammal breeder, or fur tanner shall have his or her permit in his or her possession when receiving, collecting, buying, selling, or offering for sale the green hides of fur-bearing mammals or accepting the same for dressing, dyeing, or tanning and shall immediately produce the same when requested to do so by an officer or authorized employees of the Department, any sheriff, deputy sheriff or any other peace officer. Persons conducting organized and established auction sales or the green hides of fur-bearing mammals, protected by this Act, shall be exempt from the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-123, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 530. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by changing Sections 3-105 and 6-130 as follows:

(605 ILCS 5/3-105) (from Ch. 121, par. 3-105)

Sec. 3-105. Except as otherwise provided in the Treasurer as Custodian of Funds Act, all money received by the State of Illinois from the federal government for aid in construction of highways shall be placed in the Road Fund "Road Fund" in the State treasury Treasury. For the purposes of this Section, money received by the State of Illinois from the federal government under the Recreational Trails Program for grants or contracts obligated on or after October 1, 2017 shall not be considered for use as aid in construction of highways, and shall be placed in the Park and Conservation Fund "Park and Conservation Fund" in the State treasury.

Whenever any county having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants has incurred indebtedness and issued Expressway bonds as authorized by Division 5-34 of the Counties Code and has used the proceeds of such bonds for the construction of Expressways in accordance with the provisions of Section 15d of "An Act to revise the law in relation to roads and bridges", approved June 27, 1913, as amended (repealed) or of Section 5-403 of this Code in order to accelerate the improvement of the National System of Interstate Highways, the federal aid primary highway network or the federal aid highway network in urban areas, the State shall appropriate and allot, from the allotments of federal funds made available by Acts of Congress under the Federal Aid Road Act and as appropriated and made available to the State of Illinois, to such county or counties a sum sufficient to retire the bonded indebtedness due annually arising from the issuance of those Expressway bonds issued for the purpose of constructing Expressways in the county or counties. Such funds shall be deposited in the Treasury of such county or counties for the purpose of applying such funds to the payment of the Expressway bonds, principal and interest due annually, issued pursuant to Division 5-34 of the Counties Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-127, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

(605 ILCS 5/6-130) (from Ch. 121, par. 6-130)

Sec. 6-130. Road district abolishment. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the contrary, no township road district may continue in existence if the roads forming a part of the district do not exceed a total of 4 centerline miles in length as determined by the county engineer or county superintendent of highways. On the first Tuesday in April of 1975, or of any subsequent year next succeeding the reduction of a township road system to a total mileage of 4 centerline miles or less, each such township road district shall, by operation of law, be abolished. The roads comprising that district at that time shall thereafter be administered by the township board of trustees by contracting with the county, a municipality or a private contractor. The township board of trustees shall assume all taxing authority of a township road district abolished under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 100-106, eff. 1-1-18; 100-107, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

Section 535. The Illinois Aeronautics Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 47 as follows:

(620 ILCS 5/1) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 22.1)

Sec. 1. Definitions.) For the purposes of this Act, the words, terms, and phrases set forth in Sections 2 to 23b, inclusive, shall have the meanings prescribed in such Sections sections unless otherwise specifically defined, or unless another intention clearly appears, or the context otherwise requires.

(Source: P.A. 79-1010; revised 10-12-17.)

(620 ILCS 5/47) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 22.47)

Sec. 47. Operation without certificate of approval unlawful; applications.) An application for a certificate of approval of an airport or restricted landing area, or the alteration or extension thereof, shall set forth, among other things, the location of all railways, mains, pipes, conduits, wires, cables, poles and other facilities and structures of public service corporations or municipal or quasi-municipal corporations, located within the area proposed to be acquired or restricted, and the names of persons owning the same, to the extent that such information can be reasonably ascertained by the applicant.

It shall be unlawful for any municipality or other political subdivision, or officer or employee thereof, or for any person, to make any alteration or extension of an existing airport or restricted landing area, or to use or operate any airport or restricted landing area, for which a certificate of approval has not been issued by the Department; provided, that no certificate of approval shall be required for an airport or restricted landing area which was in existence and approved by the Illinois Aeronautics Commission, whether or not being operated, on or before July 1, 1945, or for the O'Hare Modernization Program as defined in Section 10 of the O'Hare Modernization Act; except that a certificate of approval shall be required under this Section for construction of a new runway at O'Hare International Airport with a geographical orientation that varies from a geographical east-west orientation by more than 10 degrees, or for construction of a new runway at that airport that would result in more than 10 runways being available for aircraft operations at that airport. The Department shall supervise, monitor, and enforce compliance with the O'Hare Modernization Act by all other departments, agencies, and units of State and local government.

Provisions of this Section do not apply to special purpose aircraft designated as such by the Department when operating to or from uncertificated areas other than their principal base of operations, provided mutually acceptable arrangements are made with the property owner, and provided the owner or operator of the aircraft assumes liabilities which may arise out of such operations.

(Source: P.A. 99-202, eff. 1-1-16; revised 10-12-17.)

Section 540. The Permanent Noise Monitoring Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(620 ILCS 35/10) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 760)

Sec. 10. Establishment of permanent noise monitoring systems.

(a) No later than December 31, 2008, each airport shall have an operable permanent noise monitoring system. The system shall be operated by the airport sponsor. The airport sponsor shall be responsible for the construction or the design and construction of any system not constructed or designed and constructed as of July 13, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-37) this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly. The cost of the systems and of the permanent noise monitoring reports under Section 15 of this Act shall be borne by the airport sponsor.

(b) On or before June 30, 2018, each airport shall upgrade its permanent noise monitoring system to be capable of producing the data necessary to meet the requirements of this Act enacted in Public Act 99-202. On June 30, 2018 and thereafter, an airport's permanent noise monitoring report and noise contour maps shall be produced using the criteria in this Act enacted in Public Act 99-202.

(Source: P.A. 100-165, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-12-17.)

Section 545. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-118, 1-205.1, 1-205.2, 3-414, 3-611, 3-699.14, 3-802, 3-809, 3-810, 3-810.1, 4-203, 4-216, 5-104, 5-104.3, 5-503, 6-103, 6-115, 7-216, 7-604, 11-208, 12-503, 12-601, 12-606, 12-806, 12-825, 15-301, and 15-308.2 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-118) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-118)

Sec. 1-118. Essential parts. All integral and body parts of a vehicle of a type required to be registered hereunder, the removal, alteration or substitution of which would tend to conceal the identity of the vehicle or substantially alter its appearance, model, type or mode of operation. "Essential parts" includes the following: vehicle hulks, shells, chassis, frames, front end assemblies (which may consist of headlight, grill, fenders and hood), front clip (front end assembly with cowl attached), rear clip (which may consist of quarter panels, fenders, floor and top), doors, hatchbacks, fenders, cabs, cab clips, cowls, hoods, trunk lids, deck lids, bed, front bumper, rear bumper, transmissions, seats, engines, and similar parts. "Essential parts" Essential parts also includes fairings, fuel tanks, and forks of motorcycles. "Essential parts" Essential parts shall also include stereo radios.

An essential part which does not have affixed to it an identification number as defined in Section 1-129 adopts the identification number of the vehicle to which such part is affixed, installed or mounted.

"Essential parts" An "essential part" does not include an engine, transmission, or a rear axle that is used in a glider kit.

(Source: P.A. 99-748, eff. 8-5-16; 100-409, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/1-205.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-205.1)

Sec. 1-205.1. Tow truck Tow-Truck. Every truck designed or altered and equipped for and used to push, tow, carry upon, or draw vehicles by means of a crane, hoist, towbar, towline or auxiliary axle, or carried upon to render assistance to disabled vehicles, except for any truck tractor temporarily converted to a tow truck by means of a portable wrecker unit attached to the fifth wheel of the truck tractor and used only by the owner to tow a disabled vehicle also owned by him or her and never used for hire.

(Source: P.A. 89-245, eff. 1-1-96; 90-89, eff. 1-1-98; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/1-205.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-205.2)

Sec. 1-205.2. Tower. A person who owns or operates a tow truck tow-truck or a wrecker.

(Source: P.A. 83-1473; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-414) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-414)

Sec. 3-414. Expiration of registration.

(a) Every vehicle registration under this Chapter and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker issued hereunder to a vehicle shall be for the periods specified in this Chapter and shall expire at midnight on the day and date specified in this Section as follows:

1. When registered on a calendar year basis commencing January 1, expiration shall be on the 31st day of December or at such other date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State; however, through December 31, 2004, registrations of apportionable vehicles, motorcycles, motor driven cycles and pedalcycles shall commence on the first day of April and shall expire March 31st of the following calendar year;

1.1. Beginning January 1, 2005, registrations of motorcycles and motor driven cycles shall commence on January 1 and shall expire on December 31 or on another date that may be selected by the Secretary; registrations of apportionable vehicles and pedalcycles, however, shall commence on the first day of April and shall expire March 31 of the following calendar year;

2. When registered on a 2 calendar year basis commencing January 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 31st day of December of the ensuing odd-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond March 1 next;

3. When registered on a fiscal year basis commencing July 1, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

4. When registered on a 2 fiscal year basis commencing July 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June of the ensuing even-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next;

5. When registered on a 4 fiscal year basis commencing July 1 of an even-numbered year, expiration shall be on the 30th day of June of the second ensuing even-numbered year, or at such other later date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State not beyond September 1 next.

(a-5) The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, require an owner of a motor vehicle of the first division or a motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds to select the owner's birthday as the date of registration expiration under this Section. If the motor vehicle has more than one registered owner, the owners may select one registered owner's birthday as the date of registration expiration. The Secretary may adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection.

(b) Vehicle registrations of vehicles of the first division shall be for a calendar year, 2 calendar year, 3 calendar year, or 5 calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Vehicle registrations of vehicles under Sections 3-807, 3-808 and 3-809 shall be on an indefinite term basis or a 2 calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Vehicle registrations for vehicles of the second division shall be for a fiscal year, 2 fiscal year or calendar year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

Motor vehicles registered under the provisions of Section 3-402.1 shall be issued multi-year registration plates with a new registration card issued annually upon payment of the appropriate fees. Motor vehicles registered under the provisions of Section 3-405.3 shall be issued multi-year registration plates with a new multi-year registration card issued pursuant to subsections (j), (k), and (l) of this Section upon payment of the appropriate fees. Apportionable trailers and apportionable semitrailers registered under the provisions of Section 3-402.1 shall be issued multi-year registration plates and cards that will be subject to revocation for failure to pay annual fees required by Section 3-814.1. The Secretary shall determine when these vehicles shall be issued new registration plates.

(c) Every vehicle registration specified in Section 3-810 and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker issued thereunder shall expire on the 31st day of December of each year or at such other date as may be selected in the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(d) Every vehicle registration for a vehicle of the second division weighing over 8,000 pounds, except as provided in subsection paragraph (g) of this Section, and every registration card and registration plate or registration sticker, where applicable, issued hereunder to such vehicles shall be issued for a fiscal year commencing on July 1st of each registration year. However, the Secretary of State may, pursuant to an agreement or arrangement or declaration providing for apportionment of a fleet of vehicles with other jurisdictions, provide for registration of such vehicles under apportionment or for all of the vehicles registered in Illinois by an applicant who registers some of his vehicles under apportionment on a calendar year basis instead, and the fees or taxes to be paid on a calendar year basis shall be identical to those specified in this Code Act for a fiscal year registration. Provision for installment payment may also be made.

(e) Semitrailer registrations under apportionment may be on a calendar year under a reciprocal agreement or arrangement and all other semitrailer registrations shall be on fiscal year or 2 fiscal year or 4 fiscal year basis as provided for in this Chapter.

(f) The Secretary of State may convert annual registration plates or 2-year registration plates, whether registered on a calendar year or fiscal year basis, to multi-year plates. The determination of which plate categories and when to convert to multi-year plates is solely within the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(g) After January 1, 1975, each registration, registration card and registration plate or registration sticker, where applicable, issued for a recreational vehicle or recreational or camping trailer, except a house trailer, used exclusively by the owner for recreational purposes, and not used commercially nor as a truck or bus, nor for hire, shall be on a calendar year basis; except that the Secretary of State shall provide for registration and the issuance of registration cards and plates or registration stickers, where applicable, for one 6-month period in order to accomplish an orderly transition from a fiscal year to a calendar year basis. Fees and taxes due under this Code Act for a registration year shall be appropriately reduced for such 6-month transitional registration period.

(h) The Secretary of State may, in order to accomplish an orderly transition for vehicles registered under Section 3-402.1 of this Code from a calendar year registration to a March 31st expiration, require applicants to pay fees and taxes due under this Code on a 15 month registration basis. However, if in the discretion of the Secretary of State this creates an undue hardship on any applicant the Secretary may allow the applicant to pay 3 month fees and taxes at the time of registration and the additional 12 month fees and taxes to be payable no later than March 31, 1992.

(i) The Secretary of State may stagger registrations, or change the annual expiration date, as necessary for the convenience of the public and the efficiency of his Office. In order to appropriately and effectively accomplish any such staggering, the Secretary of State is authorized to prorate all required registration fees, rounded to the nearest dollar, but in no event for a period longer than 18 months, at a monthly rate for a 12-month 12 month registration fee.

(j) The Secretary of State may enter into an agreement with a rental owner, as defined in Section 3-400 of this Code, who registers a fleet of motor vehicles of the first division pursuant to Section 3-405.3 of this Code to provide for the registration of the rental owner's vehicles on a 2 or 3 calendar year basis and the issuance of multi-year registration plates with a new registration card issued up to every 3 years.

(k) The Secretary of State may provide multi-year registration cards for any registered fleet of motor vehicles of the first or second division that are registered pursuant to Section 3-405.3 of this Code. Each motor vehicle of the registered fleet must carry a an unique multi-year registration card that displays the vehicle identification number of the registered motor vehicle. The Secretary of State shall promulgate rules in order to implement multi-year registrations.

(l) Beginning with the 2018 registration year, the Secretary of State may enter into an agreement with a rental owner, as defined in Section 3-400 of this Code, who registers a fleet of motor vehicles of the first division under Section 3-405.3 of this Code to provide for the registration of the rental owner's vehicle on a 5 calendar year basis. Motor vehicles registered on a 5 calendar year basis shall be issued a distinct registration plate that expires on a 5-year cycle. The Secretary may prorate the registration of these registration plates to the length of time remaining in the 5-year cycle. The Secretary may adopt any rules necessary to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 99-80, eff. 1-1-16; 99-644, eff. 1-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-611) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-611)

Sec. 3-611. Special designations. The Secretary of State, in his discretion, may make special designations of certain designs or combinations of designs, or alphabetical letters or combination of letters, or colors or combination of colors pertaining to registration plates issued to vehicles owned by governmental agencies, vehicles owned and registered by State and federal elected officials, retired Illinois Supreme Court justices, and appointed federal cabinet officials, vehicles operated by taxi or livery businesses, operated in connection with mileage weight registrations, or operated by a dealer, transporter, or manufacturer as the Secretary of State may deem necessary for the proper administration of this Code Act. In the case of registration plates issued for vehicles operated by or for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, under Section 3-616 of this Code Act, the Secretary of State, upon request, shall make such special designations so that automobiles bearing such plates are easily recognizable through thru use of the international accessibility symbol as automobiles driven by or for such persons. In the case of registration plates issued for vehicles operated by a person with a disability with a type four hearing disability, as defined pursuant to Section 4A of the The Illinois Identification Card Act, the Secretary of State, upon request, shall make such special designations so that a motor vehicle bearing such plate is easily recognizable by a special symbol indicating that such vehicle is driven by a person with a hearing disability. Registration plates issued to a person who is deaf or hard of hearing under this Section shall not entitle a motor vehicle bearing such plates to those parking privileges established for persons with disabilities under this Code. In the case of registration plates issued for State-owned State owned vehicles, they shall be manufactured in compliance with Section 2 of the State Vehicle Identification Act "An Act relating to identification and use of motor vehicles of the State, approved August 9, 1951, as amended". In the case of plates issued for State officials, such plates may be issued for a 2-year 2 year period beginning January 1st of each odd-numbered year and ending December 31st of the subsequent even-numbered year.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-699.14)

Sec. 3-699.14. Universal special license plates.

(a) In addition to any other special license plate, the Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue Universal special license plates to residents of Illinois on behalf of organizations that have been authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates. Appropriate documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. Authorized organizations shall be designated by amendment to this Section. When applying for a Universal special license plate the applicant shall inform the Secretary of the name of the authorized organization from which the applicant will obtain a decal to place on the plate. The Secretary shall make a record of that organization and that organization shall remain affiliated with that plate until the plate is surrendered, revoked, or otherwise cancelled. The authorized organization may charge a fee to offset the cost of producing and distributing the decal, but that fee shall be retained by the authorized organization and shall be separate and distinct from any registration fees charged by the Secretary. No decal, sticker, or other material may be affixed to a Universal special license plate other than a decal authorized by the General Assembly in this Section or a registration renewal sticker. The special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division, including motorcycles and autocycles, or motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure under Section 3-414.1 of this Code.

(b) The design, color, and format of the Universal special license plate shall be wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Universal special license plates are not required to designate "Land of Lincoln", as prescribed in subsection (b) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The design shall allow for the application of a decal to the plate. Organizations authorized by the General Assembly to issue decals for Universal special license plates shall comply with rules adopted by the Secretary governing the requirements for and approval of Universal special license plate decals. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow Universal special license plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary of State must make a version of the special registration plates authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for motorcycles and autocycles.

(c) When authorizing a Universal special license plate, the General Assembly shall set forth whether an additional fee is to be charged for the plate and, if a fee is to be charged, the amount of the fee and how the fee is to be distributed. When necessary, the authorizing language shall create a special fund in the State treasury into which fees may be deposited for an authorized Universal special license plate. Additional fees may only be charged if the fee is to be paid over to a State agency or to a charitable entity that is in compliance with the registration and reporting requirements of the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act. Any charitable entity receiving fees for the sale of Universal special license plates shall annually provide the Secretary of State a letter of compliance issued by the Attorney General verifying that the entity is in compliance with the Charitable Trust Act and the Solicitation for Charity Act.

(d) Upon original issuance and for each registration renewal period, in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if applicable, the Secretary shall collect any additional fees, if required, for issuance of Universal special license plates. The fees shall be collected on behalf of the organization designated by the applicant when applying for the plate. All fees collected shall be transferred to the State agency on whose behalf the fees were collected, or paid into the special fund designated in the law authorizing the organization to issue decals for Universal special license plates. All money in the designated fund shall be distributed by the Secretary subject to appropriation by the General Assembly.

(e) The following organizations may issue decals for Universal special license plates with the original and renewal fees and fee distribution as follows:

(1) The Illinois Department of Natural Resources.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(2) Illinois Veterans' Homes.

(A) Original issuance: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(B) Renewal: $26, which shall be deposited into the Illinois Veterans' Homes Fund.

(3) The Illinois Department of Human Services for volunteerism decals.

(A) Original issuance: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25, which shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(4) (3) The Illinois Department of Public Health.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(5) (3) Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(A) Original issuance: $25; with $10 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $15 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(B) Renewal: $25; with $23 to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund and $2 to the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.

(f) The following funds are created as special funds in the State treasury:

(1) The Roadside Monarch Habitat Fund. All moneys to be paid as grants to the Illinois Department of Natural Resources to fund roadside monarch and other pollinator habitat development, enhancement, and restoration projects in this State.

(2) The Prostate Cancer Awareness Fund. All moneys to be paid as grants to the Prostate Cancer Foundation of Chicago.

(3) (2) The Horsemen's Council of Illinois Fund. All moneys shall be paid as grants to the Horsemen's Council of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 99-483, eff. 7-1-16; 99-723, eff. 8-5-16; 99-814, eff. 1-1-17; 100-57, eff. 1-1-18; 100-60, eff. 1-1-18; 100-78, eff. 1-1-18; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 1-21-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-802) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-802)

Sec. 3-802. Reclassifications and upgrades.

(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section, the following words shall have the meanings ascribed to them as follows:

"Reclassification" means changing the registration of a vehicle from one plate category to another.

"Upgrade" means increasing the registered weight of a vehicle within the same plate category.

(b) When reclassing the registration of a vehicle from one plate category to another, the owner shall receive credit for the unused portion of the present plate and be charged the current portion fees for the new plate. In addition, the appropriate replacement plate and replacement sticker fees shall be assessed.

(b-5) Beginning with the 2019 registration year, any individual who has a registration issued under either Section 3-405 or 3-405.1 that qualifies for a special license plate under Section Sections 3-609, 3-609.1, 3-620, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-664, 3-666, 3-667, 3-668, 3-669, 3-676, 3-677, 3-680, 3-681, 3-683, 3-686, 3-688, 3-693, 3-698, or 3-699.12 may reclass his or her registration upon acquiring a special license plate listed in this subsection (b-5) without a replacement plate fee or registration sticker cost.

(b-10) Beginning with the 2019 registration year, any individual who has a special license plate issued under Section 3-609, 3-609.1, 3-620, 3-621, 3-622, 3-623, 3-624, 3-625, 3-626, 3-628, 3-638, 3-642, 3-645, 3-647, 3-650, 3-651, 3-664, 3-666, 3-667, 3-668, 3-669, 3-676, 3-677, 3-680, 3-681, 3-683, 3-686, 3-688, 3-693, 3-698, or 3-699.12 may reclass his or her special license plate upon acquiring a new registration under Section 3-405 or 3-405.1 without a replacement plate fee or registration sticker cost.

(c) When upgrading the weight of a registration within the same plate category, the owner shall pay the difference in current period fees between the two plates. In addition, the appropriate replacement plate and replacement sticker fees shall be assessed. In the event new plates are not required, the corrected registration card fee shall be assessed.

(d) In the event the owner of the vehicle desires to change the registered weight and change the plate category, the owner shall receive credit for the unused portion of the registration fee of the current plate and pay the current portion of the registration fee for the new plate, and in addition, pay the appropriate replacement plate and replacement sticker fees.

(e) Reclassing from one plate category to another plate category can be done only once within any registration period.

(f) No refunds shall be made in any of the circumstances found in subsection (b), subsection (c), or subsection (d); however, when reclassing from a flat weight plate to an apportioned plate, a refund may be issued if the credit amounts to an overpayment.

(g) In the event the registration of a vehicle registered under the mileage tax option is revoked, the owner shall be required to pay the annual registration fee in the new plate category and shall not receive any credit for the mileage plate fees.

(h) Certain special interest plates may be displayed on first division vehicles, second division vehicles weighing 8,000 pounds or less, and recreational vehicles. Those plates can be transferred within those vehicle groups.

(i) Plates displayed on second division vehicles weighing 8,000 pounds or less and passenger vehicle plates may be reclassed from one division to the other.

(j) Other than in subsection (i), reclassing from one division to the other division is prohibited. In addition, a reclass from a motor vehicle to a trailer or a trailer to a motor vehicle is prohibited.

(Source: P.A. 99-809, eff. 1-1-17; 100-246, eff. 1-1-18; 100-450, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-809) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-809)

Sec. 3-809. Farm machinery, exempt vehicles and fertilizer spreaders; registration fee.

(a) Vehicles of the second division having a corn sheller, a well driller, hay press, clover huller, feed mixer and unloader, or other farm machinery permanently mounted thereon and used solely for transporting the same, farm wagon type trailers having a fertilizer spreader attachment permanently mounted thereon, having a gross weight of not to exceed 36,000 pounds and used only for the transportation of bulk fertilizer, and farm wagon type tank trailers of not to exceed 3,000 gallons capacity, used during the liquid fertilizer season as field-storage "nurse tanks" supplying the fertilizer to a field applicator and moved on highways only for bringing the fertilizer from a local source of supply to farm or field or from one farm or field to another, or used during the lime season and moved on the highways only for bringing from a local source of supply to farm or field or from one farm or field to another, shall be registered upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of a registration fee of $13 per 2-year registration period. This registration fee of $13 shall be paid in full and shall not be reduced even though such registration is made after the beginning of the registration period.

(b) Vehicles exempt from registration under the provisions of subsection A of Section 3-402 3-402.A of this Code Act, as amended, except those vehicles required to be registered under subsection paragraph (c) of this Section, may, at the option of the owner, be identified as exempt vehicles by displaying registration plates issued by the Secretary of State. The owner thereof may apply for such permanent, non-transferable registration plates upon the filing of a proper application and the payment of a registration fee of $13. The application for and display of such registration plates for identification purposes by vehicles exempt from registration shall not be deemed as a waiver or rescission of its exempt status, nor make such vehicle subject to registration. Nothing in this Section prohibits the towing of another vehicle by the exempt vehicle if the towed vehicle:

(i) does not exceed the registered weight of 8,000 pounds;

(ii) is used exclusively for transportation to and from the work site;

(iii) is not used for carrying counter weights or other material related to the operation of the exempt vehicle while under tow; and

(iv) displays proper and current registration plates.

(c) Any single unit self-propelled agricultural fertilizer implement, designed for both on and off road use, equipped with flotation tires and otherwise specially adapted for the application of plant food materials or agricultural chemicals, desiring to be operated upon the highways ladened with load shall be registered upon the filing of a proper application and payment of a registration fee of $250. The registration fee shall be paid in full and shall not be reduced even though such registration is made during the second half of the registration year. These vehicles shall, whether loaded or unloaded, be limited to a maximum gross weight of 36,000 pounds, restricted to a highway speed of not more than 30 miles per hour and a legal width of not more than 12 feet. Such vehicles shall be limited to the furthering of agricultural or horticultural pursuits and in furtherance of these pursuits, such vehicles may be operated upon the highway, within a 50-mile 50 mile radius of their point of loading as indicated on the written or printed statement required by the Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961, for the purpose of moving plant food materials or agricultural chemicals to the field, or from field to field, for the sole purpose of application.

No single unit self-propelled agricultural fertilizer implement, designed for both on and off road use, equipped with flotation tires and otherwise specially adapted for the application of plant food materials or agricultural chemicals, having a width of more than 12 feet or a gross weight in excess of 36,000 pounds, shall be permitted to operate upon the highways ladened with load.

Whenever any vehicle is operated in violation of subsection (c) of this Section, the owner or the driver of such vehicle shall be deemed guilty of a petty offense and either may be prosecuted for such violation.

(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-810) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-810)

Sec. 3-810. Dealers, manufacturers, engine and driveline component manufacturers, transporters, and repossessors; registration plates Manufacturers, Engine and Driveline Component Manufacturers, Transporters and Repossessors - Registration Plates. (a) Dealers, manufacturers, and transporters registered under this Code Act may obtain registration plates for use as provided in this Code Act, at the following rates:

Initial set of dealer's, manufacturer's, or transporter's "in-transit" plates: $45

Duplicate Plates: $13

Manufacturers of engine and driveline components registered under this Code Act may obtain registration plates at the following rates:

Initial set of "test vehicle" plates: $94

Duplicate plates: $25

Repossessors and other persons qualified and registered under Section 3-601 of this Code Act may obtain registration plates at the rate of $45 per set.

(Source: P.A. 91-37, eff. 7-1-99; revised 11-8-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-810.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-810.1)

Sec. 3-810.1. Tow truck; registration plates Tow-Truck - Registration Plates. Tow truck Tow-Truck operators registered under this Code Act may obtain registration plates for use as provided in this Code Act at the rate per set provided in subsection (a) of Section 3-815 of this Code for each vehicle so registered.

(Source: P.A. 83-1473; revised 10-10-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/4-203) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 4-203)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-537)

Sec. 4-203. Removal of motor vehicles or other vehicles; towing or hauling away.

(a) When a vehicle is abandoned, or left unattended, on a toll highway, interstate highway, or expressway for 2 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(b) When a vehicle is abandoned on a highway in an urban district 10 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(c) When a vehicle is abandoned or left unattended on a highway other than a toll highway, interstate highway, or expressway, outside of an urban district for 24 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(d) When an abandoned, unattended, wrecked, burned or partially dismantled vehicle is creating a traffic hazard because of its position in relation to the highway or its physical appearance is causing the impeding of traffic, its immediate removal from the highway or private property adjacent to the highway by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(e) Whenever a peace officer reasonably believes that a person under arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance is likely, upon release, to commit a subsequent violation of Section 11-501, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the arresting officer shall have the vehicle which the person was operating at the time of the arrest impounded for a period of not more than 12 hours after the time of arrest. However, such vehicle may be released by the arresting law enforcement agency prior to the end of the impoundment period if:

(1) the vehicle was not owned by the person under arrest, and the lawful owner requesting such release possesses a valid operator's license, proof of ownership, and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner, or who would otherwise, by operating such motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code; or

(2) the vehicle is owned by the person under arrest, and the person under arrest gives permission to another person to operate such vehicle, provided however, that the other person possesses a valid operator's license and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner or who would otherwise, by operating such motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code.

(e-5) Whenever a registered owner of a vehicle is taken into custody for operating the vehicle in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code, a law enforcement officer may have the vehicle immediately impounded for a period not less than:

(1) 24 hours for a second violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code or a combination of these offenses; or

(2) 48 hours for a third violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code or a combination of these offenses.

The vehicle may be released sooner if the vehicle is owned by the person under arrest and the person under arrest gives permission to another person to operate the vehicle and that other person possesses a valid operator's license and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner or would otherwise, by operating the motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code.

(f) Except as provided in Chapter 18a of this Code, the owner or lessor of privately owned real property within this State, or any person authorized by such owner or lessor, or any law enforcement agency in the case of publicly owned real property may cause any motor vehicle abandoned or left unattended upon such property without permission to be removed by a towing service without liability for the costs of removal, transportation or storage or damage caused by such removal, transportation or storage. The towing or removal of any vehicle from private property without the consent of the registered owner or other legally authorized person in control of the vehicle is subject to compliance with the following conditions and restrictions:

1. Any towed or removed vehicle must be stored at the site of the towing service's place of business. The site must be open during business hours, and for the purpose of redemption of vehicles, during the time that the person or firm towing such vehicle is open for towing purposes.

2. The towing service shall within 30 minutes of completion of such towing or removal, notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of such towing or removal, and the make, model, color and license plate number of the vehicle, and shall obtain and record the name of the person at the law enforcement agency to whom such information was reported.

3. If the registered owner or legally authorized person entitled to possession of the vehicle shall arrive at the scene prior to actual removal or towing of the vehicle, the vehicle shall be disconnected from the tow truck and that person shall be allowed to remove the vehicle without interference, upon the payment of a reasonable service fee of not more than one half the posted rate of the towing service as provided in paragraph 6 of this subsection, for which a receipt shall be given.

4. The rebate or payment of money or any other valuable consideration from the towing service or its owners, managers or employees to the owners or operators of the premises from which the vehicles are towed or removed, for the privilege of removing or towing those vehicles, is prohibited. Any individual who violates this paragraph shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

5. Except for property appurtenant to and obviously a part of a single family residence, and except for instances where notice is personally given to the owner or other legally authorized person in control of the vehicle that the area in which that vehicle is parked is reserved or otherwise unavailable to unauthorized vehicles and they are subject to being removed at the owner or operator's expense, any property owner or lessor, prior to towing or removing any vehicle from private property without the consent of the owner or other legally authorized person in control of that vehicle, must post a notice meeting the following requirements:

a. Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph a.1 of this subdivision (f)5, the notice must be prominently placed at each driveway access or curb cut allowing vehicular access to the property within 5 feet from the public right-of-way line. If there are no curbs or access barriers, the sign must be posted not less than one sign each 100 feet of lot frontage.

a.1. In a municipality with a population of less than 250,000, as an alternative to the requirement of subparagraph a of this subdivision (f)5, the notice for a parking lot contained within property used solely for a 2-family, 3-family, or 4-family residence may be prominently placed at the perimeter of the parking lot, in a position where the notice is visible to the occupants of vehicles entering the lot.

b. The notice must indicate clearly, in not less than 2 inch high light-reflective letters on a contrasting background, that unauthorized vehicles will be towed away at the owner's expense.

c. The notice must also provide the name and current telephone number of the towing service towing or removing the vehicle.

d. The sign structure containing the required notices must be permanently installed with the bottom of the sign not less than 4 feet above ground level, and must be continuously maintained on the property for not less than 24 hours prior to the towing or removing of any vehicle.

6. Any towing service that tows or removes vehicles and proposes to require the owner, operator, or person in control of the vehicle to pay the costs of towing and storage prior to redemption of the vehicle must file and keep on record with the local law enforcement agency a complete copy of the current rates to be charged for such services, and post at the storage site an identical rate schedule and any written contracts with property owners, lessors, or persons in control of property which authorize them to remove vehicles as provided in this Section. The towing and storage charges, however, shall not exceed the maximum allowed by the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 18a-200.

7. No person shall engage in the removal of vehicles from private property as described in this Section without filing a notice of intent in each community where he intends to do such removal, and such notice shall be filed at least 7 days before commencing such towing.

8. No removal of a vehicle from private property shall be done except upon express written instructions of the owners or persons in charge of the private property upon which the vehicle is said to be trespassing.

9. Vehicle entry for the purpose of removal shall be allowed with reasonable care on the part of the person or firm towing the vehicle. Such person or firm shall be liable for any damages occasioned to the vehicle if such entry is not in accordance with the standards of reasonable care.

9.5. Except as authorized by a law enforcement officer, no towing service shall engage in the removal of a commercial motor vehicle that requires a commercial driver's license to operate by operating the vehicle under its own power on a highway.

10. When a vehicle has been towed or removed pursuant to this Section, it must be released to its owner, custodian, agent, or lienholder within one half hour after requested, if such request is made during business hours. Any vehicle owner, custodian, agent, or lienholder shall have the right to inspect the vehicle before accepting its return, and no release or waiver of any kind which would release the towing service from liability for damages incurred during the towing and storage may be required from any vehicle owner or other legally authorized person as a condition of release of the vehicle. A detailed, signed receipt showing the legal name of the towing service must be given to the person paying towing or storage charges at the time of payment, whether requested or not.

This Section shall not apply to law enforcement, firefighting, rescue, ambulance, or other emergency vehicles which are marked as such or to property owned by any governmental entity.

When an authorized person improperly causes a motor vehicle to be removed, such person shall be liable to the owner or lessee of the vehicle for the cost or removal, transportation and storage, any damages resulting from the removal, transportation and storage, attorney's fee and court costs.

Any towing or storage charges accrued shall be payable in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the party taking possession of the vehicle.

11. Towing companies shall also provide insurance coverage for areas where vehicles towed under the provisions of this Chapter will be impounded or otherwise stored, and shall adequately cover loss by fire, theft or other risks.

Any person who fails to comply with the conditions and restrictions of this subsection shall be guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $100 nor more than $500.

(g)(1) When a vehicle is determined to be a hazardous dilapidated motor vehicle pursuant to Section 11-40-3.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or Section 5-12002.1 of the Counties Code, its removal and impoundment by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency with appropriate jurisdiction.

(2) When a vehicle removal from either public or private property is authorized by a law enforcement agency, the owner of the vehicle shall be responsible for all towing and storage charges.

(3) Vehicles removed from public or private property and stored by a commercial vehicle relocator or any other towing service authorized by a law enforcement agency in compliance with this Section and Sections 4-201 and 4-202 of this Code, or at the request of the vehicle owner or operator, shall be subject to a possessor lien for services pursuant to the Labor and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act. The provisions of Section 1 of that Act relating to notice and implied consent shall be deemed satisfied by compliance with Section 18a-302 and subsection (6) of Section 18a-300. In no event shall such lien be greater than the rate or rates established in accordance with subsection (6) of Section 18a-200 of this Code. In no event shall such lien be increased or altered to reflect any charge for services or materials rendered in addition to those authorized by this Code Act. Every such lien shall be payable in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the party taking possession of the vehicle.

(4) Any personal property belonging to the vehicle owner in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) shall likewise be subject to that lien, excepting only: child restraint systems as defined in Section 4 of the Child Passenger Protection Act and other child booster seats; eyeglasses; food; medicine; perishable property; any operator's licenses; any cash, credit cards, or checks or checkbooks; any wallet, purse, or other property containing any operator's license or other identifying documents or materials, cash, credit cards, checks, or checkbooks; and any personal property belonging to a person other than the vehicle owner if that person provides adequate proof that the personal property belongs to that person. The spouse, child, mother, father, brother, or sister of the vehicle owner may claim personal property excepted under this paragraph (4) if the person claiming the personal property provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with the authorization of the vehicle owner.

(5) This paragraph (5) applies only in the case of a vehicle that is towed as a result of being involved in an accident. In addition to the personal property excepted under paragraph (4), all other personal property in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) is exempt from that lien and may be claimed by the vehicle owner if the vehicle owner provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with proof that the vehicle owner has an insurance policy covering towing and storage fees. The spouse, child, mother, father, brother, or sister of the vehicle owner may claim personal property in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) if the person claiming the personal property provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with the authorization of the vehicle owner and proof that the vehicle owner has an insurance policy covering towing and storage fees. The regulation of liens on personal property and exceptions to those liens in the case of vehicles towed as a result of being involved in an accident are exclusive powers and functions of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate liens on personal property and exceptions to those liens in the case of vehicles towed as a result of being involved in an accident. This paragraph (5) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(6) No lien under this subsection (g) shall: exceed $2,000 in its total amount; or be increased or altered to reflect any charge for services or materials rendered in addition to those authorized by this Code Act.

(h) Whenever a peace officer issues a citation to a driver for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code, the arresting officer may have the vehicle which the person was operating at the time of the arrest impounded for a period of 5 days after the time of arrest. An impounding agency shall release a motor vehicle impounded under this subsection (h) to the registered owner of the vehicle under any of the following circumstances:

(1) If the vehicle is a stolen vehicle; or

(2) If the person ticketed for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code was not authorized by the registered owner of the vehicle to operate the vehicle at the time of the violation; or

(3) If the registered owner of the vehicle was neither the driver nor a passenger in the vehicle at the time of the violation or was unaware that the driver was using the vehicle to engage in street racing; or

(4) If the legal owner or registered owner of the vehicle is a rental car agency; or

(5) If, prior to the expiration of the impoundment period specified above, the citation is dismissed or the defendant is found not guilty of the offense.

(i) Except for vehicles exempted under subsection (b) of Section 7-601 of this Code, whenever a law enforcement officer issues a citation to a driver for a violation of Section 3-707 of this Code, and the driver has a prior conviction for a violation of Section 3-707 of this Code in the past 12 months, the arresting officer shall authorize the removal and impoundment of the vehicle by a towing service.

(Source: P.A. 99-438, eff. 1-1-16; 100-311, eff. 11-23-17; revised 10-10-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-537)

Sec. 4-203. Removal of motor vehicles or other vehicles; towing or hauling away.

(a) When a vehicle is abandoned, or left unattended, on a toll highway, interstate highway, or expressway for 2 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(b) When a vehicle is abandoned on a highway in an urban district 10 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(c) When a vehicle is abandoned or left unattended on a highway other than a toll highway, interstate highway, or expressway, outside of an urban district for 24 hours or more, its removal by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(d) When an abandoned, unattended, wrecked, burned or partially dismantled vehicle is creating a traffic hazard because of its position in relation to the highway or its physical appearance is causing the impeding of traffic, its immediate removal from the highway or private property adjacent to the highway by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency having jurisdiction.

(e) Whenever a peace officer reasonably believes that a person under arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance is likely, upon release, to commit a subsequent violation of Section 11-501, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the arresting officer shall have the vehicle which the person was operating at the time of the arrest impounded for a period of 12 hours after the time of arrest. However, such vehicle may be released by the arresting law enforcement agency prior to the end of the impoundment period if:

(1) the vehicle was not owned by the person under arrest, and the lawful owner requesting such release possesses a valid operator's license, proof of ownership, and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner, or who would otherwise, by operating such motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code; or

(2) the vehicle is owned by the person under arrest, and the person under arrest gives permission to another person to operate such vehicle, provided however, that the other person possesses a valid operator's license and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner or who would otherwise, by operating such motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code.

(e-5) Whenever a registered owner of a vehicle is taken into custody for operating the vehicle in violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code, a law enforcement officer may have the vehicle immediately impounded for a period not less than:

(1) 24 hours for a second violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code or a combination of these offenses; or

(2) 48 hours for a third violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance or Section 6-303 of this Code or a combination of these offenses.

The vehicle may be released sooner if the vehicle is owned by the person under arrest and the person under arrest gives permission to another person to operate the vehicle and that other person possesses a valid operator's license and would not, as determined by the arresting law enforcement agency, indicate a lack of ability to operate a motor vehicle in a safe manner or would otherwise, by operating the motor vehicle, be in violation of this Code.

(f) Except as provided in Chapter 18a of this Code, the owner or lessor of privately owned real property within this State, or any person authorized by such owner or lessor, or any law enforcement agency in the case of publicly owned real property may cause any motor vehicle abandoned or left unattended upon such property without permission to be removed by a towing service without liability for the costs of removal, transportation or storage or damage caused by such removal, transportation or storage. The towing or removal of any vehicle from private property without the consent of the registered owner or other legally authorized person in control of the vehicle is subject to compliance with the following conditions and restrictions:

1. Any towed or removed vehicle must be stored at the site of the towing service's place of business. The site must be open during business hours, and for the purpose of redemption of vehicles, during the time that the person or firm towing such vehicle is open for towing purposes.

2. The towing service shall within 30 minutes of completion of such towing or removal, notify the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction of such towing or removal, and the make, model, color and license plate number of the vehicle, and shall obtain and record the name of the person at the law enforcement agency to whom such information was reported.

3. If the registered owner or legally authorized person entitled to possession of the vehicle shall arrive at the scene prior to actual removal or towing of the vehicle, the vehicle shall be disconnected from the tow truck and that person shall be allowed to remove the vehicle without interference, upon the payment of a reasonable service fee of not more than one half the posted rate of the towing service as provided in paragraph 6 of this subsection, for which a receipt shall be given.

4. The rebate or payment of money or any other valuable consideration from the towing service or its owners, managers or employees to the owners or operators of the premises from which the vehicles are towed or removed, for the privilege of removing or towing those vehicles, is prohibited. Any individual who violates this paragraph shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

5. Except for property appurtenant to and obviously a part of a single family residence, and except for instances where notice is personally given to the owner or other legally authorized person in control of the vehicle that the area in which that vehicle is parked is reserved or otherwise unavailable to unauthorized vehicles and they are subject to being removed at the owner or operator's expense, any property owner or lessor, prior to towing or removing any vehicle from private property without the consent of the owner or other legally authorized person in control of that vehicle, must post a notice meeting the following requirements:

a. Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph a.1 of this subdivision (f)5, the notice must be prominently placed at each driveway access or curb cut allowing vehicular access to the property within 5 feet from the public right-of-way line. If there are no curbs or access barriers, the sign must be posted not less than one sign each 100 feet of lot frontage.

a.1. In a municipality with a population of less than 250,000, as an alternative to the requirement of subparagraph a of this subdivision (f)5, the notice for a parking lot contained within property used solely for a 2-family, 3-family, or 4-family residence may be prominently placed at the perimeter of the parking lot, in a position where the notice is visible to the occupants of vehicles entering the lot.

b. The notice must indicate clearly, in not less than 2 inch high light-reflective letters on a contrasting background, that unauthorized vehicles will be towed away at the owner's expense.

c. The notice must also provide the name and current telephone number of the towing service towing or removing the vehicle.

d. The sign structure containing the required notices must be permanently installed with the bottom of the sign not less than 4 feet above ground level, and must be continuously maintained on the property for not less than 24 hours prior to the towing or removing of any vehicle.

6. Any towing service that tows or removes vehicles and proposes to require the owner, operator, or person in control of the vehicle to pay the costs of towing and storage prior to redemption of the vehicle must file and keep on record with the local law enforcement agency a complete copy of the current rates to be charged for such services, and post at the storage site an identical rate schedule and any written contracts with property owners, lessors, or persons in control of property which authorize them to remove vehicles as provided in this Section. The towing and storage charges, however, shall not exceed the maximum allowed by the Illinois Commerce Commission under Section 18a-200.

7. No person shall engage in the removal of vehicles from private property as described in this Section without filing a notice of intent in each community where he intends to do such removal, and such notice shall be filed at least 7 days before commencing such towing.

8. No removal of a vehicle from private property shall be done except upon express written instructions of the owners or persons in charge of the private property upon which the vehicle is said to be trespassing.

9. Vehicle entry for the purpose of removal shall be allowed with reasonable care on the part of the person or firm towing the vehicle. Such person or firm shall be liable for any damages occasioned to the vehicle if such entry is not in accordance with the standards of reasonable care.

9.5. Except as authorized by a law enforcement officer, no towing service shall engage in the removal of a commercial motor vehicle that requires a commercial driver's license to operate by operating the vehicle under its own power on a highway.

10. When a vehicle has been towed or removed pursuant to this Section, it must be released to its owner, custodian, agent, or lienholder within one half hour after requested, if such request is made during business hours. Any vehicle owner, custodian, agent, or lienholder shall have the right to inspect the vehicle before accepting its return, and no release or waiver of any kind which would release the towing service from liability for damages incurred during the towing and storage may be required from any vehicle owner or other legally authorized person as a condition of release of the vehicle. A detailed, signed receipt showing the legal name of the towing service must be given to the person paying towing or storage charges at the time of payment, whether requested or not.

This Section shall not apply to law enforcement, firefighting, rescue, ambulance, or other emergency vehicles which are marked as such or to property owned by any governmental entity.

When an authorized person improperly causes a motor vehicle to be removed, such person shall be liable to the owner or lessee of the vehicle for the cost or removal, transportation and storage, any damages resulting from the removal, transportation and storage, attorney's fee and court costs.

Any towing or storage charges accrued shall be payable in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the party taking possession of the vehicle.

11. Towing companies shall also provide insurance coverage for areas where vehicles towed under the provisions of this Chapter will be impounded or otherwise stored, and shall adequately cover loss by fire, theft or other risks.

Any person who fails to comply with the conditions and restrictions of this subsection shall be guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $100 nor more than $500.

(g)(1) When a vehicle is determined to be a hazardous dilapidated motor vehicle pursuant to Section 11-40-3.1 of the Illinois Municipal Code or Section 5-12002.1 of the Counties Code, its removal and impoundment by a towing service may be authorized by a law enforcement agency with appropriate jurisdiction.

(2) When a vehicle removal from either public or private property is authorized by a law enforcement agency, the owner of the vehicle shall be responsible for all towing and storage charges.

(3) Vehicles removed from public or private property and stored by a commercial vehicle relocator or any other towing service authorized by a law enforcement agency in compliance with this Section and Sections 4-201 and 4-202 of this Code, or at the request of the vehicle owner or operator, shall be subject to a possessor lien for services pursuant to the Labor and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act. The provisions of Section 1 of that Act relating to notice and implied consent shall be deemed satisfied by compliance with Section 18a-302 and subsection (6) of Section 18a-300. In no event shall such lien be greater than the rate or rates established in accordance with subsection (6) of Section 18a-200 of this Code. In no event shall such lien be increased or altered to reflect any charge for services or materials rendered in addition to those authorized by this Code Act. Every such lien shall be payable in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the party taking possession of the vehicle.

(4) Any personal property belonging to the vehicle owner in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) shall likewise be subject to that lien, excepting only: child restraint systems as defined in Section 4 of the Child Passenger Protection Act and other child booster seats; eyeglasses; food; medicine; perishable property; any operator's licenses; any cash, credit cards, or checks or checkbooks; any wallet, purse, or other property containing any operator's license or other identifying documents or materials, cash, credit cards, checks, or checkbooks; and any personal property belonging to a person other than the vehicle owner if that person provides adequate proof that the personal property belongs to that person. The spouse, child, mother, father, brother, or sister of the vehicle owner may claim personal property excepted under this paragraph (4) if the person claiming the personal property provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with the authorization of the vehicle owner.

(5) This paragraph (5) applies only in the case of a vehicle that is towed as a result of being involved in an accident. In addition to the personal property excepted under paragraph (4), all other personal property in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) is exempt from that lien and may be claimed by the vehicle owner if the vehicle owner provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with proof that the vehicle owner has an insurance policy covering towing and storage fees. The spouse, child, mother, father, brother, or sister of the vehicle owner may claim personal property in a vehicle subject to a lien under this subsection (g) if the person claiming the personal property provides the commercial vehicle relocator or towing service with the authorization of the vehicle owner and proof that the vehicle owner has an insurance policy covering towing and storage fees. The regulation of liens on personal property and exceptions to those liens in the case of vehicles towed as a result of being involved in an accident are exclusive powers and functions of the State. A home rule unit may not regulate liens on personal property and exceptions to those liens in the case of vehicles towed as a result of being involved in an accident. This paragraph (5) is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(6) No lien under this subsection (g) shall: exceed $2,000 in its total amount; or be increased or altered to reflect any charge for services or materials rendered in addition to those authorized by this Code Act.

(h) Whenever a peace officer issues a citation to a driver for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code, the arresting officer may have the vehicle which the person was operating at the time of the arrest impounded for a period of 5 days after the time of arrest. An impounding agency shall release a motor vehicle impounded under this subsection (h) to the registered owner of the vehicle under any of the following circumstances:

(1) If the vehicle is a stolen vehicle; or

(2) If the person ticketed for a violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-506 of this Code was not authorized by the registered owner of the vehicle to operate the vehicle at the time of the violation; or

(3) If the registered owner of the vehicle was neither the driver nor a passenger in the vehicle at the time of the violation or was unaware that the driver was using the vehicle to engage in street racing; or

(4) If the legal owner or registered owner of the vehicle is a rental car agency; or

(5) If, prior to the expiration of the impoundment period specified above, the citation is dismissed or the defendant is found not guilty of the offense.

(i) Except for vehicles exempted under subsection (b) of Section 7-601 of this Code, whenever a law enforcement officer issues a citation to a driver for a violation of Section 3-707 of this Code, and the driver has a prior conviction for a violation of Section 3-707 of this Code in the past 12 months, the arresting officer shall authorize the removal and impoundment of the vehicle by a towing service.

(Source: P.A. 99-438, eff. 1-1-16; 100-311, eff. 11-23-17; 100-537, eff. 6-1-18; revised 10-10-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/4-216)

Sec. 4-216. Storage fees; notice to lienholder of record.

(a) Any commercial vehicle relocator or any other private towing service providing removal or towing services pursuant to this Code and seeking to impose fees in connection with the furnishing of storage for a vehicle in the possession of the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service must provide written notice within 2 business days after the vehicle is removed or towed, by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the lienholder of record, regardless of whether the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service enforces a lien under the Labor and Storage Lien Act or the Labor and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act. The notice shall be effective upon mailing and include the rate at which fees will be incurred, and shall provide the lienholder with an opportunity to inspect the vehicle on the premises where the vehicle is stored within 2 business days of the lienholder's request. The date on which the assessment and accrual of storage fees may commence is the date of the impoundment of the vehicle, subject to any applicable limitations set forth by a municipality authorizing the vehicle removal. Payment of the storage fees by the lienholder may be made in cash or by cashier's check, certified check, debit card, credit card, or wire transfer, at the option of the lienholder taking possession of the vehicle. The commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service shall furnish a copy of the certified mail receipt to the lienholder upon request.

(b) The notification requirements in subsection (a) of this Section apply in addition to any lienholder notice requirements under this Code relating to the removal or towing of an abandoned, lost, stolen, or unclaimed vehicle. If the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service fails to comply with the notification requirements set forth in subsection (a) of this Section, storage fees shall not be assessed and collected and the lienholder shall be entitled to injunctive relief for possession of the vehicle without the payment of any storage fees.

(c) If the notification required under subsection (a) was not sent and a lienholder discovers its collateral is in the possession of a commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service by means other than the notification required in subsection (a) of this Section, the lienholder is entitled to recover any storage fees paid to the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service to reclaim possession of its collateral.

(d) An action under this Section may be brought by the lienholder against the commercial vehicle locator or other private towing service in the circuit court.

(e) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in this Code Act or the Illinois Vehicle Code, a commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service seeking to impose storage fees for a vehicle in its possession may not foreclose or otherwise enforce its claim for payment of storage services or any lien relating to the claim pursuant to this Code or other applicable law unless it first complies with the lienholder notification requirements set forth in subsection (a) of this Section.

(f) If the vehicle that is removed or towed is registered in a state other than Illinois, the assessment and accrual of storage fees may commence on the date that the request for lienholder information is filed by the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service with the applicable administrative agency or office in that state if: (i) the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service furnishes the lienholder with a copy or proof of filing of the request for lienholder information; (ii) the commercial vehicle relocator or other private towing service provides to the lienholder of record the notification required by this Section within one business day after receiving the requested lienholder information; and (iii) the assessment of storage fees complies with any applicable limitations set forth by a municipality authorizing the vehicle removal.

(Source: P.A. 100-311, eff. 11-23-17; revised 10-10-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-104) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-104)

Sec. 5-104. (a) On and after January 1, 1976, each manufacturer of a 1976 or later model year vehicle of the first division manufactured for sale in this State, other than a motorcycle, shall clearly and conspicuously indicate, on the price listing affixed to the vehicle pursuant to the "Automobile Information Disclosure Act", (15 United States Code 1231 through 1233), the following, with the appropriate gasoline mileage figure:

"In tests for fuel economy in city and highway driving conducted by the United States Environmental Protection Agency, this passenger vehicle obtained ....... miles per gallon of gasoline.".

(Source: P.A. 79-747; revised 11-8-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-104.3)

Sec. 5-104.3. Disclosure of rebuilt vehicle.

(a) No person shall knowingly, with intent to defraud or deceive another, sell a vehicle for which a rebuilt title has been issued unless that vehicle is accompanied by a Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status form, properly signed and delivered to the buyer.

(a-5) No dealer or rebuilder licensed under Sections 5-101, 5-102, or 5-301 of this Code shall sell a vehicle for which a rebuilt title has been issued from another jurisdiction without first obtaining an Illinois certificate of title with a "REBUILT" notation under Section 3-118.1 of this Code.

(b) The Secretary of State may by rule or regulation prescribe the format and information contained in the Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status form.

(c) A violation of subsection subsections (a) or (a-5) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of subsection subsections (a) or (a-5) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 100-104, eff. 11-9-17; revised 10-10-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/5-503) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-503)

Sec. 5-503. Failure to obtain dealer's license, operation of a business with a suspended or revoked license.

(a) Any person operating a business for which he is required to be licensed under Section 5-101, 5-101.2, 5-102, 5-201, or 5-301 who fails to apply for such a license or licenses within 15 days after being informed in writing by the Secretary of State that he must obtain such a license or licenses is subject to a civil action brought by the Secretary of State for operating a business without a license in the circuit court in the county in which the business is located. If the person is found to be in violation of Section 5-101, 5-101.2, 5-102, 5-201, or 5-301 by carrying on a business without being properly licensed, that person shall be fined $300 for each business day he conducted his business without such a license after the expiration of the 15-day 15 day period specified in this subsection (a).

(b) Any person who, having had his license or licenses issued under Section 5-101, 5-101.2, 5-102, 5-201, or 5-301 suspended, revoked, nonrenewed, cancelled, or denied by the Secretary of State under Section 5-501 or 5-501.5 of this Code, continues to operate business after the effective date of such revocation, nonrenewal, suspension, cancellation, or denial may be sued in a civil action by the Secretary of State in the county in which the established or additional place of such business is located. Except as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-501.5 of this Code, if such person is found by the court to have operated such a business after the license or licenses required for conducting such business have been suspended, revoked, nonrenewed, cancelled, or denied, that person shall be fined $500 for each day he conducted business thereafter.

(Source: P.A. 100-409, eff. 8-25-17; 100-450, eff. 1-1-18; revised 1-22-18.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to any other requirements of this Code, successfully completed an adult driver education course as provided in Section 6-107.5 of this Code;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license;

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court; or

19. To any person who holds a REAL ID compliant identification card or REAL ID compliant Person with a Disability Identification Card issued under the Illinois Identification Card Act. Any such person may, at his or her discretion, surrender the REAL ID compliant identification card or REAL ID compliant Person with a Disability Identification Card in order to become eligible to obtain a REAL ID compliant driver's license.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-511, eff. 1-1-17; 100-248, eff. 8-22-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-115) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-115)

Sec. 6-115. Expiration of driver's license.

(a) Except as provided elsewhere in this Section, every driver's license issued under the provisions of this Code shall expire 4 years from the date of its issuance, or at such later date, as the Secretary of State may by proper rule and regulation designate, not to exceed 12 calendar months; in the event that an applicant for renewal of a driver's license fails to apply prior to the expiration date of the previous driver's license, the renewal driver's license shall expire 4 years from the expiration date of the previous driver's license, or at such later date as the Secretary of State may by proper rule and regulation designate, not to exceed 12 calendar months.

The Secretary of State may, however, issue to a person not previously licensed as a driver in Illinois a driver's license which will expire not less than 4 years nor more than 5 years from date of issuance, except as provided elsewhere in this Section.

(a-5) Every driver's license issued under this Code to an applicant who is not a United States citizen or permanent resident shall be marked "Limited Term" and shall expire on whichever is the earlier date of the following:

(1) as provided under subsection (a), (f), (g), or (i) of this Section; or

(2) on the date the applicant's authorized stay in the United States terminates; or

(3) if the applicant's authorized stay is indefinite and the applicant is applying for a Limited Term REAL ID compliant driver's license, one year from the date of issuance of the license.

(b) Before the expiration of a driver's license, except those licenses expiring on the individual's 21st birthday, or 3 months after the individual's 21st birthday, the holder thereof may apply for a renewal thereof, subject to all the provisions of Section 6-103, and the Secretary of State may require an examination of the applicant. A licensee whose driver's license expires on his 21st birthday, or 3 months after his 21st birthday, may not apply for a renewal of his driving privileges until he reaches the age of 21.

(c) The Secretary of State shall, 30 days prior to the expiration of a driver's license, forward to each person whose license is to expire a notification of the expiration of said license which may be presented at the time of renewal of said license.

There may be included with such notification information explaining the anatomical gift and Emergency Medical Information Card provisions of Section 6-110. The format and text of such information shall be prescribed by the Secretary.

There shall be included with such notification, for a period of 4 years beginning January 1, 2000 information regarding the Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical Information Exchange established in Section 18.1 of the Adoption Act.

(d) The Secretary may defer the expiration of the driver's license of a licensee, spouse, and dependent children who are living with such licensee while on active duty, serving in the Armed Forces of the United States outside of the State of Illinois, and 120 days thereafter, upon such terms and conditions as the Secretary may prescribe.

(d-5) The Secretary may defer the expiration of the driver's license of a licensee, or of a spouse or dependent children living with the licensee, serving as a civilian employee of the United States Armed Forces or the United States Department of Defense, outside of the State of Illinois, and 120 days thereafter, upon such terms and conditions as the Secretary may prescribe.

(e) The Secretary of State may decline to process a renewal of a driver's license of any person who has not paid any fee or tax due under this Code and is not paid upon reasonable notice and demand.

(f) The Secretary shall provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee under 21 years of age shall expire 3 months after the licensee's 21st birthday. Persons whose current driver's licenses expire on their 21st birthday on or after January 1, 1986 shall not renew their driver's license before their 21st birthday, and their current driver's license will be extended for an additional term of 3 months beyond their 21st birthday. Thereafter, the expiration and term of the driver's license shall be governed by subsection (a) hereof.

(g) The Secretary shall provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee 81 years of age through age 86 shall expire 2 years from the date of issuance, or at such later date as the Secretary may by rule and regulation designate, not to exceed an additional 12 calendar months. The Secretary shall also provide that each original or renewal driver's license issued to a licensee 87 years of age or older shall expire 12 months from the date of issuance, or at such later date as the Secretary may by rule and regulation designate, not to exceed an additional 12 calendar months.

(h) The Secretary of State shall provide that each special restricted driver's license issued under subsection (g) of Section 6-113 of this Code shall expire 12 months from the date of issuance. The Secretary shall adopt rules defining renewal requirements.

(i) The Secretary of State shall provide that each driver's license issued to a person convicted of a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act shall expire 12 months from the date of issuance or at such date as the Secretary may by rule designate, not to exceed an additional 12 calendar months. The Secretary may adopt rules defining renewal requirements.

(Source: P.A. 99-118, eff. 1-1-16; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-248, eff. 8-22-17; revised 10-10-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/7-216) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 7-216)

Sec. 7-216. Reciprocity; residents and nonresidents; licensing Reciprocity - Residents and nonresidents - Licensing of nonresidents.

(a) When a nonresident's operating privilege is suspended pursuant to Section 7-205 the Secretary of State shall transmit a certified copy of the record of such action to the official in charge of the issuance of driver's license and registration certificates in the state in which such nonresident resides, if the law of such other state provides for action in relation thereto similar to that provided for in subsection paragraph (b).

(b) Upon receipt of such certification that the operating privilege of a resident of this State has been suspended or revoked in any such other state pursuant to a law providing for its suspension or revocation for failure to deposit security for the payment of judgments arising out of a motor vehicle accident, or for failure to deposit security under circumstances which would require the Secretary of State to suspend a nonresident's operating privilege had the motor vehicle accident occurred in this State, the Secretary of State shall suspend the driver's license of such resident and all other registrations. Such suspension shall continue until such resident furnishes evidence of compliance with the law of such other state relating to the deposit of such security.

(c) In case the operator or the owner of a motor vehicle involved in a motor vehicle accident within this State has no driver's license or registration, such operator shall not be allowed a driver's license or registration until the operator has complied with the requirements of Sections 7-201 through thru 7-216 to the same extent that would be necessary if, at the time of the motor vehicle accident, such operator had held a license and registration.

(Source: P.A. 83-831; revised 10-6-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/7-604) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 7-604)

Sec. 7-604. Verification of liability insurance policy.

(a) The Secretary of State may select random samples of registrations of motor vehicles subject to Section 7-601 of this Code, or owners thereof, for the purpose of verifying whether or not the motor vehicles are insured.

In addition to such general random samples of motor vehicle registrations, the Secretary may select for verification other random samples, including, but not limited to registrations of motor vehicles owned by persons:

(1) whose motor vehicle registrations during the preceding 4 years have been suspended pursuant to Section 7-606 or 7-607 of this Code;

(2) who during the preceding 4 years have been convicted of violating Section 3-707, 3-708, or 3-710 of this Code while operating vehicles owned by other persons;

(3) whose driving privileges have been suspended during the preceding 4 years;

(4) who during the preceding 4 years acquired ownership of motor vehicles while the registrations of such vehicles under the previous owners were suspended pursuant to Section 7-606 or 7-607 of this Code; or

(5) who during the preceding 4 years have received a disposition of supervision under subsection (c) of Section 5-6-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708, or 3-710 of this Code.

(b) Upon receiving certification from the Department of Transportation under Section 7-201.2 of this Code of the name of an owner or operator of any motor vehicle involved in an accident, the Secretary may verify whether or not at the time of the accident such motor vehicle was covered by a liability insurance policy in accordance with Section 7-601 of this Code.

(c) In preparation for selection of random samples and their verification, the Secretary may send to owners of randomly selected motor vehicles, or to randomly selected motor vehicle owners, requests for information about their motor vehicles and liability insurance coverage electronically or, if electronic means are unavailable, via U.S. mail. The request shall require the owner to state whether or not the motor vehicle was insured on the verification date stated in the Secretary's request and the request may require, but is not limited to, a statement by the owner of the names and addresses of insurers, policy numbers, and expiration dates of insurance coverage.

(d) Within 30 days after the Secretary sends a request under subsection (c) of this Section, the owner to whom it is sent shall furnish the requested information to the Secretary above the owner's signed affirmation that such information is true and correct. Proof of insurance in effect on the verification date, as prescribed by the Secretary, may be considered by the Secretary to be a satisfactory response to the request for information.

Any owner whose response indicates that his or her vehicle was not covered by a liability insurance policy in accordance with Section 7-601 of this Code shall be deemed to have registered or maintained registration of a motor vehicle in violation of that Section. Any owner who fails to respond to such a request shall be deemed to have registered or maintained registration of a motor vehicle in violation of Section 7-601 of this Code.

(e) If the owner responds to the request for information by asserting that his or her vehicle was covered by a liability insurance policy on the verification date stated in the Secretary's request, the Secretary may conduct a verification of the response by furnishing necessary information to the insurer named in the response. The insurer shall within 45 days inform the Secretary whether or not on the verification date stated the motor vehicle was insured by the insurer in accordance with Section 7-601 of this Code. The Secretary may by rule and regulation prescribe the procedures for verification.

(f) No random sample selected under this Section shall be categorized on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, ancestry, age, marital status, physical or mental disability, economic status, or geography.

(g) (Blank).

(h) This Section shall be inoperative upon of the effective date of the rules adopted by the Secretary to implement Section 7-603.5 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 99-333, eff. 12-30-15 (see Section 15 of P.A. 99-483 for the effective date of changes made by P.A. 99-333); 99-737, eff. 8-5-16; 100-145, eff. 1-1-18; 100-373, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-208)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-352)

Sec. 11-208. Powers of local authorities.

(a) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction and within the reasonable exercise of the police power from:

1. Regulating the standing or parking of vehicles, except as limited by Sections 11-1306 and 11-1307 of this Act;

2. Regulating traffic by means of police officers or traffic control signals;

3. Regulating or prohibiting processions or assemblages on the highways; and certifying persons to control traffic for processions or assemblages;

4. Designating particular highways as one-way highways and requiring that all vehicles thereon be moved in one specific direction;

5. Regulating the speed of vehicles in public parks subject to the limitations set forth in Section 11-604;

6. Designating any highway as a through highway, as authorized in Section 11-302, and requiring that all vehicles stop before entering or crossing the same or designating any intersection as a stop intersection or a yield right-of-way intersection and requiring all vehicles to stop or yield the right-of-way at one or more entrances to such intersections;

7. Restricting the use of highways as authorized in Chapter 15;

8. Regulating the operation of bicycles, low-speed electric bicycles, and low-speed gas bicycles, and requiring the registration and licensing of same, including the requirement of a registration fee;

9. Regulating or prohibiting the turning of vehicles or specified types of vehicles at intersections;

10. Altering the speed limits as authorized in Section 11-604;

11. Prohibiting U-turns;

12. Prohibiting pedestrian crossings at other than designated and marked crosswalks or at intersections;

13. Prohibiting parking during snow removal operation;

14. Imposing fines in accordance with Section 11-1301.3 as penalties for use of any parking place reserved for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, or veterans with disabilities by any person using a motor vehicle not bearing registration plates specified in Section 11-1301.1 or a special decal or device as defined in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or a veteran with a disability;

15. Adopting such other traffic regulations as are specifically authorized by this Code; or

16. Enforcing the provisions of subsection (f) of Section 3-413 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(b) No ordinance or regulation enacted under paragraph subsections 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11 or 13 of subsection paragraph (a) shall be effective until signs giving reasonable notice of such local traffic regulations are posted.

(c) The provisions of this Code shall not prevent any municipality having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants from prohibiting any person from driving or operating any motor vehicle upon the roadways of such municipality with headlamps on high beam or bright.

(d) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities within the reasonable exercise of their police power from prohibiting, on private property, the unauthorized use of parking spaces reserved for persons with disabilities.

(e) No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact or enforce an ordinance that applies only to motorcycles if the principal purpose for that ordinance is to restrict the access of motorcycles to any highway or portion of a highway for which federal or State funds have been used for the planning, design, construction, or maintenance of that highway. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact an ordinance requiring motorcycle users to wear protective headgear. Nothing in this subsection (e) shall affect the authority of a unit of local government to regulate motorcycles for traffic control purposes or in accordance with Section 12-602 of this Code. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may regulate motorcycles in a manner inconsistent with this Code. This subsection (e) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(e-5) The City of Chicago may enact an ordinance providing for a noise monitoring system upon any portion of the roadway known as Lake Shore Drive. Twelve months after the installation of the noise monitoring system, and any time after the first report as the City deems necessary, the City of Chicago shall prepare a noise monitoring report with the data collected from the system and shall, upon request, make the report available to the public. For purposes of this subsection (e-5), "noise monitoring system" means an automated noise monitor capable of recording noise levels 24 hours per day and 365 days per year with computer equipment sufficient to process the data.

(f) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.6 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(g) A municipality or county, as provided in Section 11-1201.1, may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1201 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(h) A municipality designated in Section 11-208.8 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated speed enforcement system to enforce violations of Article VI of Chapter 11 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(i) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.9 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1414 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-209, eff. 1-1-18; 100-257, eff. 8-22-17; revised 10-6-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-352)

Sec. 11-208. Powers of local authorities.

(a) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities with respect to streets and highways under their jurisdiction and within the reasonable exercise of the police power from:

1. Regulating the standing or parking of vehicles, except as limited by Sections 11-1306 and 11-1307 of this Act;

2. Regulating traffic by means of police officers or traffic control signals;

3. Regulating or prohibiting processions or assemblages on the highways; and certifying persons to control traffic for processions or assemblages;

4. Designating particular highways as one-way highways and requiring that all vehicles thereon be moved in one specific direction;

5. Regulating the speed of vehicles in public parks subject to the limitations set forth in Section 11-604;

6. Designating any highway as a through highway, as authorized in Section 11-302, and requiring that all vehicles stop before entering or crossing the same or designating any intersection as a stop intersection or a yield right-of-way intersection and requiring all vehicles to stop or yield the right-of-way at one or more entrances to such intersections;

7. Restricting the use of highways as authorized in Chapter 15;

8. Regulating the operation of bicycles, low-speed electric bicycles, and low-speed gas bicycles, and requiring the registration and licensing of same, including the requirement of a registration fee;

9. Regulating or prohibiting the turning of vehicles or specified types of vehicles at intersections;

10. Altering the speed limits as authorized in Section 11-604;

11. Prohibiting U-turns;

12. Prohibiting pedestrian crossings at other than designated and marked crosswalks or at intersections;

13. Prohibiting parking during snow removal operation;

14. Imposing fines in accordance with Section 11-1301.3 as penalties for use of any parking place reserved for persons with disabilities, as defined by Section 1-159.1, or veterans with disabilities by any person using a motor vehicle not bearing registration plates specified in Section 11-1301.1 or a special decal or device as defined in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is operated by or for a person with disabilities or a veteran with a disability;

15. Adopting such other traffic regulations as are specifically authorized by this Code; or

16. Enforcing the provisions of subsection (f) of Section 3-413 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(b) No ordinance or regulation enacted under paragraph subsections 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11 or 13 of subsection paragraph (a) shall be effective until signs giving reasonable notice of such local traffic regulations are posted.

(c) The provisions of this Code shall not prevent any municipality having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants from prohibiting any person from driving or operating any motor vehicle upon the roadways of such municipality with headlamps on high beam or bright.

(d) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to prevent local authorities within the reasonable exercise of their police power from prohibiting, on private property, the unauthorized use of parking spaces reserved for persons with disabilities.

(e) No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact or enforce an ordinance that applies only to motorcycles if the principal purpose for that ordinance is to restrict the access of motorcycles to any highway or portion of a highway for which federal or State funds have been used for the planning, design, construction, or maintenance of that highway. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may enact an ordinance requiring motorcycle users to wear protective headgear. Nothing in this subsection (e) shall affect the authority of a unit of local government to regulate motorcycles for traffic control purposes or in accordance with Section 12-602 of this Code. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may regulate motorcycles in a manner inconsistent with this Code. This subsection (e) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(e-5) The City of Chicago may enact an ordinance providing for a noise monitoring system upon any portion of the roadway known as Lake Shore Drive. Twelve months after the installation of the noise monitoring system, and any time after the first report as the City deems necessary, the City of Chicago shall prepare a noise monitoring report with the data collected from the system and shall, upon request, make the report available to the public. For purposes of this subsection (e-5), "noise monitoring system" means an automated noise monitor capable of recording noise levels 24 hours per day and 365 days per year with computer equipment sufficient to process the data.

(e-10) (e-5) A unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may not enact an ordinance prohibiting the use of Automated Driving System equipped vehicles on its roadways. Nothing in this subsection (e-10) (e-5) shall affect the authority of a unit of local government to regulate Automated Driving System equipped vehicles for traffic control purposes. No unit of local government, including a home rule unit, may regulate Automated Driving System equipped vehicles in a manner inconsistent with this Code. For purposes of this subsection (e-10) (e-5), "Automated Driving System equipped vehicle" means any vehicle equipped with an Automated Driving System of hardware and software that are collectively capable of performing the entire dynamic driving task on a sustained basis, regardless of whether it is limited to a specific operational domain. This subsection (e-10) (e-5) is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(f) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.6 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(g) A municipality or county, as provided in Section 11-1201.1, may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1201 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(h) A municipality designated in Section 11-208.8 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated speed enforcement system to enforce violations of Article VI of Chapter 11 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(i) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.9 may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1414 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a violation.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-209, eff. 1-1-18; 100-257, eff. 8-22-17; 100-352, eff. 6-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-503) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-503)

Sec. 12-503. Windshields must be unobstructed and equipped with wipers.

(a) No person shall drive a motor vehicle with any sign, poster, window application, reflective material, nonreflective material or tinted film upon the front windshield, except that a nonreflective tinted film may be used along the uppermost portion of the windshield if such material does not extend more than 6 inches down from the top of the windshield.

(a-3) No new or used motor vehicle dealer shall permit a driver to drive a motor vehicle offered for sale or lease off the premises where the motor vehicle is being offered for sale or lease, including when the driver is test driving the vehicle, with signs, decals, paperwork, or other material on the front windshield or on the windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver that would obstruct the driver's view in violation of subsection (a) of this Section. For purposes of this subsection (a-3), "test driving" means when a driver, with permission of the new or used vehicle dealer or employee of the new or used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a new or used vehicle dealer that the driver is considering to purchase or lease.

(a-5) No window treatment or tinting shall be applied to the windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver, except:

(1) On vehicles where none of the windows to the rear of the driver's seat are treated in a manner that allows less than 30% light transmittance, a nonreflective tinted film that allows at least 50% light transmittance, with a 5% variance observed by any law enforcement official metering the light transmittance, may be used on the vehicle windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver.

(2) On vehicles where none of the windows to the rear of the driver's seat are treated in a manner that allows less than 35% light transmittance, a nonreflective tinted film that allows at least 35% light transmittance, with a 5% variance observed by any law enforcement official metering the light transmittance, may be used on the vehicle windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver.

(3) (Blank).

(4) On vehicles where a nonreflective smoked or tinted glass that was originally installed by the manufacturer on the windows to the rear of the driver's seat, a nonreflective tint that allows at least 50% light transmittance, with a 5% variance observed by a law enforcement official metering the light transmittance, may be used on the vehicle windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver.

(a-10) No person shall install or repair any material prohibited by subsection (a) of this Section.

(1) Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit a person from removing or altering any material prohibited by subsection (a) to make a motor vehicle comply with the requirements of this Section.

(2) Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit a person from installing window treatment for a person with a medical condition described in subsection (g) of this Section. An installer who installs window treatment for a person with a medical condition described in subsection (g) must obtain a copy of the certified statement or letter written by a physician described in subsection (g) from the person with the medical condition prior to installing the window treatment. The copy of the certified statement or letter must be kept in the installer's permanent records.

(b) On motor vehicles where window treatment has not been applied to the windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver, the use of a perforated window screen or other decorative window application on windows to the rear of the driver's seat shall be allowed.

(b-5) Any motor vehicle with a window to the rear of the driver's seat treated in this manner shall be equipped with a side mirror on each side of the motor vehicle which are in conformance with Section 12-502.

(c) No person shall drive a motor vehicle with any objects placed or suspended between the driver and the front windshield, rear window, side wings or side windows immediately adjacent to each side of the driver which materially obstructs the driver's view.

(d) Every motor vehicle, except motorcycles, shall be equipped with a device, controlled by the driver, for cleaning rain, snow, moisture or other obstructions from the windshield; and no person shall drive a motor vehicle with snow, ice, moisture or other material on any of the windows or mirrors, which materially obstructs the driver's clear view of the highway.

(e) No person shall drive a motor vehicle when the windshield, side or rear windows are in such defective condition or repair as to materially impair the driver's view to the front, side or rear. A vehicle equipped with a side mirror on each side of the vehicle which are in conformance with Section 12-502 will be deemed to be in compliance in the event the rear window of the vehicle is materially obscured.

(f) Subsections Paragraphs (a), (a-5), (b), and (b-5) of this Section shall not apply to:

(1) (Blank).

(2) those motor vehicles properly registered in another jurisdiction.

(g) Subsections Paragraphs (a) and (a-5) of this Section shall not apply to window treatment, including, but not limited to, a window application, nonreflective material, or tinted film, applied or affixed to a motor vehicle for which distinctive license plates or license plate stickers have been issued pursuant to subsection (k) of Section 3-412 of this Code, and which:

(1) is owned and operated by a person afflicted with or suffering from a medical disease, including, but not limited to, systemic or discoid lupus erythematosus, disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis, or albinism, which would require that person to be shielded from the direct rays of the sun; or

(2) is used in transporting a person when the person resides at the same address as the registered owner of the vehicle and the person is afflicted with or suffering from a medical disease which would require the person to be shielded from the direct rays of the sun, including, but not limited to, systemic or discoid lupus erythematosus, disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis, or albinism.

The owner must obtain a certified statement or letter written by a physician licensed to practice medicine in Illinois that such person owning and operating or being transported in a motor vehicle is afflicted with or suffers from such disease, including, but not limited to, systemic or discoid lupus erythematosus, disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis, or albinism. However, no exemption from the requirements of subsection (a-5) shall be granted for any condition, such as light sensitivity, for which protection from the direct rays of the sun can be adequately obtained by the use of sunglasses or other eye protective devices.

Such certification must be carried in the motor vehicle at all times. The certification shall be legible and shall contain the date of issuance, the name, address and signature of the attending physician, and the name, address, and medical condition of the person requiring exemption. The information on the certificate for a window treatment must remain current and shall be renewed every 4 years by the attending physician. The owner shall also submit a copy of the certification to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may forward notice of certification to law enforcement agencies.

(g-5) (Blank).

(g-7) Installers shall only install window treatment authorized by subsection (g) on motor vehicles for which distinctive plates or license plate stickers have been issued pursuant to subsection (k) of Section 3-412 of this Code. The distinctive license plates or plate sticker must be on the motor vehicle at the time of window treatment installation.

(h) Subsection Paragraph (a) of this Section shall not apply to motor vehicle stickers or other certificates issued by State or local authorities which are required to be displayed upon motor vehicle windows to evidence compliance with requirements concerning motor vehicles.

(i) (Blank).

(j) A person found guilty of violating subsection paragraphs (a), (a-3), (a-5), (a-10), (b), (b-5), or (g-7) of this Section shall be guilty of a petty offense and fined no less than $50 nor more than $500. A second or subsequent violation of subsection paragraphs (a), (a-3), (a-5), (a-10), (b), (b-5), or (g-7) of this Section shall be treated as a Class C misdemeanor and the violator fined no less than $100 nor more than $500. Any person convicted under subsection paragraphs (a), (a-5), (b), or (b-5) of this Section shall be ordered to alter any nonconforming windows into compliance with this Section.

(k) Except as provided in subsection (a-3) of this Section, nothing in this Section shall create a cause of action on behalf of a buyer against a vehicle dealer or manufacturer who sells a motor vehicle with a window which is in violation of this Section.

(l) The Secretary of State shall provide a notice of the requirements of this Section to a new resident applying for vehicle registration in this State pursuant to Section 3-801 of this Code. The Secretary of State may comply with this subsection by posting the requirements of this Section on the Secretary of State's website.

(m) A home rule unit may not regulate motor vehicles in a manner inconsistent with this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

(Source: P.A. 100-346, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-601) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-601)

Sec. 12-601. Horns and warning devices.

(a) Every motor vehicle when operated upon a highway shall be equipped with a horn in good working order and capable of emitting sound audible under normal conditions from a distance of not less than 200 feet, but no horn or other warning device shall emit an unreasonable loud or harsh sound or a whistle. The driver of a motor vehicle shall when reasonably necessary to insure safe operation give audible warning with his horn but shall not otherwise use such horn when upon a highway.

(b) No vehicle shall be equipped with nor shall any person use upon a vehicle any siren, whistle, or bell, except as otherwise permitted in this Section section. Any authorized emergency vehicle or organ transport vehicle as defined in Chapter 1 of this Code or a vehicle operated by a fire chief or the Director or Coordinator of a municipal or county emergency services and disaster agency, may be equipped with a siren, whistle, or bell, capable of emitting sound audible under normal conditions from a distance of not less than 500 feet, but such siren, whistle, or bell, shall not be used except when such vehicle is operated in response to an emergency call or in the immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law in either of which events the driver of such vehicle shall sound such siren, whistle, or bell, when necessary to warn pedestrians and other drivers of the approach thereof.

(c) Trackless trolley coaches, as defined by Section 1-206 of this Code, and replica trolleys, as defined by Section 1-171.04 of this Code, may be equipped with a bell or bells in lieu of a horn, and may, in addition to the requirements of subsection paragraph (a) of this Section, use a bell or bells for the purpose of indicating arrival or departure at designated stops during the hours of scheduled operation.

(Source: P.A. 100-182, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-606) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-606)

Sec. 12-606. Tow trucks; Tow-trucks; identification; equipment; insurance.

(a) Every tow truck tow-truck, except those owned by governmental agencies, shall have displayed on each side thereof, a sign with letters not less than 2 inches in height, contrasting in color to that of the background, stating the full legal name, complete address (including street address and city), and telephone number of the owner or operator thereof. This information shall be permanently affixed to the sides of the tow truck.

(b) Every tow truck tow-truck shall be equipped with:

(1) One or more brooms and shovels;

(2) One or more trash cans of at least 5 gallon capacity; and

(3) One fire extinguisher. This extinguisher shall be either:

(i) of the dry chemical or carbon dioxide type with an aggregate rating of at least 4-B, C units, and bearing the approval of a laboratory qualified by the Division of Fire Prevention for this purpose; or

(ii) One that meets the requirements of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations of the United States Department of Transportation for fire extinguishers on commercial motor vehicles.

(c) Every owner or operator and driver of a tow truck tow-truck shall comply with Section 11-1413 of this Code Act and shall remove or cause to be removed all glass and debris, except any (i) hazardous substance as defined in Section 3.215 of the Environmental Protection Act, (ii) hazardous waste as defined in Section 3.220 of the Environmental Protection Act, and (iii) medical samples or waste, including but not limited to any blood samples, used syringes, other used medical supplies, or any other potentially infectious medical waste as defined in Section 3.360 of the Environmental Protection Act, deposited upon any street or highway by the disabled vehicle being serviced, and shall in addition, spread dirt or sand or oil absorbent upon that portion of any street or highway where oil or grease has been deposited by the disabled vehicle being serviced.

(d) Every tow truck tow-truck operator shall in addition file an indemnity bond, insurance policy, or other proof of insurance in a form to be prescribed by the Secretary for: garagekeepers liability insurance, in an amount no less than a combined single limit of $500,000, and truck (auto) liability insurance in an amount no less than a combined single limit of $500,000, on hook coverage or garagekeepers coverage in an amount of no less than $25,000 which shall indemnify or insure the tow truck tow-truck operator for the following:

(1) Bodily injury or damage to the property of others.

(2) Damage to any vehicle towed by the tower.

(3) In case of theft, loss of, or damage to any vehicle stored, garagekeepers legal liability coverage in an amount of no less than $25,000.

(4) In case of injury to or occupational illness of the tow truck driver or helper, workers compensation insurance meeting the minimum requirements of the Workers' Compensation Act.

Any such bond or policy shall be issued only by a bonding or insuring firm authorized to do business as such in the State of Illinois, and a certificate of such bond or policy shall be carried in the cab of each tow truck tow-truck.

(e) The bond or policy required in subsection (d) shall provide that the insurance carrier may cancel it by serving previous notice, as required by Sections 143.14 and 143.16 of the Illinois Insurance Code, in writing, either personally or by registered mail, upon the owner or operator of the motor vehicle and upon the Secretary of State. Whenever any such bond or policy shall be so cancelled, the Secretary of State shall mark the policy "Cancelled" and shall require such owner or operator either to furnish a new bond or policy, in accordance with this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-574, eff. 6-26-02; revised 10-6-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-806) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-806)

Sec. 12-806. Identification, stop signal arms and special lighting when not used as a school bus.

(a) Except as provided in Section 12-806a, whenever a school bus is operated for the purpose of transporting passengers other than persons in connection with an activity of the school or religious organization which owns the school bus or for which the school bus is operated, the "SCHOOL BUS" signs shall be covered or concealed and the stop signal arm and flashing signal system shall not be operable through normal controls.

(b) If a school district, religious organization, vendor of school buses busses, or school bus company whose main source of income is contracting with a school district or religious organization for the provision of transportation services in connection with the activities of a school district or religious organization, discards through either sale or donation, a school bus to an individual or entity that is not one of the aforementioned entities above, then the recipient of such school bus shall be responsible for immediately removing, covering, or concealing the "SCHOOL BUS" signs and any other insignia or words indicating the vehicle is a school bus, rendering inoperable or removing entirely the stop signal arm and flashing signal system, and painting the school bus a different color from those under Section 12-801 of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 100-277, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/12-825)

Sec. 12-825. Extracurricular Extra-curricular activities; passengers.

(a) Each school bus operated by a public or private primary or secondary school transporting students enrolled in grade 12 or below for a school related athletic event or other school approved extracurricular activity shall be registered under subsection (a) of Section 3-808 of this Code, comply with school bus driver permit requirements under Section 6-104 of this Code, comply with the minimum liability insurance requirements under Section 12-707.01 of this Code, and comply with special requirements pertaining to school buses under this Chapter.

(b) Each school bus that operates under subsection (a) of this Section may be used for the transportation of passengers other than students enrolled in grade 12 or below for activities that do not involve either a public or private educational institution if the school bus driver or school bus owner complies with Section 12-806 of this Code and the "SCHOOL BUS" sign under Section 12-802 of this Code is either removed or obscured so that it is not visible to other motorists.

(Source: P.A. 100-241, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-301)

Sec. 15-301. Permits for excess size and weight.

(a) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction may, in their discretion, upon application and good cause being shown therefor, issue a special permit authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in this Act or otherwise not in conformity with this Act upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the party granting such permit and for the maintenance of which the party is responsible. Applications and permits other than those in written or printed form may only be accepted from and issued to the company or individual making the movement. Except for an application to move directly across a highway, it shall be the duty of the applicant to establish in the application that the load to be moved by such vehicle or combination cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, the reasonableness of which shall be determined by the Secretary of the Department. For the purpose of over length movements, more than one object may be carried side by side as long as the height, width, and weight laws are not exceeded and the cause for the over length is not due to multiple objects. For the purpose of over height movements, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over height is not due to multiple objects and the length, width, and weight laws are not exceeded. For the purpose of an over width movement, more than one object may be carried as long as the cause for the over width is not due to multiple objects and length, height, and weight laws are not exceeded. Except for transporting fluid milk products, no State or local agency shall authorize the issuance of excess size or weight permits for vehicles and loads that are divisible and that can be carried, when divided, within the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter. Any excess size or weight permit issued in violation of the provisions of this Section shall be void at issue and any movement made thereunder shall not be authorized under the terms of the void permit. In any prosecution for a violation of this Chapter when the authorization of an excess size or weight permit is at issue, it is the burden of the defendant to establish that the permit was valid because the load to be moved could not reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, or was otherwise nondivisible.

(b) The application for any such permit shall: (1) state whether such permit is requested for a single trip or for limited continuous operation; (2) state if the applicant is an authorized carrier under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law, if so, his certificate, registration or permit number issued by the Illinois Commerce Commission; (3) specifically describe and identify the vehicle or vehicles and load to be operated or moved except that for vehicles or vehicle combinations registered by the Department as provided in Section 15-319 of this Chapter, only the Illinois Department of Transportation's (IDT) registration number or classification need be given; (4) state the routing requested including the points of origin and destination, and may identify and include a request for routing to the nearest certified scale in accordance with the Department's rules and regulations, provided the applicant has approval to travel on local roads; and (5) state if the vehicles or loads are being transported for hire. No permits for the movement of a vehicle or load for hire shall be issued to any applicant who is required under the Illinois Motor Carrier of Property Law to have a certificate, registration or permit and does not have such certificate, registration or permit.

(c) The Department or local authority when not inconsistent with traffic safety is authorized to issue or withhold such permit at its discretion; or, if such permit is issued at its discretion to prescribe the route or routes to be traveled, to limit the number of trips, to establish seasonal or other time limitations within which the vehicles described may be operated on the highways indicated, or otherwise to limit or prescribe conditions of operations of such vehicle or vehicles, when necessary to assure against undue damage to the road foundations, surfaces or structures, and may require such undertaking or other security as may be deemed necessary to compensate for any injury to any roadway or road structure. The Department shall maintain a daily record of each permit issued along with the fee and the stipulated dimensions, weights, conditions and restrictions authorized and this record shall be presumed correct in any case of questions or dispute. The Department shall install an automatic device for recording applications received and permits issued by telephone. In making application by telephone, the Department and applicant waive all objections to the recording of the conversation.

(d) The Department shall, upon application in writing from any local authority, issue an annual permit authorizing the local authority to move oversize highway construction, transportation, utility and maintenance equipment over roads under the jurisdiction of the Department. The permit shall be applicable only to equipment and vehicles owned by or registered in the name of the local authority, and no fee shall be charged for the issuance of such permits.

(e) As an exception to subsection paragraph (a) of this Section, the Department and local authorities, with respect to highways under their respective jurisdictions, in their discretion and upon application in writing may issue a special permit for limited continuous operation, authorizing the applicant to move loads of agricultural commodities on a 2-axle 2 axle single vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 35%, on a 3-axle or 4-axle 3 or 4 axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State with axle loads not to exceed 20%, and on a 5-axle 5 axle vehicle registered by the Secretary of State not to exceed 10% above those provided in Section 15-111. The total gross weight of the vehicle, however, may not exceed the maximum gross weight of the registration class of the vehicle allowed under Section 3-815 or 3-818 of this Code.

As used in this Section, "agricultural commodities" means:

(1) cultivated plants or agricultural produce grown including, but is not limited to, corn, soybeans, wheat, oats, grain sorghum, canola, and rice;

(2) livestock, including, but not limited to, hogs, equine, sheep, and poultry;

(3) ensilage; and

(4) fruits and vegetables.

Permits may be issued for a period not to exceed 40 days and moves may be made of a distance not to exceed 50 miles from a field, an on-farm grain storage facility, a warehouse as defined in the Illinois Grain Code, or a livestock management facility as defined in the Livestock Management Facilities Act over any highway except the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways. The operator of the vehicle, however, must abide by posted bridge and posted highway weight limits. All implements of husbandry operating under this Section between sunset and sunrise shall be equipped as prescribed in Section 12-205.1.

(e-1) Upon a declaration by the Governor that an emergency harvest situation exists, a special permit issued by the Department under this Section shall be required from September 1 through December 31 during harvest season emergencies for a vehicle that exceeds the maximum axle weight and gross weight limits under Section 15-111 of this Code or exceeds the vehicle's registered gross weight, provided that the vehicle's axle weight and gross weight do not exceed 10% above the maximum limits under Section 15-111 of this Code and does not exceed the vehicle's registered gross weight by 10%. All other restrictions that apply to permits issued under this Section shall apply during the declared time period and no fee shall be charged for the issuance of those permits. Permits issued by the Department under this subsection (e-1) are only valid on federal and State highways under the jurisdiction of the Department, except interstate highways. With respect to highways under the jurisdiction of local authorities, the local authorities may, at their discretion, waive special permit requirements during harvest season emergencies, and set a divisible load weight limit not to exceed 10% above a vehicle's registered gross weight, provided that the vehicle's axle weight and gross weight do not exceed 10% above the maximum limits specified in Section 15-111. Permits issued under this subsection (e-1) shall apply to all registered vehicles eligible to obtain permits under this Section, including vehicles used in private or for-hire movement of divisible load agricultural commodities during the declared time period.

(f) The form and content of the permit shall be determined by the Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and by local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction. Every permit shall be in written form and carried in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit and no person shall violate any of the terms or conditions of such special permit. Violation of the terms and conditions of the permit shall not be deemed a revocation of the permit; however, any vehicle and load found to be off the route prescribed in the permit shall be held to be operating without a permit. Any off route vehicle and load shall be required to obtain a new permit or permits, as necessary, to authorize the movement back onto the original permit routing. No rule or regulation, nor anything herein shall be construed to authorize any police officer, court, or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit to remove the permit from the possession of the permittee unless the permittee is charged with a fraudulent permit violation as provided in subsection paragraph (i). However, upon arrest for an offense of violation of permit, operating without a permit when the vehicle is off route, or any size or weight offense under this Chapter when the permittee plans to raise the issuance of the permit as a defense, the permittee, or his agent, must produce the permit at any court hearing concerning the alleged offense.

If the permit designates and includes a routing to a certified scale, the permittee, while enroute to the designated scale, shall be deemed in compliance with the weight provisions of the permit provided the axle or gross weights do not exceed any of the permitted limits by more than the following amounts:

Single axle 2000 pounds

Tandem axle 3000 pounds

Gross 5000 pounds

(g) The Department is authorized to adopt, amend, and to make available to interested persons a policy concerning reasonable rules, limitations and conditions or provisions of operation upon highways under its jurisdiction in addition to those contained in this Section for the movement by special permit of vehicles, combinations, or loads which cannot reasonably be dismantled or disassembled, including manufactured and modular home sections and portions thereof. All rules, limitations and conditions or provisions adopted in the policy shall have due regard for the safety of the traveling public and the protection of the highway system and shall have been promulgated in conformity with the provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The requirements of the policy for flagmen and escort vehicles shall be the same for all moves of comparable size and weight. When escort vehicles are required, they shall meet the following requirements:

(1) All operators shall be 18 years of age or over and properly licensed to operate the vehicle.

(2) Vehicles escorting oversized loads more than 12-feet wide must be equipped with a rotating or flashing amber light mounted on top as specified under Section 12-215.

The Department shall establish reasonable rules and regulations regarding liability insurance or self insurance for vehicles with oversized loads promulgated under the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. Police vehicles may be required for escort under circumstances as required by rules and regulations of the Department.

(h) Violation of any rule, limitation or condition or provision of any permit issued in accordance with the provisions of this Section shall not render the entire permit null and void but the violator shall be deemed guilty of violation of permit and guilty of exceeding any size, weight or load limitations in excess of those authorized by the permit. The prescribed route or routes on the permit are not mere rules, limitations, conditions, or provisions of the permit, but are also the sole extent of the authorization granted by the permit. If a vehicle and load are found to be off the route or routes prescribed by any permit authorizing movement, the vehicle and load are operating without a permit. Any off-route off route movement shall be subject to the size and weight maximums, under the applicable provisions of this Chapter, as determined by the type or class highway upon which the vehicle and load are being operated.

(i) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made under a fraudulent permit the permit shall be void, and the person, firm, or corporation to whom such permit was granted, the driver of such vehicle in addition to the person who issued such permit and any accessory, shall be guilty of fraud and either one or all persons may be prosecuted for such violation. Any person, firm, or corporation committing such violation shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm or corporation convicted of such violation for a period of one year after the date of conviction. Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violation of other Sections of this Code Act.

(j) Whenever any vehicle is operated or movement made in violation of a permit issued in accordance with this Section, the person to whom such permit was granted, or the driver of such vehicle, is guilty of such violation and either, but not both, persons may be prosecuted for such violation as stated in this subsection (j). Any person, firm or corporation convicted of such violation shall be guilty of a petty offense and shall be fined for the first offense, not less than $50 nor more than $200 and, for the second offense by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year, not less than $200 nor more than $300 and, for the third offense by the same person, firm or corporation within a period of one year after the date of the first offense, not less than $300 nor more than $500 and the Department shall not issue permits to the person, firm or corporation convicted of a third offense during a period of one year after the date of conviction for such third offense.

(k) Whenever any vehicle is operated on local roads under permits for excess width or length issued by local authorities, such vehicle may be moved upon a State highway for a distance not to exceed one-half mile without a permit for the purpose of crossing the State highway.

(l) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, the Department, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, may at their discretion authorize the movement of a vehicle in violation of any size or weight requirement, or both, that would not ordinarily be eligible for a permit, when there is a showing of extreme necessity that the vehicle and load should be moved without unnecessary delay.

For the purpose of this subsection, showing of extreme necessity shall be limited to the following: shipments of livestock, hazardous materials, liquid concrete being hauled in a mobile cement mixer, or hot asphalt.

(m) Penalties for violations of this Section shall be in addition to any penalties imposed for violating any other Section of this Code.

(n) The Department with respect to highways under its jurisdiction and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, in their discretion and upon application in writing, may issue a special permit for continuous limited operation, authorizing the applicant to operate a tow truck tow-truck that exceeds the weight limits provided for in subsection (a) of Section 15-111, provided:

(1) no rear single axle of the tow truck tow-truck exceeds 26,000 pounds;

(2) no rear tandem axle of the tow truck tow-truck exceeds 50,000 pounds;

(2.1) no triple rear axle on a manufactured recovery unit exceeds 60,000 pounds;

(3) neither the disabled vehicle nor the disabled combination of vehicles exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15, or the weight limits imposed under a permit issued by the Department prior to hookup;

(4) the tow truck tow-truck prior to hookup does not exceed the weight restrictions imposed by this Chapter 15;

(5) during the tow operation the tow truck tow-truck does not violate any weight restriction sign;

(6) the tow truck tow-truck is equipped with flashing, rotating, or oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet in all directions;

(7) the tow truck tow-truck is specifically designed and licensed as a tow truck tow-truck;

(8) the tow truck tow-truck has a gross vehicle weight rating of sufficient capacity to safely handle the load;

(9) the tow truck tow-truck is equipped with air brakes;

(10) the tow truck tow-truck is capable of utilizing the lighting and braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination of vehicles;

(11) the tow commences at the initial point of wreck or disablement and terminates at a point where the repairs are actually to occur;

(12) the permit issued to the tow truck tow-truck is carried in the tow truck tow-truck and exhibited on demand by a police officer; and

(13) the movement shall be valid only on State state routes approved by the Department.

(o) (Blank).

(p) In determining whether a load may be reasonably dismantled or disassembled for the purpose of subsection paragraph (a), the Department shall consider whether there is a significant negative impact on the condition of the pavement and structures along the proposed route, whether the load or vehicle as proposed causes a safety hazard to the traveling public, whether dismantling or disassembling the load promotes or stifles economic development and whether the proposed route travels less than 5 miles. A load is not required to be dismantled or disassembled for the purposes of subsection paragraph (a) if the Secretary of the Department determines there will be no significant negative impact to pavement or structures along the proposed route, the proposed load or vehicle causes no safety hazard to the traveling public, dismantling or disassembling the load does not promote economic development and the proposed route travels less than 5 miles. The Department may promulgate rules for the purpose of establishing the divisibility of a load pursuant to subsection paragraph (a). Any load determined by the Secretary to be nondivisible shall otherwise comply with the existing size or weight maximums specified in this Chapter.

(Source: P.A. 99-717, eff. 8-5-16; 100-70, eff. 8-11-17; revised 10-12-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/15-308.2)

Sec. 15-308.2. Fees for special permits for tow trucks tow-trucks. The fee for a special permit to operate a tow truck tow-truck pursuant to subsection (n) of Section 15-301 is $50 quarterly and $200 annually.

(Source: P.A. 93-1023, eff. 8-25-04; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 550. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Sections 3-1 and 4-1 as follows:

(625 ILCS 45/3-1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 313-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-469)

Sec. 3-1. Unlawful operation of unnumbered watercraft. Every watercraft other than non-powered watercraft on waters within the jurisdiction of this State shall be numbered. No person may operate or give permission for the operation of any such watercraft on such waters unless the watercraft is numbered in accordance with this Act, or in accordance with applicable federal Federal law, or in accordance with a federally approved Federally-approved numbering system of another State, and unless (1) the certificate of number awarded to such watercraft is in full force and effect, and (2) the identifying number set forth in the certificate of number is displayed on each side of the bow of such watercraft.

(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; revised 10-30-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-469)

Sec. 3-1. Unlawful operation of unnumbered watercraft. Every watercraft other than non-powered watercraft on waters within the jurisdiction of this State shall be numbered. No person may operate, use, or store or give permission for the operation, usage, or storage of any such watercraft on such waters unless it has on board while in operation:

(A) A valid certificate of number is issued in accordance with this Act, or in accordance with applicable federal Federal law, or in accordance with a federally approved Federally-approved numbering system of another State, and unless:

(1) the pocket-sized pocket sized certificate of number awarded to such watercraft is in full force and effect; or

(2) the operator is in possession of a valid 60-day 60 day temporary permit under this Act.

(B) The identifying number set forth in the certificate of number is displayed on each side of the bow of such watercraft.

The certificate of number, lease, or rental agreement required by this Section shall be available at all times for inspection at the request of a federal, State, or local law enforcement officer on the watercraft for which it is issued. No person shall operate a watercraft under this Section unless the certificate of number, lease, or rental agreement required is carried on board in a manner that it can be handed to a requesting law enforcement officer for inspection. A holder of a certificate of number shall notify the Department within 30 days if the holder's address no longer conforms to the address appearing on the certificate and shall furnish the Department with the holder's new address. The Department may provide for in its rules and regulations for the surrender of the certificate bearing the former address and its replacement with a certificate bearing the new address or for the alteration of an outstanding certificate to show the new address of the holder.

(Source: P.A. 100-469, eff. 6-1-18; revised 10-30-17.)

(625 ILCS 45/4-1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 314-1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-469)

Sec. 4-1. Personal flotation devices.

A. No person may operate a watercraft unless at least one U.S. Coast Guard approved PFD of the following types or their equivalent is on board for each person: Type I, Type II or Type III.

B. No person may operate a personal watercraft or specialty prop-craft unless each person aboard is wearing a Type I, Type II, Type III or Type V PFD approved by the United States Coast Guard.

C. No person may operate a watercraft 16 feet or more in length, except a canoe or kayak, unless at least one Type IV U.S. Coast Guard approved PFD or its equivalent is on board in addition to the PFD's required in paragraph A of this Section.

D. A U.S. Coast Guard approved Type V personal flotation device may be carried in lieu of the Type I, II, III or IV personal flotation device required in this Section, if the Type V personal flotation device is approved for the activity in which it is being used.

E. When assisting a person on water skis waterskis, aquaplane or similar device, there must be one U.S. Coast Guard approved PFD on board the watercraft for each person being assisted or towed or worn by the person being assisted or towed.

F. No person may operate a watercraft unless each device required by this Section is:

1. Readily accessible;

2. In serviceable condition;

3. Of the appropriate size for the person for whom it is intended; and

4. Legibly marked with the U.S. Coast Guard approval number.

G. Approved personal flotation devices are defined as follows:

Type I - A Type I personal flotation device is an approved device designed to turn an unconscious person in the water from a face downward position to a vertical or slightly backward position and to have more than 20 pounds of buoyancy.

Type II - A Type II personal flotation device is an approved device designed to turn an unconscious person in the water from a face downward position to a vertical or slightly backward position and to have at least 15 1/2 pounds of buoyancy.

Type III - A Type III personal flotation device is an approved device designed to keep a conscious person in a vertical or slightly backward position and to have at least 15 1/2 pounds of buoyancy.

Type IV - A Type IV personal flotation device is an approved device designed to be thrown to a person in the water and not worn. It is designed to have at least 16 1/2 pounds of buoyancy.

Type V - A Type V personal flotation device is an approved device for restricted use and is acceptable only when used in the activity for which it is approved.

H. The provisions of subsections A through G of this Section shall not apply to sailboards.

I. No person may operate a watercraft under 26 feet in length unless a Type I, Type II, Type III, or Type V personal flotation device is being properly worn by each person under the age of 13 on board the watercraft at all times in which the watercraft is underway; however, this requirement shall not apply to persons who are below decks or in totally enclosed cabin spaces. The provisions of this subsection I shall not apply to a person operating a watercraft on private property.

J. Racing shells, rowing sculls, racing canoes, and racing kayaks are exempt from the PFD, of any type, carriage requirements under this Section provided that the racing shell, racing scull, racing canoe, or racing kayak is participating in an event sanctioned by the Department as a PFD optional event. The Department may adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 97-801, eff. 1-1-13; 98-567, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-5-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-469)

Sec. 4-1. Personal flotation devices.

A. No person may operate a watercraft unless at least one U.S. Coast Guard approved PFD is on board, so placed as to be readily available for each person.

B. No person may operate a personal watercraft or specialty prop-craft unless each person aboard is wearing a PFD approved by the United States Coast Guard. No person on board a personal watercraft shall use an inflatable PFD in order to meet the PFD requirements of subsection A of this Section.

C. No person may operate a watercraft 16 feet or more in length, except a canoe or kayak, unless at least one readily accessible United States Coast Guard approved throwable PFD is on board.

D. (Blank).

E. When assisting a person on water skis waterskis, aquaplane or similar device, there must be one wearable United States Coast Guard approved PFD on board the watercraft for each person being assisted or towed or worn by the person being assisted or towed.

F. No person may operate a watercraft unless each device required by this Section is:

1. in serviceable condition;

2. identified by a label bearing a description and approval number demonstrating that the device has been approved by the United States Coast Guard;

3. of the appropriate size for the person for whom it is intended; and

4. in the case of a wearable PFD, readily accessible aboard the watercraft;

5. in the case of a throwable throwabale PFD, immediately available for use;

6. out of its original packaging; and

7. not stowed under lock and key.

G. Approved personal flotation devices are defined as a device that is approved by the United States Coast Guard under Title 46 CFR Part 160.

H. (Blank).

I. No person may operate a watercraft under 26 feet in length unless an approved and appropriate sized United States Coast Guard personal flotation device is being properly worn by each person under the age of 13 on board the watercraft at all times in which the watercraft is underway; however, this requirement shall not apply to persons who are below decks or in totally enclosed cabin spaces. The provisions of this subsection I shall not apply to a person operating a watercraft on an individual's private property.

J. Racing shells, rowing sculls, racing canoes, and racing kayaks are exempt from the PFD, of any type, carriage requirements under this Section provided that the racing shell, racing scull, racing canoe, or racing kayak is participating in an event sanctioned by the Department as a PFD optional event. The Department may adopt rules to implement this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 100-469, eff. 6-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 555. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by changing Section 27.2 as follows:

(705 ILCS 105/27.2) (from Ch. 25, par. 27.2)

Sec. 27.2. The fees of the clerks of the circuit court in all counties having a population in excess of 500,000 inhabitants but less than 3,000,000 inhabitants in the instances described in this Section shall be as provided in this Section. In those instances where a minimum and maximum fee is stated, counties with more than 500,000 inhabitants but less than 3,000,000 inhabitants must charge the minimum fee listed in this Section and may charge up to the maximum fee if the county board has by resolution increased the fee. In addition, the minimum fees authorized in this Section shall apply to all units of local government and school districts in counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants. The fees shall be paid in advance and shall be as follows:

(a) Civil Cases.

With the following exceptions, the fee for filing a complaint, petition, or other pleading initiating a civil action shall be a minimum of $150 and shall be a maximum of $190 through December 31, 2021 and a maximum of $184 on and after January 1, 2022.

(A) When the amount of money or damages or the value of personal property claimed does not exceed $250, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15.

(B) When that amount exceeds $250 but does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(C) When that amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $2500, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50.

(D) When that amount exceeds $2500 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $100.

(D-5) When the amount exceeds $5,000 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $75 and a maximum of $150.

(E) For the exercise of eminent domain, $150. For each additional lot or tract of land or right or interest therein subject to be condemned, the damages in respect to which shall require separate assessment by a jury, $150.

(F) No fees shall be charged by the clerk to a petitioner in any order of protection including, but not limited to, filing, modifying, withdrawing, certifying, or photocopying petitions for orders of protection, or for issuing alias summons, or for any related filing service, certifying, modifying, vacating, or photocopying any orders of protection. (b) Eviction.

In each eviction case when the plaintiff seeks eviction only or unites with his or her claim for eviction a claim for rent or damages or both in the amount of $15,000 or less, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $75. When the plaintiff unites his or her claim for eviction with a claim for rent or damages or both exceeding $15,000, a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $225.

(c) Counterclaim or Joining Third Party Defendant.

When any defendant files a counterclaim as part of his or her answer or otherwise or joins another party as a third party defendant, or both, the defendant shall pay a fee for each counterclaim or third party action in an amount equal to the fee he or she would have had to pay had he or she brought a separate action for the relief sought in the counterclaim or against the third party defendant, less the amount of the appearance fee, if that has been paid.

(d) Confession of Judgment.

In a confession of judgment when the amount does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $60. When the amount exceeds $1500, but does not exceed $5,000, $75. When the amount exceeds $5,000, but does not exceed $15,000, $175. When the amount exceeds $15,000, a minimum of $200 and a maximum of $250.

(e) Appearance.

The fee for filing an appearance in each civil case shall be a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75, except as follows:

(A) When the plaintiff in an eviction case seeks eviction only, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When the amount in the case does not exceed $1500, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(C) When the amount in the case exceeds $1500 but does not exceed $15,000, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60.

(f) Garnishment, Wage Deduction, and Citation.

In garnishment affidavit, wage deduction affidavit, and citation petition when the amount does not exceed $1,000, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15; when the amount exceeds $1,000 but does not exceed $5,000, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $30; and when the amount exceeds $5,000, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50.

(g) Petition to Vacate or Modify.

(1) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except in eviction cases and small claims cases or a petition to reopen an estate, to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support, or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed before 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $50.

(2) Petition to vacate or modify any final judgment or order of court, except a petition to modify, terminate, or enforce a judgment or order for child or spousal support or to modify, suspend, or terminate an order for withholding, if filed later than 30 days after the entry of the judgment or order, a minimum of $60 and a maximum of $75.

(3) Petition to vacate order of bond forfeiture, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(h) Mailing.

When the clerk is required to mail, the fee will be a minimum of $6 and a maximum of $10, plus the cost of postage.

(i) Certified Copies.

Each certified copy of a judgment after the first, except in small claims and eviction cases, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $15.

(j) Habeas Corpus.

For filing a petition for relief by habeas corpus, a minimum of $80 and a maximum of $125.

(k) Certification, Authentication, and Reproduction.

(1) Each certification or authentication for taking the acknowledgment of a deed or other instrument in writing with the seal of office, a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6.

(2) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, under 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(3) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 100 pages, plus delivery and costs, a minimum of $120 and a maximum of $150.

(4) Court appeals when original documents are forwarded, over 200 pages, an additional fee of a minimum of 20 and a maximum of 25 cents per page.

(5) For reproduction of any document contained in the clerk's files:

(A) First page, $2.

(B) Next 19 pages, 50 cents per page.

(C) All remaining pages, 25 cents per page.

(l) Remands.

In any cases remanded to the Circuit Court from the Supreme Court or the Appellate Court for a new trial, the clerk shall file the remanding order and reinstate the case with either its original number or a new number. The Clerk shall not charge any new or additional fee for the reinstatement. Upon reinstatement the Clerk shall advise the parties of the reinstatement. A party shall have the same right to a jury trial on remand and reinstatement as he or she had before the appeal, and no additional or new fee or charge shall be made for a jury trial after remand.

(m) Record Search.

For each record search, within a division or municipal district, the clerk shall be entitled to a search fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6 for each year searched.

(n) Hard Copy.

For each page of hard copy print output, when case records are maintained on an automated medium, the clerk shall be entitled to a fee of a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $6.

(o) Index Inquiry and Other Records.

No fee shall be charged for a single plaintiff/defendant index inquiry or single case record inquiry when this request is made in person and the records are maintained in a current automated medium, and when no hard copy print output is requested. The fees to be charged for management records, multiple case records, and multiple journal records may be specified by the Chief Judge pursuant to the guidelines for access and dissemination of information approved by the Supreme Court.

(p) (Blank).

(q) Alias Summons.

For each alias summons or citation issued by the clerk, a minimum of $4 and a maximum of $5.

(r) Other Fees.

Any fees not covered in this Section shall be set by rule or administrative order of the Circuit Court with the approval of the Administrative Office of the Illinois Courts.

The clerk of the circuit court may provide additional services for which there is no fee specified by statute in connection with the operation of the clerk's office as may be requested by the public and agreed to by the clerk and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Any charges for additional services shall be as agreed to between the clerk and the party making the request and approved by the chief judge of the circuit court. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require any clerk to provide any service not otherwise required by law.

(s) Jury Services.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive, in addition to other fees allowed by law, the sum of a minimum of $192.50 and a maximum of $212.50, as a fee for the services of a jury in every civil action not quasi-criminal in its nature and not a proceeding for the exercise of the right of eminent domain and in every other action wherein the right of trial by jury is or may be given by law. The jury fee shall be paid by the party demanding a jury at the time of filing the jury demand. If the fee is not paid by either party, no jury shall be called in the action or proceeding, and the same shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(t) Voluntary Assignment.

For filing each deed of voluntary assignment, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20; for recording the same, a minimum of 25¢ and a maximum of 50¢ for each 100 words. Exceptions filed to claims presented to an assignee of a debtor who has made a voluntary assignment for the benefit of creditors shall be considered and treated, for the purpose of taxing costs therein, as actions in which the party or parties filing the exceptions shall be considered as party or parties plaintiff, and the claimant or claimants as party or parties defendant, and those parties respectively shall pay to the clerk the same fees as provided by this Section to be paid in other actions.

(u) Expungement Petition.

The clerk shall be entitled to receive a fee of a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $60 for each expungement petition filed and an additional fee of a minimum of $2 and a maximum of $4 for each certified copy of an order to expunge arrest records.

(v) Probate.

The clerk is entitled to receive the fees specified in this subsection (v), which shall be paid in advance, except that, for good cause shown, the court may suspend, reduce, or release the costs payable under this subsection:

(1) For administration of the estate of a decedent (whether testate or intestate) or of a missing person, a minimum of $100 and a maximum of $150, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) proof of heirship alone is made, (ii) a domestic or foreign will is admitted to probate without administration (including proof of heirship), or (iii) letters of office are issued for a particular purpose without administration of the estate, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(2) For administration of the estate of a ward, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75, plus the fees specified in subsection (v)(3), except:

(A) When the value of the real and personal property does not exceed $15,000, the fee shall be a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(B) When (i) letters of office are issued to a guardian of the person or persons, but not of the estate or (ii) letters of office are issued in the estate of a ward without administration of the estate, including filing or joining in the filing of a tax return or releasing a mortgage or consenting to the marriage of the ward, the fee shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(3) In addition to the fees payable under subsection (v)(1) or (v)(2) of this Section, the following fees are payable:

(A) For each account (other than one final account) filed in the estate of a decedent, or ward, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $25.

(B) For filing a claim in an estate when the amount claimed is $150 or more but less than $500, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20; when the amount claimed is $500 or more but less than $10,000, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40; when the amount claimed is $10,000 or more, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60; provided that the court in allowing a claim may add to the amount allowed the filing fee paid by the claimant.

(C) For filing in an estate a claim, petition, or supplemental proceeding based upon an action seeking equitable relief including the construction or contest of a will, enforcement of a contract to make a will, and proceedings involving testamentary trusts or the appointment of testamentary trustees, a minimum of $40 and a maximum of $60.

(D) For filing in an estate (i) the appearance of any person for the purpose of consent or (ii) the appearance of an executor, administrator, administrator to collect, guardian, guardian ad litem, or special administrator, no fee.

(E) Except as provided in subsection (v)(3)(D), for filing the appearance of any person or persons, a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $30.

(F) For each jury demand, a minimum of $102.50 and a maximum of $137.50.

(G) For disposition of the collection of a judgment or settlement of an action or claim for wrongful death of a decedent or of any cause of action of a ward, when there is no other administration of the estate, a minimum of $30 and a maximum of $50, less any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B) except that if the amount involved does not exceed $5,000, the fee, including any amount paid under subsection (v)(1)(B) or (v)(2)(B), shall be a minimum of $10 and a maximum of $20.

(H) For each certified copy of letters of office, of court order or other certification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus a minimum of 50¢ and a maximum of $1 per page in excess of 3 pages for the document certified.

(I) For each exemplification, a minimum of $1 and a maximum of $2, plus the fee for certification.

(4) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his or her attorney shall pay the cost of publication by the clerk directly to the newspaper.

(5) The person on whose behalf a charge is incurred for witness, court reporter, appraiser, or other miscellaneous fee shall pay the same directly to the person entitled thereto.

(6) The executor, administrator, guardian, petitioner, or other interested person or his attorney shall pay to the clerk all postage charges incurred by the clerk in mailing petitions, orders, notices, or other documents pursuant to the provisions of the Probate Act of 1975.

(w) Criminal and Quasi-Criminal Costs and Fees.

(1) The clerk shall be entitled to costs in all criminal and quasi-criminal cases from each person convicted or sentenced to supervision therein as follows:

(A) Felony complaints, a minimum of $80 and a maximum of $125.

(B) Misdemeanor complaints, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(C) Business offense complaints, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(D) Petty offense complaints, a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $75.

(E) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $20.

(F) When court appearance required, $30.

(G) Motions to vacate or amend final orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(H) Motions to vacate bond forfeiture orders, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $30.

(I) Motions to vacate ex parte judgments, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $30.

(J) Motions to vacate judgment on forfeitures, whenever filed, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $25.

(K) Motions to vacate "failure to appear" or "failure to comply" notices sent to the Secretary of State, a minimum of $20 and a maximum of $40.

(2) In counties having a population of more than 500,000 but fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, when the violation complaint is issued by a municipal police department, the clerk shall be entitled to costs from each person convicted therein as follows:

(A) Minor traffic or ordinance violations, $10.

(B) When court appearance required, $15.

(3) In ordinance violation cases punishable by fine only, the clerk of the circuit court shall be entitled to receive, unless the fee is excused upon a finding by the court that the defendant is indigent, in addition to other fees or costs allowed or imposed by law, the sum of a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $112.50 as a fee for the services of a jury. The jury fee shall be paid by the defendant at the time of filing his or her jury demand. If the fee is not so paid by the defendant, no jury shall be called, and the case shall be tried by the court without a jury.

(x) Transcripts of Judgment.

For the filing of a transcript of judgment, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(y) Change of Venue.

(1) For the filing of a change of case on a change of venue, the clerk shall be entitled to the same fee as if it were the commencement of a new suit.

(2) The fee for the preparation and certification of a record on a change of venue to another jurisdiction, when original documents are forwarded, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $40.

(z) Tax objection complaints.

For each tax objection complaint containing one or more tax objections, regardless of the number of parcels involved or the number of taxpayers joining in the complaint, a minimum of $25 and a maximum of $50.

(aa) Tax Deeds.

(1) Petition for tax deed, if only one parcel is involved, a minimum of $150 and a maximum of $250.

(2) For each additional parcel, add a fee of a minimum of $50 and a maximum of $100.

(bb) Collections.

(1) For all collections made of others, except the State and county and except in maintenance or child support cases, a sum equal to a minimum of 2.5% and a maximum of 3.0% of the amount collected and turned over.

(2) Interest earned on any funds held by the clerk shall be turned over to the county general fund as an earning of the office.

(3) For any check, draft, or other bank instrument returned to the clerk for non-sufficient funds, account closed, or payment stopped, $25.

(4) In child support and maintenance cases, the clerk, if authorized by an ordinance of the county board, may collect an annual fee of up to $36 from the person making payment for maintaining child support records and the processing of support orders to the State of Illinois KIDS system and the recording of payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. This fee shall be in addition to and separate from amounts ordered to be paid as maintenance or child support and shall be deposited into a Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund, of which the clerk shall be the custodian, ex officio ex-officio, to be used by the clerk to maintain child support orders and record all payments issued by the State Disbursement Unit for the official record of the Court. The clerk may recover from the person making the maintenance or child support payment any additional cost incurred in the collection of this annual fee.

The clerk shall also be entitled to a fee of $5 for certifications made to the Secretary of State as provided in Section 7-703 of the Family Financial Responsibility Law and these fees shall also be deposited into the Separate Maintenance and Child Support Collection Fund.

(cc) Corrections of Numbers.

For correction of the case number, case title, or attorney computer identification number, if required by rule of court, on any document filed in the clerk's office, to be charged against the party that filed the document, a minimum of $15 and a maximum of $25.

(dd) Exceptions.

The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to police departments or other law enforcement agencies. In this Section, "law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or a unit of local government which is vested by law or ordinance with the duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or ordinances. "Law enforcement agency" also means the Attorney General or any state's attorney. The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to any action instituted under subsection (b) of Section 11-31-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code by a private owner or tenant of real property within 1200 feet of a dangerous or unsafe building seeking an order compelling the owner or owners of the building to take any of the actions authorized under that subsection.

The fee requirements of this Section shall not apply to the filing of any commitment petition or petition for an order authorizing the administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(ee) Adoptions.

(1) For an adoption...............................$65

(2) Upon good cause shown, the court may waive the adoption filing fee in a special needs adoption. The term "special needs adoption" shall have the meaning ascribed to it by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(ff) Adoption exemptions.

No fee other than that set forth in subsection (ee) shall be charged to any person in connection with an adoption proceeding nor may any fee be charged for proceedings for the appointment of a confidential intermediary under the Adoption Act.

(gg) Unpaid fees.

Unless a court ordered payment schedule is implemented or the fee requirements of this Section are waived pursuant to court order, the clerk of the court may add to any unpaid fees and costs under this Section a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency amounts collected under this Section shall be used to defray additional administrative costs incurred by the clerk of the circuit court in collecting unpaid fees and costs.

(Source: P.A. 99-859, eff. 8-19-16; 100-173, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 560. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 1-3, 1-7, 2-10, 2-28, and 5-915 as follows:

(705 ILCS 405/1-3) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-3)

Sec. 1-3. Definitions. Terms used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, have the following meanings ascribed to them:

(1) "Adjudicatory hearing" means a hearing to determine whether the allegations of a petition under Section 2-13, 3-15 or 4-12 that a minor under 18 years of age is abused, neglected or dependent, or requires authoritative intervention, or addicted, respectively, are supported by a preponderance of the evidence or whether the allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt.

(2) "Adult" means a person 21 years of age or older.

(3) "Agency" means a public or private child care facility legally authorized or licensed by this State for placement or institutional care or for both placement and institutional care.

(4) "Association" means any organization, public or private, engaged in welfare functions which include services to or on behalf of children but does not include "agency" as herein defined.

(4.05) Whenever a "best interest" determination is required, the following factors shall be considered in the context of the child's age and developmental needs:

(a) the physical safety and welfare of the child, including food, shelter, health, and clothing;

(b) the development of the child's identity;

(c) the child's background and ties, including familial, cultural, and religious;

(d) the child's sense of attachments, including:

(i) where the child actually feels love, attachment, and a sense of being valued (as opposed to where adults believe the child should feel such love, attachment, and a sense of being valued);

(ii) the child's sense of security;

(iii) the child's sense of familiarity;

(iv) continuity of affection for the child;

(v) the least disruptive placement alternative for the child;

(e) the child's wishes and long-term goals;

(f) the child's community ties, including church, school, and friends;

(g) the child's need for permanence which includes the child's need for stability and continuity of relationships with parent figures and with siblings and other relatives;

(h) the uniqueness of every family and child;

(i) the risks attendant to entering and being in substitute care; and

(j) the preferences of the persons available to care for the child.

(4.1) "Chronic truant" shall have the definition ascribed to it in Section 26-2a of the School Code.

(5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act.

(6) "Dispositional hearing" means a hearing to determine whether a minor should be adjudged to be a ward of the court, and to determine what order of disposition should be made in respect to a minor adjudged to be a ward of the court.

(7) "Emancipated minor" means any minor 16 years of age or over who has been completely or partially emancipated under the Emancipation of Minors Act or under this Act.

(7.05) "Foster parent" includes a relative caregiver selected by the Department of Children and Family Services to provide care for the minor.

(8) "Guardianship of the person" of a minor means the duty and authority to act in the best interests of the minor, subject to residual parental rights and responsibilities, to make important decisions in matters having a permanent effect on the life and development of the minor and to be concerned with his or her general welfare. It includes but is not necessarily limited to:

(a) the authority to consent to marriage, to enlistment in the armed forces of the United States, or to a major medical, psychiatric, and surgical treatment; to represent the minor in legal actions; and to make other decisions of substantial legal significance concerning the minor;

(b) the authority and duty of reasonable visitation, except to the extent that these have been limited in the best interests of the minor by court order;

(c) the rights and responsibilities of legal custody except where legal custody has been vested in another person or agency; and

(d) the power to consent to the adoption of the minor, but only if expressly conferred on the guardian in accordance with Section 2-29, 3-30, or 4-27.

(9) "Legal custody" means the relationship created by an order of court in the best interests of the minor which imposes on the custodian the responsibility of physical possession of a minor and the duty to protect, train and discipline him and to provide him with food, shelter, education and ordinary medical care, except as these are limited by residual parental rights and responsibilities and the rights and responsibilities of the guardian of the person, if any.

(9.1) "Mentally capable adult relative" means a person 21 years of age or older who is not suffering from a mental illness that prevents him or her from providing the care necessary to safeguard the physical safety and welfare of a minor who is left in that person's care by the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare.

(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years subject to this Act.

(11) "Parent" means a father or mother of a child and includes any adoptive parent. It also includes a person (i) whose parentage is presumed or has been established under the law of this or another jurisdiction or (ii) who has registered with the Putative Father Registry in accordance with Section 12.1 of the Adoption Act and whose paternity has not been ruled out under the law of this or another jurisdiction. It does not include a parent whose rights in respect to the minor have been terminated in any manner provided by law. It does not include a person who has been or could be determined to be a parent under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, or similar parentage law in any other state, if that person has been convicted of or pled nolo contendere to a crime that resulted in the conception of the child under Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, subsection (a) or (b) (but not subsection (c)) of Section 11-1.50 or 12-15, or subsection (a), (b), (c), (e), or (f) (but not subsection (d)) of Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or similar statute in another jurisdiction unless upon motion of any party, other than the offender, to the juvenile court proceedings the court finds it is in the child's best interest to deem the offender a parent for purposes of the juvenile court proceedings.

(11.1) "Permanency goal" means a goal set by the court as defined in subdivision (2) of Section 2-28.

(11.2) "Permanency hearing" means a hearing to set the permanency goal and to review and determine (i) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (ii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iii) whether the plan and goal have been achieved.

(12) "Petition" means the petition provided for in Section 2-13, 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520, including any supplemental petitions thereunder in Section 3-15, 4-12 or 5-520.

(12.1) "Physically capable adult relative" means a person 21 years of age or older who does not have a severe physical disability or medical condition, or is not suffering from alcoholism or drug addiction, that prevents him or her from providing the care necessary to safeguard the physical safety and welfare of a minor who is left in that person's care by the parent or parents or other person responsible for the minor's welfare.

(12.2) "Post Permanency Sibling Contact Agreement" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(12.3) "Residential treatment center" means a licensed setting that provides 24-hour 24 hour care to children in a group home or institution, including a facility licensed as a child care institution under Section 2.06 of the Child Care Act of 1969, a licensed group home under Section 2.16 of the Child Care Act of 1969, a secure child care facility as defined in paragraph (18) of this Section, or any similar facility in another state. "Residential treatment center" does not include a relative foster home or a licensed foster family home.

(13) "Residual parental rights and responsibilities" means those rights and responsibilities remaining with the parent after the transfer of legal custody or guardianship of the person, including, but not necessarily limited to, the right to reasonable visitation (which may be limited by the court in the best interests of the minor as provided in subsection (8)(b) of this Section), the right to consent to adoption, the right to determine the minor's religious affiliation, and the responsibility for his support.

(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in physically unrestricting facilities pending court disposition or execution of court order for placement.

(14.05) "Shelter placement" means a temporary or emergency placement for a minor, including an emergency foster home placement.

(14.1) "Sibling Contact Support Plan" has the meaning ascribed to the term in Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act.

(15) "Station adjustment" means the informal handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police officer.

(16) "Ward of the court" means a minor who is so adjudged under Section 2-22, 3-23, 4-20 or 5-705, after a finding of the requisite jurisdictional facts, and thus is subject to the dispositional powers of the court under this Act.

(17) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course, has been assigned to the position of juvenile police officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has completed the necessary juvenile officers training as prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer, juvenile officer training approved by the Director of the Department of State Police.

(18) "Secure child care facility" means any child care facility licensed by the Department of Children and Family Services to provide secure living arrangements for children under 18 years of age who are subject to placement in facilities under the Children and Family Services Act and who are not subject to placement in facilities for whom standards are established by the Department of Corrections under Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. "Secure child care facility" also means a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that all entrances and exits from the facility, a building, or a distinct part of the building are under the exclusive control of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility, building, or distinct part of the building.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 100-136, eff. 8-8-17; 100-229, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-10-17.)

(705 ILCS 405/1-7) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-7)

Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of law enforcement and municipal ordinance violation records.

(A) All juvenile records which have not been expunged are sealed and may never be disclosed to the general public or otherwise made widely available. Sealed records may be obtained only under this Section and Sections Section 1-8 and 5-915 of this Act, when their use is needed for good cause and with an order from the juvenile court, as required by those not authorized to retain them. Inspection and copying of law enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies or records of municipal ordinance violations maintained by any State, local, or municipal agency that relate to a minor who has been investigated, arrested, or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday shall be restricted to the following:

(1) Any local, State, or federal law enforcement officers of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for the discharge of their official duties during the investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary for the discharge of its official duties in connection with a particular investigation of the conduct of a law enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section, "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(2) Prosecutors, probation officers, social workers, or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court, when essential to performing their responsibilities.

(3) Prosecutors and probation officers:

(a) in the course of a trial when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805; or

(b) when institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of bail; or

(c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an application for probation.

(4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.

(5) Authorized military personnel.

(6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the permission of the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court and the chief executive of the respective law enforcement agency; provided that publication of such research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the confidentiality of the minor's record.

(7) Department of Children and Family Services child protection investigators acting in their official capacity.

(8) The appropriate school official only if the agency or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who are present in the school or on school grounds.

(A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by a local law enforcement agency under a reciprocal reporting system established and maintained between the school district and the local law enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school within the school district who has been arrested or taken into custody for any of the following offenses:

(i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act;

(iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;

(iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;

(v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

(vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;

(vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or

(viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2, 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5, 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

The information derived from the law enforcement records shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of that child and shall not be a public record. The information shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the safety of students and employees in the school. If the designated law enforcement and school officials deem it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student may be referred to in-school or community based social services if those services are available. "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility for special education, referrals to community-based agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed appropriate for the student.

(B) Any information provided to appropriate school officials whom the school has determined to have a legitimate educational or safety interest by local law enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation that is directly related to school safety shall consist of oral information only, and not written law enforcement records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate school official or officials to protect the safety of students and employees in the school and aid in the proper rehabilitation of the child. The information derived orally from the local law enforcement officials shall be kept separate from and shall not become a part of the official school record of the child and shall not be a public record. This limitation on the use of information about a minor who is the subject of a current police investigation shall in no way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in pursuing criminal charges arising out of the information disclosed during a police investigation of the minor. For purposes of this paragraph, "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected criminal activity.

(9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating, prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law enforcement records sought. Any records and any information obtained from those records under this paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons commitment proceedings.

(10) The president of a park district. Inspection and copying shall be limited to law enforcement records transmitted to the president of the park district by the Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c) of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c) of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.

(B)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly transmit to the Department of Corrections or the Department of State Police or to the Federal Bureau of Investigation any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act authorizes the transmission or enters an order under Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of criminal proceedings.

(2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or agencies shall transmit to the Department of State Police copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who have been arrested or taken into custody before their 18th birthday for the offense of unlawful use of weapons under Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information reported to the Department pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken into custody or arrested before his or her 18th birthday for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph (2).

(C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18 years of age must be maintained separate from the records of arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their contents disclosed to the public. For purposes of obtaining documents under this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of the court.

(1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor whose records are sought.

(2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.

(3) In determining whether the records should be available for inspection, the court shall consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation over the moving party's interest in obtaining the information. Any records obtained in violation of this subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from subsequently holding public office or securing employment, or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or right to receive any license granted by public authority.

(D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation or prosecution of any crime.

(E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any minor in releasing information to the general public as to the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a minor.

(F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum, teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person under 18 years of age if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement officers. The information provided under this subsection (F) shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.

(G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state, county or municipality examining the character and fitness of an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency, correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining and examining the records of any law enforcement agency relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or taken into custody before the applicant's 18th birthday.

(H) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to law enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(I) Willful violation of this Section is a Class C misdemeanor and each violation is subject to a fine of $1,000. This subsection (I) shall not apply to the person who is the subject of the record.

(J) A person convicted of violating this Section is liable for damages in the amount of $1,000 or actual damages, whichever is greater.

(Source: P.A. 99-298, eff. 8-6-15; 100-285, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)

Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing, all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in the petition.

(1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent it shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.

(2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent, the court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its finding and the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. The Department of Children and Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware of through the central registry, involving the minor's parent, guardian or custodian. After such testimony, the court may, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the request of parent, guardian or custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take custody. If it is determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may enter an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall begin anew after any violation. "Custodian" includes the Department of Children and Family Services, if it has been given custody of the child, or any other agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in a shelter care facility designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency; however, on and after January 1, 2015 (the effective date of Public Act 98-803) and before January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 16 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists; and on and after January 1, 2017, a minor charged with a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.

In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In determining the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety and protection of the minor or of the person or property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home. The court shall require documentation from the Department of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her home or the reasons why no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative, the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a preliminary background review of the members of the minor's custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to have telephone and mail communication with the parents.

Where the Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care, the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are being made to place them together. If the Department has determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is developed.

For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan. Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion, request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency, duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of Department personnel. Child development principles shall be considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting plan, sibling placement or contact plan or subsequently developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting discretionary authority to the Department to increase opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order, where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe that continuation of the contact, as set out in the plan, would be contrary to the child's health, safety, and welfare. The Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays, of the change of the visitation.

Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order and written findings in the case record for the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.

Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the protection of the minor.

If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the Department of Children and Family Services for his or her protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative that the parents must cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services, comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk termination of their parental rights. The court shall ensure, by inquiring in open court of each parent, guardian, custodian or responsible relative, that the parent, guardian, custodian or responsible relative has had the opportunity to provide the Department with all known names, addresses, and telephone numbers of each of the minor's living maternal and paternal adult relatives, including, but not limited to, grandparents, aunts, uncles, and siblings. The court shall advise the parents, guardian, custodian or responsible relative to inform the Department if additional information regarding the minor's adult relatives becomes available.

(3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the moving party is unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter care hearing may proceed ex parte. A shelter care order from an ex parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last known address of the other person or persons entitled to notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State, including whether temporary custody is sought, and the consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice that the parties will not be entitled to further written notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN

OF SHELTER CARE HEARING

On ................ at ........., before the Honorable ................, (address:) ................., the State of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or children) ....................... are abused, neglected or dependent for the following reasons:

.............................................. and (2) whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of proceedings in this case, including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.

At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following rights:

1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot afford one.

2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow them time to prepare.

3. To present evidence concerning:

a. Whether or not the child or children were abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove the child from home (including: their ability to care for the child, conditions in the home, alternative means of protecting the child other than removal).

c. The best interests of the child.

4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.

The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY

If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of ............... was awarded to ................, you have the right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should have temporary custody of ................. To request this rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court (address): ........................, in person or by mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:

1. That you were not present at the shelter care hearing.

2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how the notice was inadequate).

3. Your signature.

4. Signature must be notarized.

The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of your filing this affidavit.

At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains those rights.

At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following rights:

1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.

2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present testimony concerning:

a. Whether they are abused, neglected or dependent.

b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to be removed from home.

c. Their best interests.

3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.

4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and orders of the court.

(4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.

(5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection (3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).

(6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant to the criminal law.

(7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor must immediately be released from custody.

(8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the same time the probation department shall prepare a report on the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare agency.

(9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any interested party, including the State, the temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice, may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:

(a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or

(b) There is a material change in the circumstances of the natural family from which the minor was removed and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety; or

(c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect or dependency, including a parent, relative or legal guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the minor; or

(d) Services provided by the Department of Children and Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service provider have been successful in eliminating the need for temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home without endangering the child's health or safety.

In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order.

The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than 14 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the minor and his or her family.

(10) When the court finds or has found that there is probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as the abused minor provided:

(a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or neglect petition pending before the court; and

(b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for such other minor.

Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing shelter care for the other minor.

(11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply to a minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).

(Source: P.A. 99-625, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-159, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-5-17.)

(705 ILCS 405/2-28) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-28)

Sec. 2-28. Court review.

(1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian of the person appointed under this Act to report periodically to the court or may cite him into court and require him or his agency, to make a full and accurate report of his or its doings in behalf of the minor. The custodian or guardian, within 10 days after such citation, or earlier if the court determines it to be necessary to protect the health, safety, or welfare of the minor, shall make the report, either in writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of the report the court may remove the custodian or guardian and appoint another in his stead or restore the minor to the custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian. However, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or safety and it is in the best interests of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor.

(1.5) The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor shall file a written report with the court no later than 15 days after a minor in the agency's care remains:

(1) in a shelter placement beyond 30 days;

(2) in a psychiatric hospital past the time when the minor is clinically ready for discharge or beyond medical necessity for the minor's health; or

(3) in a detention center or Department of Juvenile Justice facility solely because the public agency cannot find an appropriate placement for the minor.

The report shall explain the steps the agency is taking to ensure the minor is placed appropriately, how the minor's needs are being met in the minor's shelter placement, and if a future placement has been identified by the Department, why the anticipated placement is appropriate for the needs of the minor and the anticipated placement date.

(2) The first permanency hearing shall be conducted by the judge. Subsequent permanency hearings may be heard by a judge or by hearing officers appointed or approved by the court in the manner set forth in Section 2-28.1 of this Act. The initial hearing shall be held (a) within 12 months from the date temporary custody was taken, regardless of whether an adjudication or dispositional hearing has been completed within that time frame, (b) if the parental rights of both parents have been terminated in accordance with the procedure described in subsection (5) of Section 2-21, within 30 days of the order for termination of parental rights and appointment of a guardian with power to consent to adoption, or (c) in accordance with subsection (2) of Section 2-13.1. Subsequent permanency hearings shall be held every 6 months or more frequently if necessary in the court's determination following the initial permanency hearing, in accordance with the standards set forth in this Section, until the court determines that the plan and goal have been achieved. Once the plan and goal have been achieved, if the minor remains in substitute care, the case shall be reviewed at least every 6 months thereafter, subject to the provisions of this Section, unless the minor is placed in the guardianship of a suitable relative or other person and the court determines that further monitoring by the court does not further the health, safety or best interest of the child and that this is a stable permanent placement. The permanency hearings must occur within the time frames set forth in this subsection and may not be delayed in anticipation of a report from any source or due to the agency's failure to timely file its written report (this written report means the one required under the next paragraph and does not mean the service plan also referred to in that paragraph).

The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the minor, or another agency responsible for the minor's care, shall ensure that all parties to the permanency hearings are provided a copy of the most recent service plan prepared within the prior 6 months at least 14 days in advance of the hearing. If not contained in the agency's service plan, the agency shall also include a report setting forth (i) any special physical, psychological, educational, medical, emotional, or other needs of the minor or his or her family that are relevant to a permanency or placement determination and (ii) for any minor age 16 or over, a written description of the programs and services that will enable the minor to prepare for independent living. If not contained in the agency's service plan, the agency's report shall specify if a minor is placed in a licensed child care facility under a corrective plan by the Department due to concerns impacting the minor's safety and well-being. The report shall explain the steps the Department is taking to ensure the safety and well-being of the minor and that the minor's needs are met in the facility. The agency's written report must detail what progress or lack of progress the parent has made in correcting the conditions requiring the child to be in care; whether the child can be returned home without jeopardizing the child's health, safety, and welfare, and if not, what permanency goal is recommended to be in the best interests of the child, and why the other permanency goals are not appropriate. The caseworker must appear and testify at the permanency hearing. If a permanency hearing has not previously been scheduled by the court, the moving party shall move for the setting of a permanency hearing and the entry of an order within the time frames set forth in this subsection.

At the permanency hearing, the court shall determine the future status of the child. The court shall set one of the following permanency goals:

(A) The minor will be returned home by a specific date within 5 months.

(B) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home within a period not to exceed one year, where the progress of the parent or parents is substantial giving particular consideration to the age and individual needs of the minor.

(B-1) The minor will be in short-term care with a continued goal to return home pending a status hearing. When the court finds that a parent has not made reasonable efforts or reasonable progress to date, the court shall identify what actions the parent and the Department must take in order to justify a finding of reasonable efforts or reasonable progress and shall set a status hearing to be held not earlier than 9 months from the date of adjudication nor later than 11 months from the date of adjudication during which the parent's progress will again be reviewed.

(C) The minor will be in substitute care pending court determination on termination of parental rights.

(D) Adoption, provided that parental rights have been terminated or relinquished.

(E) The guardianship of the minor will be transferred to an individual or couple on a permanent basis provided that goals (A) through (D) have been ruled out.

(F) The minor over age 15 will be in substitute care pending independence.

(G) The minor will be in substitute care because he or she cannot be provided for in a home environment due to developmental disabilities or mental illness or because he or she is a danger to self or others, provided that goals (A) through (D) have been ruled out.

In selecting any permanency goal, the court shall indicate in writing the reasons the goal was selected and why the preceding goals were ruled out. Where the court has selected a permanency goal other than (A), (B), or (B-1), the Department of Children and Family Services shall not provide further reunification services, but shall provide services consistent with the goal selected.

(H) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Section, the court may select the goal of continuing foster care as a permanency goal if:

(1) The Department of Children and Family Services has custody and guardianship of the minor;

(2) The court has ruled out all other permanency goals based on the child's best interest;

(3) The court has found compelling reasons, based on written documentation reviewed by the court, to place the minor in continuing foster care. Compelling reasons include:

(a) the child does not wish to be adopted or to be placed in the guardianship of his or her relative or foster care placement;

(b) the child exhibits an extreme level of need such that the removal of the child from his or her placement would be detrimental to the child; or

(c) the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing has existing close and strong bonds with a sibling, and achievement of another permanency goal would substantially interfere with the subject child's sibling relationship, taking into consideration the nature and extent of the relationship, and whether ongoing contact is in the subject child's best interest, including long-term emotional interest, as compared with the legal and emotional benefit of permanence;

(4) The child has lived with the relative or foster parent for at least one year; and

(5) The relative or foster parent currently caring for the child is willing and capable of providing the child with a stable and permanent environment.

The court shall set a permanency goal that is in the best interest of the child. In determining that goal, the court shall consult with the minor in an age-appropriate manner regarding the proposed permanency or transition plan for the minor. The court's determination shall include the following factors:

(1) Age of the child.

(2) Options available for permanence, including both out-of-State and in-State placement options.

(3) Current placement of the child and the intent of the family regarding adoption.

(4) Emotional, physical, and mental status or condition of the child.

(5) Types of services previously offered and whether or not the services were successful and, if not successful, the reasons the services failed.

(6) Availability of services currently needed and whether the services exist.

(7) Status of siblings of the minor.

The court shall consider (i) the permanency goal contained in the service plan, (ii) the appropriateness of the services contained in the plan and whether those services have been provided, (iii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and (iv) whether the plan and goal have been achieved. All evidence relevant to determining these questions, including oral and written reports, may be admitted and may be relied on to the extent of their probative value.

The court shall make findings as to whether, in violation of Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, any portion of the service plan compels a child or parent to engage in any activity or refrain from any activity that is not reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect. The services contained in the service plan shall include services reasonably related to remedy the conditions that gave rise to removal of the child from the home of his or her parents, guardian, or legal custodian or that the court has found must be remedied prior to returning the child home. Any tasks the court requires of the parents, guardian, or legal custodian or child prior to returning the child home, must be reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that gave rise to or which could give rise to any finding of child abuse or neglect.

If the permanency goal is to return home, the court shall make findings that identify any problems that are causing continued placement of the children away from the home and identify what outcomes would be considered a resolution to these problems. The court shall explain to the parents that these findings are based on the information that the court has at that time and may be revised, should additional evidence be presented to the court.

The court shall review the Sibling Contact Support Plan developed or modified under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, if applicable. If the Department has not convened a meeting to develop or modify a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or if the court finds that the existing Plan is not in the child's best interest, the court may enter an order requiring the Department to develop, modify or implement a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or order mediation.

If the goal has been achieved, the court shall enter orders that are necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to those findings.

If, after receiving evidence, the court determines that the services contained in the plan are not reasonably calculated to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court also shall enter an order for the Department to develop and implement a new service plan or to implement changes to the current service plan consistent with the court's findings. The new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on all parties within 45 days of the date of the order. The court shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed. Except as authorized by subsection (2.5) of this Section and as otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is not empowered under this Section to order specific placements, specific services, or specific service providers to be included in the service plan.

A guardian or custodian appointed by the court pursuant to this Act shall file updated case plans with the court every 6 months.

Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.

(2.5) If, after reviewing the evidence, including evidence from the Department, the court determines that the minor's current or planned placement is not necessary or appropriate to facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall put in writing the factual basis supporting its determination and enter specific findings based on the evidence. If the court finds that the minor's current or planned placement is not necessary or appropriate, the court may enter an order directing the Department to implement a recommendation by the minor's treating clinician or a clinician contracted by the Department to evaluate the minor or a recommendation made by the Department. If the Department places a minor in a placement under an order entered under this subsection (2.5), the Department has the authority to remove the minor from that placement when a change in circumstances necessitates the removal to protect the minor's health, safety, and best interest. If the Department determines removal is necessary, the Department shall notify the parties of the planned placement change in writing no later than 10 days prior to the implementation of its determination unless remaining in the placement poses an imminent risk of harm to the minor, in which case the Department shall notify the parties of the placement change in writing immediately following the implementation of its decision. The Department shall notify others of the decision to change the minor's placement as required by Department rule.

(3) Following the permanency hearing, the court shall enter a written order that includes the determinations required under subsection (2) of this Section and sets forth the following:

(a) The future status of the minor, including the permanency goal, and any order necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and status to such determination; or

(b) If the permanency goal of the minor cannot be achieved immediately, the specific reasons for continuing the minor in the care of the Department of Children and Family Services or other agency for short term placement, and the following determinations:

(i) (Blank).

(ii) Whether the services required by the court and by any service plan prepared within the prior 6 months have been provided and (A) if so, whether the services were reasonably calculated to facilitate the achievement of the permanency goal or (B) if not provided, why the services were not provided.

(iii) Whether the minor's current or planned placement current or planned is necessary, and appropriate to the plan and goal, recognizing the right of minors to the least restrictive (most family-like) setting available and in close proximity to the parents' home consistent with the health, safety, best interest and special needs of the minor and, if the minor is placed out-of-State, whether the out-of-State placement continues to be appropriate and consistent with the health, safety, and best interest of the minor.

(iv) (Blank).

(v) (Blank).

(4) The minor or any person interested in the minor may apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for the restoration of the minor to the custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian.

When return home is not selected as the permanency goal:

(a) The Department, the minor, or the current foster parent or relative caregiver seeking private guardianship may file a motion for private guardianship of the minor. Appointment of a guardian under this Section requires approval of the court.

(b) The State's Attorney may file a motion to terminate parental rights of any parent who has failed to make reasonable efforts to correct the conditions which led to the removal of the child or reasonable progress toward the return of the child, as defined in subdivision (D)(m) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act or for whom any other unfitness ground for terminating parental rights as defined in subdivision (D) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act exists.

When parental rights have been terminated for a minimum of 3 years and the child who is the subject of the permanency hearing is 13 years old or older and is not currently placed in a placement likely to achieve permanency, the Department of Children and Family Services shall make reasonable efforts to locate parents whose rights have been terminated, except when the Court determines that those efforts would be futile or inconsistent with the subject child's best interests. The Department of Children and Family Services shall assess the appropriateness of the parent whose rights have been terminated, and shall, as appropriate, foster and support connections between the parent whose rights have been terminated and the youth. The Department of Children and Family Services shall document its determinations and efforts to foster connections in the child's case plan.

Custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent, guardian or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and it is in the best interest of the minor, and if such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of the health, safety and best interest of the minor and the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for the minor and the court enters an order that such parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor. In the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order terminating his guardianship or custody, guardianship or custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without his consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by the court.

When the court orders a child restored to the custody of the parent or parents, the court shall order the parent or parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan, or risk the loss of custody of the child and possible termination of their parental rights. The court may also enter an order of protective supervision in accordance with Section 2-24.

(5) Whenever a parent, guardian, or legal custodian files a motion for restoration of custody of the minor, and the minor was adjudicated neglected, abused, or dependent as a result of physical abuse, the court shall cause to be made an investigation as to whether the movant has ever been charged with or convicted of any criminal offense which would indicate the likelihood of any further physical abuse to the minor. Evidence of such criminal convictions shall be taken into account in determining whether the minor can be cared for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and fitness of the parent, guardian, or legal custodian.

(a) Any agency of this State or any subdivision thereof shall co-operate with the agent of the court in providing any information sought in the investigation.

(b) The information derived from the investigation and any conclusions or recommendations derived from the information shall be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian seeking restoration of custody prior to the hearing on fitness and the movant shall have an opportunity at the hearing to refute the information or contest its significance.

(c) All information obtained from any investigation shall be confidential as provided in Section 5-150 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-45, eff. 8-11-17; 100-136, eff. 8-18-17; 100-229, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-10-17.)

(705 ILCS 405/5-915)

Sec. 5-915. Expungement of juvenile law enforcement and court records.

(0.05) For purposes of this Section:

"Dissemination" or "disseminate" means to publish, produce, print, manufacture, distribute, sell, lease, exhibit, broadcast, display, transmit, or otherwise share information in any format so as to make the information accessible to others.

"Expunge" means to physically destroy the records and to obliterate the minor's name and juvenile court records from any official index, public record, or electronic database. No evidence of the juvenile court records may be retained by any law enforcement agency, the juvenile court, or by any municipal, county, or State agency or department. Nothing in this Act shall require the physical destruction of the internal office records, files, or databases maintained by a State's Attorney's Office or other prosecutor or by the Office of the Secretary of State.

"Juvenile court record" includes, but is not limited to:

(a) all documents filed in or maintained by the juvenile court pertaining to a specific incident, proceeding, or individual;

(b) all documents relating to a specific incident, proceeding, or individual made available to or maintained by probation officers;

(c) all documents, video or audio tapes, photographs, and exhibits admitted into evidence at juvenile court hearings; or

(d) all documents, transcripts, records, reports or other evidence prepared by, maintained by, or released by any municipal, county, or State state agency or department, in any format, if indicating involvement with the juvenile court relating to a specific incident, proceeding, or individual.

"Law enforcement record" includes, but is not limited to, records of arrest, station adjustments, fingerprints, probation adjustments, the issuance of a notice to appear, or any other records or documents maintained by any law enforcement agency relating to a minor suspected of committing an offense or evidence of interaction with law enforcement.

(0.1) (a) The Department of State Police and all law enforcement agencies within the State shall automatically expunge, on or before January 1 of each year, all law enforcement records relating to events occurring before an individual's 18th birthday if:

(1) one year or more has elapsed since the date of the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records;

(2) no petition for delinquency or criminal charges were filed with the clerk of the circuit court relating to the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records; and

(3) 6 months have elapsed without an additional subsequent arrest or filing of a petition for delinquency or criminal charges whether related or not to the arrest or law enforcement interaction documented in the records.

(b) If the law enforcement agency is unable to verify satisfaction of conditions (2) and (3) of this subsection (0.1), records that satisfy condition (1) of this subsection (0.1) shall be automatically expunged if the records relate to an offense that if committed by an adult would not be an offense classified as Class 2 felony or higher, an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012, or an offense under Section 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961.

(0.2) (a) Upon dismissal of a petition alleging delinquency or upon a finding of not delinquent, the successful termination of an order of supervision, or an adjudication for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult, the court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile court and law enforcement records within 60 business days.

(b) If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or his or her designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed for a pending investigation involving the commission of a felony, that information, and information identifying the juvenile, may be retained in an intelligence file until the investigation is terminated or for one additional year, whichever is sooner. Retention of a portion of a juvenile's law enforcement record does not disqualify the remainder of his or her record from immediate automatic expungement.

(0.3) (a) Upon an adjudication of delinquency based on any offense except a disqualified offense, the juvenile court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile records 2 years after the juvenile's case was closed if no delinquency or criminal proceeding is pending and the person has had no subsequent delinquency adjudication or criminal conviction. The court shall automatically order the expungement of the juvenile court and law enforcement records within 60 business days. For the purposes of this subsection (0.3), "disqualified offense" means any of the following offenses: Section 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 12-2, 12-3.05, 12-3.3, 12-4.4a, 12-5.02, 12-6.2, 12-6.5, 12-7.1, 12-7.5, 12-20.5, 12-32, 12-33, 12-34, 12-34.5, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-6, 19-3, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.5, 24-3A, 24-3B, 24-3.2, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 29D-14.9, 29D-20, 30-1, 31-1a, 32-4a, or 33A-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or subsection (b) of Section 8-1, paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 11-14.4, subsection (a-5) of Section 12-3.1, paragraph (1), (2), or (3) of subsection (a) of Section 12-6, subsection (a-3) or (a-5) of Section 12-7.3, paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of Section 12-7.4, subparagraph (i) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 12-9, subparagraph (H) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6, paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 25-1, or subsection (a-7) of Section 31-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(b) If the chief law enforcement officer of the agency, or his or her designee, certifies in writing that certain information is needed for a pending investigation involving the commission of a felony, that information, and information identifying the juvenile, may be retained in an intelligence file until the investigation is terminated or for one additional year, whichever is sooner. Retention of a portion of a juvenile's law enforcement record does not disqualify the remainder of his or her record from immediate automatic expungement.

(1) Nothing in this subsection (1) precludes an eligible minor from obtaining expungement under subsection subsections (0.1), (0.2), or (0.3). Whenever a person has been arrested, charged, or adjudicated delinquent for an incident occurring before his or her 18th birthday that if committed by an adult would be an offense, and that person's records are not eligible for automatic expungement under subsection subsections (0.1), (0.2), or (0.3), the person may petition the court at any time for expungement of law enforcement records and juvenile court records relating to the incident and, upon termination of all juvenile court proceedings relating to that incident, the court shall order the expungement of all records in the possession of the Department of State Police, the clerk of the circuit court, and law enforcement agencies relating to the incident, but only in any of the following circumstances:

(a) the minor was arrested and no petition for delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court;

(a-5) the minor was charged with an offense and the petition or petitions were dismissed without a finding of delinquency;

(b) the minor was charged with an offense and was found not delinquent of that offense;

(c) the minor was placed under supervision pursuant to Section 5-615, and the order of supervision has since been successfully terminated; or

(d) the minor was adjudicated for an offense which would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a petty or business offense if committed by an adult.

(1.5) January 1, 2015 (Public Act 98-637) The Department of State Police shall allow a person to use the Access and Review process, established in the Department of State Police, for verifying that his or her law enforcement records relating to incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday eligible under this Act have been expunged.

(1.6) (Blank). January 1, 2015 (Public Act 98-637) January 1, 2015 (Public Act 98-637)

(1.7) (Blank).

(1.8) (Blank).

(2) Any person whose delinquency adjudications are not eligible for automatic expungement under subsection (0.3) of this Section may petition the court to expunge all law enforcement records relating to any incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday which did not result in proceedings in criminal court and all juvenile court records with respect to any adjudications except those based upon first degree murder or an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act; provided that:

(a) (blank); or

(b) 2 years have elapsed since all juvenile court proceedings relating to him or her have been terminated and his or her commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice under this Act has been terminated.

(2.5) If a minor is arrested and no petition for delinquency is filed with the clerk of the circuit court at the time the minor is released from custody, the youth officer, if applicable, or other designated person from the arresting agency, shall notify verbally and in writing to the minor or the minor's parents or guardians that the minor shall have an arrest record and shall provide the minor and the minor's parents or guardians with an expungement information packet, information regarding this State's expungement laws including a petition to expunge juvenile records obtained from the clerk of the circuit court.

(2.6) If a minor is referred to court then at the time of sentencing or dismissal of the case, or successful completion of supervision, the judge shall inform the delinquent minor of his or her rights regarding expungement and the clerk of the circuit court shall provide an expungement information packet to the minor, written in plain language, including information regarding this State's expungement laws and a petition for expungement, a sample of a completed petition, expungement instructions that shall include information informing the minor that (i) once the case is expunged, it shall be treated as if it never occurred, (ii) he or she may apply to have petition fees waived, (iii) once he or she obtains an expungement, he or she may not be required to disclose that he or she had a juvenile record, and (iv) if petitioning he or she may file the petition on his or her own or with the assistance of an attorney. The failure of the judge to inform the delinquent minor of his or her right to petition for expungement as provided by law does not create a substantive right, nor is that failure grounds for: (i) a reversal of an adjudication of delinquency, (ii) a new trial; or (iii) an appeal.

(2.7) (Blank).

(2.8) The petition for expungement for subsection (1) and (2) may include multiple offenses on the same petition and shall be substantially in the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ......, ILLINOIS

........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 1 AND 2)) Now comes ............., petitioner, and respectfully requests that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all juvenile law enforcement and court records of petitioner and in support thereof states that: Petitioner was arrested on ..... by the ....... Police Department for the offense or offenses of ......., and:

(Check All That Apply:)

( ) a. no petition or petitions were filed with the Clerk of the Circuit Court. ( ) b. was charged with ...... and was found not delinquent of the offense or offenses. ( ) c. a petition or petitions were filed and the petition or petitions were dismissed without a finding of delinquency on ..... ( ) d. on ....... placed under supervision pursuant to Section 5-615 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and such order of supervision successfully terminated on ........ ( ) e. was adjudicated for the offense or offenses, which would have been a Class B misdemeanor, a Class C misdemeanor, or a petty offense or business offense if committed by an adult. ( ) f. was adjudicated for a Class A misdemeanor or felony, except first degree murder or an offense under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration Act, and 2 years have passed since the case was closed.

Petitioner .... has .... has not been arrested on charges in this or any county other than the charges listed above. If petitioner has been arrested on additional charges, please list the charges below:

Charge(s): ...... Arresting Agency or Agencies: ........... Disposition/Result: (choose from a. through f., above): .....

WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all records of petitioner to this incident or incidents, and (2) to order the Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning the petitioner regarding this incident or incidents.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

..........................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the statements in this petition are true and correct, or on information and belief I believe the same to be true.

......................

Petitioner (Signature)

first degree

(3) The chief judge of the circuit in which an arrest was made or a charge was brought or any judge of that circuit designated by the chief judge may, upon verified petition of a person who is the subject of an arrest or a juvenile court proceeding under subsection (1) or (2) of this Section, order the law enforcement records or official court file, or both, to be expunged from the official records of the arresting authority, the clerk of the circuit court and the Department of State Police. The person whose records are to be expunged shall petition the court using the appropriate form containing his or her current address and shall promptly notify the clerk of the circuit court of any change of address. Notice of the petition shall be served upon the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police, and the arresting agency or agencies by the clerk of the circuit court. If an objection is filed within 45 days of the notice of the petition, the clerk of the circuit court shall set a date for hearing after the 45-day objection period. At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the expungement should or should not be granted. Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, or an arresting agency objects to the expungement within 45 days of the notice, the court may enter an order granting expungement. The clerk shall forward a certified copy of the order to the Department of State Police and deliver a certified copy of the order to the arresting agency.

(3.1) The Notice of Expungement shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

NOTICE TO: State's Attorney TO: Arresting Agency

................ ................

................ ................

TO: Illinois State Police

.....................

.....................

ATTENTION: Expungement

You are hereby notified that on ....., at ....., in courtroom ..., located at ..., before the Honorable ..., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead, I shall then and there present a Petition to Expunge Juvenile records in the above-entitled matter, at which time and place you may appear.

......................

Petitioner's Signature

...........................

Petitioner's Street Address

.....................

City, State, Zip Code

.............................

Petitioner's Telephone Number

PROOF OF SERVICE On the ....... day of ......, 20..., I on oath state that I served this notice and true and correct copies of the above-checked documents by: (Check One:) delivering copies personally to each entity to whom they are directed; or by mailing copies to each entity to whom they are directed by depositing the same in the U.S. Mail, proper postage fully prepaid, before the hour of 5:00 p.m., at the United States Postal Depository located at .................

.........................................

Signature

Clerk of the Circuit Court or Deputy Clerk

Printed Name of Delinquent Minor/Petitioner: .... Address: ........................................ Telephone Number: ...............................

(3.2) The Order of Expungement shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

DOB ................ Arresting Agency/Agencies ......

ORDER OF EXPUNGEMENT

(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 3))

This matter having been heard on the petitioner's motion and the court being fully advised in the premises does find that the petitioner is indigent or has presented reasonable cause to waive all costs in this matter, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED that:

( ) 1. Clerk of Court and Department of State Police costs are hereby waived in this matter.

( ) 2. The Illinois State Police Bureau of Identification and the following law enforcement agencies expunge all records of petitioner relating to an arrest dated ...... for the offense of ......

Law Enforcement Agencies:

.........................

.........................

( ) 3. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that the Clerk of the Circuit Court expunge all records regarding the above-captioned case.

ENTER: ......................

JUDGE DATED: ....... Name:

Attorney for:

Address: City/State/Zip:

Attorney Number:

(3.3) The Notice of Objection shall be in substantially the following form:

IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

....................... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT

IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO. ) ) ...................) (Name of Petitioner)

NOTICE OF OBJECTION TO:(Attorney, Public Defender, Minor)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Illinois State Police)

.................................

................................. TO:(Clerk of the Court)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Judge)

.................................

.................................

TO:(Arresting Agency/Agencies)

.................................

................................. ATTENTION: You are hereby notified that an objection has been filed by the following entity regarding the above-named minor's petition for expungement of juvenile records: ( ) State's Attorney's Office;

( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged;

( ) Department of Illinois State Police; or

( ) Arresting Agency or Agencies.

The agency checked above respectfully requests that this case be continued and set for hearing on whether the expungement should or should not be granted.

DATED: ....... Name: Attorney For:

Address: City/State/Zip:

Telephone:

Attorney No.:

FOR USE BY CLERK OF THE COURT PERSONNEL ONLY

This matter has been set for hearing on the foregoing objection, on ...... in room ...., located at ....., before the Honorable ....., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead. (Only one hearing shall be set, regardless of the number of Notices of Objection received on the same case).

A copy of this completed Notice of Objection containing the court date, time, and location, has been sent via regular U.S. Mail to the following entities. (If more than one Notice of Objection is received on the same case, each one must be completed with the court date, time and location and mailed to the following entities):

( ) Attorney, Public Defender or Minor;

( ) State's Attorney's Office; ( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged; ( ) Department of Illinois State Police; and ( ) Arresting agency or agencies.

Date: ...... Initials of Clerk completing this section: .....

(4)(a) Upon entry of an order expunging records or files, the offense, which the records or files concern shall be treated as if it never occurred. Law enforcement officers and other public offices and agencies shall properly reply on inquiry that no record or file exists with respect to the person.

(a-5) Local law enforcement agencies shall send written notice to the minor of the expungement of any records within 60 days of automatic expungement or the date of service of an expungement order, whichever applies. If a minor's court file has been expunged, the clerk of the circuit court shall send written notice to the minor of the expungement of any records within 60 days of automatic expungement or the date of service of an expungement order, whichever applies.

(b) Except with respect to authorized military personnel, an expunged juvenile record may not be considered by any private or public entity in employment matters, certification, licensing, revocation of certification or licensure, or registration. Applications for employment within the State must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of adjudication or arrest. Employers may not ask, in any format or context, if an applicant has had a juvenile record expunged. Information about an expunged record obtained by a potential employer, even inadvertently, from an employment application that does not contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of adjudication or arrest, shall be treated as dissemination of an expunged record by the employer.

(c) A person whose juvenile records have been expunged is not entitled to remission of any fines, costs, or other money paid as a consequence of expungement.

(5) (Blank).,

(5.5) Whether or not expunged, records eligible for automatic expungement under subdivision (0.1)(a), (0.2)(a), or (0.3)(a) may be treated as expunged by the individual subject to the records.

(6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit the maintenance of information relating to an offense after records or files concerning the offense have been expunged if the information is kept in a manner that does not enable identification of the individual. This information may only be used for anonymous statistical and bona fide research purposes.

(6.5) The Department of State Police or any employee of the Department shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for failure to expunge any records of arrest that are subject to expungement under this Section because of inability to verify a record. Nothing in this Section shall create Department of State Police liability or responsibility for the expungement of law enforcement records it does not possess.

(7)(a) The State Appellate Defender shall establish, maintain, and carry out, by December 31, 2004, a juvenile expungement program to provide information and assistance to minors eligible to have their juvenile records expunged.

(b) The State Appellate Defender shall develop brochures, pamphlets, and other materials in printed form and through the agency's World Wide Web site. The pamphlets and other materials shall include at a minimum the following information:

(i) An explanation of the State's juvenile expungement laws, including both automatic expungement and expungement by petition;

(ii) The circumstances under which juvenile expungement may occur;

(iii) The juvenile offenses that may be expunged;

(iv) The steps necessary to initiate and complete the juvenile expungement process; and

(v) Directions on how to contact the State Appellate Defender.

(c) The State Appellate Defender shall establish and maintain a statewide toll-free telephone number that a person may use to receive information or assistance concerning the expungement of juvenile records. The State Appellate Defender shall advertise the toll-free telephone number statewide. The State Appellate Defender shall develop an expungement information packet that may be sent to eligible persons seeking expungement of their juvenile records, which may include, but is not limited to, a pre-printed expungement petition with instructions on how to complete the petition and a pamphlet containing information that would assist individuals through the juvenile expungement process.

(d) The State Appellate Defender shall compile a statewide list of volunteer attorneys willing to assist eligible individuals through the juvenile expungement process.

(e) This Section shall be implemented from funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the State Appellate Defender for this purpose. The State Appellate Defender shall employ the necessary staff and adopt the necessary rules for implementation of this Section.

(7.5) (a) Willful dissemination of any information contained in an expunged record shall be treated as a Class C misdemeanor and punishable by a fine of $1,000 per violation.

(b) Willful dissemination for financial gain of any information contained in an expunged record shall be treated as a Class 4 felony. Dissemination for financial gain by an employee of any municipal, county, or State agency, including law enforcement, shall result in immediate termination.

(c) The person whose record was expunged has a right of action against any person who intentionally disseminates an expunged record. In the proceeding, punitive damages up to an amount of $1,000 may be sought in addition to any actual damages. The prevailing party shall be entitled to costs and reasonable attorney fees.

(d) The punishments for dissemination of an expunged record shall never apply to the person whose record was expunged.

(8)(a) An expunged juvenile record may not be considered by any private or public entity in employment matters, certification, licensing, revocation of certification or licensure, or registration. Applications for employment must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of adjudication, conviction, or arrest. Employers may not ask if an applicant has had a juvenile record expunged. Effective January 1, 2005, the Department of Labor shall develop a link on the Department's website to inform employers that employers may not ask if an applicant had a juvenile record expunged and that application for employment must contain specific language that states that the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of adjudication, arrest, or conviction.

(b) (Blank). Public Act 93-912

(c) The expungement of juvenile records under subsection subsections 0.1, 0.2, or 0.3 of this Section shall be funded by the additional fine imposed under Section 5-9-1.17 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(9) (Blank).

(10) (Blank). Public Act 98-637 Public Act 98-637

(Source: P.A. 99-835, eff. 1-1-17; 99-881, eff. 1-1-17; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-285, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-10-17.)

Section 565. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Sections 3-5, 3-6, 9-1, 11-9.1, and 12-7.1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/3-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 3-5)

Sec. 3-5. General limitations.

(a) A prosecution for: (1) first degree murder, attempt to commit first degree murder, second degree murder, involuntary manslaughter, reckless homicide, or a violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code for the offense of aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof when the violation was a proximate cause of a death, leaving the scene of a motor vehicle accident involving death or personal injuries under Section 11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, failing to give information and render aid under Section 11-403 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, concealment of homicidal death, treason, arson, residential arson, aggravated arson, forgery, child pornography under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1, or aggravated child pornography under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B, or (2) any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined by Section 11-0.1 of this Code in which the DNA profile of the offender is obtained and entered into a DNA database within 10 years after the commission of the offense, may be commenced at any time. Clause (2) of this subsection (a) applies if either: (i) the victim reported the offense to law enforcement authorities within 3 years after the commission of the offense unless a longer period for reporting the offense to law enforcement authorities is provided in Section 3-6 or (ii) the victim is murdered during the course of the offense or within 2 years after the commission of the offense.

(a-5) A prosecution for theft of property exceeding $100,000 in value under Section 16-1, identity theft under subsection (a) of Section 16-30, aggravated identity theft under subsection (b) of Section 16-30, financial exploitation of an elderly person or a person with a disability under Section 17-56; or any offense set forth in Article 16H or Section 17-10.6 may be commenced within 7 years of the last act committed in furtherance of the crime.

(b) Unless the statute describing the offense provides otherwise, or the period of limitation is extended by Section 3-6, a prosecution for any offense not designated in subsection (a) or (a-5) must be commenced within 3 years after the commission of the offense if it is a felony, or within one year and 6 months after its commission if it is a misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 99-820, eff. 8-15-16; 100-149, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/3-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 3-6)

Sec. 3-6. Extended limitations. The period within which a prosecution must be commenced under the provisions of Section 3-5 or other applicable statute is extended under the following conditions:

(a) A prosecution for theft involving a breach of a fiduciary obligation to the aggrieved person may be commenced as follows:

(1) If the aggrieved person is a minor or a person under legal disability, then during the minority or legal disability or within one year after the termination thereof.

(2) In any other instance, within one year after the discovery of the offense by an aggrieved person, or by a person who has legal capacity to represent an aggrieved person or has a legal duty to report the offense, and is not himself or herself a party to the offense; or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b) A prosecution for any offense based upon misconduct in office by a public officer or employee may be commenced within one year after discovery of the offense by a person having a legal duty to report such offense, or in the absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period otherwise applicable.

(b-5) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for involuntary servitude, involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in persons and related offenses under Section 10-9 of this Code may be commenced within 25 years of the victim attaining the age of 18 years.

(c) (Blank).

(d) A prosecution for child pornography, aggravated child pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a child, or promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission of the offense.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, where the defendant was within a professional or fiduciary relationship or a purported professional or fiduciary relationship with the victim at the time of the commission of the offense may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim.

(f) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 44 of the "Environmental Protection Act", approved June 29, 1970, as amended, may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of such an offense by a person or agency having the legal duty to report the offense or in the absence of such discovery, within 5 years after the proper prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense.

(f-5) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 16-30 of this Code may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(g) (Blank).

(h) (Blank).

(i) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if the victim reported the offense to law enforcement authorities within 3 years after the commission of the offense.

Nothing in this subdivision (i) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(i-5) A prosecution for armed robbery, home invasion, kidnapping, or aggravated kidnaping may be commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if it arises out of the same course of conduct and meets the criteria under one of the offenses in subsection (i) of this Section.

(j) (1) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse may be commenced at any time.

(2) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for failure of a person who is required to report an alleged or suspected commission of criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act may be commenced within 20 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

(3) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for misdemeanor criminal sexual abuse may be commenced within 10 years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.

(4) Nothing in this subdivision (j) shall be construed to shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced under any other provision of this Section.

(j-5) A prosecution for armed robbery, home invasion, kidnapping, or aggravated kidnaping may be commenced at any time if it arises out of the same course of conduct and meets the criteria under one of the offenses in subsection (j) of this Section.

(k) (Blank).

(l) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 26-4 of this Code may be commenced within one year after the discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.

(m) The prosecution shall not be required to prove at trial facts which extend the general limitations in Section 3-5 of this Code when the facts supporting extension of the period of general limitations are properly pled in the charging document. Any challenge relating to the extension of the general limitations period as defined in this Section shall be exclusively conducted under Section 114-1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 99-234, eff. 8-3-15; 99-820, eff. 8-15-16; 100-80, eff. 8-11-17; 100-318, eff. 8-24-17; 100-434, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. First degree murder; death penalties; exceptions; separate hearings; proof; findings; appellate procedures; reversals. First degree Murder - Death penalties - Exceptions - Separate Hearings - Proof - Findings - Appellate procedures - Reversals.

(a) A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits first degree murder if, in performing the acts which cause the death:

(1) he either intends to kill or do great bodily harm to that individual or another, or knows that such acts will cause death to that individual or another; or

(2) he knows that such acts create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to that individual or another; or

(3) he is attempting or committing a forcible felony other than second degree murder.

(b) Aggravating Factors. A defendant who at the time of the commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more and who has been found guilty of first degree murder may be sentenced to death if:

(1) the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman; or

(2) the murdered individual was an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, or the murdered individual was an inmate at such institution or facility and was killed on the grounds thereof, or the murdered individual was otherwise present in such institution or facility with the knowledge and approval of the chief administrative officer thereof; or

(3) the defendant has been convicted of murdering two or more individuals under subsection (a) of this Section or under any law of the United States or of any state which is substantially similar to subsection (a) of this Section regardless of whether the deaths occurred as the result of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts so long as the deaths were the result of either an intent to kill more than one person or of separate acts which the defendant knew would cause death or create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; or

(4) the murdered individual was killed as a result of the hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus or other public conveyance; or

(5) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a contract, agreement or understanding by which he was to receive money or anything of value in return for committing the murder or procured another to commit the murder for money or anything of value; or

(6) the murdered individual was killed in the course of another felony if:

(a) the murdered individual:

(i) was actually killed by the defendant, or

(ii) received physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant substantially contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by one or more persons for whose conduct the defendant is legally accountable under Section 5-2 of this Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by either the defendant or the other person or persons for whose conduct he is legally accountable caused the death of the murdered individual; and

(b) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of subparagraph (a) of paragraph (6) of subsection (b) of this Section, the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(c) the other felony was an inherently violent crime or the attempt to commit an inherently violent crime. In this subparagraph (c), "inherently violent crime" includes, but is not limited to, armed robbery, robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and home invasion; or

(7) the murdered individual was under 12 years of age and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(8) the defendant committed the murder with intent to prevent the murdered individual from testifying or participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution or giving material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; or the defendant committed the murder because the murdered individual was a witness in any prosecution or gave material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; for purposes of this paragraph (8), "participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution" is intended to include those appearing in the proceedings in any capacity such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, investigators, witnesses, or jurors; or

(9) the defendant, while committing an offense punishable under Sections 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, 407 or 407.1 or subsection (b) of Section 404 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(10) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections at the time of the murder, and while committing an offense punishable as a felony under Illinois law, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(11) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated and premeditated manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, scheme or design to take a human life by unlawful means, and the conduct of the defendant created a reasonable expectation that the death of a human being would result therefrom; or

(12) the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; or

(13) the defendant was a principal administrator, organizer, or leader of a calculated criminal drug conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position of authority superior to that of all other members of the conspiracy, and the defendant counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered person; or

(14) the murder was intentional and involved the infliction of torture. For the purpose of this Section torture means the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering or agony of the victim; or

(15) the murder was committed as a result of the intentional discharge of a firearm by the defendant from a motor vehicle and the victim was not present within the motor vehicle; or

(16) the murdered individual was 60 years of age or older and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(17) the murdered individual was a person with a disability and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a person with a disability. For purposes of this paragraph (17), "person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury, a functional disorder, or a congenital condition that renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care; or

(18) the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer; or

(19) the murdered individual was subject to an order of protection and the murder was committed by a person against whom the same order of protection was issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; or

(20) the murdered individual was known by the defendant to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes; or

(21) the murder was committed by the defendant in connection with or as a result of the offense of terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this Code.

(b-5) Aggravating Factor; Natural Life Imprisonment. A defendant who has been found guilty of first degree murder and who at the time of the commission of the offense had attained the age of 18 years or more may be sentenced to natural life imprisonment if (i) the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, (ii) the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, and (iii) the murdered individual was killed in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that capacity, or in retaliation for his or her acting in that capacity.

(c) Consideration of factors in Aggravation and Mitigation.

The court shall consider, or shall instruct the jury to consider any aggravating and any mitigating factors which are relevant to the imposition of the death penalty. Aggravating factors may include but need not be limited to those factors set forth in subsection (b). Mitigating factors may include but need not be limited to the following:

(1) the defendant has no significant history of prior criminal activity;

(2) the murder was committed while the defendant was under the influence of extreme mental or emotional disturbance, although not such as to constitute a defense to prosecution;

(3) the murdered individual was a participant in the defendant's homicidal conduct or consented to the homicidal act;

(4) the defendant acted under the compulsion of threat or menace of the imminent infliction of death or great bodily harm;

(5) the defendant was not personally present during commission of the act or acts causing death;

(6) the defendant's background includes a history of extreme emotional or physical abuse;

(7) the defendant suffers from a reduced mental capacity.

Provided, however, that an action that does not otherwise mitigate first degree murder cannot qualify as a mitigating factor for first degree murder because of the discovery, knowledge, or disclosure of the victim's sexual orientation as defined in Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(d) Separate sentencing hearing.

Where requested by the State, the court shall conduct a separate sentencing proceeding to determine the existence of factors set forth in subsection (b) and to consider any aggravating or mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). The proceeding shall be conducted:

(1) before the jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(2) before a jury impanelled for the purpose of the proceeding if:

A. the defendant was convicted upon a plea of guilty; or

B. the defendant was convicted after a trial before the court sitting without a jury; or

C. the court for good cause shown discharges the jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(3) before the court alone if the defendant waives a jury for the separate proceeding.

(e) Evidence and Argument.

During the proceeding any information relevant to any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) may be presented by either the State or the defendant under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. Any information relevant to any additional aggravating factors or any mitigating factors indicated in subsection (c) may be presented by the State or defendant regardless of its admissibility under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. The State and the defendant shall be given fair opportunity to rebut any information received at the hearing.

(f) Proof.

The burden of proof of establishing the existence of any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) is on the State and shall not be satisfied unless established beyond a reasonable doubt.

(g) Procedure - Jury.

If at the separate sentencing proceeding the jury finds that none of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. If there is a unanimous finding by the jury that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exist, the jury shall consider aggravating and mitigating factors as instructed by the court and shall determine whether the sentence of death shall be imposed. If the jury determines unanimously, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to death. If the court does not concur with the jury determination that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall set forth reasons in writing including what facts or circumstances the court relied upon, along with any relevant documents, that compelled the court to non-concur with the sentence. This document and any attachments shall be part of the record for appellate review. The court shall be bound by the jury's sentencing determination.

If after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, one or more jurors determines that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(h) Procedure - No Jury.

In a proceeding before the court alone, if the court finds that none of the factors found in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

If the Court determines that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the Court shall consider any aggravating and mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). If the Court determines, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the Court shall sentence the defendant to death.

If the court finds that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(h-5) Decertification as a capital case.

In a case in which the defendant has been found guilty of first degree murder by a judge or jury, or a case on remand for resentencing, and the State seeks the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, on the court's own motion or the written motion of the defendant, the court may decertify the case as a death penalty case if the court finds that the only evidence supporting the defendant's conviction is the uncorroborated testimony of an informant witness, as defined in Section 115-21 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, concerning the confession or admission of the defendant or that the sole evidence against the defendant is a single eyewitness or single accomplice without any other corroborating evidence. If the court decertifies the case as a capital case under either of the grounds set forth above, the court shall issue a written finding. The State may pursue its right to appeal the decertification pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 604(a)(1). If the court does not decertify the case as a capital case, the matter shall proceed to the eligibility phase of the sentencing hearing.

(i) Appellate Procedure.

The conviction and sentence of death shall be subject to automatic review by the Supreme Court. Such review shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the Supreme Court. The Illinois Supreme Court may overturn the death sentence, and order the imposition of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if the court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case. If the Illinois Supreme Court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case, independent of any procedural grounds for relief, the Illinois Supreme Court shall issue a written opinion explaining this finding.

(j) Disposition of reversed death sentence.

In the event that the death penalty in this Act is held to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, any person convicted of first degree murder shall be sentenced by the court to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

In the event that any death sentence pursuant to the sentencing provisions of this Section is declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, the court having jurisdiction over a person previously sentenced to death shall cause the defendant to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(k) Guidelines for seeking the death penalty.

The Attorney General and State's Attorneys Association shall consult on voluntary guidelines for procedures governing whether or not to seek the death penalty. The guidelines do not have the force of law and are only advisory in nature.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-460, eff. 1-1-18; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/11-9.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-9.1)

Sec. 11-9.1. Sexual exploitation of a child.

(a) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child if in the presence or virtual presence, or both, of a child and with knowledge that a child or one whom he or she believes to be a child would view his or her acts, that person:

(1) engages in a sexual act; or

(2) exposes his or her sex organs, anus or breast for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of such person or the child or one whom he or she believes to be a child.

(a-5) A person commits sexual exploitation of a child who knowingly entices, coerces, or persuades a child to remove the child's clothing for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification of the person or the child, or both.

(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Sexual act" means masturbation, sexual conduct or sexual penetration as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code.

"Sex offense" means any violation of Article 11 of this Code or Section 12-5.01 of this Code.

"Child" means a person under 17 years of age.

"Virtual presence" means an environment that is created with software and presented to the user and or receiver via the Internet, in such a way that the user appears in front of the receiver on the computer monitor or screen or hand-held hand held portable electronic device, usually through a web camming program. "Virtual presence" includes primarily experiencing through sight or sound, or both, a video image that can be explored interactively at a personal computer or hand-held hand held communication device, or both.

"Webcam" means a video capturing device connected to a computer or computer network that is designed to take digital photographs or live or recorded video which allows for the live transmission to an end user over the Internet.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this Section or a substantially similar law of another state is a Class 4 felony.

(2) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4 felony if the person has been previously convicted of a sex offense.

(3) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4 felony if the victim was under 13 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense.

(4) Sexual exploitation of a child is a Class 4 felony if committed by a person 18 years of age or older who is on or within 500 feet of elementary or secondary school grounds when children are present on the grounds.

(Source: P.A. 96-1090, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1098, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 10-5-17.)

(720 ILCS 5/12-7.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-7.1)

Sec. 12-7.1. Hate crime.

(a) A person commits hate crime when, by reason of the actual or perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender, sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or national origin of another individual or group of individuals, regardless of the existence of any other motivating factor or factors, he or she commits assault, battery, aggravated assault, intimidation, stalking, cyberstalking, misdemeanor theft, criminal trespass to residence, misdemeanor criminal damage to property, criminal trespass to vehicle, criminal trespass to real property, mob action, disorderly conduct, transmission of obscene messages, harassment by telephone, or harassment through electronic communications as these crimes are defined in Sections 12-1, 12-2, 12-3(a), 12-7.3, 12-7.5, 16-1, 19-4, 21-1, 21-2, 21-3, 25-1, 26-1, 26.5-1, 26.5-2, paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of Section 12-6, and paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code, respectively.

(b) Except as provided in subsection (b-5), hate crime is a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense.

(b-5) Hate crime is a Class 3 felony for a first offense and a Class 2 felony for a second or subsequent offense if committed:

(1) in, or upon the exterior or grounds of, a church, synagogue, mosque, or other building, structure, or place identified or associated with a particular religion or used for religious worship or other religious purpose;

(2) in a cemetery, mortuary, or other facility used for the purpose of burial or memorializing the dead;

(3) in a school or other educational facility, including an administrative facility or public or private dormitory facility of or associated with the school or other educational facility;

(4) in a public park or an ethnic or religious community center;

(5) on the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5); or

(6) on a public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any location specified in clauses (1) through (4) of this subsection (b-5).

(b-10) Upon imposition of any sentence, the trial court shall also either order restitution paid to the victim or impose a fine in an amount to be determined by the court based on the severity of the crime and the injury or damages suffered by the victim. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours if that service is established in the county where the offender was convicted of hate crime. In addition, any order of probation or conditional discharge entered following a conviction or an adjudication of delinquency shall include a condition that the offender enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) that gave rise to the offense the offender committed. The educational program must be attended by the offender in-person and may be administered, as determined by the court, by a university, college, community college, non-profit organization, the Illinois Holocaust and Genocide Commission, or any other organization that provides educational programs discouraging hate crimes, except that programs administered online or that can otherwise be attended remotely are prohibited. The court may also impose any other condition of probation or conditional discharge under this Section. If the court sentences the offender to imprisonment or periodic imprisonment for a violation of this Section, as a condition of the offender's mandatory supervised release, the court shall require that the offender perform public or community service of no less than 200 hours and enroll in an educational program discouraging hate crimes involving the protected class identified in subsection (a) that gave rise to the offense the offender committed.

(c) Independent of any criminal prosecution or the result of a criminal prosecution, any person suffering injury to his or her person, damage to his or her property, intimidation as defined in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of Section 12-6 of this Code, stalking as defined in Section 12-7.3 of this Code, cyberstalking as defined in Section 12-7.5 of this Code, disorderly conduct as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of Section 26-1 of this Code, transmission of obscene messages as defined in Section 26.5-1 of this Code, harassment by telephone as defined in Section 26.5-2 of this Code, or harassment through electronic communications as defined in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(5) of Section 26.5-3 of this Code as a result of a hate crime may bring a civil action for damages, injunction or other appropriate relief. The court may award actual damages, including damages for emotional distress, as well as punitive damages. The court may impose a civil penalty up to $25,000 for each violation of this subsection (c). A judgment in favor of a person who brings a civil action under this subsection (c) shall include attorney's fees and costs. After consulting with the local State's Attorney, the Attorney General may bring a civil action in the name of the People of the State for an injunction or other equitable relief under this subsection (c). In addition, the Attorney General may request and the court may impose a civil penalty up to $25,000 for each violation under this subsection (c). The parents or legal guardians, other than guardians appointed pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, of an unemancipated minor shall be liable for the amount of any judgment for all damages rendered against such minor under this subsection (c) in any amount not exceeding the amount provided under Section 5 of the Parental Responsibility Law.

(d) "Sexual orientation" has the meaning ascribed to it in paragraph (O-1) of Section 1-103 of the Illinois Human Rights Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-77, eff. 1-1-16; 100-197, eff. 1-1-18; 100-260, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 570. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

(720 ILCS 550/14) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 714)

Sec. 14. (a) The Director shall cooperate with Federal and other State agencies in discharging his responsibilities concerning traffic in cannabis and in suppressing the use of cannabis. To this end, he may:

(1) arrange for the exchange of information among governmental officials concerning the use of cannabis;

(2) coordinate and cooperate in training programs concerning cannabis law enforcement at local and State levels;

(3) cooperate with the Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency; and

(4) conduct programs of eradication aimed at destroying wild illicit growth of plant species from which cannabis may be extracted.

(Source: P.A. 77-758; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 575. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102, 204, and 303.05 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one, )

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.

(t-4) "Emergency medical services personnel" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, emergency medical services personnel, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, or an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law, or of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-280, eff. 1-1-18; 100-453, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(720 ILCS 570/204) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1204)

Sec. 204. (a) The controlled substances listed in this Section are included in Schedule I.

(b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetylmethadol;

(1.1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);

(2) Allylprodine;

(3) Alphacetylmethadol, except

levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha-

acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

(4) Alphameprodine;

(5) Alphamethadol;

(6) Alpha-methylfentanyl

(N-(1-alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl)

propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-

propanilido) piperidine;

(6.1) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl

(N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(7) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (MPPP);

(7.1) PEPAP

(1-(2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);

(8) Benzethidine;

(9) Betacetylmethadol;

(9.1) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl

(N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(10) Betameprodine;

(11) Betamethadol;

(12) Betaprodine;

(13) Clonitazene;

(14) Dextromoramide;

(15) Diampromide;

(16) Diethylthiambutene;

(17) Difenoxin;

(18) Dimenoxadol;

(19) Dimepheptanol;

(20) Dimethylthiambutene;

(21) Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

(22) Dipipanone;

(23) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

(24) Etonitazene;

(25) Etoxeridine;

(26) Furethidine;

(27) Hydroxpethidine;

(28) Ketobemidone;

(29) Levomoramide;

(30) Levophenacylmorphan;

(31) 3-Methylfentanyl

(N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-

4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(31.1) 3-Methylthiofentanyl

(N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(32) Morpheridine;

(33) Noracymethadol;

(34) Norlevorphanol;

(35) Normethadone;

(36) Norpipanone;

(36.1) Para-fluorofentanyl

(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-

4-piperidinyl]propanamide);

(37) Phenadoxone;

(38) Phenampromide;

(39) Phenomorphan;

(40) Phenoperidine;

(41) Piritramide;

(42) Proheptazine;

(43) Properidine;

(44) Propiram;

(45) Racemoramide;

(45.1) Thiofentanyl

(N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-

4-piperidinyl]-propanamide);

(46) Tilidine;

(47) Trimeperidine;

(48) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-

N-phenylpropanamide);

(49) Furanyl fentanyl (FU-F);

(50) Butyryl fentanyl;

(51) Valeryl fentanyl;

(52) Acetyl fentanyl;

(53) Beta-hydroxy-thiofentanyl;

(54) 3,4-dichloro-N-[2-

(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-

methylbenzamide (U-47700);

(55) 4-chloro-N-[1-[2-

(4-nitrophenyl)ethyl]-2-piperidinylidene]-

benzenesulfonamide (W-18);

(56) 4-chloro-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)

-2-piperidinylidene]-benzenesulfonamide (W-15);

(57) acrylfentanyl (acryloylfentanyl).

(c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) Acetorphine;

(2) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) Benzylmorphine;

(4) Codeine methylbromide;

(5) Codeine-N-Oxide;

(6) Cyprenorphine;

(7) Desomorphine;

(8) Diacetyldihydromorphine (Dihydroheroin);

(9) Dihydromorphine;

(10) Drotebanol;

(11) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

(12) Heroin;

(13) Hydromorphinol;

(14) Methyldesorphine;

(15) Methyldihydromorphine;

(16) Morphine methylbromide;

(17) Morphine methylsulfonate;

(18) Morphine-N-Oxide;

(19) Myrophine;

(20) Nicocodeine;

(21) Nicomorphine;

(22) Normorphine;

(23) Pholcodine;

(24) Thebacon.

(d) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for the purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):

(1) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (alpha-methyl,3,4-methylenedioxyphenethylamine, methylenedioxyamphetamine, MDA);

(1.1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: etryptamine; MONASE; alpha-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl)indole; a-ET; and AET);

(2) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);

(2.1) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as: N-ethyl-alpha-methyl- 3,4(methylenedioxy) Phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, and MDEA);

(2.2) N-Benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(2.2-1) Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine (TFMPP);

(3) 3-methoxy-4,5-methylenedioxyamphetamine, (MMDA);

(4) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA);

(5) (Blank);

(6) Diethyltryptamine (DET);

(7) Dimethyltryptamine (DMT);

(7.1) 5-Methoxy-diallyltryptamine;

(8) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM, STP);

(9) Ibogaine (some trade and other names:

7-ethyl-6,6,beta,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-

6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1',2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b]

indole; Tabernanthe iboga);

(10) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

(10.1) Salvinorin A;

(10.5) Salvia divinorum (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Salvia divinorum, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(11) 3,4,5-trimethoxyphenethylamine (Mescaline);

(12) Peyote (meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of that plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of that plant, its seeds or extracts);

(13) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate (JB 318);

(14) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(14.1) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine

(also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-

3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine and N-hydroxy MDA);

(15) Parahexyl; some trade or other names: 3-hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H- dibenzo (b,d) pyran; Synhexyl;

(16) Psilocybin;

(17) Psilocyn;

(18) Alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

(19) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

(20) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine

(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

(20.1) 4-Bromo-2,5 dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo- 2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB, 2CB, Nexus;

(21) 4-methoxyamphetamine

(4-methoxy-alpha-methylphenethylamine;

paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

(22) (Blank);

(23) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE;

(24) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP;

(25) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;

(26) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine

(another name: DOET);

(27) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl] pyrrolidine

(another name: TCPy);

(28) (Blank);

(29) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine; 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP);

(29.1) Benzothiophene analog of phencyclidine. Some trade or other names: BTCP or benocyclidine;

(29.2) 3-Methoxyphencyclidine (3-MeO-PCP);

(30) Bufotenine (some trade or other names:

3-(Beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;

3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol;

5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine;

N,N-dimethylserotonin; mappine);

(31) (Blank);

(32) (Blank);

(33) (Blank);

(34) (Blank);

(34.5) (Blank);

(35) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-

(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,

10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol

Some trade or other names: HU-210;

(35.5) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-

dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-

tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol, its isomers,

salts, and salts of isomers; Some trade or other

names: HU-210, Dexanabinol;

(36) Dexanabinol, (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-

6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-

6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol

Some trade or other names: HU-211;

(37) (Blank);

(38) (Blank);

(39) (Blank);

(40) (Blank);

(41) (Blank);

(42) Any compound structurally derived from 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-018, AM-2201, JWH-175, JWH-184, and JWH-185;

(43) Any compound structurally derived from 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-030, JWH-145, JWH-146, JWH-307, and JWH-368;

(44) Any compound structurally derived from 1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-176;

(45) Any compound structurally derived from 3-phenylacetylindole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, JWH-167, JWH-250, JWH-251, and RCS-8;

(46) Any compound structurally derived from 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, CP 47, 497 and its C8 homologue (cannabicyclohexanol);

(46.1) Any compound structurally derived from 3-(benzoyl) indole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of this structural class include, but are not limited to, AM-630, AM-2233, AM-694, Pravadoline (WIN 48,098), and RCS-4;

(47) (Blank);

(48) (Blank);

(49) (Blank);

(50) (Blank);

(51) (Blank);

(52) (Blank);

(53) 2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthio-phenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-T-7;

(53.1) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-E;

(53.2) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-methylphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-D;

(53.3) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-C;

(53.4) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-I;

(53.5) 4-ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-T-2;

(53.6) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-isopropylthio-phenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-T-4;

(53.7) 2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-H;

(53.8) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-nitrophenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-N;

(53.9) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-P;

(53.10) 2,5-dimethoxy-3,4-dimethylphenethylamine. Some trade or other names: 2C-G;

(53.11) The N-(2-methoxybenzyl) derivative of any 2C phenethylamine referred to in subparagraphs (20.1), (53), (53.1), (53.2), (53.3), (53.4), (53.5), (53.6), (53.7), (53.8), (53.9), and (53.10) including, but not limited to, 25I-NBOMe and 25C-NBOMe;

(54) 5-Methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine;

(55) (Blank);

(56) (Blank);

(57) (Blank);

(58) (Blank);

(59) 3-cyclopropoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the cyclopropyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, XLR11, UR144, FUB-144;

(60) 3-adamantoylindole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AB-001;

(61) N-(adamantyl)-indole-3-carboxamide with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, APICA/2NE-1, STS-135;

(62) N-(adamantyl)-indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution at a nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AKB48, 5F-AKB48;

(63) 1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid 8-quinolinyl ester with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the quinoline ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, PB22, 5F-PB22, FUB-PB-22;

(64) 3-(1-naphthoyl)indazole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, THJ-018, THJ-2201;

(65) 2-(1-naphthoyl)benzimidazole with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the benzimidazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the benzimidazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, FUBIMINA;

(66) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole- 3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AB-PINACA, AB-FUBINACA, AB-CHMINACA;

(67) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, ADB-PINACA, ADB-FUBINACA;

(68) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H- indole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, ADBICA, 5F-ADBICA;

(69) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indole- 3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, ABICA, 5F-ABICA;

(70) Methyl 2-(1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3- methylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, AMB, 5F-AMB; .

(71) Methyl 2-(1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3- dimethylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, 5-fluoro-MDMB-PINACA, MDMB-FUBINACA;

(72) Methyl 2-(1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3- methylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, MMB018, MMB2201, and AMB-CHMICA;

(73) Methyl 2-(1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3- dimethylbutanoate with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, MDMB-CHMICA;

(74) N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indazole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, APP-CHMINACA, 5-fluoro-APP-PINACA;

(75) N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indole- 3-carboxamide with substitution on the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, aryl halide, alkyl aryl halide, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl, or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl, whether or not further substituted on the indazole ring to any extent: including, but not limited to, APP-PICA and 5-fluoro-APP-PICA;

(76) 4-Acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine: trade name 4-AcO-DMT;

(77) 5-Methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine: trade name 5-MeO-MIPT;

(78) 4-hydroxy Diethyltryptamine (4-HO-DET);

(79) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (4-HO-MET);

(80) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (4-HO-DiPT);

(81) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (4-HO-MiPT);

(82) Fluorophenylpiperazine;

(83) Methoxetamine;

(84) 1-(Ethylamino)-2-phenylpropan-2-one (iso- ethcathinone).

(e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone; and

(3) gamma hydroxybutyric acid.

(f) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) Fenethylline;

(2) N-ethylamphetamine;

(3) Aminorex (some other names:

2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; aminoxaphen;

4-5-dihydro-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(4) Methcathinone (some other names:

2-methylamino-1-phenylpropan-1-one;

Ephedrone; 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;

alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; N-methylcathinone;

methycathinone; Monomethylpropion; UR 1431) and its

salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;

(5) Cathinone (some trade or other names:

2-aminopropiophenone; alpha-aminopropiophenone;

2-amino-1-phenyl-propanone; norephedrone);

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as:

N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;

N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine);

(7) (+ or -) cis-4-methylaminorex ((+ or -) cis-

4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-4-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

(8) 3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);

(9) Halogenated amphetamines and

methamphetamines - any compound derived from either

amphetamine or methamphetamine through the substitution

of a halogen on the phenyl ring, including, but not

limited to, 2-fluoroamphetamine, 3-

fluoroamphetamine and 4-fluoroamphetamine;

(10) Aminopropylbenzofuran (APB):

including 4-(2-Aminopropyl) benzofuran, 5-

(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran, 6-(2-Aminopropyl)

benzofuran, and 7-(2-Aminopropyl) benzofuran;

(11) Aminopropyldihydrobenzofuran (APDB):

including 4-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3- dihydrobenzofuran,

5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2, 3-dihydrobenzofuran,

6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran,

and 7-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran;

(12) Methylaminopropylbenzofuran

(MAPB): including 4-(2-methylaminopropyl)

benzofuran, 5-(2-methylaminopropyl)benzofuran,

6-(2-methylaminopropyl)benzofuran

and 7-(2-methylaminopropyl)benzofuran.

(g) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances:

(1) N-[1-benzyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;

(2) N-[1(2-thienyl) methyl-4-piperidyl]-N- phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts, and salts of isomers.

(h) Synthetic cathinones. Unless specifically excepted, any chemical compound which is not approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or, if approved, is not dispensed or possessed in accordance with State or federal law, not including bupropion, structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in one or more of the following ways:

(1) by substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system by one or more other univalent substituents. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, 3,4-Methylenedioxycathinone (bk-MDA);

(2) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, 2-methylamino-1-phenylbutan-1-one (buphedrone); or

(3) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups, or by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure. Examples of this class include, but are not limited to, Dimethylcathinone, Ethcathinone, and a-Pyrrolidinopropiophenone (a-PPP).

(Source: P.A. 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-368, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, and prescribing psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the physician assistant must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the physician assistant must annually complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;

(2) with respect to advanced practice registered nurses who do not meet the requirements of Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act,

(A) the advanced practice registered nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice registered nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice registered nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician;

(iv) the advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(v) the advanced practice registered nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the advanced practice registered nurse must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the advanced practice registered nurse must annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;

(2.5) with respect to advanced practice registered nurses certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists who do not meet the requirements of Section 65-43 of the Nurse Practice Act practicing in a hospital affiliate,

(A) the advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been privileged to prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, has completed the appropriate application forms, and has paid the required fees as set by rule; and

(B) an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been privileged to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate, then the following conditions must be met:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be designated, provided that the designated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced practice registered nurses in their area of certification; the privileging documents must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name; privileges to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be granted;

(ii) any privileges must be controlled substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice registered nurse;

(iii) any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply;

(iv) the advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician designee; and

(v) the advanced practice registered nurse must meet the education requirements of this Section;

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department; or

(4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule.

(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice registered nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority or as authorized by their practice Act.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(d) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(e) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 100-453, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 580. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing Sections 110-6.4 and 112A-14 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/110-6.4)

Sec. 110-6.4. Statewide risk-assessment risk assessment tool. The Supreme Court may establish a statewide risk-assessment tool to be used in proceedings to assist the court in establishing bail for a defendant by assessing the defendant's likelihood of appearing at future court proceedings or determining if the defendant poses a real and present threat to the physical safety of any person or persons. The Supreme Court shall consider establishing a risk-assessment tool that does not discriminate on the basis of race, gender, educational level, socio-economic status, or neighborhood. If a risk-assessment risk assessment tool is utilized within a circuit that does not require a personal interview to be completed, the Chief Judge of the circuit or the director Director of the pretrial services agency Pre-trial Services Agency may exempt the requirement under Section 9 and subsection (a) of Section 7 of the Pretrial Services Act.

For the purpose of this Section, "risk-assessment tool" "risk assessment tool" means an empirically validated, evidence-based screening instrument that demonstrates reduced instances of a defendant's failure to appear for further court proceedings or prevents future criminal activity.

(Source: P.A. 100-1, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)

Sec. 112A-14. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) (Blank).

(b) The court may order any of the remedies listed in this subsection. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse or willful deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing an order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. If the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. If the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If the respondent is charged with abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify dates and times for the visitation to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for visitation shall refer merely to the term "reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for visitation, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be approved to supervise visitation only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order granting legal custody to another, unless otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including, but not limited to, legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(A) A person who is subject to an existing order of protection, issued under this Code may not lawfully possess weapons under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(B) Any firearms in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (14.5), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to a person with a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card for safekeeping. The court shall issue an order that the respondent's Firearm Owner's Identification Card be turned over to the local law enforcement agency, which in turn shall immediately mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request be returned to the respondent at expiration of the order of protection.

(C) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(D) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(18) Telephone services.

(A) Unless a condition described in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph exists, the court may, upon request by the petitioner, order a wireless telephone service provider to transfer to the petitioner the right to continue to use a telephone number or numbers indicated by the petitioner and the financial responsibility associated with the number or numbers, as set forth in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph. For purposes of this paragraph (18), the term "wireless telephone service provider" means a provider of commercial mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332. The petitioner may request the transfer of each telephone number that the petitioner, or a minor child in his or her custody, uses. The clerk of the court shall serve the order on the wireless telephone service provider's agent for service of process provided to the Illinois Commerce Commission. The order shall contain all of the following:

(i) The name and billing telephone number of the account holder including the name of the wireless telephone service provider that serves the account.

(ii) Each telephone number that will be transferred.

(iii) A statement that the provider transfers to the petitioner all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph.

(B) A wireless telephone service provider shall terminate the respondent's use of, and shall transfer to the petitioner use of, the telephone number or numbers indicated in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph unless it notifies the petitioner, within 72 hours after it receives the order, that one of the following applies:

(i) The account holder named in the order has terminated the account.

(ii) A difference in network technology would prevent or impair the functionality of a device on a network if the transfer occurs.

(iii) The transfer would cause a geographic or other limitation on network or service provision to the petitioner.

(iv) Another technological or operational issue would prevent or impair the use of the telephone number if the transfer occurs.

(C) The petitioner assumes all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph. In this paragraph, "financial responsibility" includes monthly service costs and costs associated with any mobile device associated with the number.

(D) A wireless telephone service provider may apply to the petitioner its routine and customary requirements for establishing an account or transferring a number, including requiring the petitioner to provide proof of identification, financial information, and customer preferences.

(E) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a wireless telephone service provider is immune from civil liability for its actions taken in compliance with a court order issued under this paragraph.

(F) All wireless service providers that provide services to residential customers shall provide to the Illinois Commerce Commission the name and address of an agent for service of orders entered under this paragraph (18). Any change in status of the registered agent must be reported to the Illinois Commerce Commission within 30 days of such change.

(G) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall maintain the list of registered agents for service for each wireless telephone service provider on the Commission's website. The Commission may consult with wireless telephone service providers and the Circuit Court Clerks on the manner in which this information is provided and displayed.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly removed from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including, but not limited to, the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) (Blank).

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 or under the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015 on and after the effective date of that Act. Absent such an adjudication, no putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 100-199, eff. 1-1-18; 100-388, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-10-17.)

Section 585. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by changing Sections 3-2-2, 3-7-2, and 5-2-4 as follows:

(730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)

Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and duties Duties of the Department.

(1) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have the following powers:

(a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of this State for care, custody, treatment and rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is authorized to exercise the federal detention function for limited purposes and periods of time.

(b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation units for purposes of analyzing the custody and rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to assign such persons to institutions and programs under its control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for making appropriate treatment available to such persons; the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the availability of funds.

(b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a pilot program to establish the effectiveness of pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot program shall require the pupillometer technology to be used in at least one Department of Corrections facility. The Director may expand the pilot program to include an additional facility or facilities as he or she deems appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in the pilot program. The Department must report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by January 1, 2003.

(b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Department of State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each inmate from commitment through release for recording his or her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.

(c) To maintain and administer all State correctional institutions and facilities under its control and to establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize the Department of Central Management Services to enter into an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-300). The Department shall designate those institutions which shall constitute the State Penitentiary System.

Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of Central Management Services to accept bids from counties and municipalities for the construction, remodeling or conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a correctional institution or facility. Such construction, remodeling or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State the option to purchase the structure outright.

Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of Central Management Services may enter into an agreement with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.

(c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties as established by the Department to defray the costs of housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5), "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or permissive under that Section. The Department shall designate the counties to be served by each regional juvenile detention center.

(d) To develop and maintain programs of control, rehabilitation and employment of committed persons within its institutions.

(d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.

(d-10) To provide educational and visitation opportunities to committed persons within its institutions through temporary access to content-controlled tablets that may be provided as a privilege to committed persons to induce or reward compliance.

(e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance of committed persons in the community.

(f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the trash and garbage along State, county, township, or municipal highways as designated by the Department of Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed upon between the Director of Corrections and the Secretary Director of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever basis he deems proper in consideration of their term, behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such program - where they will be outside of the prison facility but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections. Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections and such Department shall furnish whatever security is necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the Department of Corrections nor the Department of Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a prisoner.

(g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and to establish programs of research, statistics and planning.

(h) To investigate the grievances of any person committed to the Department, to inquire into any alleged misconduct by employees or committed persons, and to investigate the assets of committed persons to implement Section 3-7-6 of this Code; and for these purposes it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of writings and papers, and may examine under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents only if there is reason to believe that such procedures would provide evidence that such violations have occurred.

If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure to comply with the order of the court issued in response thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.

(i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative officers, and administer programs of training and development of personnel of the Department. Personnel assigned by the Department to be responsible for the custody and control of committed persons or to investigate the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers outside of the facilities of the Department in the protection, arrest, retaking and reconfining of committed persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to the investigation of such misconduct or violations. This subsection shall not apply to persons committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 on aftercare release.

(j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies and with local communities for the development of standards and programs for better correctional services in this State.

(k) To administer all moneys and properties of the Department.

(l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed persons, institutions and programs of the Department.

(l-5) (Blank).

(m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all powers and duties vested by law in the Department.

(n) To establish rules and regulations for administering a system of sentence credits, established in accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the Prisoner Review Board.

(o) To administer the distribution of funds from the State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal institutions are located for the payment of assistant state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the Counties Code.

(p) To exchange information with the Department of Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements and for other purposes directly connected with the administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(q) To establish a diversion program.

The program shall provide a structured environment for selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release violators and committed persons who have violated the rules governing their conduct while in work release. This program shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised release or while committed to work release.

Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide supervision in accordance with required objectives set by the facility.

(2) Participants shall be required to maintain employment.

(3) Each participant shall pay for room and board at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to the participant's income.

(4) Each participant shall:

(A) provide restitution to victims in accordance with any court order;

(B) provide financial support to his dependents; and

(C) make appropriate payments toward any other court-ordered obligations.

(5) Each participant shall complete community service in addition to employment.

(6) Participants shall take part in such counseling, educational and other programs as the Department may deem appropriate.

(7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol screening.

(8) The Department shall promulgate rules governing the administration of the program.

(r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation agreements under which persons in the custody of the Department may participate in a county impact incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.

(r-5) (Blank).

(r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with respect to each streetgang active within the correctional system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs. "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent possible under the conditions and space available at the correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10), "leaders" means persons who:

(i) are members of a criminal streetgang;

(ii) with respect to other individuals within the streetgang, occupy a position of organizer, supervisor, or other position of management or leadership; and

(iii) are actively and personally engaged in directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting commission of criminal acts by others, which are punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang related activity both within and outside of the Department of Corrections.

"Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(s) To operate a super-maximum security institution, in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the staff and the other inmates.

(t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail, telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized gang and any other person without the need to show cause or satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of recording or by any other means. As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a conversation or communication that is not protected by any privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order of the Illinois Supreme Court.

(u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing housing and services to eligible female inmates, as determined by the Department, and their newborn and young children.

(u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to the Department absconds or absents himself or herself, without authority to do so, from any facility or program to which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit, or any person duly designated by the Director, with the seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed to all sheriffs, coroners, and police officers, or to any particular person named in the order. Any order issued pursuant to this subdivision (1) (u-5) shall be sufficient warrant for the officer or person named in the order to arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper correctional officials and shall be executed the same as criminal process.

(v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the provisions of this Chapter.

(2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998, consider building and operating a correctional facility within 100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the impact incarceration program.

(3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical services to be provided to persons committed to Department facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or commissary services to be provided to Department facilities, the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating organization.

(5) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-488), as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties, rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the Department of Corrections before the effective date of Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.

(Source: P.A. 100-198, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(730 ILCS 5/3-7-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-7-2)

Sec. 3-7-2. Facilities.

(a) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall provide every committed person with access to toilet facilities, barber facilities, bathing facilities at least once each week, a library of legal materials and published materials including newspapers and magazines approved by the Director. A committed person may not receive any materials that the Director deems pornographic.

(b) (Blank).

(c) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall provide facilities for every committed person to leave his cell for at least one hour each day unless the chief administrative officer determines that it would be harmful or dangerous to the security or safety of the institution or facility.

(d) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall provide every committed person with a wholesome and nutritional diet at regularly scheduled hours, drinking water, clothing adequate for the season, bedding, soap and towels and medical and dental care.

(e) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall permit every committed person to send and receive an unlimited number of uncensored letters, provided, however, that the Director may order that mail be inspected and read for reasons of the security, safety or morale of the institution or facility.

(f) All of the institutions and facilities of the Department shall permit every committed person to receive in-person visitors and video contact, if available, except in case of abuse of the visiting privilege or when the chief administrative officer determines that such visiting would be harmful or dangerous to the security, safety or morale of the institution or facility. The chief administrative officer shall have the right to restrict visitation to non-contact visits, video, or other forms of non-contact visits for reasons of safety, security, and order, including, but not limited to, restricting contact visits for committed persons engaged in gang activity. No committed person in a super maximum security facility or on disciplinary segregation is allowed contact visits. Any committed person found in possession of illegal drugs or who fails a drug test shall not be permitted contact visits for a period of at least 6 months. Any committed person involved in gang activities or found guilty of assault committed against a Department employee shall not be permitted contact visits for a period of at least 6 months. The Department shall offer every visitor appropriate written information concerning HIV and AIDS, including information concerning how to contact the Illinois Department of Public Health for counseling information. The Department shall develop the written materials in consultation with the Department of Public Health. The Department shall ensure that all such information and materials are culturally sensitive and reflect cultural diversity as appropriate. Implementation of the changes made to this Section by Public Act 94-629 this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly is subject to appropriation. The Department shall seek the lowest possible cost to provide video calling and shall charge to the extent of recovering any demonstrated costs of providing video calling. The Department shall not make a commission or profit from video calling services. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to permit video calling instead of in-person visitation.

(f-5) (Blank).

(f-10) The Department may not restrict or limit in-person visits to committed persons due to the availability of interactive video conferences.

(f-15)(1) The Department shall issue a standard written policy for each institution and facility of the Department that provides for:

(A) the number of in-person visits each committed person is entitled to per week and per month;

(B) the hours of in-person visits;

(C) the type of identification required for visitors at least 18 years of age; and

(D) the type of identification, if any, required for visitors under 18 years of age.

(2) This policy shall be posted on the Department website and at each facility.

(3) The Department shall post on its website daily any restrictions or denials of visitation for that day and the succeeding 5 calendar days, including those based on a lockdown of the facility, to inform family members and other visitors.

(g) All institutions and facilities of the Department shall permit religious ministrations and sacraments to be available to every committed person, but attendance at religious services shall not be required.

(h) Within 90 days after December 31, 1996, the Department shall prohibit the use of curtains, cell-coverings, or any other matter or object that obstructs or otherwise impairs the line of vision into a committed person's cell.

(Source: P.A. 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-30, eff. 1-1-18; 100-142, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-5-17.)

(730 ILCS 5/5-2-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-2-4)

Sec. 5-2-4. Proceedings after acquittal by reason of insanity.

(a) After a finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity under Sections 104-25, 115-3, or 115-4 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the defendant shall be ordered to the Department of Human Services for an evaluation as to whether he is in need of mental health services. The order shall specify whether the evaluation shall be conducted on an inpatient or outpatient basis. If the evaluation is to be conducted on an inpatient basis, the defendant shall be placed in a secure setting. With the court order for evaluation shall be sent a copy of the arrest report, criminal charges, arrest record, jail record, any report prepared under Section 115-6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and any victim impact statement prepared under Section 6 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act. The clerk of the circuit court shall transmit this information to the Department within 5 days. If the court orders that the evaluation be done on an inpatient basis, the Department shall evaluate the defendant to determine to which secure facility the defendant shall be transported and, within 20 days of the transmittal by the clerk of the circuit court of the placement court order, notify the sheriff of the designated facility. Upon receipt of that notice, the sheriff shall promptly transport the defendant to the designated facility. During the period of time required to determine the appropriate placement, the defendant shall remain in jail. If, within 20 days of the transmittal by the clerk of the circuit court of the placement court order, the Department fails to notify the sheriff of the identity of the facility to which the defendant shall be transported, the sheriff shall contact a designated person within the Department to inquire about when a placement will become available at the designated facility and bed availability at other facilities. If, within 20 days of the transmittal by the clerk of the circuit court of the placement court order, the Department fails to notify the sheriff of the identity of the facility to which the defendant shall be transported, the sheriff shall notify the Department of its intent to transfer the defendant to the nearest secure mental health facility operated by the Department and inquire as to the status of the placement evaluation and availability for admission to such facility operated by the Department by contacting a designated person within the Department. The Department shall respond to the sheriff within 2 business days of the notice and inquiry by the sheriff seeking the transfer and the Department shall provide the sheriff with the status of the placement evaluation, information on bed and placement availability, and an estimated date of admission for the defendant and any changes to that estimated date of admission. If the Department notifies the sheriff during the 2 business day period of a facility operated by the Department with placement availability, the sheriff shall promptly transport the defendant to that facility. Individualized placement evaluations by the Department of Human Services determine the most appropriate setting for forensic treatment based upon a number of factors including mental health diagnosis, proximity to surviving victims, security need, age, gender, and proximity to family.

The Department shall provide the Court with a report of its evaluation within 30 days of the date of this order. The Court shall hold a hearing as provided under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code to determine if the individual is: (a) in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; (b) in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis; (c) a person not in need of mental health services. The Court shall enter its findings.

If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall order the defendant to the Department of Human Services. The defendant shall be placed in a secure setting. Such defendants placed in a secure setting shall not be permitted outside the facility's housing unit unless escorted or accompanied by personnel of the Department of Human Services or with the prior approval of the Court for unsupervised on-grounds privileges as provided herein. Any defendant placed in a secure setting pursuant to this Section, transported to court hearings or other necessary appointments off facility grounds by personnel of the Department of Human Services, shall be placed in security devices or otherwise secured during the period of transportation to assure secure transport of the defendant and the safety of Department of Human Services personnel and others. These security measures shall not constitute restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the defendant is found to be in need of mental health services, but not on an inpatient care basis, the Court shall conditionally release the defendant, under such conditions as set forth in this Section as will reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress and participation in treatment or rehabilitation and the safety of the defendant and others. If the Court finds the person not in need of mental health services, then the Court shall order the defendant discharged from custody.

(a-1) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:

(A) (Blank).

(B) "In need of mental health services on an inpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity but who, due to mental illness, is reasonably expected to inflict serious physical harm upon himself or another and who would benefit from inpatient care or is in need of inpatient care.

(C) "In need of mental health services on an outpatient basis" means: a defendant who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity who is not in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, but is in need of outpatient care, drug and/or alcohol rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, or family therapy, or chemotherapy.

(D) "Conditional Release" means: the release from either the custody of the Department of Human Services or the custody of the Court of a person who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity under such conditions as the Court may impose which reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment or habilitation and the safety of the defendant and others. The Court shall consider such terms and conditions which may include, but need not be limited to, outpatient care, alcoholic and drug rehabilitation programs, community adjustment programs, individual, group, family, and chemotherapy, random testing to ensure the defendant's timely and continuous taking of any medicines prescribed to control or manage his or her conduct or mental state, and periodic checks with the legal authorities and/or the Department of Human Services. The Court may order as a condition of conditional release that the defendant not contact the victim of the offense that resulted in the finding or verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity or any other person. The Court may order the Department of Human Services to provide care to any person conditionally released under this Section. The Department may contract with any public or private agency in order to discharge any responsibilities imposed under this Section. The Department shall monitor the provision of services to persons conditionally released under this Section and provide periodic reports to the Court concerning the services and the condition of the defendant. Whenever a person is conditionally released pursuant to this Section, the State's Attorney for the county in which the hearing is held shall designate in writing the name, telephone number, and address of a person employed by him or her who shall be notified in the event that either the reporting agency or the Department decides that the conditional release of the defendant should be revoked or modified pursuant to subsection (i) of this Section. Such conditional release shall be for a period of five years. However, the defendant, the person or facility rendering the treatment, therapy, program or outpatient care, the Department, or the State's Attorney may petition the Court for an extension of the conditional release period for an additional 5 years. Upon receipt of such a petition, the Court shall hold a hearing consistent with the provisions of paragraph (a), this paragraph (a-1), and paragraph (f) of this Section, shall determine whether the defendant should continue to be subject to the terms of conditional release, and shall enter an order either extending the defendant's period of conditional release for an additional 5-year 5 year period or discharging the defendant. Additional 5-year periods of conditional release may be ordered following a hearing as provided in this Section. However, in no event shall the defendant's period of conditional release continue beyond the maximum period of commitment ordered by the Court pursuant to paragraph (b) of this Section. These provisions for extension of conditional release shall only apply to defendants conditionally released on or after August 8, 2003. However, the extension provisions of Public Act 83-1449 apply only to defendants charged with a forcible felony.

(E) "Facility director" means the chief officer of a mental health or developmental disabilities facility or his or her designee or the supervisor of a program of treatment or habilitation or his or her designee. "Designee" may include a physician, clinical psychologist, social worker, nurse, or clinical professional counselor.

(b) If the Court finds the defendant in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, the admission, detention, care, treatment or habilitation, treatment plans, review proceedings, including review of treatment and treatment plans, and discharge of the defendant after such order shall be under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, except that the initial order for admission of a defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity shall be for an indefinite period of time. Such period of commitment shall not exceed the maximum length of time that the defendant would have been required to serve, less credit for good behavior as provided in Section 5-4-1 of the Unified Code of Corrections, before becoming eligible for release had he been convicted of and received the maximum sentence for the most serious crime for which he has been acquitted by reason of insanity. The Court shall determine the maximum period of commitment by an appropriate order. During this period of time, the defendant shall not be permitted to be in the community in any manner, including, but not limited to, off-grounds privileges, with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services, unsupervised on-grounds privileges, discharge or conditional or temporary release, except by a plan as provided in this Section. In no event shall a defendant's continued unauthorized absence be a basis for discharge. Not more than 30 days after admission and every 90 days thereafter so long as the initial order remains in effect, the facility director shall file a treatment plan report in writing with the court and forward a copy of the treatment plan report to the clerk of the court, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney, if the defendant is represented by counsel, or to a person authorized by the defendant under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to be sent a copy of the report. The report shall include an opinion as to whether the defendant is currently in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis or in need of mental health services on an outpatient basis. The report shall also summarize the basis for those findings and provide a current summary of the following items from the treatment plan: (1) an assessment of the defendant's treatment needs, (2) a description of the services recommended for treatment, (3) the goals of each type of element of service, (4) an anticipated timetable for the accomplishment of the goals, and (5) a designation of the qualified professional responsible for the implementation of the plan. The report may also include unsupervised on-grounds privileges, off-grounds privileges (with or without escort by personnel of the Department of Human Services), home visits and participation in work programs, but only where such privileges have been approved by specific court order, which order may include such conditions on the defendant as the Court may deem appropriate and necessary to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and the safety of the defendant and others.

(c) Every defendant acquitted of a felony by reason of insanity and subsequently found to be in need of mental health services shall be represented by counsel in all proceedings under this Section and under the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(1) The Court shall appoint as counsel the public defender or an attorney licensed by this State.

(2) Upon filing with the Court of a verified statement of legal services rendered by the private attorney appointed pursuant to paragraph (1) of this subsection, the Court shall determine a reasonable fee for such services. If the defendant is unable to pay the fee, the Court shall enter an order upon the State to pay the entire fee or such amount as the defendant is unable to pay from funds appropriated by the General Assembly for that purpose.

(d) When the facility director determines that:

(1) the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis; and

(2) the defendant may be conditionally released because he or she is still in need of mental health services or that the defendant may be discharged as not in need of any mental health services; or

(3) (blank);

the facility director shall give written notice to the Court, State's Attorney and defense attorney. Such notice shall set forth in detail the basis for the recommendation of the facility director, and specify clearly the recommendations, if any, of the facility director, concerning conditional release. Any recommendation for conditional release shall include an evaluation of the defendant's need for psychotropic medication, what provisions should be made, if any, to ensure that the defendant will continue to receive psychotropic medication following discharge, and what provisions should be made to assure the safety of the defendant and others in the event the defendant is no longer receiving psychotropic medication. Within 30 days of the notification by the facility director, the Court shall set a hearing and make a finding as to whether the defendant is:

(i) (blank); or

(ii) in need of mental health services in the form of inpatient care; or

(iii) in need of mental health services but not subject to inpatient care; or

(iv) no longer in need of mental health services; or

(v) (blank).

Upon finding by the Court, the Court shall enter its findings and such appropriate order as provided in subsections (a) and (a-1) of this Section.

(e) A defendant admitted pursuant to this Section, or any person on his behalf, may file a petition for treatment plan review or discharge or conditional release under the standards of this Section in the Court which rendered the verdict. Upon receipt of a petition for treatment plan review or discharge or conditional release, the Court shall set a hearing to be held within 120 days. Thereafter, no new petition may be filed for 180 days without leave of the Court.

(f) The Court shall direct that notice of the time and place of the hearing be served upon the defendant, the facility director, the State's Attorney, and the defendant's attorney. If requested by either the State or the defense or if the Court feels it is appropriate, an impartial examination of the defendant by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist as defined in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code who is not in the employ of the Department of Human Services shall be ordered, and the report considered at the time of the hearing.

(g) The findings of the Court shall be established by clear and convincing evidence. The burden of proof and the burden of going forth with the evidence rest with the defendant or any person on the defendant's behalf when a hearing is held to review a petition filed by or on behalf of the defendant. The evidence shall be presented in open Court with the right of confrontation and cross-examination. Such evidence may include, but is not limited to:

(1) whether the defendant appreciates the harm caused by the defendant to others and the community by his or her prior conduct that resulted in the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity;

(2) Whether the person appreciates the criminality of conduct similar to the conduct for which he or she was originally charged in this matter;

(3) the current state of the defendant's illness;

(4) what, if any, medications the defendant is taking to control his or her mental illness;

(5) what, if any, adverse physical side effects the medication has on the defendant;

(6) the length of time it would take for the defendant's mental health to deteriorate if the defendant stopped taking prescribed medication;

(7) the defendant's history or potential for alcohol and drug abuse;

(8) the defendant's past criminal history;

(9) any specialized physical or medical needs of the defendant;

(10) any family participation or involvement expected upon release and what is the willingness and ability of the family to participate or be involved;

(11) the defendant's potential to be a danger to himself, herself, or others; and

(12) any other factor or factors the Court deems appropriate.

(h) Before the court orders that the defendant be discharged or conditionally released, it shall order the facility director to establish a discharge plan that includes a plan for the defendant's shelter, support, and medication. If appropriate, the court shall order that the facility director establish a program to train the defendant in self-medication under standards established by the Department of Human Services. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is no longer in need of mental health services it shall order the facility director to discharge the defendant. If the Court finds, consistent with the provisions of this Section, that the defendant is in need of mental health services, and no longer in need of inpatient care, it shall order the facility director to release the defendant under such conditions as the Court deems appropriate and as provided by this Section. Such conditional release shall be imposed for a period of 5 years as provided in paragraph (D) of subsection (a-1) and shall be subject to later modification by the Court as provided by this Section. If the Court finds consistent with the provisions in this Section that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall order the facility director not to discharge or release the defendant in accordance with paragraph (b) of this Section.

(i) If within the period of the defendant's conditional release the State's Attorney determines that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of his or her release, the State's Attorney may petition the Court to revoke or modify the conditional release of the defendant. Upon the filing of such petition the defendant may be remanded to the custody of the Department, or to any other mental health facility designated by the Department, pending the resolution of the petition. Nothing in this Section shall prevent the emergency admission of a defendant pursuant to Article VI of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the voluntary admission of the defendant pursuant to Article IV of Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. If the Court determines, after hearing evidence, that the defendant has not fulfilled the conditions of release, the Court shall order a hearing to be held consistent with the provisions of paragraph (f) and (g) of this Section. At such hearing, if the Court finds that the defendant is in need of mental health services on an inpatient basis, it shall enter an order remanding him or her to the Department of Human Services or other facility. If the defendant is remanded to the Department of Human Services, he or she shall be placed in a secure setting unless the Court determines that there are compelling reasons that such placement is not necessary. If the Court finds that the defendant continues to be in need of mental health services but not on an inpatient basis, it may modify the conditions of the original release in order to reasonably assure the defendant's satisfactory progress in treatment and his or her safety and the safety of others in accordance with the standards established in paragraph (D) of subsection (a-1). Nothing in this Section shall limit a Court's contempt powers or any other powers of a Court.

(j) An order of admission under this Section does not affect the remedy of habeas corpus.

(k) In the event of a conflict between this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code or the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, the provisions of this Section shall govern.

(l) Public Act 90-593 This amendatory Act shall apply to all persons who have been found not guilty by reason of insanity and who are presently committed to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities (now the Department of Human Services).

(m) The Clerk of the Court shall transmit a certified copy of the order of discharge or conditional release to the Department of Human Services, to the sheriff of the county from which the defendant was admitted, to the Illinois Department of State Police, to the proper law enforcement agency for the municipality where the offense took place, and to the sheriff of the county into which the defendant is conditionally discharged. The Illinois Department of State Police shall maintain a centralized record of discharged or conditionally released defendants while they are under court supervision for access and use of appropriate law enforcement agencies.

(Source: P.A. 100-27, eff. 1-1-18; 100-424, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-10-17.)

Section 590. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 3-107 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/3-107) (from Ch. 110, par. 3-107)

Sec. 3-107. Defendants.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) or (c), in any action to review any final decision of an administrative agency, the administrative agency and all persons, other than the plaintiff, who were parties of record to the proceedings before the administrative agency shall be made defendants. The method of service of the decision shall be as provided in the Act governing the procedure before the administrative agency, but if no method is provided, a decision shall be deemed to have been served either when a copy of the decision is personally delivered or when a copy of the decision is deposited in the United States mail, in a sealed envelope or package, with postage prepaid, addressed to the party affected by the decision at his or her last known residence or place of business. The form of the summons and the issuance of alias summons shall be according to rules of the Supreme Court.

No action for administrative review shall be dismissed for lack of jurisdiction: (1) based upon misnomer of an agency, board, commission, or party that is properly served with summons that was issued in the action within the applicable time limits; or (2) for a failure to name an employee, agent, or member, who acted in his or her official capacity, of an administrative agency, board, committee, or government entity where a timely action for administrative review has been filed that identifies the final administrative decision under review and that makes a good faith effort to properly name the administrative agency, board, committee, or government entity. Naming the director or agency head, in his or her official capacity, shall be deemed to include as defendant the administrative agency, board, committee, or government entity that the named defendants direct or head. No action for administrative review shall be dismissed for lack of jurisdiction based upon the failure to name an administrative agency, board, committee, or government entity, where the director or agency head, in his or her official capacity, has been named as a defendant as provided in this Section.

If, during the course of a review action, the court determines that an agency or a party of record to the administrative proceedings was not made a defendant as required by the preceding paragraph, then the court shall grant the plaintiff 35 days from the date of the determination in which to name and serve the unnamed agency or party as a defendant. The court shall permit the newly served defendant to participate in the proceedings to the extent the interests of justice may require.

(b) With respect to actions to review decisions of a zoning board of appeals under Division 13 of Article 11 of the Illinois Municipal Code, "parties of record" means only the zoning board of appeals and applicants before the zoning board of appeals. The plaintiff shall send a notice of filing of the action by certified mail to each other person who appeared before and submitted oral testimony or written statements to the zoning board of appeals with respect to the decision appealed from. The notice shall be mailed within 2 days of the filing of the action. The notice shall state the caption of the action, the court in which the action is filed, and the names of the plaintiff in the action and the applicant to the zoning board of appeals. The notice shall inform the person of his or her right to intervene. Each person who appeared before and submitted oral testimony or written statements to the zoning board of appeals with respect to the decision appealed from shall have a right to intervene as a defendant in the action upon application made to the court within 30 days of the mailing of the notice.

(c) With respect to actions to review decisions of a hearing officer or a county zoning board of appeals under Division 5-12 of Article 5 of the Counties Code, "parties of record" means only the hearing officer or the zoning board of appeals and applicants before the hearing officer or the zoning board of appeals. The plaintiff shall send a notice of filing of the action by certified mail to each other person who appeared before and submitted oral testimony or written statements to the hearing officer or the zoning board of appeals with respect to the decision appealed from. The notice shall be mailed within 2 days of the filing of the action. The notice shall state the caption of the action, the court in which the action is filed, and the name of the plaintiff in the action and the applicant to the hearing officer or the zoning board of appeals. The notice shall inform the person of his or her right to intervene. Each person who appeared before and submitted oral testimony or written statements to the hearing officer or the zoning board of appeals with respect to the decision appealed from shall have a right to intervene as a defendant in the action upon application made to the court within 30 days of the mailing of the notice. This subsection (c) applies to zoning proceedings commenced on or after July 1, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-321).

(d) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 95-831 apply to all actions filed on or after August 21, 2007 (the effective date of Public Act 95-831). The changes made by Public Act 100-212 this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly apply to all actions filed on or after August 18, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-212) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-83, eff. 1-1-18; 100-212, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 595. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 25-5-70 as follows:

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-70)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on August 4, 2019)

Sec. 25-5-70. Quick-take; Macon County; Brush College Road.

(a) Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than one year after August 4, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-39) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly by Macon County and the City of Decatur for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of construction on Brush College Road:

Parcel 001

Macon County Route: Brush College Road Owner: The JDW Trust Section: 14-00268-02-EG Job Number: 6447 Sta. 30+71 RT. to Sta. 52+97 RT. (North Brush College Road) Permanent Index Number: 18-08-30-400-014

Part of the North Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 17 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian, Macon County, Illinois, more particularly described as follows:

Commencing at the Northeast corner of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 17 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian; thence West along the North line of said Southeast Quarter, a bearing based on the Illinois Coordinate System East Zone NAD83 (2011) Adjustment South 89 degrees 01 minutes 31 seconds West, a distance of 1168.47 feet to the Point of Beginning for the following described parcel:

Thence South 19 degrees 55 minutes 15 seconds West, a distance of 164.68 feet; thence South 22 degrees 09 minutes 15 seconds East, a distance of 9.83 feet; thence South 67 degrees 09 minutes 15 seconds East, a distance of 425.00 feet; thence South 66 degrees 16 minutes 22 seconds East, a distance of 283.28 feet to a point of curvature; thence Southeasterly along a circular curve to the right, radius point being South, a radius of 1067.71 feet, the chord across the last described circular curve course bears South 55 degrees 49 minutes 53 seconds East, a distance of 389.47 feet; thence North 79 degrees 23 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 40.06 feet to a point of curvature; thence Northeasterly along a circular curve to the left, radius point being West, a radius of 625.00 feet, the chord across the last described circular curve course bears North 30 degrees 51 minutes 43 seconds East, a distance of 284.02 feet to a point on the West Right of Way line of Brush College Road; thence South 00 degrees 20 minutes 50 seconds East along the said West Right of Way line, a distance of 871.15 feet; thence Northwesterly along a circular curve to the left, radius point being South, a radius of 931.75 feet, the chord across the last described circular curve course bears North 39 degrees 00 minutes 19 seconds West, a distance of 905.05 feet; thence North 68 degrees 04 minutes 22 seconds West, a distance of 233.28 feet; thence North 67 degrees 09 minutes 15 seconds West, a distance of 850.00 feet; thence North 77 degrees 09 minutes 14 seconds West, a distance of 130.95 feet to a point on the Easterly Right of Way Line of Illinois Route 48; thence North 37 degrees 48 minutes 50 seconds East along the said Easterly Right of Way Line, a distance of 156.61 feet to the Southwest corner of Lot 2 as designated upon the Final Plat of WMCD Subdivision, being a subdivision in the SE. 1/4 and SW. 1/4 of the NE. 1/4 of Section 30, Township 17 North, Range 3 East of the Third Principal Meridian, Macon County, Illinois and recorded in Book 1832, Page 338 of the Records in the Recorder's Office of Macon County, Illinois; thence North 89 degrees 01 minutes 31 seconds East along the North line of said Southeast Quarter as aforesaid to the Point of Beginning, containing 8.310 acres, more or less.

(b) This Section is repealed August 4, 2019 (2 years after the effective date of Public Act 100-39) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 100-39, eff. 8-4-17; revised 11-6-17.)

(735 ILCS 30/25-5-72)

Sec. 25-5-72 25-5-70. Quick-take; McHenry County; Randall Road. Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no more than one year after August 25, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 100-446) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly by McHenry County for the acquisition of the following described property for the purpose of construction on Randall Road:

RANDALL ROAD, McHENRY COUNTY, ILLINOIS

LEGAL DESCRIPTIONS

***

That part of Lot 3, except the West 10.0 feet thereof conveyed to McHenry County, Illinois, by quit claim deed recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806, in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0052702, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.00 feet to the east right of way line of Randall Road recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806 and the point of beginning; thence North 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 227.85 feet to the northerly line of said Lot 3; thence North 81 degrees 39 minutes 50 seconds East along the northerly line of said Lot 3, a distance of 3.52 feet; thence South 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds West, a distance of 228.52 feet to the south line of said Lot 3; thence North 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 2.94 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.017 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 3, except the West 10.0 feet thereof conveyed to McHenry County, Illinois, by quit claim deed recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806, in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0052702, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.00 feet to the east right of way line of Randall Road recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806; thence North 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 227.85 feet to the northerly line of said Lot 3; thence North 81 degrees 39 minutes 50 seconds East along the northerly line of said Lot 3, a distance of 3.52 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds West, a distance of 228.52 feet to the south line of said Lot 3; thence South 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 8.00 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 230.08 feet to the northerly line of said Lot 3; thence South 81 degrees 39 minutes 50 seconds West along the northerly line of said Lot 3, a distance of 8.15 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.043 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Rubloff Oakridge Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 4, 5 and "A" in Olsen's Second Resubdivision in the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Rubloff Oakridge Resubdivision recorded November 1, 2002 as document number 2002R0100964, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 22.73 feet to an angle point on said east line of Lot 3; thence South 5 degrees 31 minutes 46 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 100.12 feet to an angle point on said east line of Lot 3; thence South 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 288.24 feet to the southeast corner of Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 18 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 5.81 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 170.94 feet; thence North 87 degrees 12 minutes 18 seconds West, a distance of 22.00 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 40.00 feet; thence South 87 degrees 12 minutes 18 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 200.22 feet to the north line of said Lot 3; thence South 87 degrees 20 minutes 16 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 16.89 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.111 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Rubloff Oakridge Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 4, 5 and "A" in Olsen's Second Resubdivision in the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Rubloff Oakridge Resubdivision recorded November 1, 2002 as document number 2002R0100964, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 22.73 feet to an angle point on said east line of Lot 3; thence South 5 degrees 31 minutes 46 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 100.12 feet to an angle point on said east line of Lot 3; thence South 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 288.24 feet to the southeast corner of Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 18 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 5.81 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 170.94 feet; thence North 87 degrees 12 minutes 18 seconds West, a distance of 22.00 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 40.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 87 degrees 12 minutes 18 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 200.22 feet to the north line of said Lot 3; thence North 87 degrees 20 minutes 16 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence South 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds West, a distance of 200.18 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.069 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Olsen's Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 17, 1995 as document number 95R033749 and that part of Lot 3 in Olsen's Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 3 in Olsen's Subdivision recorded August 17, 1995 as document number 95R033749 and Lot 4 in Olsen's First Resubdivision of Lot 2 and part of Lot 3 in Olsen's Subdivision recorded August 14, 1996 as document number 96R042075 of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Olsen's Second Resubdivision recorded November 5, 1999 as document number 1999R0076925, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 87 degrees 20 minutes 16 seconds West along a south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 16.89 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 154.86 feet to a point of curvature; thence northerly 437.88 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17159.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 03 minutes 51 seconds East, 437.87 feet; thence North 88 degrees 40 minutes 01 second West along a radial line, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence northerly 412.44 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17144.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 38 minutes 38 seconds East, 412.43 feet; thence North 45 degrees 12 minutes 48 seconds West, a distance of 21.16 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 332.84 feet; thence North 83 degrees 51 minutes 10 seconds West, a distance of 197.73 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 52 minutes 34 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 12.43 feet to the northwest corner of Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 551.12 feet to the northeasterly line of Lot 1; thence South 45 degrees 19 minutes 13 seconds East along the northeasterly line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.15 feet to east line of Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 21 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 430.58 feet (430.63 feet, recorded) to an angle point on the east line of Lot 1; thence South 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1 and along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 603.78 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.993 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Olsen's Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 17, 1995 as document number 95R033749 and that part of Lot 3 in Olsen's Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 3 in Olsen's Subdivision recorded August 17, 1995 as document number 95R033749 and Lot 4 in Olsen's First Resubdivision of Lot 2 and part of Lot 3 in Olsen's Subdivision recorded August 14, 1996 as document number 96R042075 of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Olsen's Second Resubdivision recorded November 5, 1999 as document number 1999R0076925, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 87 degrees 20 minutes 16 seconds West along a south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 16.89 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 154.86 feet to a point of curvature; thence northerly 437.88 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17159.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 03 minutes 51 seconds East, 437.87 feet; thence North 88 degrees 40 minutes 01 second West along a radial line, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence southerly 437.50 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 17144.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 2 degrees 03 minutes 51 seconds West, 437.49 feet to a point of tangency; thence South 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds West, a distance of 154.89 feet to a south line of said Lot 3; thence South 87 degrees 20 minutes 16 seconds East along a south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 15.00 to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.204 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Olsen's Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 17, 1995 as document number 95R033749, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of Lot 3 in Olsen's Second Resubdivision according to the plat thereof recorded November 5, 1999 as document number 1999R0076925; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 87 degrees 20 minutes 16 seconds West along a south line of Lot 3 in said Olsen's Second Resubdivision, a distance of 16.89 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 154.86 feet to a point of curvature; thence northerly 437.88 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17159.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 03 minutes 51 seconds East, 437.87 feet; thence North 88 degrees 40 minutes 01 second West along a radial line, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence northerly 35.00 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17144.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 16 minutes 28 seconds East, 35.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence northerly 377.44 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17144.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 35 minutes 07 second East, 377.43 feet; thence North 45 degrees 12 minutes 48 seconds West, a distance of 21.16 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 332.84 feet; thence North 83 degrees 51 minutes 10 seconds West, a distance of 197.73 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence South 1 degree 52 minutes 34 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 6.02 feet; thence South 83 degrees 51 minutes 10 second East, a distance of 197.62 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 338.15 feet; thence southerly 326.14 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 17134.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 28 minutes 12 seconds West, 326.14 feet; thence North 88 degrees 40 minutes 01 second West, a distance of 30.00 feet; thence southerly 60.00 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 17104.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 1 degree 06 minutes 55 seconds West, 60.00 feet; thence South 88 degrees 40 minutes 01 second East, a distance of 40.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.203 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 32; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds East along the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 32, a distance of 23.41 feet to a point of intersection with the Northerly extension of the east right of way line of Randall Road recorded May 20, 1971 as document number 543017; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 21 seconds West along the Northerly extension of the said east right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 70.00 feet to the south right of way line of Huntington Drive recorded July 23, 1990 as document number 90R026911; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive, a distance of 99.99 feet to a point of curvature on said south right of way line; thence easterly 114.98 feet (111.67 feet, recorded) along the southerly right of way line of said Huntington Drive on a curve to the left having a radius of 334.98 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 80 degrees 22 minutes 26 seconds East, 114.42 feet to a point of reverse curvature on said southerly right of way line; thence easterly 90.96 feet (88.34 feet, recorded) along the said southerly right of way line of Huntington Drive on a curve to the right having a radius of 264.98 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 80 degrees 22 minutes 26 seconds East, 90.51 feet to a point of tangency on the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive, a distance of 319.64 feet; thence South 81 degrees 12 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance of 225.11 feet; thence South 8 degrees 47 minutes 30 seconds East, a distance of 5.00 feet; thence South 81 degrees 12 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance of 128.86 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 172.42 feet; thence South 64 degrees 03 minutes 37 seconds West, a distance of 69.23 feet; thence southerly 582.56 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 17334.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 56 minutes 37 seconds West, 582.53 feet to the south line of the grantor according to warranty deed recorded March 9, 1910 as document number 15359; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 06 seconds West along the south line of the grantor according to said warranty deed, a distance of 77.27 feet to the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 32; thence North 2 degrees 03 minutes 28 seconds East along the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 32, a distance of 710.08 feet (710 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 1.559 acres, more or less, of which 0.571 acre, more or less, was previously dedicated or used for highway purposes.

***

That part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 32; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds East along the north line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 32, a distance of 23.41 feet to a point of intersection with the Northerly extension of the east right of way line of Randall Road recorded May 20, 1971 as document number 543017; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 21 seconds West along the Northerly extension of the said east right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 70.00 feet to the south right of way line of Huntington Drive recorded July 23, 1990 as document number 90R026911; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive, a distance of 99.99 feet to a point of curvature on said south right of way line; thence easterly 114.98 feet (111.67 feet, recorded) along the southerly right of way line of said Huntington Drive on a curve to the left having a radius of 334.98 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 80 degrees 22 minutes 26 seconds East, 114.42 feet to a point of reverse curvature on said southerly right of way line; thence easterly 90.96 feet (88.34 feet, recorded) along the said southerly right of way line of Huntington Drive on a curve to the right having a radius of 264.98 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 80 degrees 22 minutes 26 seconds East, 90.51 feet to a point of tangency on the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive, a distance of 319.64 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 81 degrees 12 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance of 225.11 feet; thence South 8 degrees 47 minutes 30 seconds East, a distance of 5.00 feet; thence South 81 degrees 12 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance of 128.86 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 172.42 feet; thence South 64 degrees 03 minutes 37 seconds West, a distance of 69.23 feet; thence southerly 582.56 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 17334.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 56 minutes 37 seconds West, 582.53 feet to the south line of the grantor according to warranty deed recorded March 9, 1910 as document number 15359; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 06 seconds East along the south line of the grantor according to said warranty deed, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence northerly 102.10 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17344.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 44 minutes 12 seconds East, 102.10 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 70.03 feet; thence northerly 295.03 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17414.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 04 minutes 35 seconds East, 295.03 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 50.00 feet; thence northerly 125.49 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 17464.52 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 23 minutes 01 second East, 125.49 feet; thence North 50 degrees 24 minutes 29 seconds East, a distance of 29.58 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 87.71 feet; thence North 81 degrees 12 minutes 30 seconds East, a distance of 164.10 feet; thence North 65 degrees 08 minutes 08 seconds East, a distance of 133.64 feet; thence North 8 degrees 47 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence North 81 degrees 12 minutes 30 seconds East, a distance of 112.61 feet; thence North 0 degrees 18 minutes 19 seconds East, a distance of 7.64 feet to the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 34 seconds West along the said south right of way line of Huntington Drive, a distance of 47.64 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 1.849 acres, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 281.80 feet (281.83 feet, recorded) to a southwest corner of Lot 1; thence northeasterly 10.29 feet along a northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the left having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 30 degrees 40 minutes 11 seconds East, 10.27 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 160.24 feet; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 24 seconds East, a distance of 5.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 54.47 feet; thence North 44 degrees 48 minutes 06 seconds East, a distance of 87.77 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 40 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 64.27 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.082 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at a southeast corner of said Lot 1, being also the southwest corner of Lot 5 in said Meijer Store #206 Subdivision; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 74.24 feet; thence North 0 degrees 21 minutes 24 seconds West, a distance of 39.98 feet; thence North 89 degrees 24 minutes 27 seconds East, a distance of 63.85 feet to an east line of said Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 27 seconds East along an east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 9.70 feet to a northeasterly line of Lot 1; thence southeasterly 32.50 feet along a northeasterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the left having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 19 degrees 22 minutes 16 seconds East, 31.91 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.061 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 281.80 feet (281.83 feet, recorded) to a southwest corner of Lot 1; thence northeasterly 10.29 feet along a northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the left having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 30 degrees 40 minutes 11 seconds East, 10.27 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 78.24 feet; thence North 0 degrees 21 minutes 24 seconds West, a distance of 27.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 73.61 feet to a west line of said Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 06 minutes 47 seconds East along a west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 6.50 feet to a northwesterly line of Lot 1; thence southwesterly 21.18 feet along a northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the right having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 12 degrees 16 minutes 19 seconds West, 21.01 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.046 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 281.80 feet (281.83 feet, recorded) to a southwest corner of Lot 1; thence northeasterly 10.29 feet along a northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the left having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 30 degrees 40 minutes 11 seconds East, 10.27 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 160.24 feet; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 24 seconds East, a distance of 5.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 35.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 19.47 feet; thence North 44 degrees 48 minutes 06 seconds East, a distance of 87.77 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 40 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 391.21 feet to a northeast corner of Lot 1; thence southwesterly 49.51 feet along a northeasterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the right having a radius of 98.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 62 degrees 09 minutes 20 seconds West, 48.99 feet; thence South 1 degree 09 minutes 06 seconds West, a distance of 56.02 feet; thence North 89 degrees 58 minutes 13 seconds East, a distance of 36.65 feet; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 312.74 feet; thence South 44 degrees 48 minutes 06 seconds West, a distance of 80.18 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 17.40 feet; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 24 seconds East, a distance of 5.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.132 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of Lot 3 in said Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being also a southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 01 minute 40 seconds East along an east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 18.24 feet; thence northerly 47.70 feet along an east line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the left having a radius of 31851.48 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 00 minutes 38 seconds West, 47.70 feet to a northwesterly line of Lot 1; thence southwesterly 73.12 feet (73.16 feet, recorded) along a northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the right having a radius of 98.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 68 degrees 49 minutes 52 seconds West, 71.47 feet to a north line of Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 59 minutes 09 seconds West along a north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 1.65 feet; thence South 0 degrees 04 minutes 51 seconds East, a distance of 30.98 feet to a south line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 58 minutes 47 seconds East along a south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 36.76 feet to a southwesterly line of Lot 1; thence southeasterly 33.23 feet (33.24 feet, recorded) along a southwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the right having a radius of 59.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 73 degrees 49 minutes 27 seconds East, 32.79 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.063 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 176.22 feet; thence North 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 3.32 feet; thence North 85 degrees 39 minutes 34 seconds East, a distance of 91.74 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 89.97 feet to the southeasterly line of said Lot 5; thence southwesterly 10.29 feet along the southeasterly line of said Lot 5 on a curve to the right having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 30 degrees 40 minutes 11 seconds West, 10.27 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.031 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 5; thence northwesterly 32.50 feet along the southwesterly line of said Lot 5 on a curve to the right having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 19 degrees 22 minutes 16 seconds West, 31.91 feet to the west line of Lot 5; thence North 0 degrees 21 minutes 27 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 5, a distance of 9.70 feet; thence North 89 degrees 24 minutes 27 seconds East, a distance of 19.31 feet; thence South 0 degrees 35 minutes 33 seconds East, a distance of 39.90 feet to the south line of said Lot 5; thence South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 9.08 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.015 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 21 minutes 14 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 176.22 feet; thence North 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 3.32 feet; thence North 85 degrees 39 minutes 34 seconds East, a distance of 91.74 feet; thence North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 84.21 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds East, a distance of 5.76 feet to the southeasterly line of said Lot 5; thence northeasterly 21.18 feet along the southeasterly line of said Lot 5 on a curve to the left having a radius of 49.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 12 degrees 16 minutes 19 seconds East, 21.01 feet to the east line of said Lot 5; thence North 0 degrees 06 minutes 47 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 5, a distance of 6.50 feet; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 10.39 feet; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 24 seconds East, a distance of 27.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.006 acre, more or less, or 249 square feet, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 11 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third

Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 4, 1997 as document number 97R025826, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 11; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 11, a distance of 118.49 feet to the southwest corner of special warranty deed recorded December 28, 2015 as document number 2015R0047895, being also the northwest corner of the grantor and the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the north line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 33.20 feet; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 81.58 feet to the south line of said Lot 11; thence North 89 degrees 48 minutes 02 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 11, a distance of 33.14 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 11; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 11, a distance of 81.58 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.062 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 11 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 4, 1997 as document number 97R025826, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 11; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 11, a distance of 118.49 feet to the southwest corner of special warranty deed recorded December 28, 2015 as document number 2015R0047895, being also the northwest corner of the grantor; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the north line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 33.20 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 81.58 feet to the south line of said Lot 11; thence South 89 degrees 48 minutes 02 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 11, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds West, a distance of 81.58 feet to the north line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds West along the north line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.019 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 2 and 3 of Randall Rolls Resubdivision in the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision recorded June 7, 2001 as document number 2001R0038572, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 58 minutes 44 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 23.38 feet; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 145.25 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 23.28 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 2; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 145.17 feet (145.12 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.078 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 2 and 3 of Randall Rolls Resubdivision in the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision recorded June 7, 2001 as document number 2001R0038572, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 58 minutes 44 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 23.38 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 145.25 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds West, a distance of 145.28 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence North 89 degrees 58 minutes 44 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.033 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 58 minute 47 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 8.02 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds West, a distance of 190.10 feet; thence South 89 degrees 58 minutes 13 seconds West, a distance of 60.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 51 seconds West, a distance of 20.21 feet to the north line of said Lot 3; thence South 89 degrees 58 minutes 47 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 36.76 feet to the northeasterly line of Lot 3; thence southeasterly 33.23 feet (33.24 feet, recorded) along the northeasterly line of said Lot 3 on a curve to the right having a radius of 59.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 73 degrees 49 minutes 27 seconds East, 32.79 feet to the east line of Lot 3; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 40 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 201.14 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.065 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 2 and 3 of Randall Rolls Resubdivision in the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision recorded June 7, 2001 as document number 2001R0038572, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 47 minutes 16 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.33 feet; thence southerly 69.10 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11550.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 12 minutes 04 seconds East, 69.10 feet to a point of tangency; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 162.89 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 58 minutes 44 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.28 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 232.06 feet (231.98 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.125 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 2 and 3 of Randall Rolls Resubdivision in the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Randall Rolls Second Resubdivision recorded June 7, 2001 as document number 2001R0038572, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 47 minutes 16 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.33 feet to the point of beginning; thence southerly 69.10 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11550.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 12 minutes 04 seconds East, 69.10 feet to a point of tangency; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 162.89 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 58 minutes 44 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds West, a distance of 231.95 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 16 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 10.21 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.053 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence southwesterly 10.76 feet along the southeasterly line of said Lot 2 on a curve to the right having a radius of 98.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 50 degrees 47 minute 09 seconds West, 10.76 feet; thence northerly 301.58 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11370.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 00 minutes 14 seconds West, 301.57 feet to the northeasterly line of said Lot 2; thence South 54 degrees 53 minutes 52 seconds East along the northeasterly line of said Lot 2, a distance 14.75 feet to the east line of Lot 2; thence southerly 286.24 feet along the east line of said Lot 2 on a curve to the right having a radius of 31851.48 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 18 minutes 39 seconds East, 286.24 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.066 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Meijer Store #206 Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part of Lot 6 in Eagle Commercial Center in the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Meijer #206 Subdivision recorded September 25, 2002 as document number 2002R0084811, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence southwesterly 22.96 feet along the southeasterly line of said Lot 2 on a curve to the right having a radius of 98.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 54 degrees 18 minute 54 seconds West, 22.91 feet to the point of beginning; thence southwesterly 50.16 feet along the southeasterly line of said Lot 2 on a curve to the right having a radius of 98.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 75 degrees 28 minutes 32 seconds West, 49.63 feet to the south line of Lot 2; thence North 89 degrees 59 minutes 09 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 1.65 feet; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 51 seconds West, a distance of 12.19 feet; thence North 89 degrees 42 minutes 18 seconds East, a distance of 49.70 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.010 acre, more or less, or 418 square feet, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Re-Subdivision of Lot 14 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 2, being a resubdivision of Kaper's Business Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Re-Subdivision of Lot 14 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 2 recorded August 24, 2001 as document number 2001R0061761, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 121.99 feet to a point of curvature on said west line of Lot 1; thence northeasterly 47.12 feet (47.13 feet, recorded) along the northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the right having a radius of 30.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 43 degrees 55 minutes 08 seconds East, 42.42 feet to a point of tangency on the north line of Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.61 feet; thence South 43 degrees 53 minutes 35 seconds West, a distance of 48.85 feet; thence southerly 117.43 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11550.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 1 degree 29 minutes 53 seconds East, 117.43 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 31.95 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.119 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Re-Subdivision of Lot 14 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 2, being a resubdivision of Kaper's Business Center Unit 2, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Re-Subdivision of Lot 14 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 2 recorded August 24, 2001 as document number 2001R0061761, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 121.99 feet to a point of curvature on said west line of Lot 1; thence northeasterly 47.12 feet (47.13 feet, recorded) along the northwesterly line of said Lot 1 on a curve to the right having a radius of 30.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 43 degrees 55 minutes 08 seconds East, 42.42 feet to a point of tangency on the north line of Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.61 feet; thence South 43 degrees 53 minutes 35 seconds West, a distance of 27.90 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing South 43 degrees 53 minutes 35 seconds West, a distance of 20.95 feet; thence southerly 117.43 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11550.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 1 degree 29 minutes 53 seconds East, 117.43 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence northerly 132.25 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11565.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 32 minutes 03 seconds West, 132.25 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.043 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 54 minutes 55 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 28.15 feet; thence southerly 97.22 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11365.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 2 degrees 41 minutes 33 seconds East, 97.22 feet to a point of reverse curvature; thence southerly 89.95 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11555.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 2 degrees 42 minutes 53 seconds East, 89.95 feet; thence South 40 degrees 49 minutes 13 seconds East, a distance of 48.27 feet to the south line of said Lot 5; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 34.32 feet to a point of curvature on said south line of Lot 5; thence northwesterly 47.12 feet along the southwesterly line of said Lot 5 on a curve to the right having a radius of 30.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 46 degrees 04 minutes 52 seconds West, 42.43 feet to a point of tangency on the west line of Lot 5; thence North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 5, a distance of 194.21 feet (194.23 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.169 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 54 minutes 55 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 28.15 feet to the point of beginning; thence southerly 97.22 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11365.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 2 degrees 41 minutes 33 seconds East, 97.22 feet to a point of reverse curvature; thence southerly 89.95 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11555.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 2 degrees 42 minutes 53 seconds East, 89.95 feet; thence South 40 degrees 49 minutes 13 seconds East, a distance of 16.11; thence northerly 102.66 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11565.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 41 minutes 00 seconds West, 102.66 feet to a point of reverse curvature; thence northerly 96.90 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11355.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 41 minutes 36 seconds West, 96.90 feet to the north line of said Lot 5; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 55 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.044 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 4 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 54 minutes 50 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence southerly 225.01 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11365.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 1 degree 52 minutes 49 seconds East, 225.01 feet to the south line of said Lot 4; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 55 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 28.15 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 4; thence North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 4, a distance of 224.98 feet (225.00 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.135 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 4 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 54 minutes 50 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 25.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence southerly 225.01 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11365.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 1 degree 52 minutes 49 seconds East, 225.01 feet to the south line of said Lot 4; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 55 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence northerly 225.01 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11355.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 52 minutes 52 seconds West, 225.01 feet to the north line of said Lot 4; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 50 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.052 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Eagle Commercial Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 3 in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Eagle Commercial Center recorded November 4, 1993 as document number 93R067593, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 29 minutes 18 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 2, a distance of 240.40 feet (240.45 feet, recorded) to the southeast corner of Lot 2; thence South 88 degrees 53 minutes 44 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 38.09 feet; thence northerly 182.71 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11545.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 51 minutes 15 seconds West, 182.71 feet to a point of tangency; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 57.70 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 00 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 34.97 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.204 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Eagle Commercial Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 3 in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Eagle Commercial Center recorded November 4, 1993 as document number 93R067593, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 29 minutes 18 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 2, a distance of 240.40 feet (240.45 feet, recorded) to the southeast corner of Lot 2; thence South 88 degrees 53 minutes 44 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 38.09 feet to the point of beginning; thence northerly 182.71 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11545.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 51 minutes 15 seconds West, 182.71 feet to a point of tangency; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 57.70 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 00 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 42.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 7.88 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 17.56 feet; thence South 32 degrees 28 minutes 48 seconds East, a distance of 27.24 feet; thence southerly 209.06 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11555.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 47 minutes 21 seconds East, 209.05 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence North 88 degrees 53 minutes 44 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.065 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 26.34 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 54.02 feet to a point of tangency; thence southerly 180.97 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11365.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 51 minutes 25 seconds East, 180.97 feet to the south line of said Lot 3; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 25.00 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 3; thence North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 3, a distance of 234.98 feet (235.00 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.137 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 26.34 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 54.02 feet to a point of tangency; thence southerly 180.97 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 11365.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 0 degrees 51 minutes 25 seconds East, 180.97 feet to the south line of said Lot 3; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 50 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence northerly 180.85 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 11355.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 0 degrees 51 minutes 26 seconds West, 180.85 feet to a point of tangency; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 54.14 feet to the north line of said Lot 3; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.054 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part conveyed the County of McHenry, a body politic, by trustee's deed recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153, in River Pointe Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 1 and 6 in Kaper's East Subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said River Pointe Subdivision recorded May 6, 1992 as document number 92R024749, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 5.81 feet (5.86 feet, recorded) to an angle point on said west line of Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 22 minutes 56 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 60.19 feet (60.15 feet, recorded) to a north line of Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds East along a north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 32.44 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 66.00 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 31.34 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.048 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part conveyed the County of McHenry, a body politic, by trustee's deed recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153, in River Pointe Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 1 and 6 in Kaper's East Subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said River Pointe Subdivision recorded May 6, 1992 as document number 92R024749, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 06 minutes 06 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 37.18 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 702.82 feet; thence South 53 degrees 08 minutes 32 seconds West, a distance of 69.22 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 188.86 feet to a south line of said Lot 1; thence South 88 degrees 55 minutes 17 seconds West along a south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 36.46 feet to the west line of Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 22 minutes 56 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 169.25 feet to the easterly right of way line of Randall Road recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153; thence North 11 degrees 32 minutes 05 seconds East along the said easterly right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 48.39 feet to the southeasterly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153; thence North 53 degrees 08 minutes 32 seconds East along the said southeasterly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 54.21 feet to the south right of way line of said Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 549.97 feet to an angle point on said south right of way line; thence North 0 degrees 05 minutes 03 seconds East along said right of way line, a distance of 20.71 feet (20.00 feet, recorded) to the north line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 57 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 193.66 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.609 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part conveyed the County of McHenry, a body politic, by trustee's deed recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153, in River Pointe Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 1 and 6 in Kaper's East Subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said River Pointe Subdivision recorded May 6, 1992 as document number 92R024749, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 1 degree 04 minutes 41 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 5.81 feet (5.86 feet, recorded) to an angle point on said west line of Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 22 minutes 56 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 60.19 feet (60.15 feet, recorded) to a north line of Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds East along a north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 32.44 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 66.00 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 66.00 feet to a north line of said Lot 1; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds West along a north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.053 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part conveyed the County of McHenry, a body politic, by trustee's deed recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153, in River Pointe Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 1 and 6 in Kaper's East Subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said River Pointe Subdivision recorded May 6, 1992 as document number 92R024749, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 06 minutes 06 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 37.18 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 702.82 feet; thence South 53 degrees 08 minutes 32 seconds West, a distance of 56.79 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing South 53 degrees 08 minutes 32 seconds West, a distance of 12.43 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 188.86 feet to a south line of said Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 55 minutes 17 seconds East along a south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 196.12 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.044 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part conveyed the County of McHenry, a body politic, by trustee's deed recorded April 7, 2003 as document number 2003R0044153, in River Pointe Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lots 1 and 6 in Kaper's East Subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said River Pointe Subdivision recorded May 6, 1992 as document number 92R024749, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 06 minutes 06 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 37.18 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 702.82 feet; thence South 53 degrees 08 minutes 32 seconds West, a distance of 33.38 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 92.13 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 106.31 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 174.66 feet; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 98.61 feet; thence North 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 15.09 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 184.92 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 73.56 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 06 minutes 06 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.01 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.320 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading, parking lot and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 6, 1992 as document number 92R042897, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 88 degrees 53 minutes 12 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 33.84 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 287.36 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence South 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 28.39 feet to the northeast corner of Lot 2; thence South 1 degree 29 minutes 18 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 2, a distance of 286.79 feet (286.85 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.205 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 6, 1992 as document number 92R042897, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 88 degrees 53 minutes 12 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 33.84 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 287.36 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence North 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 40.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 40.77 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 30.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 227.38 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 32.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 20.03 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence North 88 degrees 53 minutes 12 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 42.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.109 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 55 minutes 17 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 36.46 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 235.02 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence South 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 32.44 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 2; thence North 1 degree 22 minutes 56 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 235.01 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.186 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded February 28, 1989 as document number 89R005770, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 88 degrees 55 minutes 17 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 36.46 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 235.02 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence North 88 degrees 54 minutes 45 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 35.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 19.81 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 214.90 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence South 88 degrees 55 minutes 17 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.065 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by trustee's deed recorded July 24, 2000 as document number 2000R0039474 and also except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded April 10, 2008 as document number 2008R0020772, in Montero's Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 4 in Eagle Commercial Center, a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Montero's Subdivision recorded February 1, 1996 as document number 96R005406 and corrected by certificates of correction recorded February 27, 1996 as document number 96R009437 and recorded March 20, 1996 as document number 96R013391, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 18.40 feet to the southerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded July 24, 2000 as document number 2000R0039474 and the point of beginning; thence continuing South 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 15.16 feet to the southerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded April 10, 2008 as document number 2008R0020772; thence North 85 degrees 46 minutes 02 seconds West along the said southerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded as document number 2008R0020772, a distance of 161.94 feet (162.34 feet, recorded) to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 06 minutes 24 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 16.64 feet to the said southerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded as document number 2000R0039474; thence South 85 degrees 14 minutes 54 seconds East along the said southerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded as document number 2000R0039474, a distance of 162.06 feet (162.34 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.059 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by trustee's deed recorded July 24, 2000 as document number 2000R0039474 and also except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded April 10, 2008 as document number 2008R0020772, in Montero's Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 4 in Eagle Commercial Center, a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Montero's Subdivision recorded February 1, 1996 as document number 96R005406 and corrected by certificates of correction recorded February 27, 1996 as document number 96R009437 and recorded March 20, 1996 as document number 96R013391, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 33.56 feet to the south right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded April 10, 2008 as document number 2008R0020772 and the point of beginning; thence continuing South 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 8.97 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 161.48 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 06 minutes 24 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 6.14 feet to the said south right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence North 88 degrees 56 minutes 36 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 161.50 feet (161.22 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning;

Said parcel containing 0.028 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by trustee's deed recorded July 24, 2000 as document number 2000R0039474 and also except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded April 10, 2008 as document number 2008R0020772, in Montero's Subdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 4 in Eagle Commercial Center, a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Montero's Subdivision recorded February 1, 1996 as document number 96R005406 and corrected by certificates of correction recorded February 27, 1996 as document number 96R009437 and recorded March 20, 1996 as document number 96R013391, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 33.56 feet to the south right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded April 10, 2008 as document number 2008R0020772; thence continuing South 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 8.97 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 161.48 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 06 minutes 24 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 12.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 161.48 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 06 minutes 33 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 12.00 feet to the point of beginning;

Said temporary easement containing 0.044 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Resubdivision of Lot 1 - Eagle Commercial Center, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 30, 1995 as document number 95R052639 and corrected by affidavits recorded July 11, 1996 as document number 96R035878 and recorded December 17, 1996 as document number 96R063597, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 58 minutes 48 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 28.90 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 94.33 feet; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 6.41 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds West, a distance of 69.42 feet; thence North 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 15.17 feet; thence South 89 degrees 11 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance 216.28 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 30 minutes 47 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.35 feet to the northwest corner of Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 59 minutes 28 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 380.14 feet (380.19 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.227 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Resubdivision of Lot 1 - Eagle Commercial Center, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 30, 1995 as document number 95R052639 and corrected by affidavits recorded July 11, 1996 as document number 96R035878 and recorded December 17, 1996 as document number 96R063597, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 58 minutes 48 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 28.90 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 94.33 feet; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 6.41 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds West, a distance of 69.42 feet; thence North 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 15.17 feet; thence South 89 degrees 11 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance 216.28 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence South 1 degree 30 minutes 47 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 56.12 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 34.77 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 30.16 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 344.13 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 58 minutes 48 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 20.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.225 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and parking lot construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by special warranty deed recorded February 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0010880, in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 6, 1992 as document number 92R042897, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 28.39 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 144.19 feet; thence North 41 degrees 13 minutes 58 seconds West, a distance of 76.89 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 133.22 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 29 minutes 39 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 8.05 feet to the south right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded February 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0010880; thence South 89 degrees 59 minutes 28 seconds East along the said south right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 152.35 feet (152.37 feet, recorded) to the northeasterly line of said Lot 1; thence South 42 degrees 40 minutes 15 seconds East along the northeasterly line of said Lot 1, a distance of 84.56 feet to the east line of Lot 1; thence South 1 degree 29 minutes 18 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 147.77 feet (147.80 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.154 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by special warranty deed recorded February 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0010880, in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 6, 1992 as document number 92R042897, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 28.39 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 144.19 feet; thence North 41 degrees 13 minutes 58 seconds West, a distance of 55.46 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 41 degrees 13 minutes 58 seconds West, a distance of 21.43 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 133.22 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence South 1 degree 29 minutes 39 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 12.56 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 125.35 feet to a point of curvature; thence easterly 10.22 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 48.02 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 83 degrees 57 minutes 29 seconds East, 10.20 feet to a point of tangency; thence South 77 degrees 51 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 11.78 feet to the point of beginning.

Said permanent easement containing 0.041 acre, more or less.

Said permanent easement to be used for highway purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by special warranty deed recorded February 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0010880, in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 6, 1992 as document number 92R042897, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 28.39 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 144.19 feet; thence North 41 degrees 13 minutes 58 seconds West, a distance of 15.29 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 106.76 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 30.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 48.90 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 40.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.068 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by special warranty deed recorded February 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0010880, in Kaper's West Subdivision, being a subdivision of the East Half of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded August 6, 1992 as document number 92R042897, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 59 minutes 52 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 28.39 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 144.19 feet; thence North 41 degrees 13 minutes 58 seconds West, a distance of 49.56 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 150.69 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 29 minutes 39 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 8.01 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 125.35 feet to a point of curvature; thence easterly 10.22 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 48.02 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 83 degrees 57 minutes 29 seconds East, 10.20 feet to a point of tangency; thence South 77 degrees 51 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 11.78 feet; thence South 41 degrees 13 minutes 58 seconds East, a distance of 5.90 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.027 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Oakridge Business Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 7 and that part of vacated Crystal Lake Road adjacent to said Lot 7 lying North of the south line extended East, in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Business Center recorded September 15, 1998 as document number 1998R0061102, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 57 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 177.11 feet (177.13 feet, recorded) to the northeast corner of Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 48 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 21.88 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 176.67 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 06 minutes 06 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 22.18 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.089 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Oakridge Business Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 7 and that part of vacated Crystal Lake Road adjacent to said Lot 7 lying North of the south line extended East, in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Business Center recorded September 15, 1998 as document number 1998R0061102, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 57 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 177.11 feet (177.13 feet, recorded) to the northeast corner of Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 48 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 21.88 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 176.67 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence South 1 degree 06 minutes 06 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 6.86 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 145.33 feet; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 31.19 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 01 minutes 48 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 32.02 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.046 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and parking lot construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Oakridge Business Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 7 and that part of vacated Crystal Lake Road adjacent to said Lot 7 lying North of the south line extended East, in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Business Center recorded September 15, 1998 as document number 1998R0061102, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 01 minute 46 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 2, a distance of 21.65 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 140.68 feet to the west line of said Lot 2; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 48 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 21.88 feet to the northwest corner of Lot 2; thence South 89 degrees 57 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 140.68 feet (140.70 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.070 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Oakridge Business Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 7 and that part of vacated Crystal Lake Road adjacent to said Lot 7 lying North of the south line extended East, in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Business Center recorded September 15, 1998 as document number 1998R0061102, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 01 minute 46 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 2, a distance of 21.65 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 67.72 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 32.10 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds West, a distance of 72.98 feet to the west line of said Lot 2; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 48 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 32.02 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 72.96 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.054 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading, driveway and parking lot construction.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Oakridge Business Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 7 and that part of vacated Crystal Lake Road adjacent to said Lot 7 lying North of the south line extended East, in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Business Center recorded September 15, 1998 as document number 1998R0061102, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 42 minutes 22 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 21.36 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 183.76 feet to the west line of said Lot 3; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 46 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 3, a distance of 21.65 feet to the northwest corner of Lot 3; thence South 89 degrees 57 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 184.38 feet (184.40 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.091 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Oakridge Business Center, being a resubdivision of Lot 7 and that part of vacated Crystal Lake Road adjacent to said Lot 7 lying North of the south line extended East, in Kaper's East Subdivision, being a subdivision of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Business Center recorded September 15, 1998 as document number 1998R0061102, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 42 minutes 22 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 21.36 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 67.41 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 59.60 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 24.76 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 143.35 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 36.42 feet to the east line of said Lot 3; thence North 1 degree 42 minutes 22 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 203.05 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.218 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at a point on the west right of way line of Randall Road recorded October 31, 1969 as document number 516648, said point being 1979.91 feet (1980.02 feet, recorded) South of the north line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 30, being also the southeast corner of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of Lot 1 in said Govnors Subdivision, a distance of 502.96 feet to a point of intersection with the Northerly extension of the east line of a special warranty deed recorded October 16, 2001 as document 2001R0077343; thence South 0 degrees 15 minutes 16 seconds East along the east line of said special warranty deed and along the Northerly extension thereof, a distance of 567.70 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing South 0 degrees 15 minutes 16 seconds East along the east line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 20.08 feet to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded August 20, 1999 as document number 1999R0059231; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the said north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 318.62 feet to the northerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded November 16, 2006 as document number 2006R0084532; thence North 87 degrees 05 minutes 48 seconds West along the said northerly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 173.29 feet (172.76 feet, recorded) to the west line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed; thence North 0 degrees 07 minutes 52 seconds East along the west line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 12.84 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 491.57 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.222 acre, more or less.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at a point on the west right of way line of Randall Road recorded October 31, 1969 as document number 516648, said point being 1979.91 feet (1980.02 feet, recorded) South of the north line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 30, being also the southeast corner of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of Lot 1 in said Govnors Subdivision, a distance of 502.96 feet to a point of intersection with the Northerly extension of the east line of a special warranty deed recorded October 16, 2001 as document 2001R0077343; thence South 0 degrees 15 minutes 16 seconds East along the east line of said special warranty deed and along the Northerly extension thereof, a distance of 587.78 feet to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded August 20, 1999 as document number 1999R0059231; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the said north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 318.62 feet to the northerly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded November 16, 2006 as document number 2006R0084532; thence North 87 degrees 05 minutes 48 seconds West along the said northerly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 173.29 feet (172.76 feet, recorded) to the west line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed; thence North 0 degrees 07 minutes 52 seconds East along the west line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 12.84 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 335.39 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 120.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 50.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 120.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 50.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.138 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at a point on the west right of way line of Randall Road recorded October 31, 1969 as document number 516648, said point being 1979.91 feet (1980.02 feet, recorded) South of the north line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 30, being also the southeast corner of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624 and the northeast corner of trustee's deed and deed in trust recorded October 17, 1994 as document number 94R059510; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the said west right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 542.00 feet to the northwesterly right of way line of Algonquin Road according to Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, filed April 22, 2003 in the Circuit Court of the Nineteenth Judicial Circuit, McHenry County, Illinois; thence South 63 degrees 24 minutes 49 seconds West along the said northwesterly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 82.45 feet (82.05 feet, recorded) to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, a distance of 161.98 feet to an angle point on said north right of way line; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 34 seconds East, a distance of 9.00 feet to an angle point on the north right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, a distance of 268.47 feet to west line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust recorded October 17, 1994 as document number 94R059510; thence North 0 degrees 15 minutes 16 seconds West along the west line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust, a distance of 18.08 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 228.82 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 3.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 191.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 16.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 29.00 feet; thence North 42 degrees 08 minutes 13 seconds East, a distance of 26.57 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 395.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 17.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 138.15 feet to the north line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust; thence North 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds East along the north line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust, a distance of 20.53 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.591 acre, more or less.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at a point on the west right of way line of Randall Road recorded October 31, 1969 as document number 516648, said point being 1979.91 feet (1980.02 feet, recorded) South of the north line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 30, being also the southeast corner of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624 and the northeast corner of trustee's deed and deed in trust recorded October 17, 1994 as document number 94R059510; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the said west right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 542.00 feet to the northwesterly right of way line of Algonquin Road according to Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, filed April 22, 2003 in the Circuit Court of the Nineteenth Judicial Circuit, McHenry County, Illinois; thence South 63 degrees 24 minutes 49 seconds West along the said northwesterly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 82.45 feet (82.05 feet, recorded) to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, a distance of 161.98 feet to an angle point on said north right of way line; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 34 seconds East, a distance of 9.00 feet to an angle point on the north right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, a distance of 268.47 feet to west line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust recorded October 17, 1994 as document number 94R059510; thence North 0 degrees 15 minutes 16 seconds West along the west line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust, a distance of 18.08 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 183.82 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 45.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 3.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 9.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 19.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 54.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 22.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.027 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at a point on the west right of way line of Randall Road recorded October 31, 1969 as document number 516648, said point being 1979.91 feet (1980.02 feet, recorded) South of the north line of the Northeast Quarter of said Section 30, being also the southeast corner of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624 and the northeast corner of trustee's deed and deed in trust recorded October 17, 1994 as document number 94R059510; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the said west right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 542.00 feet to the northwesterly right of way line of Algonquin Road according to Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, filed April 22, 2003 in the Circuit Court of the Nineteenth Judicial Circuit, McHenry County, Illinois; thence South 63 degrees 24 minutes 49 seconds West along the said northwesterly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 82.45 feet (82.05 feet, recorded) to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, a distance of 161.98 feet to an angle point on said north right of way line; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 34 seconds East, a distance of 9.00 feet to an angle point on the north right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence South 89 degrees 38 minutes 26 seconds West along the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said Judgment Order, Case Number 00 ED 9, a distance of 268.47 feet to west line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust recorded October 17, 1994 as document number 94R059510; thence North 0 degrees 15 minutes 16 seconds West along the west line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust, a distance of 18.08 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 228.82 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 3.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 173.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 18.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 16.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 29.00 feet; thence North 42 degrees 08 minutes 13 seconds East, a distance of 26.57 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 395.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 17.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 138.15 feet to the north line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust; thence South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the north line of the grantor according to said trustee's deed and deed in trust, a distance of 20.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 63.01 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 18.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 86.84 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 11.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 379.36 feet; thence South 42 degrees 08 minutes 13 seconds West, a distance of 27.69 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 36.22 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 19.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.203 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading, driveway and parking lot construction purposes.

***

That part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 82.82 feet to the northeasterly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded October 17, 2002 as document number 2002R0093574 and the point of beginning; thence continuing North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 152.17 feet to a point of intersection with the Westerly extension of the south line of Lot 5 in The Centre at Lake in the Hills, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, being also the northwest corner of the grantor; thence South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of Lot 5 in said The Centre at Lake in the Hills and along the Westerly extension thereof, being also the north line of the grantor, a distance of 30.78 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 108.07 feet; thence South 21 degrees 11 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 48.34 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 151.58 feet to a west line of Lot 1 in said The Centre at Lake in Hills, being also the east line of the grantor; thence South 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds East along a west line of Lot 1 in said The Centre at Lake in the Hills, being also the east line of the grantor, a distance of 17.24 feet to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded October 17, 2002 as document number 2002R0093574; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the said north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 181.86 feet (182.15 feet, recorded) to the said northeasterly right of way line of Algonquin Road; thence North 45 degrees 33 minutes 26 seconds West along the said northeasterly right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 25.48 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.192 acre, more or less.

***

That part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 82.82 feet to the northeasterly right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded October 17, 2002 as document number 2002R0093574; thence continuing North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 152.17 feet to a point of intersection with the Westerly extension of the south line of Lot 5 in The Centre at Lake in the Hills, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, being also the northwest corner of the grantor; thence South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of Lot 5 in said The Centre at Lake in the Hills and along the Westerly extension thereof, being also the north line of the grantor, a distance of 30.78 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 108.07 feet; thence South 21 degrees 11 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 48.34 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 151.58 feet to a west line of Lot 1 in said The Centre at Lake in Hills, being also the east line of the grantor; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along a west line of Lot 1 in said The Centre at Lake in the Hills, being also the east line of the grantor, a distance of 120.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 5.49 feet; thence South 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds East, a distance of 110.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 143.27 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 133.97 feet; thence South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 9.14 feet to the south line of Lot 5 in said The Centre at Lake in the Hills, being also the north line of the grantor; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of Lot 5 in said The Centre at Lake in the Hills, being also the north line of the grantor, a distance of 35.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.113 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading, driveway and parking lot construction purposes.

***

That part of Lots 1 and 2, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded February 17, 2000 as document number 2000R0008642, in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of said Lots 1 and 2, a distance of 523.09 feet to the east right of way line of Algonquin Road according to warranty deed recorded February 17, 2000 as document number 2000R0008642; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 53 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 10.00 feet to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said warranty deed; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the said north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 191.44 feet (191.50 feet, recorded) to a west line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along a west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 7.24 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 608.74 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 56 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 106.02 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 22 minutes 43 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 33.97 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.290 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded February 17, 2000 as document number 2000R0008642, in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the most westerly corner of said Lot 1, being also the southwest corner of Lot 1 in The Centre Resubdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded January 14, 1998 as document number 98R002400; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds East along a north line of said Lot 1, being also the south line of Lot 1 in said The Centre Resubdivision, a distance of 19.45 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 35.00 feet to a south line of said Lot 1, being also the north line of Lot 4 in said The Centre of Lake in the Hills; thence South 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds West along a south line of said Lot 1, being also the north line of Lot 4 in said The Centre of Lake in the Hills, a distance of 19.56 feet to the west line of Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 35.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.016 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lots 1 and 2, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded February 17, 2000 as document number 2000R0008642, in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of said Lots 1 and 2, a distance of 523.09 feet to the east right of way line of Algonquin Road according to warranty deed recorded February 17, 2000 as document number 2000R0008642; thence North 0 degrees 04 minutes 53 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 10.00 feet to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road according to said warranty deed; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the said north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 191.44 feet (191.50 feet, recorded) to a west line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along a west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 7.24 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 608.74 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 56 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 106.02 feet to the east line of said Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 22 minutes 43 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 15.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 106.02 feet; thence South 0 degrees 39 minutes 20 seconds West, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 259.52 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 115.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 95.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 115.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 175.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 03 minutes 16 seconds West, a distance of 110.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 79.61 feet to a west line of said Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds East along a west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 130.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.768 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading, driveway and parking lot construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part of Lot 1 conveyed to the County of McHenry by warranty deed recorded February 17, 2000 as document number 2000R0008642, in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the most westerly corner of said Lot 1, being also the southwest corner of Lot 1 in The Centre Resubdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded January 14, 1998 as document number 98R002400; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds East along a north line of said Lot 1, being also the south line of Lot 1 in said The Centre Resubdivision, a distance of 19.45 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 35.00 feet to a south line of said Lot 1, being also the north line of Lot 4 in said The Centre of Lake in the Hills; thence North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds West along a south line of said Lot 1, being also the north line of Lot 4 in said The Centre of Lake in the Hills, a distance of 45.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 35.00 feet to a north line of said Lot 1, being also the south line of Lot 1 in said The Centre Resubdivision; thence South 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds West along a north line of said Lot 1, being also the south line of Lot 1 in said The Centre Resubdivision, a distance of 45.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.036 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Algonquin Plaza, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded January 23, 2006 as document number 2006R0005048, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 22 minutes 43 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 3, a distance of 8.97 feet; thence North 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds East, a distance of 169.19 feet to the east line of said Lot 3; thence South 0 degrees 21 minutes 22 seconds West along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 9.38 feet to the southeast corner of Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 169.19 feet (168.98 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.036 acre, more or less.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 1304.08 feet to the southwest corner of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, as monumented and occupied, and the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 18 minutes 42 seconds East along the west line of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, as monumented and occupied, a distance of 96.95 feet; thence North 89 degrees 41 minutes 18 seconds East, a distance of 20.36 feet to the east right of way line of Crystal Lake Road, as monumented and occupied; thence South 45 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 45.39 feet; thence easterly 259.39 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 10060.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 89 degrees 21 minutes 42 seconds East, 259.38 feet to a point of reverse curvature; thence easterly 42.82 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 9940.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 88 degrees 44 minutes 47 seconds East, 42.82 feet to the west line of Lot 5 in First Addition to Cedar Ridge Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded January 11, 1980 as document number 788054; thence South 0 degrees 50 minutes 44 seconds West along the west line of Lot 5 in said First Addition to Cedar Ridge Subdivision, a distance of 61.66 feet to the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 354.25 feet to the point of beginning, except the parcel which is described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 1304.08 feet to the southwest corner of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, as monumented and occupied; thence North 0 degrees 18 minutes 42 seconds East along the west line of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, as monumented as occupied, a distance of 96.95 feet; thence North 89 degrees 41 minutes 18 seconds East, a distance of 20.36 feet to the east right of way line of Crystal Lake Road, as monumented and occupied; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 32 seconds West along the said east right of way line of Crystal Lake Road, as monumented and occupied, a distance of 47.31 feet to the north right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded January 22, 1990 as document number 90R002714 and the point of beginning; thence South 89 degrees 32 minutes 00 seconds East along the said north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 214.98 feet (214.19 feet, recorded) to an angle point on said north right of way line; thence South 0 degrees 38 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 15.00 feet to the former north right of way line of Algonquin Road recorded January 25, 1950 as document number 227880; thence North 89 degrees 32 minutes 00 seconds West along the said former north right of way line of Algonquin Road, a distance of 214.92 feet (214.19 feet, recorded) to the east right of way line of Crystal Lake Road, as monumented and occupied; thence North 0 degrees 23 minutes 32 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Crystal Lake Road, a distance of 15.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.475 acre, more or less, of which 0.304 acre, more or less, was previously dedicated or used for highway purposes.

***

That part of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, a distance of 1304.08 feet to the southwest corner of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, as monumented and occupied; thence North 0 degrees 18 minutes 42 seconds East along the west line of the Southeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of said Section 29, as monumented and occupied, a distance of 96.95 feet; thence North 89 degrees 41 minutes 18 seconds East, a distance of 20.36 feet to the east right of way line of Crystal Lake Road, as monumented and occupied; thence South 45 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 45.39 feet; thence easterly 117.93 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 10060.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 89 degrees 45 minutes 52 seconds East, 117.93 feet to the point of beginning; thence easterly 85.00 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 10060.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 89 degrees 11 minutes 12 seconds East, 85.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 56 minutes 29 seconds East, a distance of 40.00 feet; thence westerly 85.00 feet along a curve to the left having a radius of 10100.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 89 degrees 11 minutes 10 seconds West, 85.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 56 minutes 29 seconds West, a distance of 40.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.078 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for driveway removal and parking lot construction.

***

That part of Lot 5 in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 33 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 20.12 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 215.05 feet to the south line of said Lot 5; thence North 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 20.78 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 5; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 5, a distance of 214.93 feet (214.96 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.101 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 5 in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 33 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 20.12 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 153.42 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 61.63 feet to the south line of said Lot 5; thence South 89 degrees 54 minutes 57 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 35.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 61.68 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds West, a distance of 35.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.050 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 4 in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 19.56 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 179.98 feet to the south line of said Lot 4; thence South 89 degrees 46 minutes 33 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 20.12 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 4; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 4, a distance of 179.98 feet (180.00 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.082 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 4 in The Centre of Lake in the Hills, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded November 8, 1996 as document number 96R057546, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 19.56 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 45.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 8.06 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 45.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 8.21 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.008 acre, more or less, or 366 square feet, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.53 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 305.15 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.54 feet to the northeast corner of Lot 1; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 305.15 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.165 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Govnors Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the East Half of the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 23.53 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 305.15 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 30.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 180.06 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 20.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 124.98 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.153 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in The Centre Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 3 in The Centre at Lake in the Hills, a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Centre Resubdivision recorded January 14, 1998 as document number 98R002400, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 42 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 19.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 145.81 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 19.45 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 145.81 feet (145.83 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.064 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in The Centre Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 3 in The Centre at Lake in the Hills, a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Centre Resubdivision recorded January 14, 1998 as document number 98R002400, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 89 degrees 46 minutes 42 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 19.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 145.81 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 46 minutes 40 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 45.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 6.76 feet; thence North 89 degrees 28 minutes 46 seconds West, a distance of 40.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 138.53 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 46 minutes 42 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 5.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.023 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and sidewalk removal purposes.

***

That part of Lot 4 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 18.54 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 251.68 feet; thence North 57 degrees 05 minutes 21 seconds West, a distance of 27.52 feet to the north line of said Lot 4; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 26.55 feet to the northeasterly line of Lot 4; thence South 45 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the northeasterly line of said Lot 4, a distance of 21.21 feet to the east line of Lot 4; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 4, a distance of 251.82 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.115 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 4 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 18.54 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 251.68 feet; thence North 57 degrees 05 minutes 21 seconds West, a distance of 27.52 feet to the north line of said Lot 4; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 162.01 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 63 degrees 37 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 46.09 feet the west line of said Lot 4; thence North 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 4, a distance of 5.19 feet to the northwesterly line of Lot 4; thence North 44 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the northwesterly line of said Lot 4, a distance of 21.21 feet to the north line of Lot 4; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 26.43 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.007 acre, more or less, or 306 square feet, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 4 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 4; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 18.54 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 251.68 feet; thence North 57 degrees 05 minutes 21 seconds West, a distance of 27.52 feet to the north line of said Lot 4; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 4, a distance of 162.01 feet; thence South 63 degrees 37 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 46.09 feet to the west line of said Lot 4; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 20 seconds East, a distance of 216.44 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 246.58 feet to the south line of said Lot 4; thence North 89 degrees 40 minutes 50 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.148 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Lake in the Hills Entertainment Park, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 28, 1996 as document number 96R033436, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 44 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 17.74 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 259.98 feet to the south line of said Lot 5; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 54 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 18.54 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 5; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 5, a distance of 259.97 feet (260.00 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.108 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 5 in Lake in the Hills Entertainment Park, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 28, 1996 as document number 96R033436, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 44 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 17.74 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing South 89 degrees 36 minutes 44 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 40.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 13.87 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 36.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 11.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 4.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 25.42 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.014 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 5 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 5, a distance of 203.14 feet to the southerly line of Lot 5; thence South 74 degrees 54 minutes 28 seconds West along the southerly line of said Lot 5, a distance of 19.18 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 38.64 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 169.43 feet to the north line of said Lot 5; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 8.56 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.049 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 5 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 5, a distance of 203.14 feet to the southerly line of Lot 5; thence South 74 degrees 54 minutes 28 seconds West along the southerly line of said Lot 5, a distance of 19.18 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 38.64 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 70.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 39.89 feet to the south line of said Lot 5; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 5, a distance of 65.24 feet to the southerly line of Lot 5; thence North 74 degrees 54 minutes 28 seconds East along the southerly line of said Lot 5, a distance of 4.92 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.064 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 5 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 5; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 5, a distance of 203.14 feet to the southerly line of Lot 5; thence South 74 degrees 54 minutes 28 seconds West along the southerly line of said Lot 5, a distance of 19.18 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 38.64 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 169.43 feet to the north line of said Lot 5; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 5, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 169.36 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.039 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lots 3 and 4 in Lake in the Hills Entertainment Park, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 28, 1996 as document number 96R033436, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 37 minutes 01 second East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 16.57 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 164.99 feet to the south line of said Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 47 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 4.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 149.45 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 4.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 15.59 feet to the south line of said Lot 4; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 44 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 17.59 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 4; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lots 3 and 4, a distance of 329.96 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.116 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lots 3 and 4 in Lake in the Hills Entertainment Park, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 28, 1996 as document number 96R033436, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 37 minutes 01 second East along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 16.57 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 164.99 feet to the south line of said Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 47 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 4.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 149.45 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 4.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 15.59 feet to the south line of said Lot 4; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 44 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 4, a distance of 40.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 26.13 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 25.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, distance of 160.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 6.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 144.26 feet to the north line of said Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 37 minutes 01 second West along the north line of said Lot 3, a distance of 9.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.122 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and parking lot construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 6 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 6; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 6, a distance of 8.56 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 218.99 feet to the north line of said Lot 6; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 6, a distance of 8.56 feet to the northeast corner of Lot 6; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 6, a distance of 218.99 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.043 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 6 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 6; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 6, a distance of 8.56 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 218.99 feet to the north line of said Lot 6; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 6, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 218.99 feet to the south line of said Lot 6; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 6, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.050 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at an easterly corner of said Lot 2, being also the northwest corner of Outlot A in said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along an east line of said Lot 2, a distance of 56.28 feet to the easterly line of Lot 2; thence South 7 degrees 12 minutes 42 seconds East along the easterly line of said Lot 2, a distance of 12.32 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds West, a distance of 11.46 feet; thence North 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds West, a distance of 71.90 feet to the northeasterly line of said Lot 2; thence southeasterly 10.59 feet along the northeasterly line of said Lot 2 on a curve to the left having a radius of 264.98 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 71 degrees 15 minutes 44 seconds East, 10.59 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.016 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Lake in the Hills Entertainment Park, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 28, 1996 as document number 96R033436, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 37 minutes 15 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 15.72 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 275.76 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence North 89 degrees 37 minutes 01 second West along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 16.57 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 2; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 275.74 feet (275.78 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.102 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Lake in the Hills Entertainment Park, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 28, 1996 as document number 96R033436, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 37 minutes 15 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 15.72 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 275.76 feet to the south line of said Lot 2; thence South 89 degrees 37 minutes 01 second East along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 9.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 12.74 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 6.50 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 263.11 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence North 89 degrees 37 minutes 15 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 2.50 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.018 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 7 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 7; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 7, a distance of 18.56 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 218.99 feet to the north line of said Lot 7; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 7, a distance of 18.57 feet to the northeast corner of Lot 7; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 7, a distance of 218.99 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.093 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 8 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 8; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 8, a distance of 18.57 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 194.87 feet; thence North 49 degrees 42 minutes 55 seconds West, a distance of 38.28 feet; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West, a distance of 181.35 feet to the northwesterly line of said Lot 8; thence North 44 degrees 38 minutes 16 seconds East along the northwesterly line of said Lot 8, a distance of 9.91 feet to the north line of Lot 8; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 8, a distance of 194.58 feet to the northeasterly line of Lot 8; thence South 49 degrees 42 minutes 10 seconds East along the northeasterly line of said Lot 8, a distance of 36.11 feet to the east line of Lot 8; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 8, a distance of 203.28 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.131 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 8 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 8; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 8, a distance of 18.57 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 194.87 feet; thence North 49 degrees 42 minutes 55 seconds West, a distance of 21.46 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North 49 degrees 42 minutes 55 seconds West, a distance of 16.82 feet; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West, a distance of 181.35 feet to the northwesterly line of said Lot 8; thence South 44 degrees 38 minutes 16 seconds West along the northwesterly line of said Lot 8, a distance of 22.64 feet to the west line of Lot 8; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 8, a distance of 7.07 feet; thence North 44 degrees 38 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 17.12 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 198.02 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.050 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 9 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 9; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 9, a distance of 167.70 feet to the southeasterly line of Lot 9; thence South 53 degrees 36 minutes 38 seconds West along the southeasterly line of said Lot 9, a distance of 10.61 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 173.94 feet to the north line of said Lot 9; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 9, a distance of 8.59 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.034 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 9 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 9; thence easterly 15.04 feet (15.06 feet, recorded) along the southerly line of said Lot 9 on a curve to the left having a radius of 169.99 feet, the chord of said curve bears on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 87 degrees 51 minutes 52 seconds East, 15.03 feet to a point of tangency on the south line of Lot 9; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 9, a distance of 13.19 feet; thence North 0 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds East, a distance of 38.80 feet; thence North 90 degrees 00 minutes 00 seconds West, a distance of 28.48 feet to the west line of said Lot 9; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 9, a distance of 38.34 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.025 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 9 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northeast corner of said Lot 9; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 9, a distance of 167.70 feet to the southeasterly line of Lot 9; thence South 53 degrees 36 minutes 38 seconds West along the southeasterly line of said Lot 9, a distance of 10.61 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 173.94 feet to the north line of said Lot 9; thence South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 9, a distance of 20.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 186.36 feet to the southerly line of said Lot 9; thence North 81 degrees 26 minutes 28 seconds East along the southerly line of said Lot 9, a distance of 3.65 feet to the southeasterly line of Lot 9; thence North 53 degrees 36 minutes 38 seconds East along the southeasterly line of said Lot 9, a distance of 20.26 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.083 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Acorn Lane Commercial Center Unit 3, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29 and the Southwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded March 21, 1997 as document number 97R012763, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.50 feet; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 181.96 feet to the east line of said Lot 3; thence South 0 degrees 08 minutes 34 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 3, a distance of 12.98 feet to the southeast corner of Lot 3; thence North 89 degrees 37 minutes 15 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 3, a distance of 181.95 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.049 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 3 in Acorn Lane Commercial Center Unit 3, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29 and the Southwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded March 21, 1997 as document number 97R012763, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southwest corner of said Lot 3; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.50 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds East, a distance of 85.99 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence South 89 degrees 35 minutes 57 seconds West, a distance of 85.96 feet to the west line of said Lot 3; thence South 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 3, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.020 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and driveway construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 10 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 10; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 10, a distance of 8.59 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 175.93 feet to the north line of said Lot 10; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 10, a distance of 8.60 feet to the northeast corner of Lot 10; thence South 0 degrees 23 minutes 56 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 10, a distance of 175.95 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.035 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 10 in The Meadows Commercial Subdivision, being a resubdivision of part Lot 8 in The Meadows, according to the plat thereof recorded October 23, 2001 as document number 2001R0079191 and part of Lot 2 in Govnors Subdivision, according to the plat thereof recorded March 20, 2001 as document number 2001R0016624, in the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said The Meadows Commercial Subdivision recorded January 31, 2003 as document number 2003R0013439, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 10; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 10, a distance of 8.59 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 175.93 feet to the north line of said Lot 10; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 10, a distance of 20.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 175.88 feet to the south line of said Lot 10; thence North 89 degrees 36 minutes 04 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 10, a distance of 20.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.081 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 25 in Northstar Phase 1, being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 19 and the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 27, 1994 as document number 94R044959, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 25; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 25, a distance of 18.60 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 120.63 feet to the north line of said Lot 25; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 25, a distance of 18.40 feet to the northeast corner of Lot 25; thence South 0 degrees 29 minutes 48 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 25, a distance of 120.63 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.051 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 25 in Northstar Phase 1, being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 19 and the Northeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 27, 1994 as document number 94R044959, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the southeast corner of said Lot 25; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 25, a distance of 18.60 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds West, a distance of 120.63 feet to the north line of said Lot 25; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 25, a distance of 1.45 feet to the northwesterly line of Lot 25; thence southwesterly 48.64 feet along the northwesterly line of said Lot 25 on a curve to the right having a radius of 60.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 22 degrees 40 minutes 38 seconds West, 47.32 feet; thence South 0 degrees 24 minutes 03 seconds East, a distance of 77.15 feet to the south line of said Lot 25; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 07 seconds East, along the south line of said Lot 25, a distance of 20.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.043 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Winding Creek Center, being a subdivision of part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 30, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 6, 2004 as document number 2004R0107449, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 06 minutes 24 seconds East along the east line of said Lot 1, a distance of 24.90 feet; thence South 89 degrees 56 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 73.44 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 01 second East, a distance of 24.98 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 59 minutes 08 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 73.38 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.042 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading and construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Re-Subdivision of Outlot A, Acorn Lane Commercial Center Unit 3, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Northwest Quarter of Section 29 and the Southwest Quarter of the Southwest Quarter of Section 20, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded January 31, 2007 as document number 2007R007482, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the most westerly southwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 0 degrees 24 minutes 36 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 289.95 feet; thence North 89 degrees 28 minutes 33 seconds East, a distance of 310.00 feet; thence North 0 degrees 24 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 60.47 feet; thence North 89 degrees 28 minutes 33 seconds East, a distance of 165.45 feet to the easterly line of said Lot 1; thence along the easterly line of said Lot 1 the next 19 courses, South 35 degrees 39 minutes 50 seconds West, a distance of 31.19 feet; thence South 60 degrees 44 minutes 41 seconds West, a distance of 32.20 feet; thence South 45 degrees 25 minutes 01 second West, a distance of 21.19 feet; thence South 23 degrees 30 minutes 06 seconds West, a distance of 27.80 feet; thence South 6 degrees 47 minutes 17 seconds West, a distance of 30.19 feet; thence South 10 degrees 43 minutes 36 seconds West, a distance of 35.95 feet; thence South 21 degrees 27 minutes 52 seconds West, a distance of 41.40 feet; thence South 19 degrees 59 minutes 44 seconds West, a distance of 41.41 feet; thence South 16 degrees 10 minutes 56 seconds West, a distance of 54.07 feet; thence South 10 degrees 50 minutes 54 seconds West, a distance of 35.58 feet; thence South 23 degrees 47 minutes 21 seconds East, a distance of 29.22 feet; thence South 15 degrees 55 minutes 24 seconds West, a distance of 9.86 feet; thence South 35 degrees 43 minutes 39 seconds West, a distance of 44.87 feet; thence South 42 degrees 01 minute 14 seconds West, a distance of 45.34 feet; thence South 21 degrees 37 minutes 25 seconds West, a distance of 13.18 feet; thence South 21 degrees 51 minutes 34 seconds East, a distance of 15.04 feet; thence South 39 degrees 49 minutes 41 seconds East, a distance of 27.58 feet; thence South 5 degrees 34 minutes 09 seconds West, a distance of 5.75 feet; thence South 15 degrees 26 minutes 48 seconds West, a distance of 37.61 feet (37.60 feet, recorded) to the southeast corner of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 37 minutes 15 seconds West along the most southerly line of said Lot 1, a distance of 50.98 feet to a west line of Lot 1; thence North 0 degrees 13 minutes 26 seconds West along a west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 149.98 feet to a south line of Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 37 minutes 15 seconds West along a south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 247.95 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 2.881 acres, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Oakridge Harnish Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 2 in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Harnish Resubdivision recorded October 20, 2005 as document number 2005R0089188, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 15.76 feet; thence South 2 degrees 17 minutes 50 seconds West, a distance of 191.30 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 16.99 feet to the southwest corner of Lot 1; thence North 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 191.29 feet (191.32 feet, recorded) to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.072 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 7, except the West 10.0 feet thereof conveyed to McHenry County, Illinois, by quit claim deed recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806, in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0052702, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 7; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 64 degrees 39 minutes 47 seconds East along a northerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 11.33 feet to the east right of way line of Randall Road recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806 and the point of beginning; thence continuing North 64 degrees 39 minutes 47 seconds East along a northerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 4.03 feet; thence South 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds West, a distance of 43.98 feet to a southerly line of said Lot 7; thence South 81 degrees 39 minutes 50 seconds West along a southerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 3.52 feet to the said east right of way line of Randall Road; thence North 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds East along the said east right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 42.76 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.003 acre, more or less, or 152 square feet, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 7, except the West 10.0 feet thereof conveyed to McHenry County, Illinois, by quit claim deed recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806, in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0052702, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 7; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 64 degrees 39 minutes 47 seconds East along a northerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 11.33 feet to the east right of way line of Randall Road recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041806; thence continuing North 64 degrees 39 minutes 47 seconds East along a northerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 4.03 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds West, a distance of 43.98 feet to a southerly line of said Lot 7; thence North 81 degrees 39 minutes 50 seconds East along a southerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 8.15 feet; thence North 2 degrees 47 minutes 42 seconds East, a distance of 46.68 feet to a northerly line of said Lot 7; thence South 64 degrees 39 minutes 47 seconds West along a northerly line of said Lot 7, a distance of 9.07 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.008 acre, more or less, or 363 square feet, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 1, except that part conveyed to McHenry County, Illinois, by quit claim deed recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041808, in Rubloff Oakridge Second Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 4 in Rubloff Oakridge Resubdivision in the Northeast Quarter of Section 31, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Rubloff Oakridge Second Resubdivision recorded November 1, 2002 as document number 2002R0100966, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the southwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of North 40 degrees 57 minutes 32 seconds East, a distance of 23.34 feet; thence North 2 degrees 09 minutes 13 seconds East, a distance of 7.31 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 5.06 feet to the west right of way line of Randall Road recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041810; thence South 1 degree 27 minutes 52 seconds West along the said west right of way line of Randall Road, a distance of 7.32 feet to a point of curvature on said west right of way line; thence southwesterly 19.87 feet (19.88 feet, recorded) along the westerly right of way line of said Randall Road on a curve to the right having a radius of 25.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 24 degrees 14 minutes 10 seconds West, 19.35 feet to the south line of said Lot 1; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds West along the south line of said Lot 1, a distance of 12.50 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.005 acre, more or less, or 219 square feet, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0052702, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 27 minutes 52 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 159.55 feet to the point of beginning; thence South 43 degrees 09 minutes 55 seconds East, a distance of 70.65 feet; thence South 0 degrees 44 minutes 15 seconds West, a distance of 9.66 feet to the north right of way line of Harnish Drive recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041817; thence North 89 degrees 20 minutes 21 seconds West along the said north right of way line of Harnish Drive, a distance of 14.88 feet to the northeasterly right of way line of Harnish Drive recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041807; thence North 43 degrees 41 minutes 30 seconds West along the said northeasterly right of way line of Harnish Drive, a distance of 49.19 feet to the west line of said Lot 1; thence North 1 degree 27 minutes 52 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 25.46 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.026 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 1 in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded July 26, 2001 as document number 2001R0052702, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 1; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 1 degree 27 minutes 52 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 1, a distance of 159.55 feet; thence South 43 degrees 09 minutes 55 seconds East, a distance of 70.65 feet; thence South 0 degrees 44 minutes 15 seconds West, a distance of 9.66 feet to the north right of way line of Harnish Drive recorded July 30, 2008 as document number 2008R0041817; thence South 89 degrees 20 minutes 21 seconds East along the said north right of way line of Harnish Drive, a distance of 4.13 feet; thence North 0 degrees 44 minutes 15 seconds East, a distance of 15.29 feet; thence North 43 degrees 41 minutes 30 seconds West, a distance of 68.41 feet; thence northerly 115.11 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 24915.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears North 1 degree 49 minutes 12 seconds East, 115.11 feet; thence South 87 degrees 35 minutes 16 seconds East, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence North 2 degrees 17 minutes 50 seconds East, a distance of 40.96 feet to the north line of said Lot 1; thence North 88 degrees 32 minutes 23 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 1, a distance of 16.50 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.042 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for construction purposes.

***

That part of Lot 2 in Oakridge Harnish Resubdivision, being a resubdivision of Lot 2 in Rosen Rosen Rosen Subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 32, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat of said Oakridge Harnish Resubdivision recorded October 20, 2005 as document number 2005R0089188, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 2; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 2 degrees 40 minutes 02 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 45.92 feet (45.49 feet, recorded) to an angle point on the west line of Lot 2; thence South 1 degree 27 minutes 52 seconds West along the west line of said Lot 2, a distance of 54.11 feet (54.52 feet, recorded) to the southwest corner of Lot 2; thence South 88 degrees 32 minutes 23 seconds East along the south line of said Lot 2, a distance of 16.50 feet; thence North 2 degrees 17 minutes 50 seconds East, a distance of 99.67 feet to the north line of said Lot 2; thence North 87 degrees 20 minutes 06 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 2, a distance of 16.99 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.039 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

***

That part of Lot 11 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 4, 1997 as document number 97R025826, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Beginning at the northwest corner of said Lot 11; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 11, a distance of 118.49 feet to the southwest corner of the grantor according to special warranty deed recorded December 28, 2015 as document number 2015R0047895; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the south line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 33.20 feet; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 118.49 feet to the north line of said Lot 11; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds West along the north line of said Lot 11, a distance of 33.28 feet to the point of beginning.

Said parcel containing 0.091 acre, more or less.

***

That part of Lot 11 in Kaper's Business Center Unit 1, being a subdivision of part of the West Half of the Southwest Quarter of Section 29, Township 43 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded June 4, 1997 as document number 97R025826, in McHenry County, Illinois, bearings and distances are based on the Illinois Coordinate System, NAD 83(2011) East Zone, with a combination factor of 0.9999373735, described as follows:

Commencing at the northwest corner of said Lot 11; thence on an Illinois Coordinate System NAD 83(2011) East Zone bearing of South 0 degrees 04 minutes 06 seconds East along the west line of said Lot 11, a distance of 118.49 feet to the southwest corner of the grantor according to special warranty deed recorded December 28, 2015 as document number 2015R0047895; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the south line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 33.20 feet to the point of beginning; thence North 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds West, a distance of 118.49 feet to the north line of said Lot 11; thence South 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds East along the north line of said Lot 11, a distance of 10.00 feet; thence South 0 degrees 01 minute 47 seconds East, a distance of 118.49 feet to the south line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed; thence North 89 degrees 47 minutes 46 seconds West along the south line of the grantor according to said special warranty deed, a distance of 10.00 feet to the point of beginning.

Said temporary easement containing 0.027 acre, more or less.

Said temporary easement to be used for grading purposes.

(Source: P.A. 100-446, eff. 8-25-17; revised 11-6-17.)

Section 600. The Illinois Antitrust Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(740 ILCS 10/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 60-5)

Sec. 5. No provisions of this Act shall be construed to make illegal:

(1) the activities of any labor organization or of individual members thereof which are directed solely to labor objectives which are legitimate under the laws of either the State of Illinois or the United States;

(2) the activities of any agricultural or horticultural cooperative organization, whether incorporated or unincorporated, or of individual members thereof, which are directed solely to objectives of such cooperative organizations which are legitimate under the laws of either the State of Illinois or the United States;

(3) the activities of any public utility, as defined in Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent that such activities are subject to a clearly articulated and affirmatively expressed State policy to replace competition with regulation, where the conduct to be exempted is actively supervised by the State itself;

(4) the The activities of a telecommunications carrier, as defined in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act, to the extent those activities relate to the provision of noncompetitive telecommunications services under the Public Utilities Act and are subject to the jurisdiction of the Illinois Commerce Commission or to the activities of telephone mutual concerns referred to in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act to the extent those activities relate to the provision and maintenance of telephone service to owners and customers;

(5) the activities (including, but not limited to, the making of or participating in joint underwriting or joint reinsurance arrangement) of any insurer, insurance agent, insurance broker, independent insurance adjuster or rating organization to the extent that such activities are subject to regulation by the Director of Insurance of this State under, or are permitted or are authorized by, the Illinois Insurance Code or any other law of this State;

(6) the religious and charitable activities of any not-for-profit corporation, trust or organization established exclusively for religious or charitable purposes, or for both purposes;

(7) the activities of any not-for-profit corporation organized to provide telephone service on a mutual or co-operative basis or electrification on a co-operative basis, to the extent such activities relate to the marketing and distribution of telephone or electrical service to owners and customers;

(8) the activities engaged in by securities dealers who are (i) licensed by the State of Illinois or (ii) members of the National Association of Securities Dealers or (iii) members of any National Securities Exchange registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, in the course of their business of offering, selling, buying and selling, or otherwise trading in or underwriting securities, as agent, broker, or principal, and activities of any National Securities Exchange so registered, including the establishment of commission rates and schedules of charges;

(9) the activities of any board of trade designated as a "contract market" by the Secretary of Agriculture of the United States pursuant to Section 5 of the Commodity Exchange Act, as amended;

(10) the activities of any motor carrier, rail carrier, or common carrier by pipeline, as defined in the Common Carrier by Pipeline Law of the Public Utilities Act, to the extent that such activities are permitted or authorized by the Act or are subject to regulation by the Illinois Commerce Commission;

(11) the activities of any state or national bank to the extent that such activities are regulated or supervised by officers of the state or federal government under the banking laws of this State or the United States;

(12) the activities of any state or federal savings and loan association to the extent that such activities are regulated or supervised by officers of the state or federal government under the savings and loan laws of this State or the United States;

(13) the activities of any bona fide not-for-profit association, society or board, of attorneys, practitioners of medicine, architects, engineers, land surveyors or real estate brokers licensed and regulated by an agency of the State of Illinois, in recommending schedules of suggested fees, rates or commissions for use solely as guidelines in determining charges for professional and technical services;

(14) conduct Conduct involving trade or commerce (other than import trade or import commerce) with foreign nations unless:

(a) such conduct has a direct, substantial, and reasonably foreseeable effect:

(i) on trade or commerce which is not trade or commerce with foreign nations, or on import trade or import commerce with foreign nations; or

(ii) on export trade or export commerce with foreign nations of a person engaged in such trade or commerce in the United States; and

(b) such effect gives rise to a claim under the provisions of this Act, other than this subsection (14).

(c) If this Act applies to conduct referred to in this subsection (14) only because of the provisions of paragraph (a)(ii), then this Act shall apply to such conduct only for injury to export business in the United States which affects this State; or

(15) the activities of a unit of local government or school district and the activities of the employees, agents and officers of a unit of local government or school district.

(Source: P.A. 90-185, eff. 7-23-97; 90-561, eff. 12-16-97; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 605. The Premises Liability Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(740 ILCS 130/4) (from Ch. 80, par. 304)

Sec. 4. Notwithstanding this Act, the liability of any owner or occupier of a premises to anyone who enters or uses those premises for a recreational purpose, as defined by the Recreational Use of Land and Water Areas Act "An Act to limit the liability of landowners who make their land and water area available to the public for recreational purposes", approved August 2, 1965, as now or hereafter amended, is governed by that Act.

(Source: P.A. 83-1398; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 610. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act is amended by changing Section 505 as follows:

(750 ILCS 5/505) (from Ch. 40, par. 505)

Sec. 505. Child support; contempt; penalties.

(a) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation, declaration of invalidity of marriage, dissolution of a civil union, a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage or civil union by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, a proceeding for modification of a previous order for child support under Section 510 of this Act, or any proceeding authorized under Section 501 or 601 of this Act, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage or civil union to pay an amount reasonable and necessary for support. The duty of support owed to a child includes the obligation to provide for the reasonable and necessary physical, mental and emotional health needs of the child. For purposes of this Section, the term "child" shall include any child under age 18 and any child age 19 or younger who is still attending high school. For purposes of this Section, the term "obligor" means the parent obligated to pay support to the other parent.

(1) Child support guidelines. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall adopt rules establishing child support guidelines which include worksheets to aid in the calculation of the child support obligations and a schedule of basic child support obligations that reflects the percentage of combined net income that parents living in the same household in this State ordinarily spend on their child. The child support guidelines have the following purposes:

(A) to establish as State policy an adequate standard of support for a child, subject to the ability of parents to pay;

(B) to make child support obligations more equitable by ensuring more consistent treatment of parents in similar circumstances;

(C) to improve the efficiency of the court process by promoting settlements and giving courts and the parties guidance in establishing levels of child support;

(D) to calculate child support based upon the parents' combined net income estimated to have been allocated for the support of the child if the parents and child were living in an intact household;

(E) to adjust child support based upon the needs of the child; and

(F) to allocate the amount of child support to be paid by each parent based upon a parent's net income and the child's physical care arrangements.

(1.5) Computation of basic child support obligation. The court shall compute the basic child support obligation by taking the following steps:

(A) determine each parent's monthly net income;

(B) add the parents' monthly net incomes together to determine the combined monthly net income of the parents;

(C) select the corresponding appropriate amount from the schedule of basic child support obligations based on the parties' combined monthly net income and number of children of the parties; and

(D) calculate each parent's percentage share of the basic child support obligation.

Although a monetary obligation is computed for each parent as child support, the receiving parent's share is not payable to the other parent and is presumed to be spent directly on the child.

(2) Duty of support. The court shall determine child support in each case by applying the child support guidelines unless the court makes a finding that application of the guidelines would be inappropriate, after considering the best interests of the child and evidence which shows relevant factors including, but not limited to, one or more of the following:

(A) the financial resources and needs of the child;

(B) the financial resources and needs of the parents;

(C) the standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage or civil union not been dissolved; and

(D) the physical and emotional condition of the child and his or her educational needs.

(3) Income.

(A) As used in this Section, "gross income" means the total of all income from all sources, except "gross income" does not include (i) benefits received by the parent from means-tested public assistance programs, including, but not limited to, Temporary Assistance for to Needy Families, Supplemental Security Income, and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program or (ii) benefits and income received by the parent for other children in the household, including, but not limited to, child support, survivor benefits, and foster care payments. Social security disability and retirement benefits paid for the benefit of the subject child must be included in the disabled or retired parent's gross income for purposes of calculating the parent's child support obligation, but the parent is entitled to a child support credit for the amount of benefits paid to the other party for the child. "Gross income" also includes spousal maintenance received pursuant to a court order in the pending proceedings or any other proceedings that must be included in the recipient's gross income for purposes of calculating the parent's child support obligation.

(B) As used in this Section, "net income" means gross income minus either the standardized tax amount calculated pursuant to subparagraph (C) of this paragraph (3) or the individualized tax amount calculated pursuant to subparagraph (D) of this paragraph (3), and minus any adjustments pursuant to subparagraph (F) of this paragraph (3). The standardized tax amount shall be used unless the requirements for an individualized tax amount set forth in subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (3) are met.

(C) As used in this Section, "standardized tax amount" means the total of federal and state income taxes for a single person claiming the standard tax deduction, one personal exemption, and the applicable number of dependency exemptions for the minor child or children of the parties, and Social Security and Medicare tax calculated at the Federal Insurance Contributions Act rate.

(I) Unless a court has determined otherwise or the parties otherwise agree, the party with the majority of parenting time shall be deemed entitled to claim the dependency exemption for the parties' minor child.

(II) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall promulgate a standardized net income conversion table that computes net income by deducting the standardized tax amount from gross income.

(D) As used in this Section, "individualized tax amount" means the aggregate of the following taxes:

(I) federal income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments);

(II) State income tax (properly calculated withholding or estimated payments); and

(III) Social Security or self-employment tax, if applicable (or, if none, mandatory retirement contributions required by law or as a condition of employment) and Medicare tax calculated at the Federal Insurance Contributions Act rate.

(E) In lieu of a standardized tax amount, a determination of an individualized tax amount may be made under items (I), (II), or (III) below. If an individualized tax amount determination is made under this subparagraph (E), all relevant tax attributes (including filing status, allocation of dependency exemptions, and whether a party is to claim the standard deduction or itemized deductions for federal income tax purposes) shall be as the parties agree or as the court determines. To determine a party's reported income, the court may order the party to complete an Internal Revenue Service Form 4506-T, Request for Tax Transcript.

(I) Agreement. Irrespective of whether the parties agree on any other issue before the court, if they jointly stipulate for the record their concurrence on a computation method for the individualized tax amount that is different from the method set forth under subparagraph (D), the stipulated method shall be used by the court unless the court rejects the proposed stipulated method for good cause.

(II) Summary hearing. If the court determines child support in a summary hearing under Section 501 and an eligible party opts in to the individualized tax amount method under this item (II), the individualized tax amount shall be determined by the court on the basis of information contained in one or both parties' Supreme Court approved Financial Affidavit (Family & Divorce Cases) and relevant supporting documents under applicable court rules. No party, however, is eligible to opt in unless the party, under applicable court rules, has served the other party with the required Supreme Court approved Financial Affidavit (Family & Divorce Cases) and has substantially produced supporting documents required by the applicable court rules.

(III) Evidentiary hearing. If the court determines child support in an evidentiary hearing, whether for purposes of a temporary order or at the conclusion of a proceeding, item (II) of this subparagraph (E) does not apply. In each such case (unless item (I) governs), the individualized tax amount shall be as determined by the court on the basis of the record established.

(F) Adjustments to income.

(I) Multi-family adjustment. If a parent is also legally responsible for support of a child not shared with the other parent and not subject to the present proceeding, there shall be an adjustment to net income as follows:

(i) Multi-family adjustment with court order. The court shall deduct from the parent's net income the amount of child support actually paid by the parent pursuant to a support order unless the court makes a finding that it would cause economic hardship to the child.

(ii) Multi-family adjustment without court order. Upon the request or application of a parent actually supporting a presumed, acknowledged, or adjudicated child living in or outside of that parent's household, there shall be an adjustment to child support. The court shall deduct from the parent's net income the amount of financial support actually paid by the parent for the child or 75% of the support the parent should pay under the child support guidelines (before this adjustment), whichever is less, unless the court makes a finding that it would cause economic hardship to the child. The adjustment shall be calculated using that parent's income alone.

(II) Spousal Maintenance adjustment. Obligations pursuant to a court order for spousal maintenance in the pending proceeding actually paid or payable to the same party to whom child support is to be payable or actually paid to a former spouse pursuant to a court order shall be deducted from the parent's gross income.

(3.1) Business income. For purposes of calculating child support, net business income from the operation of a business means gross receipts minus ordinary and necessary expenses required to carry on the trade or business. As used in this paragraph, "business" includes, but is not limited to, sole proprietorships, closely held corporations, partnerships, other flow-through business entities, and self-employment. The court shall apply the following:

(A) The accelerated component of depreciation and any business expenses determined either judicially or administratively to be inappropriate or excessive shall be excluded from the total of ordinary and necessary business expenses to be deducted in the determination of net business income from gross business income.

(B) Any item of reimbursement or in-kind payment received by a parent from a business, including, but not limited to, a company car, reimbursed meals, free housing, or a housing allowance, shall be counted as income if not otherwise included in the recipient's gross income, if the item is significant in amount and reduces personal expenses.

(3.2) Unemployment or underemployment. If a parent is voluntarily unemployed or underemployed, child support shall be calculated based on a determination of potential income. A determination of potential income shall be made by determining employment potential and probable earnings level based on the obligor's work history, occupational qualifications, prevailing job opportunities, the ownership by a parent of a substantial non-income producing asset, and earnings levels in the community. If there is insufficient work history to determine employment potential and probable earnings level, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the parent's potential income is 75% of the most recent United States Department of Health and Human Services Federal Poverty Guidelines for a family of one person.

(3.3) Rebuttable presumption in favor of guidelines. There is a rebuttable presumption in any judicial or administrative proceeding for child support that the amount of the child support obligation that would result from the application of the child support guidelines is the correct amount of child support.

(3.3a) Minimum child support obligation. There is a rebuttable presumption that a minimum child support obligation of $40 per month, per child, will be entered for an obligor who has actual or imputed gross income at or less than 75% of the most recent United States Department of Health and Human Services Federal Poverty Guidelines for a family of one person, with a maximum total child support obligation for that obligor of $120 per month to be divided equally among all of the obligor's children.

(3.3b) Zero dollar child support order. For parents with no gross income, who receive only means-tested assistance, or who cannot work due to a medically proven disability, incarceration, or institutionalization, there is a rebuttable presumption that the $40 per month minimum support order is inapplicable and a zero dollar order shall be entered.

(3.4) Deviation factors. In any action to establish or modify child support, whether pursuant to a temporary or final administrative or court order, the child support guidelines shall be used as a rebuttable presumption for the establishment or modification of the amount of child support. The court may deviate from the child support guidelines if the application would be inequitable, unjust, or inappropriate. Any deviation from the guidelines shall be accompanied by written findings by the court specifying the reasons for the deviation and the presumed amount under the child support guidelines without a deviation. These reasons may include:

(A) extraordinary medical expenditures necessary to preserve the life or health of a party or a child of either or both of the parties;

(B) additional expenses incurred for a child subject to the child support order who has special medical, physical, or developmental needs; and

(C) any other factor the court determines should be applied upon a finding that the application of the child support guidelines would be inappropriate, after considering the best interest of the child.

(3.5) Income in excess of the schedule of basic child support obligation. A court may use its discretion to determine child support if the combined adjusted net income of the parties exceeds the highest level of the schedule of basic child support obligation, except that the basic child support obligation shall not be less than the highest level of combined net income set forth in the schedule of basic child support obligation.

(3.6) Extracurricular activities and school expenses. The court, in its discretion, in addition to the basic child support obligation, may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to the child to contribute to the reasonable school and extracurricular activity expenses incurred which are intended to enhance the educational, athletic, social, or cultural development of the child.

(3.7) Child care expenses. The court, in its discretion, in addition to the basic child support obligation, may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to the child to contribute to the reasonable child care expenses of the child. The child care expenses shall be made payable directly to a party or directly to the child care provider at the time of child care services.

(A) "Child care expenses" means actual expenses reasonably necessary to enable a parent or non-parent custodian to be employed, to attend educational or vocational training programs to improve employment opportunities, or to search for employment. "Child care expenses" also includes deposits for securing placement in a child care program, the cost of before and after school care, and camps when school is not in session. A child's special needs shall be a consideration in determining reasonable child care expenses.

(B) Child care expenses shall be prorated in proportion to each parent's percentage share of combined net income, and may be added to the basic child support obligation if not paid directly by each parent to the provider of child care services. The obligor's and obligee's portion of actual child care expenses shall appear in the support order. If allowed, the value of the federal income tax credit for child care shall be subtracted from the actual cost to determine the net child care costs.

(C) The amount of child care expenses shall be adequate to obtain reasonable and necessary child care. The actual child care expenses shall be used to calculate the child care expenses, if available. When actual child care expenses vary, the actual child care expenses may be averaged over the most recent 12-month period. When a parent is temporarily unemployed or temporarily not attending educational or vocational training programs, future child care expenses shall be based upon prospective expenses to be incurred upon return to employment or educational or vocational training programs.

(D) An order for child care expenses may be modified upon a showing of a substantial change in circumstances. The party incurring child care expenses shall notify the other party within 14 days of any change in the amount of child care expenses that would affect the annualized child care amount as determined in the support order.

(3.8) Shared physical care. If each parent exercises 146 or more overnights per year with the child, the basic child support obligation is multiplied by 1.5 to calculate the shared care child support obligation. The court shall determine each parent's share of the shared care child support obligation based on the parent's percentage share of combined net income. The child support obligation is then computed for each parent by multiplying that parent's portion of the shared care support obligation by the percentage of time the child spends with the other parent. The respective child support obligations are then offset, with the parent owing more child support paying the difference between the child support amounts. The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall promulgate a worksheet to calculate child support in cases in which the parents have shared physical care and use the standardized tax amount to determine net income.

(3.9) Split physical care. When there is more than one child and each parent has physical care of at least one but not all of the children, the support is calculated by using 2 child support worksheets to determine the support each parent owes the other. The support shall be calculated as follows:

(A) compute the support the first parent would owe to other parent as if the child in his or her care was the only child of the parties; then

(B) compute the support the other parent would owe to the first parent as if the child in his or her care were the only child of the parties; then

(C) subtract the lesser support obligation from the greater.

The parent who owes the greater obligation shall be ordered to pay the difference in support to the other parent, unless the court determines, pursuant to other provisions of this Section, that it should deviate from the guidelines.

(4) Health care.

(A) A portion of the basic child support obligation is intended to cover basic ordinary out-of-pocket medical expenses. The court, in its discretion, in addition to the basic child support obligation, shall also provide for the child's current and future medical needs by ordering either or both parents to initiate health insurance coverage for the child through currently effective health insurance policies held by the parent or parents, purchase one or more or all health, dental, or vision insurance policies for the child, or provide for the child's current and future medical needs through some other manner.

(B) The court, in its discretion, may order either or both parents to contribute to the reasonable health care needs of the child not covered by insurance, including, but not limited to, unreimbursed medical, dental, orthodontic, or vision expenses and any prescription medication for the child not covered under the child's health insurance.

(C) If neither parent has access to appropriate private health insurance coverage, the court may order:

(I) one or both parents to provide health insurance coverage at any time it becomes available at a reasonable cost; or

(II) the parent or non-parent custodian with primary physical responsibility for the child to apply for public health insurance coverage for the child and require either or both parents to pay a reasonable amount of the cost of health insurance for the child.

The order may also provide that any time private health insurance coverage is available at a reasonable cost to that party it will be provided instead of cash medical support. As used in this Section, "cash medical support" means an amount ordered to be paid toward the cost of health insurance provided by a public entity or by another person through employment or otherwise or for other medical costs not covered by insurance.

(D) The amount to be added to the basic child support obligation shall be the actual amount of the total health insurance premium that is attributable to the child who is the subject of the order. If this amount is not available or cannot be verified, the total cost of the health insurance premium shall be divided by the total number of persons covered by the policy. The cost per person derived from this calculation shall be multiplied by the number of children who are the subject of the order and who are covered under the health insurance policy. This amount shall be added to the basic child support obligation and shall be allocated between the parents in proportion to their respective net incomes.

(E) After the health insurance premium for the child is added to the basic child support obligation and allocated between the parents in proportion to their respective incomes for child support purposes, if the obligor is paying the premium, the amount calculated for the obligee's share of the health insurance premium for the child shall be deducted from the obligor's share of the total child support obligation. If the obligee is paying for private health insurance for the child, the child support obligation shall be increased by the obligor's share of the premium payment. The obligor's and obligee's portion of health insurance costs shall appear in the support order.

(F) Prior to allowing the health insurance adjustment, the parent requesting the adjustment must submit proof that the child has been enrolled in a health insurance plan and must submit proof of the cost of the premium. The court shall require the parent receiving the adjustment to annually submit proof of continued coverage of the child to the other parent, or as designated by the court.

(G) A reasonable cost for providing health insurance coverage for the child may not exceed 5% of the providing parent's gross income. Parents with a net income below 133% of the most recent United States Department of Health and Human Services Federal Poverty Guidelines or whose child is covered by Medicaid based on that parent's income may not be ordered to contribute toward or provide private coverage, unless private coverage is obtainable without any financial contribution by that parent.

(H) If dental or vision insurance is included as part of the employer's medical plan, the coverage shall be maintained for the child. If not included in the employer's medical plan, adding the dental or vision insurance for the child is at the discretion of the court.

(I) If a parent has been directed to provide health insurance pursuant to this paragraph and that parent's spouse or legally recognized partner provides the insurance for the benefit of the child either directly or through employment, a credit on the child support worksheet shall be given to that parent in the same manner as if the premium were paid by that parent.

(4.5) In a proceeding for child support following dissolution of the marriage or civil union by a court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse, and in which the court is requiring payment of support for the period before the date an order for current support is entered, there is a rebuttable presumption that the obligor's net income for the prior period was the same as his or her net income at the time the order for current support is entered.

(5) If the net income cannot be determined because of default or any other reason, the court shall order support in an amount considered reasonable in the particular case. The final order in all cases shall state the support level in dollar amounts. However, if the court finds that the child support amount cannot be expressed exclusively as a dollar amount because all or a portion of the obligor's net income is uncertain as to source, time of payment, or amount, the court may order a percentage amount of support in addition to a specific dollar amount and enter such other orders as may be necessary to determine and enforce, on a timely basis, the applicable support ordered.

(6) If (i) the obligor was properly served with a request for discovery of financial information relating to the obligor's ability to provide child support, (ii) the obligor failed to comply with the request, despite having been ordered to do so by the court, and (iii) the obligor is not present at the hearing to determine support despite having received proper notice, then any relevant financial information concerning the obligor's ability to provide child support that was obtained pursuant to subpoena and proper notice shall be admitted into evidence without the need to establish any further foundation for its admission.

(a-5) In an action to enforce an order for child support based on the obligor's failure to make support payments as required by the order, notice of proceedings to hold the obligor in contempt for that failure may be served on the obligor by personal service or by regular mail addressed to the last known address of the obligor. The last known address of the obligor may be determined from records of the clerk of the court, from the Federal Case Registry of Child Support Orders, or by any other reasonable means.

(b) Failure of either parent to comply with an order to pay support shall be punishable as in other cases of contempt. In addition to other penalties provided by law the court may, after finding the parent guilty of contempt, order that the parent be:

(1) placed on probation with such conditions of probation as the court deems advisable;

(2) sentenced to periodic imprisonment for a period not to exceed 6 months; provided, however, that the court may permit the parent to be released for periods of time during the day or night to:

(A) work; or

(B) conduct a business or other self-employed occupation.

The court may further order any part or all of the earnings of a parent during a sentence of periodic imprisonment paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court or to the parent having physical possession of the child or to the non-parent custodian having custody of the child of the sentenced parent for the support of the child until further order of the court.

If a parent who is found guilty of contempt for failure to comply with an order to pay support is a person who conducts a business or who is self-employed, the court in addition to other penalties provided by law may order that the parent do one or more of the following: (i) provide to the court monthly financial statements showing income and expenses from the business or the self-employment; (ii) seek employment and report periodically to the court with a diary, listing, or other memorandum of his or her employment search efforts; or (iii) report to the Department of Employment Security for job search services to find employment that will be subject to withholding for child support.

If there is a unity of interest and ownership sufficient to render no financial separation between an obligor and another person or persons or business entity, the court may pierce the ownership veil of the person, persons, or business entity to discover assets of the obligor held in the name of that person, those persons, or that business entity. The following circumstances are sufficient to authorize a court to order discovery of the assets of a person, persons, or business entity and to compel the application of any discovered assets toward payment on the judgment for support:

(1) the obligor and the person, persons, or business entity maintain records together.

(2) the obligor and the person, persons, or business entity fail to maintain an arm's length relationship between themselves with regard to any assets.

(3) the obligor transfers assets to the person, persons, or business entity with the intent to perpetrate a fraud on the obligee.

With respect to assets which are real property, no order entered under this paragraph shall affect the rights of bona fide purchasers, mortgagees, judgment creditors, or other lien holders who acquire their interests in the property prior to the time a notice of lis pendens pursuant to the Code of Civil Procedure or a copy of the order is placed of record in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county in which the real property is located.

The court may also order in cases where the parent is 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days obligation or more, that the parent's Illinois driving privileges be suspended until the court determines that the parent is in compliance with the order of support. The court may also order that the parent be issued a family financial responsibility driving permit that would allow limited driving privileges for employment and medical purposes in accordance with Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall certify the order suspending the driving privileges of the parent or granting the issuance of a family financial responsibility driving permit to the Secretary of State on forms prescribed by the Secretary of State. Upon receipt of the authenticated documents, the Secretary of State shall suspend the parent's driving privileges until further order of the court and shall, if ordered by the court, subject to the provisions of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, issue a family financial responsibility driving permit to the parent.

In addition to the penalties or punishment that may be imposed under this Section, any person whose conduct constitutes a violation of Section 15 of the Non-Support Punishment Act may be prosecuted under that Act, and a person convicted under that Act may be sentenced in accordance with that Act. The sentence may include but need not be limited to a requirement that the person perform community service under Section 50 of that Act or participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act. A person may not be required to participate in a work alternative program under Section 50 of that Act if the person is currently participating in a work program pursuant to Section 505.1 of this Act.

A support obligation, or any portion of a support obligation, which becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. An order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2006 shall contain a statement that a support obligation required under the order, or any portion of a support obligation required under the order, that becomes due and remains unpaid as of the end of each month, excluding the child support that was due for that month to the extent that it was not paid in that month, shall accrue simple interest as set forth in Section 12-109 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the accrual of interest as provided in this Section.

(c) A one-time charge of 20% is imposable upon the amount of past-due child support owed on July 1, 1988 which has accrued under a support order entered by the court. The charge shall be imposed in accordance with the provisions of Section 10-21 of the Illinois Public Aid Code and shall be enforced by the court upon petition.

(d) Any new or existing support order entered by the court under this Section shall be deemed to be a series of judgments against the person obligated to pay support thereunder, each such judgment to be in the amount of each payment or installment of support and each such judgment to be deemed entered as of the date the corresponding payment or installment becomes due under the terms of the support order. Each such judgment shall have the full force, effect and attributes of any other judgment of this State, including the ability to be enforced. Notwithstanding any other State or local law to the contrary, a lien arises by operation of law against the real and personal property of the obligor for each installment of overdue support owed by the obligor.

(e) When child support is to be paid through the Clerk of the Court in a county of 1,000,000 inhabitants or less, the order shall direct the obligor to pay to the Clerk, in addition to the child support payments, all fees imposed by the county board under paragraph (3) of subsection (u) of Section 27.1 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Unless paid pursuant to an Income Withholding Order/Notice for Support, the payment of the fee shall be by payment acceptable to the clerk and shall be made to the order of the Clerk.

(f) All orders for support, when entered or modified, shall include a provision requiring the obligor to notify the court and, in cases in which a party is receiving child and spouse services under Article X of the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, within 7 days, (i) of the name and address of any new employer of the obligor, (ii) whether the obligor has access to health insurance coverage through the employer or other group coverage and, if so, the policy name and number and the names of persons covered under the policy, except only the initials of any covered minors shall be included, and (iii) of any new residential or mailing address or telephone number of the obligor. In any subsequent action to enforce a support order, upon a sufficient showing that a diligent effort has been made to ascertain the location of the obligor, service of process or provision of notice necessary in the case may be made at the last known address of the obligor in any manner expressly provided by the Code of Civil Procedure or this Act, which service shall be sufficient for purposes of due process.

(g) An order for support shall include a date on which the current support obligation terminates. The termination date shall be no earlier than the date on which the child covered by the order will attain the age of 18. However, if the child will not graduate from high school until after attaining the age of 18, then the termination date shall be no earlier than the earlier of the date on which the child's high school graduation will occur or the date on which the child will attain the age of 19. The order for support shall state that the termination date does not apply to any arrearage that may remain unpaid on that date. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent the court from modifying the order or terminating the order in the event the child is otherwise emancipated.

(g-5) If there is an unpaid arrearage or delinquency (as those terms are defined in the Income Withholding for Support Act) equal to at least one month's support obligation on the termination date stated in the order for support or, if there is no termination date stated in the order, on the date the child attains the age of majority or is otherwise emancipated, the periodic amount required to be paid for current support of that child immediately prior to that date shall automatically continue to be an obligation, not as current support but as periodic payment toward satisfaction of the unpaid arrearage or delinquency. That periodic payment shall be in addition to any periodic payment previously required for satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency. The total periodic amount to be paid toward satisfaction of the arrearage or delinquency may be enforced and collected by any method provided by law for enforcement and collection of child support, including but not limited to income withholding under the Income Withholding for Support Act. Each order for support entered or modified on or after January 1, 2005 (the effective date of Public Act 93-1061) this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly must contain a statement notifying the parties of the requirements of this subsection. Failure to include the statement in the order for support does not affect the validity of the order or the operation of the provisions of this subsection with regard to the order. This subsection shall not be construed to prevent or affect the establishment or modification of an order for support of a minor child or the establishment or modification of an order for support of a non-minor child or educational expenses under Section 513 of this Act.

(h) An order entered under this Section shall include a provision requiring either parent to report to the other parent and to the Clerk of Court within 10 days each time either parent obtains new employment, and each time either parent's employment is terminated for any reason. The report shall be in writing and shall, in the case of new employment, include the name and address of the new employer. Failure to report new employment or the termination of current employment, if coupled with nonpayment of support for a period in excess of 60 days, is indirect criminal contempt. For either parent arrested for failure to report new employment bond shall be set in the amount of the child support that should have been paid during the period of unreported employment. An order entered under this Section shall also include a provision requiring either obligor and obligee to advise the other of a change in residence within 5 days of the change except when the court finds that the physical, mental, or emotional health of a party or that of a child, or both, would be seriously endangered by disclosure of the party's address.

(i) The court does not lose the powers of contempt, driver's license suspension, or other child support enforcement mechanisms, including, but not limited to, criminal prosecution as set forth in this Act, upon the emancipation of the minor child.

(Source: P.A. 99-90, eff. 1-1-16; 99-763, eff. 1-1-17; 99-764, eff. 7-1-17; 100-15, eff. 7-1-17; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 615. The Adoption Act is amended by changing Sections 4.1 and 18.5 as follows:

(750 ILCS 50/4.1) (from Ch. 40, par. 1506)

Sec. 4.1. Adoption between multiple jurisdictions. It is the public policy of this State to promote child welfare in adoption between multiple jurisdictions by implementing standards that foster permanency for children in an expeditious manner while considering the best interests of the child as paramount. Ensuring that standards for interjurisdictional adoption are clear and applied consistently, efficiently, and reasonably will promote the best interests of the child in finding a permanent home.

(a) The Department of Children and Family Services shall promulgate rules regarding the approval and regulation of agencies providing, in this State, adoption services, as defined in Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969, which shall include, but not be limited to, a requirement that any agency shall be licensed in this State as a child welfare agency as defined in Section 2.08 of the Child Care Act of 1969. Any out-of-state agency, if not licensed in this State as a child welfare agency, must obtain the approval of the Department in order to act as a sending agency, as defined in Section 1 of the Interstate Compact on Placement of Children Act, seeking to place a child into this State through a placement subject to the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children. An out-of-state agency, if not licensed in this State as a child welfare agency, is prohibited from providing in this State adoption services, as defined by Section 2.24 of the Child Care Act of 1969; shall comply with Section 12C-70 of the Criminal Code of 2012; and shall provide all of the following to the Department:

(1) A copy of the agency's current license or other form of authorization from the approving authority in the agency's state. If no license or authorization is issued, the agency must provide a reference statement, from the approving authority, stating that the agency is authorized to place children in foster care or adoption or both in its jurisdiction.

(2) A description of the program, including home studies, placements, and supervisions, that the child placing agency conducts within its geographical area, and, if applicable, adoptive placements and the finalization of adoptions. The child placing agency must accept continued responsibility for placement planning and replacement if the placement fails.

(3) Notification to the Department of any significant child placing agency changes after approval.

(4) Any other information the Department may require.

The rules shall also provide that any agency that places children for adoption in this State may not, in any policy or practice relating to the placement of children for adoption, discriminate against any child or prospective adoptive parent on the basis of race.

(a-5) (Blank).

(b) Interstate adoptions.

(1) All interstate adoption placements under this Act shall comply with the Child Care Act of 1969 and the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children. The placement of children with relatives by the Department of Children and Family Services shall also comply with subsection (b) of Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. The Department may promulgate rules to implement interstate adoption placements, including those requirements set forth in this Section.

(2) If an adoption is finalized prior to bringing or sending a child to this State, compliance with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children is not required.

(3) Approval requirements. The Department shall promulgate procedures for interstate adoption placements of children under this Act. No later than September 24, 2017 (30 days after the effective date of Public Act 100-344) this amendatory Act of the 100th General Assembly, the Department shall distribute a written list of all preadoption pre-adoption approval requirements to all Illinois licensed child welfare agencies performing adoption services, and all out-of-state agencies approved under this Section, and shall post the requirements on the Department's website. The Department may not require any further preadoption pre-adoption requirements other than those set forth in the procedures required under this paragraph. The procedures shall reflect the standard of review as stated in the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children and approval shall be given by the Department if the placement appears not to be contrary to the best interests of the child.

(4) Time for review and decision. In all cases where the child to be placed is not a youth in care in Illinois or any other state, a provisional or final approval for placement shall be provided in writing from the Department in accordance with the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children. Approval or denial of the placement must be given by the Department as soon as practicable, but in no event more than 3 business days of the receipt of the completed referral packet by the Department's Interstate Compact Administrator. Receipt of the packet shall be evidenced by the packet's arrival at the address designated by the Department to receive such referrals. The written decision to approve or deny the placement shall be communicated in an expeditious manner, including, but not limited to, electronic means referenced in paragraph (b)(7) of this Section, and shall be provided to all Illinois licensed child welfare agencies involved in the placement, all out-of-state child placing agencies involved in the placement, and all attorneys representing the prospective adoptive parent or biological parent. If, during its initial review of the packet, the Department believes there are any incomplete or missing documents, or missing information, as required in paragraph (b)(3), the Department shall, as soon as practicable, but in no event more than 2 business days of receipt of the packet, communicate a list of any incomplete or missing documents and information to all Illinois licensed child welfare agencies involved in the placement, all out-of-state child placing agencies involved in the placement, and all attorneys representing the adoptive parent or biological parent. This list shall be communicated in an expeditious manner, including, but not limited to, electronic means referenced in paragraph (b)(7) of this Section.

(5) Denial of approval. In all cases where the child to be placed is not a youth in the care of any state, if the Department denies approval of an interstate placement, the written decision referenced in paragraph (b)(4) of this Section shall set forth the reason or reasons why the placement was not approved and shall reference which requirements under paragraph (b)(3) of this Section were not met. The written decision shall be communicated in an expeditious manner, including, but not limited to, electronic means referenced in paragraph (b)(7) of this Section, to all Illinois licensed child welfare agencies involved in the placement, all out-of-state child placing agencies involved in the placement, and all attorneys representing the prospective adoptive parent or biological parent.

(6) Provisional approval. Nothing in paragraphs (b)(3) through (b)(5) of this Section shall preclude the Department from issuing provisional approval of the placement pending receipt of any missing or incomplete documents or information.

(7) Electronic communication. All communications concerning an interstate placement made between the Department and an Illinois licensed child welfare agency, an out-of-state child placing agency, and attorneys representing the prospective adoptive parent or biological parent, including the written communications referenced in this Section, may be made through any type of electronic means, including, but not limited to, electronic mail.

(c) Intercountry adoptions. The adoption of a child, if the child is a habitual resident of a country other than the United States and the petitioner is a habitual resident of the United States, or, if the child is a habitual resident of the United States and the petitioner is a habitual resident of a country other than the United States, shall comply with the Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000, as amended, and the Immigration and Nationality Act, as amended. In the case of an intercountry adoption that requires oversight by the adoption services governed by the Intercountry Adoption Universal Accreditation Act of 2012, this State shall not impose any additional preadoption requirements.

(d) (Blank).

(e) Re-adoption after an intercountry adoption.

(1) Any time after a minor child has been adopted in a foreign country and has immigrated to the United States, the adoptive parent or parents of the child may petition the court for a judgment of adoption to re-adopt the child and confirm the foreign adoption decree.

(2) The petitioner must submit to the court one or more of the following to verify the foreign adoption:

(i) an immigrant visa for the child issued by United States Citizenship and Immigration Services of the U.S. Department of Homeland Security that was valid at the time of the child's immigration;

(ii) a decree, judgment, certificate of adoption, adoption registration, or equivalent court order, entered or issued by a court of competent jurisdiction or administrative body outside the United States, establishing the relationship of parent and child by adoption; or

(iii) such other evidence deemed satisfactory by the court.

(3) The child's immigrant visa shall be prima facie proof that the adoption was established in accordance with the laws of the foreign jurisdiction and met United States requirements for immigration.

(4) If the petitioner submits documentation that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (2), the court shall not appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor who is the subject of the proceeding, shall not require any further termination of parental rights of the child's biological parents, nor shall it require any home study, investigation, post-placement visit, or background check of the petitioner.

(5) The petition may include a request for change of the child's name and any other request for specific relief that is in the best interests of the child. The relief may include a request for a revised birth date for the child if supported by evidence from a medical or dental professional attesting to the appropriate age of the child or other collateral evidence.

(6) Two adoptive parents who adopted a minor child together in a foreign country while married to one another may file a petition for adoption to re-adopt the child jointly, regardless of whether their marriage has been dissolved. If either parent whose marriage was dissolved has subsequently remarried or entered into a civil union with another person, the new spouse or civil union partner shall not join in the petition to re-adopt the child, unless the new spouse or civil union partner is seeking to adopt the child. If either adoptive parent does not join in the petition, he or she must be joined as a party defendant. The defendant parent's failure to participate in the re-adoption proceeding shall not affect the existing parental rights or obligations of the parent as they relate to the minor child, and the parent's name shall be placed on any subsequent birth record issued for the child as a result of the re-adoption proceeding.

(7) An adoptive parent who adopted a minor child in a foreign country as an unmarried person may file a petition for adoption to re-adopt the child as a sole petitioner, even if the adoptive parent has subsequently married or entered into a civil union.

(8) If one of the adoptive parents who adopted a minor child dies prior to a re-adoption proceeding, the deceased parent's name shall be placed on any subsequent birth record issued for the child as a result of the re-adoption proceeding.

(Source: P.A. 99-49, eff. 7-15-15; 100-344, eff. 8-25-17; revised 10-6-17.)

(750 ILCS 50/18.5) (from Ch. 40, par. 1522.5)

Sec. 18.5. Liability. No liability shall attach to the State, any agency thereof, any licensed agency, any judge, any officer or employee of the court, or any party or employee thereof involved in the surrender of a child for adoption or in an adoption proceeding for acts or efforts made within the scope of Sections 18.05 through thru 18.5, inclusive, of this Act and under its provisions, except for subsection (n) of Section 18.1.

(Source: P.A. 96-895, eff. 5-21-10; revised 10-3-17.)

Section 620. The Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 is amended by changing Section 214 as follows:

(750 ILCS 60/214) (from Ch. 40, par. 2312-14)

Sec. 214. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner has been abused by a family or household member or that petitioner is a high-risk adult who has been abused, neglected, or exploited, as defined in this Act, an order of protection prohibiting the abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, or Section 219 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim. Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall be in accordance with this Act.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate: Section 217 on emergency orders, Section 218 on interim orders, and Section 219 on plenary orders. The remedies listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Prohibit respondent's harassment, interference with personal liberty, intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse, or willful deprivation, neglect or exploitation, as defined in this Act, or stalking of the petitioner, as defined in Section 12-7.3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, if such abuse, neglect, exploitation, or stalking has occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence. Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any residence, household, or premises of the petitioner, including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive possession of the residence, household, or premises shall not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any person or entity other than the opposing party that authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and respondent each has the right to occupancy of a residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the hardships to respondent and any minor child or dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the residence or household) or from loss of possession of the residence or household (should petitioner leave to avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance of hardships, the court shall also take into account the accessibility of the residence or household. Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor possession by petitioner unless the presumption is rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing that the hardships to respondent substantially outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The court, on the request of petitioner or on its own motion, may order respondent to provide suitable, accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person protected by the order of protection, or prohibit respondent from entering or remaining present at petitioner's school, place of employment, or other specified places at times when petitioner is present, or both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships. Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no right to enter the premises.

(A) If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court may allow respondent access to the residence to remove items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively by respondent, medications, and other items as the court directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(B) When the petitioner and the respondent attend the same public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school, the court when issuing an order of protection and providing relief shall consider the severity of the act, any continuing physical danger or emotional distress to the petitioner, the educational rights guaranteed to the petitioner and respondent under federal and State law, the availability of a transfer of the respondent to another school, a change of placement or a change of program of the respondent, the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school, and any other relevant facts of the case. The court may order that the respondent not attend the public, private, or non-public elementary, middle, or high school attended by the petitioner, order that the respondent accept a change of placement or change of program, as determined by the school district or private or non-public school, or place restrictions on the respondent's movements within the school attended by the petitioner. The respondent bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that a transfer, change of placement, or change of program of the respondent is not available. The respondent also bears the burden of production with respect to the expense, difficulty, and educational disruption that would be caused by a transfer of the respondent to another school. A transfer, change of placement, or change of program is not unavailable to the respondent solely on the ground that the respondent does not agree with the school district's or private or non-public school's transfer, change of placement, or change of program or solely on the ground that the respondent fails or refuses to consent or otherwise does not take an action required to effectuate a transfer, change of placement, or change of program. When a court orders a respondent to stay away from the public, private, or non-public school attended by the petitioner and the respondent requests a transfer to another attendance center within the respondent's school district or private or non-public school, the school district or private or non-public school shall have sole discretion to determine the attendance center to which the respondent is transferred. In the event the court order results in a transfer of the minor respondent to another attendance center, a change in the respondent's placement, or a change of the respondent's program, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the transfer or change.

(C) The court may order the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of a minor respondent to take certain actions or to refrain from taking certain actions to ensure that the respondent complies with the order. In the event the court orders a transfer of the respondent to another school, the parents, guardian, or legal custodian of the respondent is responsible for transportation and other costs associated with the change of school by the respondent.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program, mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing services to elders, program designed for domestic violence abusers or any other guidance service the court deems appropriate. The Court may order the respondent in any intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois Department of Human Services protocol approved partner abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or unwarranted separation from the person who has been the minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii) order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary allocation of parental responsibilities: significant decision-making. Award temporary decision-making responsibility to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, and this State's Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has committed abuse (as defined in Section 103) of a minor child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that awarding temporary significant decision-making responsibility to respondent would not be in the child's best interest.

(7) Parenting time. Determine the parenting time, if any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards physical care or allocates temporary significant decision-making responsibility of a minor child to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny respondent's parenting time with a minor child if the court finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during parenting time; (ii) use the parenting time as an opportunity to abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 603.10 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act. If the court grants parenting time, the order shall specify dates and times for the parenting time to take place or other specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No order for parenting time shall refer merely to the term "reasonable parenting time".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor child if, when respondent arrives for parenting time, respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet the minor child for parenting time, and the parties shall submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable alternative arrangements for parenting time. A person may be approved to supervise parenting time only after filing an affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit respondent from removing a minor child from the State or concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse, neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner exclusive possession of personal property and, if respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may award petitioner temporary possession thereof under the standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property is that it is marital property, the court may grant petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from improperly using the financial or other resources of an aged member of the family or household for the profit or advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned, possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner or the respondent or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either the petitioner or the respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the animal and forbid the respondent from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in the petitioner's care or over whom the petitioner has been allocated parental responsibility, when the respondent has a legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of support, payment through the clerk and withholding of income to secure payment. An order for child support may be granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care of a child, or an order or agreement for physical care of a child, prior to entry of an order allocating significant decision-making responsibility. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a valid order allocating parental responsibility differently and vacating the petitioner's significant decision-making authority, unless otherwise provided in the order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of the abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Such losses shall include, but not be limited to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support, repair or replacement of property damaged or taken, reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is entitled to seek maintenance, child support or property distribution from the other party under the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or hereafter amended, the court may order respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to the extent that such reimbursement would be "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the court may order respondent to pay the reasonable expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for and recovery of the minor child, including but not limited to legal fees, court costs, private investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent from entering or remaining in the residence or household while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an order of protection was issued from possessing any firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

Any Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of the respondent, except as provided in subsection (b), shall be ordered by the court to be turned over to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall immediately mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping. The court shall issue a warrant for seizure of any firearm in the possession of the respondent, to be kept by the local law enforcement agency for safekeeping, except as provided in subsection (b). The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired, shall at the respondent's request, be returned to the respondent at the end of the order of protection. It is the respondent's responsibility to notify the Department of State Police Firearm Owner's Identification Card Office.

(b) If the respondent is a peace officer as defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the court shall order that any firearms used by the respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a peace officer be surrendered to the chief law enforcement executive of the agency in which the respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms for safekeeping for the duration of the order of protection.

(c) Upon expiration of the period of safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition from the local law enforcement agency, the court may order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible to possess firearms, and who does not reside with respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of protection prohibits respondent from having contact with the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted under subsection (b) of Section 203, or if necessary to prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other records of the minor child who is in the care of petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of a family or household member or further abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a high-risk adult with disabilities or to effectuate one of the granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships. If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or any other harm that one of the remedies listed in paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed to prevent, no further evidence is necessary that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(18) Telephone services.

(A) Unless a condition described in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph exists, the court may, upon request by the petitioner, order a wireless telephone service provider to transfer to the petitioner the right to continue to use a telephone number or numbers indicated by the petitioner and the financial responsibility associated with the number or numbers, as set forth in subparagraph (C) of this paragraph. For purposes of this paragraph (18), the term "wireless telephone service provider" means a provider of commercial mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332. The petitioner may request the transfer of each telephone number that the petitioner, or a minor child in his or her custody, uses. The clerk of the court shall serve the order on the wireless telephone service provider's agent for service of process provided to the Illinois Commerce Commission. The order shall contain all of the following:

(i) The name and billing telephone number of the account holder including the name of the wireless telephone service provider that serves the account.

(ii) Each telephone number that will be transferred.

(iii) A statement that the provider transfers to the petitioner all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph.

(B) A wireless telephone service provider shall terminate the respondent's use of, and shall transfer to the petitioner use of, the telephone number or numbers indicated in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph unless it notifies the petitioner, within 72 hours after it receives the order, that one of the following applies:

(i) The account holder named in the order has terminated the account.

(ii) A difference in network technology would prevent or impair the functionality of a device on a network if the transfer occurs.

(iii) The transfer would cause a geographic or other limitation on network or service provision to the petitioner.

(iv) Another technological or operational issue would prevent or impair the use of the telephone number if the transfer occurs.

(C) The petitioner assumes all financial responsibility for and right to the use of any telephone number transferred under this paragraph. In this paragraph, "financial responsibility" includes monthly service costs and costs associated with any mobile device associated with the number.

(D) A wireless telephone service provider may apply to the petitioner its routine and customary requirements for establishing an account or transferring a number, including requiring the petitioner to provide proof of identification, financial information, and customer preferences.

(E) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a wireless telephone service provider is immune from civil liability for its actions taken in compliance with a court order issued under this paragraph.

(F) All wireless service providers that provide services to residential customers shall provide to the Illinois Commerce Commission the name and address of an agent for service of orders entered under this paragraph (18). Any change in status of the registered agent must be reported to the Illinois Commerce Commission within 30 days of such change.

(G) The Illinois Commerce Commission shall maintain the list of registered agents for service for each wireless telephone service provider on the Commission's website. The Commission may consult with wireless telephone service providers and the Circuit Court Clerks on the manner in which this information is provided and displayed.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy, other than payment of support, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and consequences of the respondent's past abuse, neglect or exploitation of the petitioner or any family or household member, including the concealment of his or her location in order to evade service of process or notice, and the likelihood of danger of future abuse, neglect, or exploitation to petitioner or any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused or neglected or improperly relocated from the jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or improperly separated from the child's primary caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the parties from loss of possession of the family home, the court shall consider relevant factors, including but not limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety, adequacy, location and other characteristics of alternate housing for each party and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party, and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent, unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the requested relief in order to protect petitioner or other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections 203 and 217 is presented to the court, the court shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court if it appears from the contents of the petition and the examination of petitioner that the averments are sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage attach to a putative father until a father and child relationship has been established under the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, the Illinois Parentage Act of 2015, the Illinois Public Aid Code, Section 12 of the Vital Records Act, the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the Probate Act of 1975 1985, the Revised Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, the Expedited Child Support Act of 1990, any judicial, administrative, or other act of another state or territory, any other Illinois statute, or by any foreign nation establishing the father and child relationship, any other proceeding substantially in conformity with the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-193), or where both parties appeared in open court or at an administrative hearing acknowledging under oath or admitting by affirmation the existence of a father and child relationship. Absent such an adjudication, finding, or acknowledgment acknowledgement, no putative father shall be granted temporary allocation of parental responsibilities, including parenting time with the minor child, or physical care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household to avoid further abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused the abuse, neglect, or exploitation by respondent, unless that same conduct would have excused such abuse, neglect, or exploitation if the parties had not been family or household members.

(Source: P.A. 99-85, eff. 1-1-16; 99-90, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-388, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 625. The Collaborative Process Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(750 ILCS 90/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

(1) "Collaborative process communication" means a statement, whether oral or in a record, or verbal or nonverbal, that:

(A) is made to conduct, participate in, continue, or reconvene a collaborative process; and

(B) occurs after the parties sign a collaborative process participation agreement and before the collaborative process is concluded.

(2) "Collaborative process participation agreement" means a written agreement by persons acting with informed consent to participate in a collaborative process, in which the persons agree to discharge their collaborative process lawyer and law firm if the collaborative process fails.

(3) "Collaborative process" means a procedure intended to resolve a collaborative process matter without intervention by a court in which persons:

(A) sign a collaborative process participation agreement; and

(B) are represented by collaborative process lawyers.

(4) "Collaborative process lawyer" means a lawyer who represents a party in a collaborative process and helps carry out the process of the agreement, but is not a party to the agreement.

(5) "Collaborative process matter" means a dispute, transaction, claim, problem, or issue for resolution, including a dispute, claim, or issue in a proceeding, which is described in a collaborative process participation agreement and arises under the family or domestic relations law of this State, including:

(A) marriage, divorce, dissolution, annulment, legal separation, and property distribution;

(B) significant decision-making decision making and parenting time of children;

(C) maintenance and child support;

(D) adoption;

(E) parentage; and

(F) premarital, marital, and post-marital agreements.

"Collaborative process matter" does not include any dispute, transaction, claim, problem, or issue that: (i) is the subject of a pending action under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987; (ii) is under investigation by the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act; or (iii) resulted in a currently open case with the Illinois Department of Children and Family Services.

(6) "Law firm" means:

(A) lawyers who practice law together in a partnership, professional corporation, sole proprietorship, limited liability company, or association; and

(B) lawyers employed in a legal services organization, law school or the legal department of a corporation or other organization.

(7) "Nonparty participant" means a person, other than a party and the party's collaborative process lawyer, that participates in a collaborative process.

(8) "Party" means a person other than a collaborative process lawyer that signs a collaborative process participation agreement and whose consent is necessary to resolve a collaborative process matter.

(9) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(10) "Proceeding" means a judicial or other adjudicative process before a court, including related prehearing and post-hearing motions, conferences, and discovery.

(11) "Prospective party" means a person that discusses with a prospective collaborative process lawyer the possibility of signing a collaborative process participation agreement.

(12) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(13) "Related to a collaborative process matter" means involving the same parties, transaction or occurrence, nucleus of operative fact, dispute, claim, or issue as the collaborative process matter.

(14) "Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or adopt a record:

(A) to execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or

(B) to attach to or logically associate with the record an electronic symbol, sound, or process.

(Source: P.A. 100-205, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 630. The Installment Sales Contract Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 75 as follows:

(765 ILCS 67/10)

Sec. 10. Terms and conditions of installment sales contracts.

(a) The seller of residential real estate by installment sales contract shall provide the buyer with a written contract that complies with the requirements set forth in this Section.

(b) Until both parties have a copy of the executed contract signed by the buyer and the seller with the signatures notarized, either party has the right to rescind the contract, in addition to all other remedies provided by this Act. Upon rescission, pursuant to this Section, the seller shall refund to the buyer all money paid to the seller as of the date of rescission.

(c) An installment sales contract for the sale of any residential real estate subject to the contract shall clearly and conspicuously disclose the following:

(1) The address, permanent index number, and legal description of the residential real estate subject to the contract.

(2) The price of the residential real estate subject to the contract.

(3) The amount, if any, of any down payment applied to the price of the residential real estate subject to the contract and the resulting principal on the loan.

(4) The amount of the periodic payment, any grace periods for late payments, late payment fees, and to whom, where, and how the buyer should deliver each payment.

(5) The interest rate being charged, if any, expressed only as an annual percentage rate.

(6) The term of the loan expressed in years and months and the total number of periodic payments due.

(7) The amount, if any, of any balloon payments and when each balloon payment is due.

(8) A statement outlining whether the seller or the buyer is responsible for paying real estate taxes and insurance and how responsibilities of the buyer and seller change based on the time period the residential real estate subject to the contract is occupied by the buyer and what percentage of the principal is paid down. In all circumstances not defined in the disclosure required by this subsection, the seller has the responsibility for paying real estate taxes and insurance.

(9) The amount that will be charged periodically, if any, for the first year to pay real estate taxes.

(10) The amount that will be charged periodically, if any, for the first year to pay insurance.

(11) A statement that the amounts listed in items (9) and (10) of this subsection are subject to change each year.

(12) The fair cash value as defined in the Property Tax Code and set forth on the real estate tax bill for the year immediately prior to the sale, and the assessed value of the property as set forth on the real estate tax bill for the year immediately prior to the sale.

(13) The amount of real estate taxes for the year immediately prior to the sale.

(14) Any unpaid amounts owing on prior real estate taxes.

(15) The amount of the annual insurance payment for the year immediately prior to the sale.

(16) The type of insurance coverage, including, but not limited to, property insurance and title insurance, for the buyer and seller that will be required or provided.

(17) The seller's interest in the structure being sold.

(18) Any known liens or mortgages or other title limitations existing on the property.

(19) An explanation as to when the buyer will obtain the title.

(20) A statement defining what repairs the buyer is financially responsible for making to the residential real estate subject to the contract, if any, and how responsibilities of the buyer and seller to repair the property change based on the time period the residential real estate subject to the contract is occupied by the buyer and what percentage of the principal is paid down by any repairs made by the buyer. In all circumstances not defined in the disclosure required by this subsection, the seller has the financial responsibility for all repairs required to be made pursuant to the installment sales contract.

(21) A statement defining what, if any, alterations of the property must be approved by both the buyer and the seller prior to the alterations being made, including requirements to provide evidence of proper permits, insurance, and lien waiver agreements.

(22) Any additional charges or fees due at the time of the date of sale or at a later date.

(23) An amortization schedule, as defined in Section 5.

(24) A certificate of compliance with applicable dwelling codes, or in the absence of such a certificate: (i) an express written warranty that no notice from any municipality or other governmental authority of a dwelling code violation that existed with respect to the residential real estate subject to the contract before the installment sales contract was executed had been received by the seller, his or her principal, or his or her agent within 10 years of the date of execution of the installment sales contract; or (ii) if any notice of a violation had been received, a list of all such notices with a detailed statement of all violations referred to in the notice.

(25) A statement, in large bold font stating in substantially similar form: "NOTE TO BUYER: BEFORE SIGNING THE CONTRACT THE BUYER HAS THE OPTION OF OBTAINING AN INDEPENDENT THIRD PARTY INSPECTION AND/OR APPRAISAL SO THAT THE BUYER CAN DETERMINE THE CONDITION AND ESTIMATED MARKET VALUE OF THE RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE AND DECIDE WHETHER TO SIGN THE CONTRACT.".

(26) If the residential real estate or any dwelling structure thereon that is subject to the contract has been condemned by the unit of government having jurisdiction, the contract shall include a statement, in large bold font stating in substantially similar form: "NOTE TO BUYER: THE RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE BEING SOLD THROUGH THIS CONTRACT HAS BEEN CONDEMNED BY THE UNIT OF GOVERNMENT HAVING JURISDICTION.".

(27) A statement that the seller provided the buyer the installment sales contract disclosure prepared by the Office of the Attorney General as required under Illinois State law. The statement shall include the date on which the buyer was provided with the disclosure, which must be at least 3 full business days before the contract was executed.

(28) A statement that: (i) if the buyer defaults in payment, any action brought against the buyer under the contract shall be initiated only after the expiration of 90 days from the date of the default; and (ii) a buyer in default may, prior to the expiration of the 90-day period, make all payments, fees and charges currently due under the contract to cure the default.

(d) The requirements of this Section cannot be waived by the buyer or seller.

(Source: P.A. 100-416, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(765 ILCS 67/75)

Sec. 75. Installment sales contract disclosures.

(a) The Office of the Attorney General shall develop the content and format of an educational document providing independent consumer information regarding installment sales contracts and the availability of independent housing counseling services, including services provided by nonprofit agencies certified by the federal government to provide housing counseling. The document shall be updated and revised as often as deemed necessary by the Office of the Attorney General.

(b) The document described in subsection (a) of this Section shall include the following statement: "IMPORTANT NOTICE REGARDING THE COOLING-OFF PERIOD: Illinois State law requires a 3-day cooling-off period for installment sales contracts, during which time a potential buyer cannot be required to close or proceed with the contract. The purpose of this requirement is to provide a potential buyer with 3 business days to consider his or her decision whether to sign an installment sales contract. Potential buyers may want to seek additional information from a HUD-approved housing counselor during this 3-day period. The 3-day cooling-off period cannot be waived.".

(Source: P.A. 100-416, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 635. The Statute Concerning Perpetuities is amended by changing Section 6 as follows:

(765 ILCS 305/6) (from Ch. 30, par. 196)

Sec. 6. Application of Act Effective date. This Act shall apply only to instruments, including instruments which exercise a power of appointment, which become effective after the effective date of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 76-1428; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 640. The Condominium Property Act is amended by changing Sections 18, 19, and 27 as follows:

(765 ILCS 605/18) (from Ch. 30, par. 318)

Sec. 18. Contents of bylaws. The bylaws shall provide for at least the following:

(a)(1) The election from among the unit owners of a board of managers, the number of persons constituting such board, and that the terms of at least one-third of the members of the board shall expire annually and that all members of the board shall be elected at large; if there are multiple owners of a single unit, only one of the multiple owners shall be eligible to serve as a member of the board at any one time;

(2) the powers and duties of the board;

(3) the compensation, if any, of the members of the board;

(4) the method of removal from office of members of the board;

(5) that the board may engage the services of a manager or managing agent;

(6) that each unit owner shall receive, at least 25 days prior to the adoption thereof by the board of managers, a copy of the proposed annual budget together with an indication of which portions are intended for reserves, capital expenditures or repairs or payment of real estate taxes;

(7) that the board of managers shall annually supply to all unit owners an itemized accounting of the common expenses for the preceding year actually incurred or paid, together with an indication of which portions were for reserves, capital expenditures or repairs or payment of real estate taxes and with a tabulation of the amounts collected pursuant to the budget or assessment, and showing the net excess or deficit of income over expenditures plus reserves;

(8)(i) that each unit owner shall receive notice, in the same manner as is provided in this Act for membership meetings, of any meeting of the board of managers concerning the adoption of the proposed annual budget and regular assessments pursuant thereto or to adopt a separate (special) assessment, (ii) that except as provided in subsection (iv) below, if an adopted budget or any separate assessment adopted by the board would result in the sum of all regular and separate assessments payable in the current fiscal year exceeding 115% of the sum of all regular and separate assessments payable during the preceding fiscal year, the board of managers, upon written petition by unit owners with 20 percent of the votes of the association delivered to the board within 21 days of the board action, shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the date of delivery of the petition to consider the budget or separate assessment; unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the budget or separate assessment, it is ratified, (iii) that any common expense not set forth in the budget or any increase in assessments over the amount adopted in the budget shall be separately assessed against all unit owners, (iv) that separate assessments for expenditures relating to emergencies or mandated by law may be adopted by the board of managers without being subject to unit owner approval or the provisions of item (ii) above or item (v) below. As used herein, "emergency" means an immediate danger to the structural integrity of the common elements or to the life, health, safety or property of the unit owners, (v) that assessments for additions and alterations to the common elements or to association-owned property not included in the adopted annual budget, shall be separately assessed and are subject to approval of two-thirds of the total votes of all unit owners, (vi) that the board of managers may adopt separate assessments payable over more than one fiscal year. With respect to multi-year assessments not governed by items (iv) and (v), the entire amount of the multi-year assessment shall be deemed considered and authorized in the first fiscal year in which the assessment is approved;

(9)(A) that every meeting of the board of managers shall be open to any unit owner, except that the board may close any portion of a noticed meeting or meet separately from a noticed meeting to: (i) discuss litigation when an action against or on behalf of the particular association has been filed and is pending in a court or administrative tribunal, or when the board of managers finds that such an action is probable or imminent, (ii) discuss the appointment, employment, engagement, or dismissal of an employee, independent contractor, agent, or other provider of goods and services, (iii) interview a potential employee, independent contractor, agent, or other provider of goods and services, (iv) discuss violations of rules and regulations of the association, (v) discuss a unit owner's unpaid share of common expenses, or (vi) consult with the association's legal counsel; that any vote on these matters shall take place at a meeting of the board of managers or portion thereof open to any unit owner;

(B) that board members may participate in and act at any meeting of the board of managers in person, by telephonic means, or by use of any acceptable technological means whereby all persons participating in the meeting can communicate with each other; that participation constitutes attendance and presence in person at the meeting;

(C) that any unit owner may record the proceedings at meetings of the board of managers or portions thereof required to be open by this Act by tape, film or other means, and that the board may prescribe reasonable rules and regulations to govern the right to make such recordings;

(D) that notice of every meeting of the board of managers shall be given to every board member at least 48 hours prior thereto, unless the board member waives notice of the meeting pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 18.8; and

(E) that notice of every meeting of the board of managers shall be posted in entranceways, elevators, or other conspicuous places in the condominium at least 48 hours prior to the meeting of the board of managers except where there is no common entranceway for 7 or more units, the board of managers may designate one or more locations in the proximity of these units where the notices of meetings shall be posted; that notice of every meeting of the board of managers shall also be given at least 48 hours prior to the meeting, or such longer notice as this Act may separately require, to: (i) each unit owner who has provided the association with written authorization to conduct business by acceptable technological means, and (ii) to the extent that the condominium instruments of an association require, to each other unit owner, as required by subsection (f) of Section 18.8, by mail or delivery, and that no other notice of a meeting of the board of managers need be given to any unit owner;

(10) that the board shall meet at least 4 times annually;

(11) that no member of the board or officer shall be elected for a term of more than 2 years, but that officers and board members may succeed themselves;

(12) the designation of an officer to mail and receive all notices and execute amendments to condominium instruments as provided for in this Act and in the condominium instruments;

(13) the method of filling vacancies on the board which shall include authority for the remaining members of the board to fill the vacancy by two-thirds vote until the next annual meeting of unit owners or for a period terminating no later than 30 days following the filing of a petition signed by unit owners holding 20% of the votes of the association requesting a meeting of the unit owners to fill the vacancy for the balance of the term, and that a meeting of the unit owners shall be called for purposes of filling a vacancy on the board no later than 30 days following the filing of a petition signed by unit owners holding 20% of the votes of the association requesting such a meeting, and the method of filling vacancies among the officers that shall include the authority for the members of the board to fill the vacancy for the unexpired portion of the term;

(14) what percentage of the board of managers, if other than a majority, shall constitute a quorum;

(15) provisions concerning notice of board meetings to members of the board;

(16) the board of managers may not enter into a contract with a current board member or with a corporation or partnership in which a board member or a member of the board member's immediate family has 25% or more interest, unless notice of intent to enter the contract is given to unit owners within 20 days after a decision is made to enter into the contract and the unit owners are afforded an opportunity by filing a petition, signed by 20% of the unit owners, for an election to approve or disapprove the contract; such petition shall be filed within 30 days after such notice and such election shall be held within 30 days after filing the petition; for purposes of this subsection, a board member's immediate family means the board member's spouse, parents, and children;

(17) that the board of managers may disseminate to unit owners biographical and background information about candidates for election to the board if (i) reasonable efforts to identify all candidates are made and all candidates are given an opportunity to include biographical and background information in the information to be disseminated; and (ii) the board does not express a preference in favor of any candidate;

(18) any proxy distributed for board elections by the board of managers gives unit owners the opportunity to designate any person as the proxy holder, and gives the unit owner the opportunity to express a preference for any of the known candidates for the board or to write in a name;

(19) that special meetings of the board of managers can be called by the president or 25% of the members of the board;

(20) that the board of managers may establish and maintain a system of master metering of public utility services and collect payments in connection therewith, subject to the requirements of the Tenant Utility Payment Disclosure Act; and

(21) that the board may ratify and confirm actions of the members of the board taken in response to an emergency, as that term is defined in subdivision (a)(8)(iv) of this Section; that the board shall give notice to the unit owners of: (i) the occurrence of the emergency event within 7 business days after the emergency event, and (ii) the general description of the actions taken to address the event within 7 days after the emergency event.

The intent of the provisions of Public Act 99-472 adding this paragraph (21) is to empower and support boards to act in emergencies.

(b)(1) What percentage of the unit owners, if other than 20%, shall constitute a quorum provided that, for condominiums with 20 or more units, the percentage of unit owners constituting a quorum shall be 20% unless the unit owners holding a majority of the percentage interest in the association provide for a higher percentage, provided that in voting on amendments to the association's bylaws, a unit owner who is in arrears on the unit owner's regular or separate assessments for 60 days or more, shall not be counted for purposes of determining if a quorum is present, but that unit owner retains the right to vote on amendments to the association's bylaws;

(2) that the association shall have one class of membership;

(3) that the members shall hold an annual meeting, one of the purposes of which shall be to elect members of the board of managers;

(4) the method of calling meetings of the unit owners;

(5) that special meetings of the members can be called by the president, board of managers, or by 20% of unit owners;

(6) that written notice of any membership meeting shall be mailed or delivered giving members no less than 10 and no more than 30 days notice of the time, place and purpose of such meeting except that notice may be sent, to the extent the condominium instruments or rules adopted thereunder expressly so provide, by electronic transmission consented to by the unit owner to whom the notice is given, provided the director and officer or his agent certifies in writing to the delivery by electronic transmission;

(7) that voting shall be on a percentage basis, and that the percentage vote to which each unit is entitled is the percentage interest of the undivided ownership of the common elements appurtenant thereto, provided that the bylaws may provide for approval by unit owners in connection with matters where the requisite approval on a percentage basis is not specified in this Act, on the basis of one vote per unit;

(8) that, where there is more than one owner of a unit, if only one of the multiple owners is present at a meeting of the association, he is entitled to cast all the votes allocated to that unit, if more than one of the multiple owners are present, the votes allocated to that unit may be cast only in accordance with the agreement of a majority in interest of the multiple owners, unless the declaration expressly provides otherwise, that there is majority agreement if any one of the multiple owners cast the votes allocated to that unit without protest being made promptly to the person presiding over the meeting by any of the other owners of the unit;

(9)(A) except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph (9) in connection with board elections, that a unit owner may vote by proxy executed in writing by the unit owner or by his duly authorized attorney in fact; that the proxy must bear the date of execution and, unless the condominium instruments or the written proxy itself provide otherwise, is invalid after 11 months from the date of its execution; to the extent the condominium instruments or rules adopted thereunder expressly so provide, a vote or proxy may be submitted by electronic transmission, provided that any such electronic transmission shall either set forth or be submitted with information from which it can be determined that the electronic transmission was authorized by the unit owner or the unit owner's proxy;

(B) that if a rule adopted at least 120 days before a board election or the declaration or bylaws provide for balloting as set forth in this subsection, unit owners may not vote by proxy in board elections, but may vote only (i) by submitting an association-issued ballot in person at the election meeting or (ii) by submitting an association-issued ballot to the association or its designated agent by mail or other means of delivery specified in the declaration, bylaws, or rule; that the ballots shall be mailed or otherwise distributed to unit owners not less than 10 and not more than 30 days before the election meeting, and the board shall give unit owners not less than 21 days' prior written notice of the deadline for inclusion of a candidate's name on the ballots; that the deadline shall be no more than 7 days before the ballots are mailed or otherwise distributed to unit owners; that every such ballot must include the names of all candidates who have given the board or its authorized agent timely written notice of their candidacy and must give the person casting the ballot the opportunity to cast votes for candidates whose names do not appear on the ballot; that a ballot received by the association or its designated agent after the close of voting shall not be counted; that a unit owner who submits a ballot by mail or other means of delivery specified in the declaration, bylaws, or rule may request and cast a ballot in person at the election meeting, and thereby void any ballot previously submitted by that unit owner;

(B-5) that if a rule adopted at least 120 days before a board election or the declaration or bylaws provide for balloting as set forth in this subparagraph, unit owners may not vote by proxy in board elections, but may vote only (i) by submitting an association-issued ballot in person at the election meeting; or (ii) by any acceptable technological means as defined in Section 2 of this Act; instructions regarding the use of electronic means for voting shall be distributed to all unit owners not less than 10 and not more than 30 days before the election meeting, and the board shall give unit owners not less than 21 days' prior written notice of the deadline for inclusion of a candidate's name on the ballots; the deadline shall be no more than 7 days before the instructions for voting using electronic or acceptable technological means is distributed to unit owners; every instruction notice must include the names of all candidates who have given the board or its authorized agent timely written notice of their candidacy and must give the person voting through electronic or acceptable technological means the opportunity to cast votes for candidates whose names do not appear on the ballot; a unit owner who submits a vote using electronic or acceptable technological means may request and cast a ballot in person at the election meeting, thereby voiding any vote previously submitted by that unit owner;

(C) that if a written petition by unit owners with at least 20% of the votes of the association is delivered to the board within 30 days after the board's approval of a rule adopted pursuant to subparagraph (B) or subparagraph (B-5) of this paragraph (9), the board shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days after the date of delivery of the petition; that unless a majority of the total votes of the unit owners are cast at the meeting to reject the rule, the rule is ratified;

(D) that votes cast by ballot under subparagraph (B) or electronic or acceptable technological means under subparagraph (B-5) of this paragraph (9) are valid for the purpose of establishing a quorum;

(10) that the association may, upon adoption of the appropriate rules by the board of managers, conduct elections by secret ballot whereby the voting ballot is marked only with the percentage interest for the unit and the vote itself, provided that the board further adopt rules to verify the status of the unit owner issuing a proxy or casting a ballot; and further, that a candidate for election to the board of managers or such candidate's representative shall have the right to be present at the counting of ballots at such election;

(11) that in the event of a resale of a condominium unit the purchaser of a unit from a seller other than the developer pursuant to an installment sales contract for purchase shall during such times as he or she resides in the unit be counted toward a quorum for purposes of election of members of the board of managers at any meeting of the unit owners called for purposes of electing members of the board, shall have the right to vote for the election of members of the board of managers and to be elected to and serve on the board of managers unless the seller expressly retains in writing any or all of such rights. In no event may the seller and purchaser both be counted toward a quorum, be permitted to vote for a particular office or be elected and serve on the board. Satisfactory evidence of the installment sales contract shall be made available to the association or its agents. For purposes of this subsection, "installment sales contract" shall have the same meaning as set forth in Section 5 of the Installment Sales Contract Act and Section 1(e) of the Dwelling Unit Installment Contract Act;

(12) the method by which matters subject to the approval of unit owners set forth in this Act, or in the condominium instruments, will be submitted to the unit owners at special membership meetings called for such purposes; and

(13) that matters subject to the affirmative vote of not less than 2/3 of the votes of unit owners at a meeting duly called for that purpose, shall include, but not be limited to:

(i) merger or consolidation of the association;

(ii) sale, lease, exchange, or other disposition (excluding the mortgage or pledge) of all, or substantially all of the property and assets of the association; and

(iii) the purchase or sale of land or of units on behalf of all unit owners.

(c) Election of a president from among the board of managers, who shall preside over the meetings of the board of managers and of the unit owners.

(d) Election of a secretary from among the board of managers, who shall keep the minutes of all meetings of the board of managers and of the unit owners and who shall, in general, perform all the duties incident to the office of secretary.

(e) Election of a treasurer from among the board of managers, who shall keep the financial records and books of account.

(f) Maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements and payments therefor, including the method of approving payment vouchers.

(g) An association with 30 or more units shall obtain and maintain fidelity insurance covering persons who control or disburse funds of the association for the maximum amount of coverage available to protect funds in the custody or control of the association plus the association reserve fund. All management companies which are responsible for the funds held or administered by the association shall maintain and furnish to the association a fidelity bond for the maximum amount of coverage available to protect funds in the custody of the management company at any time. The association shall bear the cost of the fidelity insurance and fidelity bond, unless otherwise provided by contract between the association and a management company. The association shall be the direct obligee of any such fidelity bond. A management company holding reserve funds of an association shall at all times maintain a separate account for each association, provided, however, that for investment purposes, the Board of Managers of an association may authorize a management company to maintain the association's reserve funds in a single interest bearing account with similar funds of other associations. The management company shall at all times maintain records identifying all moneys of each association in such investment account. The management company may hold all operating funds of associations which it manages in a single operating account but shall at all times maintain records identifying all moneys of each association in such operating account. Such operating and reserve funds held by the management company for the association shall not be subject to attachment by any creditor of the management company.

For the purpose of this subsection, a management company shall be defined as a person, partnership, corporation, or other legal entity entitled to transact business on behalf of others, acting on behalf of or as an agent for a unit owner, unit owners or association of unit owners for the purpose of carrying out the duties, responsibilities, and other obligations necessary for the day to day operation and management of any property subject to this Act. For purposes of this subsection, the term "fiduciary insurance coverage" shall be defined as both a fidelity bond and directors and officers liability coverage, the fidelity bond in the full amount of association funds and association reserves that will be in the custody of the association, and the directors and officers liability coverage at a level as shall be determined to be reasonable by the board of managers, if not otherwise established by the declaration or by laws.

Until one year after September 21, 1985 (the effective date of Public Act 84-722), if a condominium association has reserves plus assessments in excess of $250,000 and cannot reasonably obtain 100% fidelity bond coverage for such amount, then it must obtain a fidelity bond coverage of $250,000.

(h) Method of estimating the amount of the annual budget, and the manner of assessing and collecting from the unit owners their respective shares of such estimated expenses, and of any other expenses lawfully agreed upon.

(i) That upon 10 days notice to the manager or board of managers and payment of a reasonable fee, any unit owner shall be furnished a statement of his account setting forth the amount of any unpaid assessments or other charges due and owing from such owner.

(j) Designation and removal of personnel necessary for the maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements.

(k) Such restrictions on and requirements respecting the use and maintenance of the units and the use of the common elements, not set forth in the declaration, as are designed to prevent unreasonable interference with the use of their respective units and of the common elements by the several unit owners.

(l) Method of adopting and of amending administrative rules and regulations governing the operation and use of the common elements.

(m) The percentage of votes required to modify or amend the bylaws, but each one of the particulars set forth in this section shall always be embodied in the bylaws.

(n)(i) The provisions of this Act, the declaration, bylaws, other condominium instruments, and rules and regulations that relate to the use of the individual unit or the common elements shall be applicable to any person leasing a unit and shall be deemed to be incorporated in any lease executed or renewed on or after August 30, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1271).

(ii) With regard to any lease entered into subsequent to July 1, 1990 (the effective date of Public Act 86-991), the unit owner leasing the unit shall deliver a copy of the signed lease to the board or if the lease is oral, a memorandum of the lease, not later than the date of occupancy or 10 days after the lease is signed, whichever occurs first. In addition to any other remedies, by filing an action jointly against the tenant and the unit owner, an association may seek to enjoin a tenant from occupying a unit or seek to evict a tenant under the provisions of Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure for failure of the lessor-owner to comply with the leasing requirements prescribed by this Section or by the declaration, bylaws, and rules and regulations. The board of managers may proceed directly against a tenant, at law or in equity, or under the provisions of Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure, for any other breach by tenant of any covenants, rules, regulations or bylaws.

(o) The association shall have no authority to forbear the payment of assessments by any unit owner.

(p) That when 30% or fewer of the units, by number, possess over 50% in the aggregate of the votes in the association, any percentage vote of members specified herein or in the condominium instruments shall require the specified percentage by number of units rather than by percentage of interest in the common elements allocated to units that would otherwise be applicable and garage units or storage units, or both, shall have, in total, no more votes than their aggregate percentage of ownership in the common elements; this shall mean that if garage units or storage units, or both, are to be given a vote, or portion of a vote, that the association must add the total number of votes cast of garage units, storage units, or both, and divide the total by the number of garage units, storage units, or both, and multiply by the aggregate percentage of ownership of garage units and storage units to determine the vote, or portion of a vote, that garage units or storage units, or both, have. For purposes of this subsection (p), when making a determination of whether 30% or fewer of the units, by number, possess over 50% in the aggregate of the votes in the association, a unit shall not include a garage unit or a storage unit.

(q) That a unit owner may not assign, delegate, transfer, surrender, or avoid the duties, responsibilities, and liabilities of a unit owner under this Act, the condominium instruments, or the rules and regulations of the Association; and that such an attempted assignment, delegation, transfer, surrender, or avoidance shall be deemed void.

The provisions of this Section are applicable to all condominium instruments recorded under this Act. Any portion of a condominium instrument which contains provisions contrary to these provisions shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any such instrument which fails to contain the provisions required by this Section shall be deemed to incorporate such provisions by operation of law.

(Source: P.A. 99-472, eff. 6-1-16; 99-567, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-292, eff. 1-1-18; 100-416, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(765 ILCS 605/19) (from Ch. 30, par. 319)

Sec. 19. Records of the association; availability for examination.

(a) The board of managers of every association shall keep and maintain the following records, or true and complete copies of these records, at the association's principal office:

(1) the association's declaration, bylaws, and plats of survey, and all amendments of these;

(2) the rules and regulations of the association, if any;

(3) if the association is incorporated as a corporation, the articles of incorporation of the association and all amendments to the articles of incorporation;

(4) minutes of all meetings of the association and its board of managers for the immediately preceding 7 years;

(5) all current policies of insurance of the association;

(6) all contracts, leases, and other agreements then in effect to which the association is a party or under which the association or the unit owners have obligations or liabilities;

(7) a current listing of the names, addresses, email addresses, telephone numbers, and weighted vote of all members entitled to vote;

(8) ballots and proxies related to ballots for all matters voted on by the members of the association during the immediately preceding 12 months, including, but not limited to, the election of members of the board of managers; and

(9) the books and records for the association's current and 10 immediately preceding fiscal years, including, but not limited to, itemized and detailed records of all receipts, expenditures, and accounts.

(b) Any member of an association shall have the right to inspect, examine, and make copies of the records described in subdivisions (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (9) of subsection (a) of this Section, in person or by agent, at any reasonable time or times, at the association's principal office. In order to exercise this right, a member must submit a written request to the association's board of managers or its authorized agent, stating with particularity the records sought to be examined. Failure of an association's board of managers to make available all records so requested within 10 business days of receipt of the member's written request shall be deemed a denial.

Any member who prevails in an enforcement action to compel examination of records described in subdivisions (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (9) of subsection (a) of this Section shall be entitled to recover reasonable attorney's fees and costs from the association.

(c) (Blank).

(d) (Blank).

(d-5) As used in this Section, "commercial purpose" means the use of any part of a record or records described in subdivisions (7) and (8) of subsection (a) of this Section, or information derived from such records, in any form for sale, resale, or solicitation or advertisement for sales or services.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (g) of this Section, any member of an association shall have the right to inspect, examine, and make copies of the records described in subdivisions (7) and (8) of subsection (a) of this Section, in person or by agent, at any reasonable time or times but only for a purpose that relates to the association, at the association's principal office. In order to exercise this right, a member must submit a written request, to the association's board of managers or its authorized agent, stating with particularity the records sought to be examined. As a condition for exercising this right, the board of managers or authorized agent of the association may require the member to certify in writing that the information contained in the records obtained by the member will not be used by the member for any commercial purpose or for any purpose that does not relate to the association. The board of managers of the association may impose a fine in accordance with item (l) of Section 18.4 upon any person who makes a false certification. Subject to the provisions of subsection (g) of this Section, failure of an association's board of managers to make available all records so requested within 10 business days of receipt of the member's written request shall be deemed a denial; provided, however, that the board of managers of an association that has adopted a secret ballot election process as provided in Section 18 of this Act shall not be deemed to have denied a member's request for records described in subdivision (8) of subsection (a) of this Section if voting ballots, without identifying unit numbers, are made available to the requesting member within 10 business days of receipt of the member's written request.

Any member who prevails in an enforcement action to compel examination of records described in subdivision subdivisions (7) or (8) of subsection (a) of this Section shall be entitled to recover reasonable attorney's fees and costs from the association only if the court finds that the board of directors acted in bad faith in denying the member's request.

(f) The actual cost to the association of retrieving and making requested records available for inspection and examination under this Section may be charged by the association to the requesting member. If a member requests copies of records requested under this Section, the actual costs to the association of reproducing the records may also be charged by the association to the requesting member.

(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (e) of this Section, unless otherwise directed by court order, an association need not make the following records available for inspection, examination, or copying by its members:

(1) documents relating to appointment, employment, discipline, or dismissal of association employees;

(2) documents relating to actions pending against or on behalf of the association or its board of managers in a court or administrative tribunal;

(3) documents relating to actions threatened against, or likely to be asserted on behalf of, the association or its board of managers in a court or administrative tribunal;

(4) documents relating to common expenses or other charges owed by a member other than the requesting member; and

(5) documents provided to an association in connection with the lease, sale, or other transfer of a unit by a member other than the requesting member.

(h) The provisions of this Section are applicable to all condominium instruments recorded under this Act. Any portion of a condominium instrument that contains provisions contrary to these provisions shall be void as against public policy and ineffective. Any condominium instrument that fails to contain the provisions required by this Section shall be deemed to incorporate the provisions by operation of law.

(Source: P.A. 100-292, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(765 ILCS 605/27) (from Ch. 30, par. 327)

Sec. 27. Amendments.

(a) If there is any unit owner other than the developer, and unless otherwise provided in this Act, the condominium instruments shall be amended only as follows:

(i) upon the affirmative vote of 2/3 of those voting or upon the majority specified by the condominium instruments, provided that in no event shall the condominium instruments require more than a three-quarters vote of all unit owners; and

(ii) with the approval of, or notice to, any mortgagees or other lienholders of record, if required under the provisions of the condominium instruments. If the condominium instruments require approval of any mortgagee or lienholder of record and the mortgagee or lienholder of record receives a request to approve or consent to the amendment to the condominium instruments, the mortgagee or lienholder of record is deemed to have approved or consented to the request unless the mortgagee or lienholder of record delivers a negative response to the requesting party within 60 days after the mailing of the request. A request to approve or consent to an amendment to the condominium instruments that is required to be sent to a mortgagee or lienholder of record shall be sent by certified mail.

(b)(1) If there is an omission, error, or inconsistency in a condominium instrument, such that a provision of a condominium instrument does not conform to this Act or to another applicable statute, the association may correct the omission, error, or inconsistency to conform the condominium instrument to this Act or to another applicable statute by an amendment adopted by vote of two-thirds of the Board of Managers, without a unit owner vote. A provision in a condominium instrument requiring or allowing unit owners, mortgagees, or other lienholders of record to vote to approve an amendment to a condominium instrument, or for the mortgagees or other lienholders of record to be given notice of an amendment to a condominium instrument, is not applicable to an amendment to the extent that the amendment corrects an omission, error, or inconsistency to conform the condominium instrument to this Act or to another applicable statute.

(2) If through a scrivener's error, a unit has not been designated as owning an appropriate undivided share of the common elements or does not bear an appropriate share of the common expenses or that all the common expenses or all of the common elements in the condominium have not been distributed in the declaration, so that the sum total of the shares of common elements which have been distributed or the sum total of the shares of the common expenses fail to equal 100%, or if it appears that more than 100% of the common elements or common expenses have been distributed, the error may be corrected by operation of law by filing an amendment to the declaration approved by vote of two-thirds of the members of the Board of Managers or a majority vote of the unit owners at a meeting called for this purpose which proportionately adjusts all percentage interests so that the total is equal to 100% unless the condominium instruments specifically provide for a different procedure or different percentage vote by the owners of the units and the owners of mortgages thereon affected by modification being made in the undivided interest in the common elements, the number of votes in the unit owners association or the liability for common expenses appertaining to the unit.

(3) If an omission or error or a scrivener's error in the declaration, bylaws or other condominium instrument is corrected by vote of two-thirds of the members of the Board of Managers pursuant to the authority established in paragraph paragraphs (1) or (2) of this subsection (b) this, the Board upon written petition by unit owners with 20 percent of the votes of the association filed within 30 days of the Board action shall call a meeting of the unit owners within 30 days of the filing of the petition to consider the Board action. Unless a majority of the votes of the unit owners of the association are cast at the meeting to reject the action, it is ratified whether or not a quorum is present.

(4) The procedures for amendments set forth in this subsection (b) cannot be used if such an amendment would materially or adversely affect property rights of the unit owners unless the affected unit owners consent in writing. This Section does not restrict the powers of the association to otherwise amend the declaration, bylaws, or other condominium instruments, but authorizes a simple process of amendment requiring a lesser vote for the purpose of correcting defects, errors, or omissions when the property rights of the unit owners are not materially or adversely affected.

(5) If there is an omission or error in the declaration, bylaws, or other condominium instruments, which may not be corrected by an amendment procedure set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection (b) in the declaration then the Circuit Court in the County in which the condominium is located shall have jurisdiction to hear a petition of one or more of the unit owners thereon or of the association, to correct the error or omission, and the action may be a class action. The court may require that one or more methods of correcting the error or omission be submitted to the unit owners to determine the most acceptable correction. All unit owners in the association must be joined as parties to the action. Service of process on owners may be by publication, but the plaintiff shall furnish all unit owners not personally served with process with copies of the petition and final judgment of the court by certified mail return receipt requested, at their last known address.

(6) Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to invalidate any provision of a condominium instrument authorizing the developer to amend a condominium instrument prior to the latest date on which the initial membership meeting of the unit owners must be held, whether or not it has actually been held, to bring the instrument into compliance with the legal requirements of the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal Housing Administration, the United States Veterans Administration or their respective successors and assigns.

(Source: P.A. 99-472, eff. 6-1-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-292, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 645. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by changing Section 5-101 as follows:

(775 ILCS 5/5-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 5-101)

Sec. 5-101. Definitions. ) The following definitions are applicable strictly in the context of this Article:

(A) Place of Public Accommodation. "Place of public accommodation" includes, but is not limited to:

(1) an inn, hotel, motel, or other place of lodging, except for an establishment located within a building that contains not more than 5 units for rent or hire and that is actually occupied by the proprietor of such establishment as the residence of such proprietor;

(2) a restaurant, bar, or other establishment serving food or drink;

(3) a motion picture house, theater, concert hall, stadium, or other place of exhibition or entertainment;

(4) an auditorium, convention center, lecture hall, or other place of public gathering;

(5) a bakery, grocery store, clothing store, hardware store, shopping center, or other sales or rental establishment;

(6) a laundromat, dry-cleaner, bank, barber shop, beauty shop, travel service, shoe repair service, funeral parlor, gas station, office of an accountant or lawyer, pharmacy, insurance office, professional office of a health care provider, hospital, or other service establishment;

(7) public conveyances on air, water, or land;

(8) a terminal, depot, or other station used for specified public transportation;

(9) a museum, library, gallery, or other place of public display or collection;

(10) a park, zoo, amusement park, or other place of recreation;

(11) a non-sectarian nursery, day care center, elementary, secondary, undergraduate, or postgraduate school, or other place of education;

(12) a senior citizen center, homeless shelter, food bank, non-sectarian adoption agency, or other social service center establishment; and

(13) a gymnasium, health spa, bowling alley, golf course, or other place of exercise or recreation.

(B) Operator. "Operator" means any owner, lessee, proprietor, manager, superintendent, agent, or occupant of a place of public accommodation or an employee of any such person or persons.

(C) Public Official. "Public official" means any officer or employee of the state or any agency thereof, including state political subdivisions, municipal corporations, park districts, forest preserve districts, educational institutions, and schools.

(Source: P.A. 95-668, eff. 10-10-07; 96-814, eff. 1-1-10; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 650. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is amended by changing Sections 14.05 and 15.85 as follows:

(805 ILCS 5/14.05) (from Ch. 32, par. 14.05)

Sec. 14.05. Annual report of domestic or foreign corporation. Each domestic corporation organized under any general law or special act of this State authorizing the corporation to issue shares, other than homestead associations, building and loan associations, banks and insurance companies (which includes a syndicate or limited syndicate regulated under Article V 1/2 of the Illinois Insurance Code or member of a group of underwriters regulated under Article V of that Code), and each foreign corporation (except members of a group of underwriters regulated under Article V of the Illinois Insurance Code) authorized to transact business in this State, shall file, within the time prescribed by this Act, an annual report setting forth:

(a) The name of the corporation.

(b) The address, including street and number, or rural route number, of its registered office in this State, and the name of its registered agent at that address.

(c) The address, including street and number, or rural route number, of its principal office.

(d) The names and respective addresses, including street and number, or rural route number, of its directors and officers.

(e) A statement of the aggregate number of shares which the corporation has authority to issue, itemized by classes and series, if any, within a class.

(f) A statement of the aggregate number of issued shares, itemized by classes, and series, if any, within a class.

(g) A statement, expressed in dollars, of the amount of paid-in capital of the corporation as defined in this Act.

(h) Either a statement that (1) all the property of the corporation is located in this State and all of its business is transacted at or from places of business in this State, or the corporation elects to pay the annual franchise tax on the basis of its entire paid-in capital, or (2) a statement, expressed in dollars, of the value of all the property owned by the corporation, wherever located, and the value of the property located within this State, and a statement, expressed in dollars, of the gross amount of business transacted by the corporation and the gross amount thereof transacted by the corporation at or from places of business in this State as of the close of its fiscal year on or immediately preceding the last day of the third month prior to the anniversary month or in the case of a corporation which has established an extended filing month, as of the close of its fiscal year on or immediately preceding the last day of the third month prior to the extended filing month; however, in the case of a domestic corporation that has not completed its first fiscal year, the statement with respect to property owned shall be as of the last day of the third month preceding the anniversary month and the statement with respect to business transacted shall be furnished for the period between the date of incorporation and the last day of the third month preceding the anniversary month. In the case of a foreign corporation that has not been authorized to transact business in this State for a period of 12 months and has not commenced transacting business prior to obtaining authority, the statement with respect to property owned shall be as of the last day of the third month preceding the anniversary month and the statement with respect to business transacted shall be furnished for the period between the date of its authorization to transact business in this State and the last day of the third month preceding the anniversary month. If the data referenced in item (2) of this subsection is not completed, the franchise tax provided for in this Act shall be computed on the basis of the entire paid-in capital.

(i) A statement, including the basis therefor, of status as a "minority-owned business" or as a "women-owned business" as those terms are defined in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Women, and Persons with Disabilities Act.

(j) Additional information as may be necessary or appropriate in order to enable the Secretary of State to administer this Act and to verify the proper amount of fees and franchise taxes payable by the corporation.

The annual report shall be made on forms prescribed and furnished by the Secretary of State, and the information therein required by paragraphs (a) through (d), both inclusive, of this Section, shall be given as of the date of the execution of the annual report and the information therein required by paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) of this Section shall be given as of the last day of the third month preceding the anniversary month, except that the information required by paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) shall, in the case of a corporation which has established an extended filing month, be given in its final transition annual report and each subsequent annual report as of the close of its fiscal year on or immediately preceding the last day of the third month prior to its extended filing month. It shall be executed by the corporation by its president, a vice-president, secretary, assistant secretary, treasurer or other officer duly authorized by the board of directors of the corporation to execute those reports, and verified by him or her, or, if the corporation is in the hands of a receiver or trustee, it shall be executed on behalf of the corporation and verified by the receiver or trustee.

(Source: P.A. 100-391, eff. 8-25-17; 100-486, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(805 ILCS 5/15.85) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.85)

Sec. 15.85. Effect of nonpayment of fees or taxes.

(a) The Secretary of State shall not file any articles, statements, certificates, reports, applications, notices, or other papers relating to any corporation, domestic or foreign, organized under or subject to the provisions of this Act until all fees, franchise taxes, and charges provided to be paid in connection therewith shall have been paid to him or her, or while the corporation is in default in the payment of any fees, franchise taxes, charges, penalties, or interest herein provided to be paid by or assessed against it, or when the Illinois Department of Revenue has given notice that the corporation is in default in the filing of a return or the payment of any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department.

(b) The Secretary of State shall not file, with respect to any domestic or foreign corporation, any document required or permitted to be filed by this Act, which has an effective date other than the date of filing until there has been paid by such corporation to the Secretary of State all fees, taxes and charges due and payable on or before said effective date.

(c) No corporation required to pay a franchise tax, license fee, penalty, or interest under this Act shall maintain any civil action until all such franchise taxes, license fees, penalties, and interest have been paid in full.

(d) The Secretary of State shall, from information received from the Illinois Commerce Commission, compile and keep a list of all domestic and foreign corporations which are regulated pursuant to the provisions of the Public Utilities Act "An Act concerning public utilities", approved June 29, 1921, and Chapter 18 of the "The Illinois Vehicle Code", approved September 29, 1969, and which hold, as a prerequisite for doing business in this State, any franchise, license, permit, or right to engage in any business regulated by such Acts.

(e) Within 10 days after any such corporation fails to pay a franchise tax, license fee, penalty, or interest required under this Act, the Secretary shall, by written notice, so advise the Secretary of the Illinois Commerce Commission.

(Source: P.A. 91-464, eff. 1-1-00; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 660. The Uniform Partnership Act (1997) is amended by changing Section 108 as follows:

(805 ILCS 206/108)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-186)

Sec. 108. Fees.

(a) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under its authority:

(1) fees for filing documents;

(2) miscellaneous charges; and

(3) fees for the sale of lists of filings and for copies of any documents.

(b) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect:

(1) for furnishing a copy or certified copy of any document, instrument, or paper relating to a registered limited liability partnership, $25;

(2) for the transfer of information by computer process media to any purchaser, fees established by rule;

(3) for filing a statement of partnership authority, $25;

(4) for filing a statement of denial, $25;

(5) for filing a statement of dissociation, $25;

(6) for filing a statement of dissolution, $100;

(7) for filing a statement of merger, $100;

(8) for filing a statement of qualification for a limited liability partnership organized under the laws of this State, $100 for each partner, but in no event shall the fee be less than $200 or exceed $5,000;

(9) for filing a statement of foreign qualification, $500;

(10) for filing a renewal statement for a limited liability partnership organized under the laws of this State, $100 for each partner, but in no event shall the fee be less than $200 or exceed $5,000;

(11) for filing a renewal statement for a foreign limited liability partnership, $300;

(12) for filing an amendment or cancellation of a statement, $25;

(13) for filing a statement of withdrawal, $100;

(14) for the purposes of changing the registered agent name or registered office, or both, $25;

(15) for filing an application for reinstatement, $200;

(16) for filing any other document, $25.

(c) All fees collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited into the Division of Corporations Registered Limited Liability Partnership Fund.

(d) There is hereby continued in the State treasury a special fund to be known as the Division of Corporations Registered Limited Liability Partnership Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Business Services Division of the Office of the Secretary of State to administer the responsibilities of the Secretary of State under this Act. On or before August 31 of each year, the balance in the Fund in excess of $600,000 shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(Source: P.A. 99-620, eff. 1-1-17; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-486, eff. 1-1-18.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-186)

Sec. 108. Fees.

(a) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect in accordance with the provisions of this Act and rules promulgated under its authority:

(1) fees for filing documents;

(2) miscellaneous charges; and

(3) fees for the sale of lists of filings and for copies of any documents.

(b) The Secretary of State shall charge and collect:

(1) for furnishing a copy or certified copy of any document, instrument, or paper relating to a registered limited liability partnership, $25;

(2) for the transfer of information by computer process media to any purchaser, fees established by rule;

(3) for filing a statement of partnership authority, $25;

(4) for filing a statement of denial, $25;

(5) for filing a statement of dissociation, $25;

(6) for filing a statement of dissolution, $100;

(7) for filing a statement of merger, $100;

(8) for filing a statement of qualification for a limited liability partnership organized under the laws of this State, $100 for each partner, but in no event shall the fee be less than $200 or exceed $5,000;

(9) for filing a statement of foreign qualification, $500;

(10) for filing a renewal statement for a limited liability partnership organized under the laws of this State, $100 for each partner, but in no event shall the fee be less than $200 or exceed $5,000;

(11) for filing a renewal statement for a foreign limited liability partnership, $300;

(12) for filing an amendment or cancellation of a statement, $25;

(13) for filing a statement of withdrawal, $100;

(14) for the purposes of changing the registered agent name or registered office, or both, $25;

(15) for filing an application for reinstatement, $200;

(16) for filing any other document, $25.

(c) All fees collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited into the Division of Corporations Registered Limited Liability Partnership Fund.

(d) There is hereby continued in the State treasury a special fund to be known as the Division of Corporations Registered Limited Liability Partnership Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Business Services Division of the Office of the Secretary of State to administer the responsibilities of the Secretary of State under this Act. On or before August 31 of each year, the balance in the Fund in excess of $600,000 shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund.

(e) Filings, including annual reports, made by electronic means shall be treated as if submitted in person and may not be charged excess fees as expedited services solely because of submission by electronic means.

(Source: P.A. 99-620, eff. 1-1-17; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-186, eff. 7-1-18; 100-486, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

Section 665. The Illinois Pre-Need Cemetery Sales Act is amended by changing Section 17 as follows:

(815 ILCS 390/17) (from Ch. 21, par. 217)

Sec. 17. (a) The principal and undistributed income of the trust created pursuant to Section 15 of this Act shall be paid to the seller if:

(1) the seller certifies by sworn affidavit to the trustee that the purchaser or the beneficiary named in the pre-need contract has deceased and that seller has fully delivered or installed all items included in the pre-need contract and fully performed all pre-need cemetery services he is required to perform under the pre-need contract; or

(2) the seller certifies by sworn affidavit to the trustee that seller has made full delivery, as defined herein.

(Source: P.A. 84-239; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 670. The Retail Installment Sales Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(815 ILCS 405/3) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 503)

Sec. 3. (a) Every retail installment contract must be in writing, dated, signed by both the buyer and the seller, and, except as otherwise provided in this Act, completed as to all essential provisions, before it is signed by the buyer.

(b) The printed or typed portion of the contract, other than instructions for completion, must be in size equal to at least 8-point 8 point type.

(c) The contract must contain printed or written in a size equal to at least 10-point 10 point bold type:

(1) Both at the top of the contract and directly above the space reserved for the signature of the buyer, the words "RETAIL INSTALLMENT CONTRACT";

(2) A notice as follows:

"Notice to the buyer.

1. Do not sign this agreement before you read it or if it contains any blank spaces.

2. You are entitled to an exact copy of the agreement you sign.

3. Under the law you have the right, among others, to pay in advance the full amount due and to obtain under certain conditions a partial refund of the finance charge.".

(Source: P.A. 76-1780; revised 10-10-17.)

Section 675. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business Practices Act is amended by changing Sections 2L, 2Z, and 2AA and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2TTT as follows:

(815 ILCS 505/2L)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 100-512)

Sec. 2L. Used motor vehicles; modification or disclaimer of implied warranty of merchantability limited.

(a) Any retail sale of a used motor vehicle made after July 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-768) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly to a consumer by a licensed vehicle dealer within the meaning of Chapter 5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or by an auction company at an auction that is open to the general public is made subject to this Section.

(b) This Section does not apply to any of the following:

(1) a vehicle with more than 150,000 miles at the time of sale;

(2) a vehicle with a title that has been branded "rebuilt" or "flood";

(3) a vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,000 pounds or more; or

(4) a vehicle that is an antique vehicle, as defined in the Illinois Vehicle Code, or that is a collector motor vehicle.

(b-5) This Section does not apply to the sale of any vehicle for which the dealer offers an express warranty that provides coverage that is equal to or greater than the limited implied warranty of merchantability required under this Section 2L.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Section 2L, any sale of a used motor vehicle as described in subsection (a) may not exclude, modify, or disclaim the implied warranty of merchantability created under this Section 2L or limit the remedies for a breach of the warranty hereunder before midnight of the 15th calendar day after delivery of a used motor vehicle or until a used motor vehicle is driven 500 miles after delivery, whichever is earlier. In calculating time under this Section, a day on which the warranty is breached and all subsequent days in which the used motor vehicle fails to conform with the implied warranty of merchantability are excluded. In calculating distance under this Section, the miles driven to obtain or in connection with the repair, servicing, or testing of a used motor vehicle that fails to conform with the implied warranty of merchantability are excluded. An attempt to exclude, modify, or disclaim the implied warranty of merchantability or to limit the remedies for a breach of the warranty in violation of this Section renders a purchase agreement voidable at the option of the purchaser.

(d) An implied warranty of merchantability is met if a used motor vehicle functions for the purpose of ordinary transportation on the public highway and substantially free of a defect in a power train component. As used in this Section, "power train component" means the engine block, head, all internal engine parts, oil pan and gaskets, water pump, intake manifold, transmission, and all internal transmission parts, torque converter, drive shaft, universal joints, rear axle and all rear axle internal parts, and rear wheel bearings.

(e) The implied warranty of merchantability expires at midnight of the 15th calendar day after delivery of a used motor vehicle or when a used motor vehicle is driven 500 miles after delivery, whichever is earlier. In calculating time, a day on which the implied warranty of merchantability is breached is excluded and all subsequent days in which the used motor vehicle fails to conform with the warranty are also excluded. In calculating distance, the miles driven to or by the seller to obtain or in connection with the repair, servicing, or testing of a used motor vehicle that fails to conform with the implied warranty of merchantability are excluded. An implied warranty of merchantability does not extend to damage that occurs after the sale of the used motor vehicle that results from:

(1) off-road use;

(2) racing;

(3) towing;

(4) abuse;

(5) misuse;

(6) neglect;

(7) failure to perform regular maintenance; and

(8) failure to maintain adequate oil, coolant, and other required fluids or lubricants.

(f) If the implied warranty of merchantability described in this Section is breached, the consumer shall give reasonable notice to the seller no later than 2 business days after the end of the statutory warranty period. Before the consumer exercises another remedy pursuant to Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code, the seller shall have a reasonable opportunity to repair the used motor vehicle. The consumer shall pay one-half of the cost of the first 2 repairs necessary to bring the used motor vehicle into compliance with the warranty. The payments by the consumer are limited to a maximum payment of $100 for each repair; however, the consumer shall only be responsible for a maximum payment of $100 if the consumer brings in the vehicle for a second repair for the same defect. Reasonable notice as defined in this Section shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) text, provided the seller has provided the consumer with a cell phone number;

(2) phone call or message to the seller's business phone number provided on the seller's bill of sale for the purchase of the motor vehicle;

(3) in writing to the seller's address provided on the seller's bill of sale for the purchase of the motor vehicle;

(4) in person at the seller's address provided on the seller's bill of sale for the purchase of the motor vehicle.

(g) The maximum liability of a seller for repairs pursuant to this Section is limited to the purchase price paid for the used motor vehicle, to be refunded to the consumer or lender, as applicable, in exchange for return of the vehicle.

(h) An agreement for the sale of a used motor vehicle subject to this Section is voidable at the option of the consumer, unless it contains on its face or in a separate document the following conspicuous statement printed in boldface 10-point or larger type set off from the body of the agreement:

"Illinois law requires that this vehicle will be free of a defect in a power train component for 15 days or 500 miles after delivery, whichever is earlier, except with regard to particular defects disclosed on the first page of this agreement. "Power train component" means the engine block, head, all internal engine parts, oil pan and gaskets, water pump, intake manifold, transmission, and all internal transmission parts, torque converter, drive shaft, universal joints, rear axle and all rear axle internal parts, and rear wheel bearings. You (the consumer) will have to pay up to $100 for each of the first 2 repairs if the warranty is violated.".

(i) The inclusion in the agreement of the statement prescribed in subsection (h) of this Section does not create an express warranty.

(j) A consumer of a used motor vehicle may waive the implied warranty of merchantability only for a particular defect in the vehicle, including, but not limited to, a rebuilt or flood-branded title and only if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) the seller subject to this Section fully and accurately discloses to the consumer that because of circumstances unusual to the business, the used motor vehicle has a particular defect;

(2) the consumer agrees to buy the used motor vehicle after disclosure of the defect; and

(3) before the sale, the consumer indicates agreement to the waiver by signing and dating the following conspicuous statement that is printed on the first page of the sales agreement or on a separate document in boldface 10-point or larger type and that is written in the language in which the presentation was made:

"Attention consumer: sign here only if the seller has told you that this vehicle has the following problem or problems and you agree to buy the vehicle on those terms:

1. ......................................................

2. ..................................................

3. ...................................................".

(k) It shall be an affirmative defense to any claim under this Section that:

(1) an alleged nonconformity does not substantially impair the use and market value of the motor vehicle;

(2) a nonconformity is the result of abuse, neglect, or unauthorized modifications or alterations of the motor vehicle;

(3) a claim by a consumer was not filed in good faith; or

(4) any other affirmative defense allowed by law.

(l) Other than the 15-day, 500-mile implied warranty of merchantability identified herein, a seller subject to this Section is not required to provide any further express or implied warranties to a purchasing consumer unless:

(1) the seller is required by federal or State law to provide a further express or implied warranty; or

(2) the seller fails to fully inform and disclose to the consumer that the vehicle is being sold without any further express or implied warranties, other than the 15 day, 500 mile implied warranty of merchantability identified in this Section.

(m) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-768, eff. 7-1-17; 100-4, eff. 7-1-17; revised 10-12-17.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 100-512)

Sec. 2L. Used motor vehicles; modification or disclaimer of implied warranty of merchantability limited.

(a) Any retail sale of a used motor vehicle made after July 1, 2017 (the effective date of Public Act 99-768) this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly to a consumer by a licensed vehicle dealer within the meaning of Chapter 5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or by an auction company at an auction that is open to the general public is made subject to this Section.

(b) This Section does not apply to any of the following:

(1) a vehicle with more than 150,000 miles at the time of sale;

(2) a vehicle with a title that has been branded "rebuilt" or "flood";

(3) a vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 8,000 pounds or more; or

(4) a vehicle that is an antique vehicle, as defined in the Illinois Vehicle Code, or that is a collector motor vehicle.

(b-5) This Section does not apply to the sale of any vehicle for which the dealer offers an express warranty that provides coverage that is equal to or greater than the limited implied warranty of merchantability required under this Section 2L.

(b-6) (b-5) This Section does not apply to forfeited vehicles sold at auction by or on behalf of the Department of State Police.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this Section 2L, any sale of a used motor vehicle as described in subsection (a) may not exclude, modify, or disclaim the implied warranty of merchantability created under this Section 2L or limit the remedies for a breach of the warranty hereunder before midnight of the 15th calendar day after delivery of a used motor vehicle or until a used motor vehicle is driven 500 miles after delivery, whichever is earlier. In calculating time under this Section, a day on which the warranty is breached and all subsequent days in which the used motor vehicle fails to conform with the implied warranty of merchantability are excluded. In calculating distance under this Section, the miles driven to obtain or in connection with the repair, servicing, or testing of a used motor vehicle that fails to conform with the implied warranty of merchantability are excluded. An attempt to exclude, modify, or disclaim the implied warranty of merchantability or to limit the remedies for a breach of the warranty in violation of this Section renders a purchase agreement voidable at the option of the purchaser.

(d) An implied warranty of merchantability is met if a used motor vehicle functions for the purpose of ordinary transportation on the public highway and substantially free of a defect in a power train component. As used in this Section, "power train component" means the engine block, head, all internal engine parts, oil pan and gaskets, water pump, intake manifold, transmission, and all internal transmission parts, torque converter, drive shaft, universal joints, rear axle and all rear axle internal parts, and rear wheel bearings.

(e) The implied warranty of merchantability expires at midnight of the 15th calendar day after delivery of a used motor vehicle or when a used motor vehicle is driven 500 miles after delivery, whichever is earlier. In calculating time, a day on which the implied warranty of merchantability is breached is excluded and all subsequent days in which the used motor vehicle fails to conform with the warranty are also excluded. In calculating distance, the miles driven to or by the seller to obtain or in connection with the repair, servicing, or testing of a used motor vehicle that fails to conform with the implied warranty of merchantability are excluded. An implied warranty of merchantability does not extend to damage that occurs after the sale of the used motor vehicle that results from:

(1) off-road use;

(2) racing;

(3) towing;

(4) abuse;

(5) misuse;

(6) neglect;

(7) failure to perform regular maintenance; and

(8) failure to maintain adequate oil, coolant, and other required fluids or lubricants.

(f) If the implied warranty of merchantability described in this Section is breached, the consumer shall give reasonable notice to the seller no later than 2 business days after the end of the statutory warranty period. Before the consumer exercises another remedy pursuant to Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code, the seller shall have a reasonable opportunity to repair the used motor vehicle. The consumer shall pay one-half of the cost of the first 2 repairs necessary to bring the used motor vehicle into compliance with the warranty. The payments by the consumer are limited to a maximum payment of $100 for each repair; however, the consumer shall only be responsible for a maximum payment of $100 if the consumer brings in the vehicle for a second repair for the same defect. Reasonable notice as defined in this Section shall include, but not be limited to:

(1) text, provided the seller has provided the consumer with a cell phone number;

(2) phone call or message to the seller's business phone number provided on the seller's bill of sale for the purchase of the motor vehicle;

(3) in writing to the seller's address provided on the seller's bill of sale for the purchase of the motor vehicle;

(4) in person at the seller's address provided on the seller's bill of sale for the purchase of the motor vehicle.

(g) The maximum liability of a seller for repairs pursuant to this Section is limited to the purchase price paid for the used motor vehicle, to be refunded to the consumer or lender, as applicable, in exchange for return of the vehicle.

(h) An agreement for the sale of a used motor vehicle subject to this Section is voidable at the option of the consumer, unless it contains on its face or in a separate document the following conspicuous statement printed in boldface 10-point or larger type set off from the body of the agreement:

"Illinois law requires that this vehicle will be free of a defect in a power train component for 15 days or 500 miles after delivery, whichever is earlier, except with regard to particular defects disclosed on the first page of this agreement. "Power train component" means the engine block, head, all internal engine parts, oil pan and gaskets, water pump, intake manifold, transmission, and all internal transmission parts, torque converter, drive shaft, universal joints, rear axle and all rear axle internal parts, and rear wheel bearings. You (the consumer) will have to pay up to $100 for each of the first 2 repairs if the warranty is violated.".

(i) The inclusion in the agreement of the statement prescribed in subsection (h) of this Section does not create an express warranty.

(j) A consumer of a used motor vehicle may waive the implied warranty of merchantability only for a particular defect in the vehicle, including, but not limited to, a rebuilt or flood-branded title and only if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) the seller subject to this Section fully and accurately discloses to the consumer that because of circumstances unusual to the business, the used motor vehicle has a particular defect;

(2) the consumer agrees to buy the used motor vehicle after disclosure of the defect; and

(3) before the sale, the consumer indicates agreement to the waiver by signing and dating the following conspicuous statement that is printed on the first page of the sales agreement or on a separate document in boldface 10-point or larger type and that is written in the language in which the presentation was made:

"Attention consumer: sign here only if the seller has told you that this vehicle has the following problem or problems and you agree to buy the vehicle on those terms:

1. ......................................................

2. ..................................................

3. ...................................................".

(k) It shall be an affirmative defense to any claim under this Section that:

(1) an alleged nonconformity does not substantially impair the use and market value of the motor vehicle;

(2) a nonconformity is the result of abuse, neglect, or unauthorized modifications or alterations of the motor vehicle;

(3) a claim by a consumer was not filed in good faith; or

(4) any other affirmative defense allowed by law.

(l) Other than the 15-day, 500-mile implied warranty of merchantability identified herein, a seller subject to this Section is not required to provide any further express or implied warranties to a purchasing consumer unless:

(1) the seller is required by federal or State law to provide a further express or implied warranty; or

(2) the seller fails to fully inform and disclose to the consumer that the vehicle is being sold without any further express or implied warranties, other than the 15 day, 500 mile implied warranty of merchantability identified in this Section.

(m) Any person who violates this Section commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-768, eff. 7-1-17; 100-4, eff. 7-1-17; 100-512, eff. 7-1-18; revised 10-12-17.)

(815 ILCS 505/2Z) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 262Z)

Sec. 2Z. Violations of other Acts. Any person who knowingly violates the Automotive Repair Act, the Automotive Collision Repair Act, the Home Repair and Remodeling Act, the Dance Studio Act, the Physical Fitness Services Act, the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, the Illinois Union Label Act, the Installment Sales Contract Act, the Job Referral and Job Listing Services Consumer Protection Act, the Travel Promotion Consumer Protection Act, the Credit Services Organizations Act, the Automatic Telephone Dialers Act, the Pay-Per-Call Services Consumer Protection Act, the Telephone Solicitations Act, the Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act, the Cemetery Oversight Act, the Cemetery Care Act, the Safe and Hygienic Bed Act, the Illinois Pre-Need Cemetery Sales Act, the High Risk Home Loan Act, the Payday Loan Reform Act, the Mortgage Rescue Fraud Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Tax Act, subsection (a) or (b) of Section 3-10 of the Cigarette Use Tax Act, the Electronic Mail Act, the Internet Caller Identification Act, paragraph (6) of subsection (k) of Section 6-305 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Section 11-1431, 18d-115, 18d-120, 18d-125, 18d-135, 18d-150, or 18d-153 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, Article 3 of the Residential Real Property Disclosure Act, the Automatic Contract Renewal Act, the Reverse Mortgage Act, Section 25 of the Youth Mental Health Protection Act, the Personal Information Protection Act, or the Student Online Personal Protection Act commits an unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-331, eff. 1-1-16; 99-411, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 100-315, eff. 8-24-17; 100-416, eff. 1-1-18; revised 10-6-17.)

(815 ILCS 505/2AA)

Sec. 2AA. Immigration services.

(a) "Immigration matter" means any proceeding, filing, or action affecting the nonimmigrant, immigrant or citizenship status of any person that arises under immigration and naturalization law, executive order or presidential proclamation of the United States or any foreign country, or that arises under action of the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, the United States Department of Labor, or the United States Department of State.

"Immigration assistance service" means any information or action provided or offered to customers or prospective customers related to immigration matters, excluding legal advice, recommending a specific course of legal action, or providing any other assistance that requires legal analysis, legal judgment, or interpretation of the law.

"Compensation" means money, property, services, promise of payment, or anything else of value.

"Employed by" means that a person is on the payroll of the employer and the employer deducts from the employee's paycheck social security and withholding taxes, or receives compensation from the employer on a commission basis or as an independent contractor.

"Reasonable costs" means actual costs or, if actual costs cannot be calculated, reasonably estimated costs of such things as photocopying, telephone calls, document requests, and filing fees for immigration forms, and other nominal costs incidental to assistance in an immigration matter.

(a-1) The General Assembly finds and declares that private individuals who assist persons with immigration matters have a significant impact on the ability of their clients to reside and work within the United States and to establish and maintain stable families and business relationships. The General Assembly further finds that that assistance and its impact also have a significant effect on the cultural, social, and economic life of the State of Illinois and thereby substantially affect the public interest. It is the intent of the General Assembly to establish rules of practice and conduct for those individuals to promote honesty and fair dealing with residents and to preserve public confidence.

(a-5) The following persons are exempt from this Section, provided they prove the exemption by a preponderance of the evidence:

(1) An attorney licensed to practice law in any state or territory of the United States, or of any foreign country when authorized by the Illinois Supreme Court, to the extent the attorney renders immigration assistance service in the course of his or her practice as an attorney.

(2) A legal intern, as described by the rules of the Illinois Supreme Court, employed by and under the direct supervision of a licensed attorney and rendering immigration assistance service in the course of the intern's employment.

(3) A not-for-profit organization recognized by the Board of Immigration Appeals under 8 CFR C.F.R. 292.2(a) and employees of those organizations accredited under 8 CFR C.F.R. 292.2(d).

(4) Any organization employing or desiring to employ a documented or undocumented immigrant or nonimmigrant alien, where the organization, its employees or its agents provide advice or assistance in immigration matters to documented or undocumented immigrant or nonimmigrant alien employees or potential employees without compensation from the individuals to whom such advice or assistance is provided.

Nothing in this Section shall regulate any business to the extent that such regulation is prohibited or preempted by State or federal law.

All other persons providing or offering to provide immigration assistance service shall be subject to this Section.

(b) Any person who provides or offers to provide immigration assistance service may perform only the following services:

(1) Completing a government agency form, requested by the customer and appropriate to the customer's needs, only if the completion of that form does not involve a legal judgment for that particular matter.

(2) Transcribing responses to a government agency form which is related to an immigration matter, but not advising a customer as to his or her answers on those forms.

(3) Translating information on forms to a customer and translating the customer's answers to questions posed on those forms.

(4) Securing for the customer supporting documents currently in existence, such as birth and marriage certificates, which may be needed to be submitted with government agency forms.

(5) Translating documents from a foreign language into English.

(6) Notarizing signatures on government agency forms, if the person performing the service is a notary public of the State of Illinois.

(7) Making referrals, without fee, to attorneys who could undertake legal representation for a person in an immigration matter.

(8) Preparing or arranging for the preparation of photographs and fingerprints.

(9) Arranging for the performance of medical testing (including X-rays and AIDS tests) and the obtaining of reports of such test results.

(10) Conducting English language and civics courses.

(11) Other services that the Attorney General determines by rule may be appropriately performed by such persons in light of the purposes of this Section.

Fees for a notary public, agency, or any other person who is not an attorney or an accredited representative filling out immigration forms shall be limited to the maximum fees set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 3-104 of the Illinois Notary Public Act (5 ILCS 312/3-104). The maximum fee schedule set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 3-104 of the Illinois Notary Public Act shall apply to any person that provides or offers to provide immigration assistance service performing the services described therein. The Attorney General may promulgate rules establishing maximum fees that may be charged for any services not described in that subsection. The maximum fees must be reasonable in light of the costs of providing those services and the degree of professional skill required to provide the services.

No person subject to this Act shall charge fees directly or indirectly for referring an individual to an attorney or for any immigration matter not authorized by this Article, provided that a person may charge a fee for notarizing documents as permitted by the Illinois Notary Public Act.

(c) Any person performing such services shall register with the Illinois Attorney General and submit verification of malpractice insurance or of a surety bond.

(d) Except as provided otherwise in this subsection, before providing any assistance in an immigration matter a person shall provide the customer with a written contract that includes the following:

(1) An explanation of the services to be performed.

(2) Identification of all compensation and costs to be charged to the customer for the services to be performed.

(3) A statement that documents submitted in support of an application for nonimmigrant, immigrant, or naturalization status may not be retained by the person for any purpose, including payment of compensation or costs.

This subsection does not apply to a not-for-profit organization that provides advice or assistance in immigration matters to clients without charge beyond a reasonable fee to reimburse the organization's or clinic's reasonable costs relating to providing immigration services to that client.

(e) Any person who provides or offers immigration assistance service and is not exempted from this Section, shall post signs at his or her place of business, setting forth information in English and in every other language in which the person provides or offers to provide immigration assistance service. Each language shall be on a separate sign. Signs shall be posted in a location where the signs will be visible to customers. Each sign shall be at least 11 inches by 17 inches, and shall contain the following:

(1) The statement "I AM NOT AN ATTORNEY LICENSED TO PRACTICE LAW AND MAY NOT GIVE LEGAL ADVICE OR ACCEPT FEES FOR LEGAL ADVICE.".

(2) The statement "I AM NOT ACCREDITED TO REPRESENT YOU BEFORE THE UNITED STATES IMMIGRATION AND NATURALIZATION SERVICE AND THE IMMIGRATION BOARD OF APPEALS.".

(3) The fee schedule.

(4) The statement that "You may cancel any contract within 3 working days and get your money back for services not performed.".

(5) Additional information the Attorney General may require by rule.

Every person engaged in immigration assistance service who is not an attorney who advertises immigration assistance service in a language other than English, whether by radio, television, signs, pamphlets, newspapers, or other written communication, with the exception of a single desk plaque, shall include in the document, advertisement, stationery, letterhead, business card, or other comparable written material the following notice in English and the language in which the written communication appears. This notice shall be of a conspicuous size, if in writing, and shall state: "I AM NOT AN ATTORNEY LICENSED TO PRACTICE LAW IN ILLINOIS AND MAY NOT GIVE LEGAL ADVICE OR ACCEPT FEES FOR LEGAL ADVICE.". If such advertisement is by radio or television, the statement may be modified but must include substantially the same message.

Any person who provides or offers immigration assistance service and is not exempted from this Section shall not, in any document, advertisement, stationery, letterhead, business card, or other comparable written material, literally translate from English into another language terms or titles including, but not limited to, notary public, notary, licensed, attorney, lawyer, or any other term that implies the person is an attorney. To illustrate, the words "notario" and "poder notarial" are prohibited under this provision.

If not subject to penalties under subsection (a) of Section 3-103 of the Illinois Notary Public Act (5 ILCS 312/3-103), violations of this subsection shall result in a fine of $1,000. Violations shall not preempt or preclude additional appropriate civil or criminal penalties.

(f) The written contract shall be in both English and in the language of the customer.

(g) A copy of the contract shall be provided to the customer upon the customer's execution of the contract.

(h) A customer has the right to rescind a contract within 72 hours after his or her signing of the contract.

(i) Any documents identified in paragraph (3) of subsection (c) shall be returned upon demand of the customer.

(j) No person engaged in providing immigration services who is not exempted under this Section shall do any of the following:

(1) Make any statement that the person can or will obtain special favors from or has special influence with the United States Immigration and Naturalization Service or any other government agency.

(2) Retain any compensation for service not performed.

(2.5) Accept payment in exchange for providing legal advice or any other assistance that requires legal analysis, legal judgment, or interpretation of the law.

(3) Refuse to return documents supplied by, prepared on behalf of, or paid for by the customer upon the request of the customer. These documents must be returned upon request even if there is a fee dispute between the immigration assistant and the customer.

(4) Represent or advertise, in connection with the provision of assistance in immigration matters, other titles of credentials, including but not limited to "notary public" or "immigration consultant," that could cause a customer to believe that the person possesses special professional skills or is authorized to provide advice on an immigration matter; provided that a notary public appointed by the Illinois Secretary of State may use the term "notary public" if the use is accompanied by the statement that the person is not an attorney; the term "notary public" may not be translated to another language; for example "notario" is prohibited.

(5) Provide legal advice, recommend a specific course of legal action, or provide any other assistance that requires legal analysis, legal judgment, or interpretation of the law.

(6) Make any misrepresentation of false statement, directly or indirectly, to influence, persuade, or induce patronage.

(k) (Blank).

(l) (Blank).

(m) Any person who violates any provision of this Section, or the rules and regulations issued under this Section, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense committed within 5 years of a previous conviction for the same offense.

Upon his own information or upon the complaint of any person, the Attorney General or any State's Attorney, or a municipality with a population of more than 1,000,000, may maintain an action for injunctive relief and also seek a civil penalty not exceeding $50,000 in the circuit court against any person who violates any provision of this Section. These remedies are in addition to, and not in substitution for, other available remedies.

If the Attorney General or any State's Attorney or a municipality with a population of more than 1,000,000 fails to bring an action as provided under this Section any person may file a civil action to enforce the provisions of this Article and maintain an action for injunctive relief, for compensatory damages to recover prohibited fees, or for such additional relief as may be appropriate to deter, prevent, or compensate for the violation. In order to deter violations of this Section, courts shall not require a showing of the traditional elements for equitable relief. A prevailing plaintiff may be awarded 3 times the prohibited fees or a minimum of $1,000 in punitive damages, attorney's fees, and costs of bringing an action under this Section. It is the express intention of the General Assembly that remedies for violation of this Section be cumulative.

(n) No unit of local government, including any home rule unit, shall have the authority to regulate immigration assistance services unless such regulations are at least as stringent as those contained in Public Act 87-1211 this amendatory Act of 1992. It is declared to be the law of this State, pursuant to paragraph (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution of 1970, that Public Act 87-1211 this amendatory Act of 1992 is a limitation on the authority of a home rule unit to exercise powers concurrently with the State. The limitations of this Section do not apply to a home rule unit that has, prior to January 1, 1993 (the effective date of Public Act 87-1211) this amendatory Act, adopted an ordinance regulating immigration assistance services.

(o) This Section is severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.

(p) The Attorney General shall issue rules not inconsistent with this Section for the implementation, administration, and enforcement of this Section. The rules may provide for the following:

(1) The content, print size, and print style of the signs required under subsection (e). Print sizes and styles may vary from language to language.

(2) Standard forms for use in the administration of this Section.

(3) Any additional requirements deemed necessary.

(Source: P.A. 99-679, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-5-17.)

(815 ILCS 505/2TTT)

Sec. 2TTT. Standard services.

(a) It is not a fraudulent, unfair, or deceptive act or practice under this Act to differentiate prices for services based upon factors that include, but are not limited to, amount of time, difficulty, cost of providing the services, methods, procedure, or equipment used to accomplish the service, upon the qualifications, experience, or expertise of the individual or business providing the services, market conditions specific to the service or the business, or geographic region where the services are completed or the business is located.

(b) The following sellers shall provide the consumer with a standard services price list upon request:

(1) Tailors or businesses providing aftermarket clothing alterations.

(2) Barbershops or hair salons.

(3) Dry cleaners and laundries providing services to individuals.

The price list may be provided in any format and may be based on customary industry pricing practices.

As used in this subsection, "standard service" means the 10 most frequently requested services provided by the seller.

(c) If a seller identified in subsection (b) is found to be in violation of this Section, the seller shall have 30 days to remedy the violation. Upon a second or subsequent violation within 2 years after the 30-day remediation period, the seller shall be liable for penalties pursuant to Section 7 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-207, eff. 1-1-18.)

(815 ILCS 505/2UUU)

Sec. 2UUU 2TTT. Non-disparagement clauses in consumer contracts.

(a) A contract or a proposed contract for the sale or lease of consumer merchandise or services may not include a provision waiving the consumer's right to make any statement regarding the seller or lessor or the employees or agents of the seller or lessor or concerning the merchandise or services.

(b) It is an unlawful practice to threaten or to seek to enforce a provision made unlawful under this Section or to otherwise penalize a consumer for making any statement protected under this Section.

(c) Any waiver of the provisions of this Section is contrary to public policy and is void and unenforceable.

(d) This Section may not be construed to prohibit or limit a person or business that hosts online consumer reviews or comments from removing a statement that is otherwise lawful to remove.

(Source: P.A. 100-240, eff. 1-1-18; revised 11-6-17.)

Section 680. The Motor Vehicle Franchise Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 10.1 as follows:

(815 ILCS 710/4) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 754)

Sec. 4. Unfair competition and practices.

(a) The unfair methods of competition and unfair and deceptive acts or practices listed in this Section are hereby declared to be unlawful. In construing the provisions of this Section, the courts may be guided by the interpretations of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45 et seq.), as from time to time amended.

(b) It shall be deemed a violation for any manufacturer, factory branch, factory representative, distributor or wholesaler, distributor branch, distributor representative or motor vehicle dealer to engage in any action with respect to a franchise which is arbitrary, in bad faith or unconscionable and which causes damage to any of the parties or to the public.

(c) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, to coerce, or attempt to coerce, any motor vehicle dealer:

(1) to accept, buy or order any motor vehicle or vehicles, appliances, equipment, parts or accessories therefor, or any other commodity or commodities or service or services which such motor vehicle dealer has not voluntarily ordered or requested except items required by applicable local, state or federal law; or to require a motor vehicle dealer to accept, buy, order or purchase such items in order to obtain any motor vehicle or vehicles or any other commodity or commodities which have been ordered or requested by such motor vehicle dealer;

(2) to order or accept delivery of any motor vehicle with special features, appliances, accessories or equipment not included in the list price of the motor vehicles as publicly advertised by the manufacturer thereof, except items required by applicable law; or

(3) to order for anyone any parts, accessories, equipment, machinery, tools, appliances or any commodity whatsoever, except items required by applicable law.

(d) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof:

(1) to adopt, change, establish or implement a plan or system for the allocation and distribution of new motor vehicles to motor vehicle dealers which is arbitrary or capricious or to modify an existing plan so as to cause the same to be arbitrary or capricious;

(2) to fail or refuse to advise or disclose to any motor vehicle dealer having a franchise or selling agreement, upon written request therefor, the basis upon which new motor vehicles of the same line make are allocated or distributed to motor vehicle dealers in the State and the basis upon which the current allocation or distribution is being made or will be made to such motor vehicle dealer;

(3) to refuse to deliver in reasonable quantities and within a reasonable time after receipt of dealer's order, to any motor vehicle dealer having a franchise or selling agreement for the retail sale of new motor vehicles sold or distributed by such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division, any such motor vehicles as are covered by such franchise or selling agreement specifically publicly advertised in the State by such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division to be available for immediate delivery. However, the failure to deliver any motor vehicle shall not be considered a violation of this Act if such failure is due to an act of God, a work stoppage or delay due to a strike or labor difficulty, a shortage of materials, a lack of manufacturing capacity, a freight embargo or other cause over which the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler, or any agent thereof has no control;

(4) to coerce, or attempt to coerce, any motor vehicle dealer to enter into any agreement with such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, or to do any other act prejudicial to the dealer by threatening to reduce his allocation of motor vehicles or cancel any franchise or any selling agreement existing between such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, or factory branch or division, or wholesale branch or division, and the dealer. However, notice in good faith to any motor vehicle dealer of the dealer's violation of any terms or provisions of such franchise or selling agreement or of any law or regulation applicable to the conduct of a motor vehicle dealer shall not constitute a violation of this Act;

(5) to require a franchisee to participate in an advertising campaign or contest or any promotional campaign, or to purchase or lease any promotional materials, training materials, show room or other display decorations or materials at the expense of the franchisee;

(6) to cancel or terminate the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided; to fail or refuse to extend the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer upon its expiration without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided; or, to offer a renewal, replacement or succeeding franchise or selling agreement containing terms and provisions the effect of which is to substantially change or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of the motor vehicle dealer arbitrarily and without good cause and without giving notice as hereinafter provided notwithstanding any term or provision of a franchise or selling agreement.

(A) If a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division intends to cancel or terminate a franchise or selling agreement or intends not to extend or renew a franchise or selling agreement on its expiration, it shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected franchisee at least 60 days before the effective date of the proposed action, or not later than 10 days before the proposed action when the reason for the action is based upon either of the following:

(i) the business operations of the franchisee have been abandoned or the franchisee has failed to conduct customary sales and service operations during customary business hours for at least 7 consecutive business days unless such closing is due to an act of God, strike or labor difficulty or other cause over which the franchisee has no control; or

(ii) the conviction of or plea of nolo contendere by the motor vehicle dealer or any operator thereof in a court of competent jurisdiction to an offense punishable by imprisonment for more than two years.

Each notice of proposed action shall include a detailed statement setting forth the specific grounds for the proposed cancellation, termination, or refusal to extend or renew and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action.

(B) If a manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division, factory branch or division or wholesale branch or division intends to change substantially or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of a motor vehicle dealer as a condition to extending or renewing the existing franchise or selling agreement of such motor vehicle dealer, it shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the affected franchisee at least 60 days before the date of expiration of the franchise or selling agreement. Each notice of proposed action shall include a detailed statement setting forth the specific grounds for the proposed action and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action.

(C) Within 30 days from receipt of the notice under subparagraphs (A) and (B), the franchisee may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When the protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed the notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting dealer or franchisee.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to cancel or terminate, or fail to extend or renew the franchise or selling agreement of a motor vehicle dealer or franchisee, and to change substantially or modify the sales and service obligations or capital requirements of a motor vehicle dealer as a condition to extending or renewing the existing franchise or selling agreement. The determination whether good cause exists to cancel, terminate, or refuse to renew or extend the franchise or selling agreement, or to change or modify the obligations of the dealer as a condition to offer renewal, replacement, or succession shall be made by the Board under subsection (d) of Section 12 of this Act.

(D) Notwithstanding the terms, conditions, or provisions of a franchise or selling agreement, the following shall not constitute good cause for cancelling or terminating or failing to extend or renew the franchise or selling agreement: (i) the change of ownership or executive management of the franchisee's dealership; or (ii) the fact that the franchisee or owner of an interest in the franchise owns, has an investment in, participates in the management of, or holds a license for the sale of the same or any other line make of new motor vehicles.

(E) The manufacturer may not cancel or terminate, or fail to extend or renew a franchise or selling agreement or change or modify the obligations of the franchisee as a condition to offering a renewal, replacement, or succeeding franchise or selling agreement before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter, if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to allow the proposed action;

(7) notwithstanding the terms of any franchise agreement, to fail to indemnify and hold harmless its franchised dealers against any judgment or settlement for damages, including, but not limited to, court costs, expert witness fees, reasonable attorneys' fees of the new motor vehicle dealer, and other expenses incurred in the litigation, so long as such fees and costs are reasonable, arising out of complaints, claims, or lawsuits, including, but not limited to, strict liability, negligence, misrepresentation, warranty (express or implied), or rescission of the sale as defined in Section 2-608 of the Uniform Commercial Code, to the extent that the judgment or settlement relates to the alleged defective or negligent manufacture, assembly or design of new motor vehicles, parts or accessories or other functions by the manufacturer, beyond the control of the dealer; provided that, in order to provide an adequate defense, the manufacturer receives notice of the filing of a complaint, claim, or lawsuit within 60 days after the filing;

(8) to require or otherwise coerce a motor vehicle dealer to underutilize the motor vehicle dealer's facilities by requiring or otherwise coercing the motor vehicle dealer to exclude or remove from the motor vehicle dealer's facilities operations for selling or servicing of any vehicles for which the motor vehicle dealer has a franchise agreement with another manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distribution branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof; provided, however, that, in light of all existing circumstances, (i) the motor vehicle dealer maintains a reasonable line of credit for each make or line of new motor vehicle, (ii) the new motor vehicle dealer remains in compliance with any reasonable facilities requirements of the manufacturer, (iii) no change is made in the principal management of the new motor vehicle dealer, and (iv) the addition of the make or line of new motor vehicles would be reasonable. The reasonable facilities requirement set forth in item (ii) of subsection (d)(8) shall not include any requirement that a franchisee establish or maintain exclusive facilities, personnel, or display space. Any decision by a motor vehicle dealer to sell additional makes or lines at the motor vehicle dealer's facility shall be presumed to be reasonable, and the manufacturer shall have the burden to overcome that presumption. A motor vehicle dealer must provide a written notification of its intent to add a make or line of new motor vehicles to the manufacturer. If the manufacturer does not respond to the motor vehicle dealer, in writing, objecting to the addition of the make or line within 60 days after the date that the motor vehicle dealer sends the written notification, then the manufacturer shall be deemed to have approved the addition of the make or line;

(9) to use or consider the performance of a motor vehicle dealer relating to the sale of the manufacturer's, distributor's, or wholesaler's vehicles or the motor vehicle dealer's ability to satisfy any minimum sales or market share quota or responsibility relating to the sale of the manufacturer's, distributor's, or wholesaler's new vehicles in determining:

(A) the motor vehicle dealer's eligibility to purchase program, certified, or other used motor vehicles from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(B) the volume, type, or model of program, certified, or other used motor vehicles that a motor vehicle dealer is eligible to purchase from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(C) the price of any program, certified, or other used motor vehicle that the dealer is eligible to purchase from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler; or

(D) the availability or amount of any discount, credit, rebate, or sales incentive that the dealer is eligible to receive from the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler for the purchase of any program, certified, or other used motor vehicle offered for sale by the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler;

(10) to take any adverse action against a dealer pursuant to an export or sale-for-resale prohibition because the dealer sold or leased a vehicle to a customer who either exported the vehicle to a foreign country or resold the vehicle in violation of the prohibition, unless the export or sale-for-resale prohibition policy was provided to the dealer in writing either electronically or on paper, prior to the sale or lease, and the dealer knew or reasonably should have known of the customer's intent to export or resell the vehicle in violation of the prohibition at the time of the sale or lease. If the dealer causes the vehicle to be registered and titled in this or any other state, and collects or causes to be collected any applicable sales or use tax to this State, a rebuttable presumption is established that the dealer did not have reason to know of the customer's intent to resell the vehicle;

(11) to coerce or require any dealer to construct improvements to his or her facilities or to install new signs or other franchiser image elements that replace or substantially alter those improvements, signs, or franchiser image elements completed within the past 10 years that were required and approved by the manufacturer or one of its affiliates. The 10-year period under this paragraph (11) begins to run for a dealer, including that dealer's successors and assigns, on the date that the manufacturer gives final written approval of the facility improvements or installation of signs or other franchiser image elements or the date that the dealer receives a certificate of occupancy, whichever is later. For the purpose of this paragraph (11), the term "substantially alter" does not include routine maintenance, including, but not limited to, interior painting, that is reasonably necessary to keep a dealer facility in attractive condition; or

(12) to require a dealer to purchase goods or services to make improvements to the dealer's facilities from a vendor selected, identified, or designated by a manufacturer or one of its affiliates by agreement, program, incentive provision, or otherwise without making available to the dealer the option to obtain the goods or services of substantially similar quality and overall design from a vendor chosen by the dealer and approved by the manufacturer; however, approval by the manufacturer shall not be unreasonably withheld, and the dealer's option to select a vendor shall not be available if the manufacturer provides substantial reimbursement for the goods or services offered. "Substantial reimbursement" means an amount equal to or greater than the cost savings that would result if the dealer were to utilize a vendor of the dealer's own selection instead of using the vendor identified by the manufacturer. For the purpose of this paragraph (12), the term "goods" does not include movable displays, brochures, and promotional materials containing material subject to the intellectual property rights of a manufacturer. If signs, other than signs containing the manufacturer's brand or logo or free-standing signs that are not directly attached to a building, or other franchiser image or design elements or trade dress are to be leased to the dealer by a vendor selected, identified, or designated by the manufacturer, the dealer has the right to purchase the signs or other franchiser image or design elements or trade dress of substantially similar quality and design from a vendor selected by the dealer if the signs, franchiser image or design elements, or trade dress are approved by the manufacturer. Approval by the manufacturer shall not be unreasonably withheld. This paragraph (12) shall not be construed to allow a dealer or vendor to impair, infringe upon, or eliminate, directly or indirectly, the intellectual property rights of the manufacturer, including, but not limited to, the manufacturer's intellectual property rights in any trademarks or trade dress, or other intellectual property interests owned or controlled by the manufacturer. This paragraph (12) shall not be construed to permit a dealer to erect or maintain signs that do not conform to the manufacturer's intellectual property rights or trademark or trade dress usage guidelines.

(e) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division or officer, agent or other representative thereof:

(1) to resort to or use any false or misleading advertisement in connection with his business as such manufacturer, distributor, wholesaler, distributor branch or division or officer, agent or other representative thereof;

(2) to offer to sell or lease, or to sell or lease, any new motor vehicle to any motor vehicle dealer at a lower actual price therefor than the actual price offered to any other motor vehicle dealer for the same model vehicle similarly equipped or to utilize any device including, but not limited to, sales promotion plans or programs which result in such lesser actual price or fail to make available to any motor vehicle dealer any preferential pricing, incentive, rebate, finance rate, or low interest loan program offered to competing motor vehicle dealers in other contiguous states. However, the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to sales to a motor vehicle dealer for resale to any unit of the United States Government, the State or any of its political subdivisions;

(3) to offer to sell or lease, or to sell or lease, any new motor vehicle to any person, except a wholesaler, distributor or manufacturer's employees at a lower actual price therefor than the actual price offered and charged to a motor vehicle dealer for the same model vehicle similarly equipped or to utilize any device which results in such lesser actual price. However, the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to sales to a motor vehicle dealer for resale to any unit of the United States Government, the State or any of its political subdivisions;

(4) to prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer or franchisee from changing the executive management control of the motor vehicle dealer or franchisee unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such change of executive management will result in executive management control by a person or persons who are not of good moral character or who do not meet the franchiser's existing and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, where the manufacturer rejects a proposed change in executive management control, the manufacturer shall give written notice of his reasons to the dealer within 60 days of notice to the manufacturer by the dealer of the proposed change. If the manufacturer does not send a letter to the franchisee by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 60 days from receipt by the manufacturer of the proposed change, then the change of the executive management control of the franchisee shall be deemed accepted as proposed by the franchisee, and the manufacturer shall give immediate effect to such change;

(5) to prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer from establishing or changing the capital structure of his dealership or the means by or through which he finances the operation thereof; provided the dealer meets any reasonable capital standards agreed to between the dealer and the manufacturer, distributor or wholesaler, who may require that the sources, method and manner by which the dealer finances or intends to finance its operation, equipment or facilities be fully disclosed;

(6) to refuse to give effect to or prevent or attempt to prevent by contract or otherwise any motor vehicle dealer or any officer, partner or stockholder of any motor vehicle dealer from selling or transferring any part of the interest of any of them to any other person or persons or party or parties unless such sale or transfer is to a transferee who would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealers license under the Illinois Vehicle Code or unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such sale or transfer is to a person or party who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law:

(A) If the manufacturer intends to refuse to approve the sale or transfer of all or a part of the interest, then it shall, within 60 days from receipt of the completed application forms generally utilized by a manufacturer to conduct its review and a copy of all agreements regarding the proposed transfer, send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, advising the franchisee of any refusal to approve the sale or transfer of all or part of the interest and shall state that the dealer only has 30 days from the receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. The notice shall set forth specific criteria used to evaluate the prospective transferee and the grounds for refusing to approve the sale or transfer to that transferee. Within 30 days from the franchisee's receipt of the manufacturer's notice, the franchisee may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing the date (within 60 days of the date of such order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting franchisee.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to refuse to approve the sale or transfer to the transferee. The determination whether good cause exists to refuse to approve the sale or transfer shall be made by the Board under subdivisions (6)(B). The manufacturer shall not refuse to approve the sale or transfer by a dealer or an officer, partner, or stockholder of a franchise or any part of the interest to any person or persons before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to refuse to approve the sale or transfer to the transferee.

(B) Good cause to refuse to approve such sale or transfer under this Section is established when such sale or transfer is to a transferee who would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealers license under the Illinois Vehicle Code or such sale or transfer is to a person or party who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area.

(7) to obtain money, goods, services, anything of value, or any other benefit from any other person with whom the motor vehicle dealer does business, on account of or in relation to the transactions between the dealer and the other person as compensation, except for services actually rendered, unless such benefit is promptly accounted for and transmitted to the motor vehicle dealer;

(8) to grant an additional franchise in the relevant market area of an existing franchise of the same line make or to relocate an existing motor vehicle dealership within or into a relevant market area of an existing franchise of the same line make. However, if the manufacturer wishes to grant such an additional franchise to an independent person in a bona fide relationship in which such person is prepared to make a significant investment subject to loss in such a dealership, or if the manufacturer wishes to relocate an existing motor vehicle dealership, then the manufacturer shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to each existing dealer or dealers of the same line make whose relevant market area includes the proposed location of the additional or relocated franchise at least 60 days before the manufacturer grants an additional franchise or relocates an existing franchise of the same line make within or into the relevant market area of an existing franchisee of the same line make. Each notice shall set forth the specific grounds for the proposed grant of an additional or relocation of an existing franchise and shall state that the dealer has only 30 days from the date of receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. Unless the parties agree upon the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise within 30 days from the date the notice was received by the existing franchisee of the same line make or any person entitled to receive such notice, the franchisee or other person may file with the Board a written protest against the grant or establishment of the proposed additional or relocated franchise.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the manufacturer that filed the notice of intention to grant or establish the proposed additional or relocated franchise and to the protesting dealer or dealers of the same line make whose relevant market area includes the proposed location of the additional or relocated franchise.

When more than one protest is filed against the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise of the same line make, the Board may consolidate the hearings to expedite disposition of the matter. The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to allow the grant or establishment of the additional or relocated franchise. The manufacturer may not grant or establish the additional franchise or relocate the existing franchise before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that the manufacturer has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to allow the grant or establishment of the additional franchise or relocation of the existing franchise.

The determination whether good cause exists for allowing the grant or establishment of an additional franchise or relocated existing franchise, shall be made by the Board under subsection (c) of Section 12 of this Act. If the manufacturer seeks to enter into a contract, agreement or other arrangement with any person, establishing any additional motor vehicle dealership or other facility, limited to the sale of factory repurchase vehicles or late model vehicles, then the manufacturer shall follow the notice procedures set forth in this Section and the determination whether good cause exists for allowing the proposed agreement shall be made by the Board under subsection (c) of Section 12, with the manufacturer having the burden of proof.

A. (Blank).

B. For the purposes of this Section, appointment of a successor motor vehicle dealer at the same location as its predecessor, or within 2 miles of such location, or the relocation of an existing dealer or franchise within 2 miles of the relocating dealer's or franchisee's existing location, shall not be construed as a grant, establishment or the entering into of an additional franchise or selling agreement, or a relocation of an existing franchise. The reopening of a motor vehicle dealership that has not been in operation for 18 months or more shall be deemed the grant of an additional franchise or selling agreement.

C. This Section does not apply to the relocation of an existing dealership or franchise in a county having a population of more than 300,000 persons when the new location is within the dealer's current relevant market area, provided the new location is more than 7 miles from the nearest dealer of the same line make. This Section does not apply to the relocation of an existing dealership or franchise in a county having a population of less than 300,000 persons when the new location is within the dealer's current relevant market area, provided the new location is more than 12 miles from the nearest dealer of the same line make. A dealer that would be farther away from the new location of an existing dealership or franchise of the same line make after a relocation may not file a written protest against the relocation with the Motor Vehicle Review Board.

D. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law;

(9) to require a motor vehicle dealer to assent to a release, assignment, novation, waiver or estoppel which would relieve any person from liability imposed by this Act;

(10) to prevent or refuse to give effect to the succession to the ownership or management control of a dealership by any legatee under the will of a dealer or to an heir under the laws of descent and distribution of this State unless the franchisee has designated a successor to the ownership or management control under the succession provisions of the franchise. Unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that the successor is a person who is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area, any designated successor of a dealer or franchisee may succeed to the ownership or management control of a dealership under the existing franchise if:

(i) The designated successor gives the franchiser written notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, of his or her intention to succeed to the ownership of the dealer within 60 days of the dealer's death or incapacity; and

(ii) The designated successor agrees to be bound by all the terms and conditions of the existing franchise.

Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the event the motor vehicle dealer or franchisee and manufacturer have duly executed an agreement concerning succession rights prior to the dealer's death or incapacitation, the agreement shall be observed.

(A) If the franchiser intends to refuse to honor the successor to the ownership of a deceased or incapacitated dealer or franchisee under an existing franchise agreement, the franchiser shall send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the designated successor within 60 days from receipt of a proposal advising of its intent to refuse to honor the succession and to discontinue the existing franchise agreement and shall state that the designated successor only has 30 days from the receipt of the notice to file with the Motor Vehicle Review Board a written protest against the proposed action. The notice shall set forth the specific grounds for the refusal to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement.

If notice of refusal is not timely served upon the designated successor, the franchise agreement shall continue in effect subject to termination only as otherwise permitted by paragraph (6) of subsection (d) of Section 4 of this Act.

Within 30 days from the date the notice was received by the designated successor or any other person entitled to notice, the designee or other person may file with the Board a written protest against the proposed action.

When a protest has been timely filed, the Board shall enter an order, fixing a date (within 60 days of the date of the order), time, and place of a hearing on the protest, required under Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, and send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a copy of the order to the franchiser that filed the notice of intention of the proposed action and to the protesting designee or such other person.

The manufacturer shall have the burden of proof to establish that good cause exists to refuse to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement. The determination whether good cause exists to refuse to honor the succession shall be made by the Board under subdivision (B) of this paragraph (10). The manufacturer shall not refuse to honor the succession or discontinue the existing franchise agreement before the hearing process is concluded as prescribed by this Act, and thereafter if the Board determines that it has failed to meet its burden of proof and that good cause does not exist to refuse to honor the succession and discontinue the existing franchise agreement.

(B) No manufacturer shall impose any conditions upon honoring the succession and continuing the existing franchise agreement with the designated successor other than that the franchisee has designated a successor to the ownership or management control under the succession provisions of the franchise, or that the designated successor is of good moral character or meets the reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area;

(11) to prevent or refuse to approve a proposal to establish a successor franchise at a location previously approved by the franchiser when submitted with the voluntary termination by the existing franchisee unless the successor franchisee would not otherwise qualify for a new motor vehicle dealer's license under the Illinois Vehicle Code or unless the franchiser, having the burden of proof, proves that such proposed successor is not of good moral character or does not meet the franchiser's existing and reasonable capital standards and, with consideration given to the volume of sales and service of the dealership, uniformly applied minimum business experience standards in the market area. However, when such a rejection of a proposal is made, the manufacturer shall give written notice of its reasons to the franchisee within 60 days of receipt by the manufacturer of the proposal. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a franchiser from implementing affirmative action programs providing business opportunities for minorities, or from complying with applicable federal, State or local law;

(12) to prevent or refuse to grant a franchise to a person because such person owns, has investment in or participates in the management of or holds a franchise for the sale of another make or line of motor vehicles within 7 miles of the proposed franchise location in a county having a population of more than 300,000 persons, or within 12 miles of the proposed franchise location in a county having a population of less than 300,000 persons;

(13) to prevent or attempt to prevent any new motor vehicle dealer from establishing any additional motor vehicle dealership or other facility limited to the sale of factory repurchase vehicles or late model vehicles or otherwise offering for sale factory repurchase vehicles of the same line make at an existing franchise by failing to make available any contract, agreement or other arrangement which is made available or otherwise offered to any person; or

(14) to exercise a right of first refusal or other right to acquire a franchise from a dealer, unless the manufacturer:

(A) notifies the dealer in writing that it intends to exercise its right to acquire the franchise not later than 60 days after the manufacturer's or distributor's receipt of a notice of the proposed transfer from the dealer and all information and documents reasonably and customarily required by the manufacturer or distributor supporting the proposed transfer;

(B) pays to the dealer the same or greater consideration as the dealer has contracted to receive in connection with the proposed transfer or sale of all or substantially all of the dealership assets, stock, or other ownership interest, including the purchase or lease of all real property, leasehold, or improvements related to the transfer or sale of the dealership. Upon exercise of the right of first refusal or such other right, the manufacturer or distributor shall have the right to assign the lease or to convey the real property;

(C) assumes all of the duties, obligations, and liabilities contained in the agreements that were to be assumed by the proposed transferee and with respect to which the manufacturer or distributor exercised the right of first refusal or other right to acquire the franchise;

(D) reimburses the proposed transferee for all reasonable expenses incurred in evaluating, investigating, and negotiating the transfer of the dealership prior to the manufacturer's or distributor's exercise of its right of first refusal or other right to acquire the dealership. For purposes of this paragraph, "reasonable expenses" includes the usual and customary legal and accounting fees charged for similar work, as well as expenses associated with the evaluation and investigation of any real property on which the dealership is operated. The proposed transferee shall submit an itemized list of its expenses to the manufacturer or distributor not later than 30 days after the manufacturer's or distributor's exercise of the right of first refusal or other right to acquire the motor vehicle franchise. The manufacturer or distributor shall reimburse the proposed transferee for its expenses not later than 90 days after receipt of the itemized list. A manufacturer or distributor may request to be provided with the itemized list of expenses before exercising the manufacturer's or distributor's right of first refusal.

Except as provided in this paragraph (14), neither the selling dealer nor the manufacturer or distributor shall have any liability to any person as a result of a manufacturer or distributor exercising its right of first refusal.

For the purpose of this paragraph, "proposed transferee" means the person to whom the franchise would have been transferred to, or was proposed to be transferred to, had the right of first refusal or other right to acquire the franchise not been exercised by the manufacturer or distributor.

(f) It is deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent, broker, shareholder, except a shareholder of 1% or less of the outstanding shares of any class of securities of a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler which is a publicly traded corporation, or other representative, directly or indirectly, to own or operate a place of business as a motor vehicle franchisee or motor vehicle financing affiliate, except that, this subsection shall not prohibit:

(1) the ownership or operation of a place of business by a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler for a period, not to exceed 18 months, during the transition from one motor vehicle franchisee to another;

(2) the investment in a motor vehicle franchisee by a manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler if the investment is for the sole purpose of enabling a partner or shareholder in that motor vehicle franchisee to acquire an interest in that motor vehicle franchisee and that partner or shareholder is not otherwise employed by or associated with the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler and would not otherwise have the requisite capital investment funds to invest in the motor vehicle franchisee, and has the right to purchase the entire equity interest of the manufacturer, distributor, or wholesaler in the motor vehicle franchisee within a reasonable period of time not to exceed 5 years; or

(3) the ownership or operation of a place of business by a manufacturer that manufactures only diesel engines for installation in trucks having a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 16,000 pounds that are required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code, provided that:

(A) the manufacturer does not otherwise manufacture, distribute, or sell motor vehicles as defined under Section 1-217 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

(B) the manufacturer owned a place of business and it was in operation as of January 1, 2016;

(C) the manufacturer complies with all obligations owed to dealers that are not owned, operated, or controlled by the manufacturer, including, but not limited to those obligations arising pursuant to Section 6;

(D) to further avoid any acts or practices, the effect of which may be to lessen or eliminate competition, the manufacturer provides to dealers on substantially equal terms access to all support for completing repairs, including, but not limited to, parts and assemblies, training, and technical service bulletins, and other information concerning repairs that the manufacturer provides to facilities that are owned, operated, or controlled by the manufacturer; and

(E) the manufacturer does not require that warranty repair work be performed by a manufacturer-owned repair facility and the manufacturer provides any dealer that has an agreement with the manufacturer to sell and perform warranty repairs on the manufacturer's engines the opportunity to perform warranty repairs on those engines, regardless of whether the dealer sold the truck into which the engine was installed.

(g) Notwithstanding the terms, provisions, or conditions of any agreement or waiver, it shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, a factory branch or division, or a wholesale branch or division, or officer, agent or other representative thereof, to directly or indirectly condition the awarding of a franchise to a prospective new motor vehicle dealer, the addition of a line make or franchise to an existing dealer, the renewal of a franchise of an existing dealer, the approval of the relocation of an existing dealer's facility, or the approval of the sale or transfer of the ownership of a franchise on the willingness of a dealer, proposed new dealer, or owner of an interest in the dealership facility to enter into a site control agreement or exclusive use agreement unless separate and reasonable consideration was offered and accepted for that agreement.

For purposes of this subsection (g), the terms "site control agreement" and "exclusive use agreement" include any agreement that has the effect of either (i) requiring that the dealer establish or maintain exclusive dealership facilities; or (ii) restricting the ability of the dealer, or the ability of the dealer's lessor in the event the dealership facility is being leased, to transfer, sell, lease, or change the use of the dealership premises, whether by sublease, lease, collateral pledge of lease, or other similar agreement. "Site control agreement" and "exclusive use agreement" also include a manufacturer restricting the ability of a dealer to transfer, sell, or lease the dealership premises by right of first refusal to purchase or lease, option to purchase, or option to lease if the transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises is to a person who is an immediate family member of the dealer. For the purposes of this subsection (g), "immediate family member" means a spouse, parent, son, daughter, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother, and sister.

If a manufacturer exercises any right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease with regard to a transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises to a person who is not an immediate family member of the dealer, then (1) within 60 days from the receipt of the completed application forms generally utilized by a manufacturer to conduct its review and a copy of all agreements regarding the proposed transfer, the manufacturer must notify the dealer of its intent to exercise the right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease and (2) the exercise of the right of first refusal to purchase or lease or option to purchase or lease must result in the dealer receiving consideration, terms, and conditions that either are the same as or greater than that which they have contracted to receive in connection with the proposed transfer, sale, or lease of the dealership premises.

Any provision contained in any agreement entered into on or after November 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-824) that is inconsistent with the provisions of this subsection (g) shall be voidable at the election of the affected dealer, prospective dealer, or owner of an interest in the dealership facility.

(h) For purposes of this subsection:

"Successor manufacturer" means any motor vehicle manufacturer that, on or after January 1, 2009, acquires, succeeds to, or assumes any part of the business of another manufacturer, referred to as the "predecessor manufacturer", as the result of any of the following:

(i) A change in ownership, operation, or control of the predecessor manufacturer by sale or transfer of assets, corporate stock or other equity interest, assignment, merger, consolidation, combination, joint venture, redemption, court-approved sale, operation of law or otherwise.

(ii) The termination, suspension, or cessation of a part or all of the business operations of the predecessor manufacturer.

(iii) The discontinuance of the sale of the product line.

(iv) A change in distribution system by the predecessor manufacturer, whether through a change in distributor or the predecessor manufacturer's decision to cease conducting business through a distributor altogether.

"Former Franchisee" means a new motor vehicle dealer that has entered into a franchise with a predecessor manufacturer and that has either:

(i) entered into a termination agreement or deferred termination agreement with a predecessor or successor manufacturer related to such franchise; or

(ii) has had such franchise canceled, terminated, nonrenewed, noncontinued, rejected, nonassumed, or otherwise ended.

For a period of 3 years from: (i) the date that a successor manufacturer acquires, succeeds to, or assumes any part of the business of a predecessor manufacturer; (ii) the last day that a former franchisee is authorized to remain in business as a franchised dealer with respect to a particular franchise under a termination agreement or deferred termination agreement with a predecessor or successor manufacturer; (iii) the last day that a former franchisee that was cancelled, terminated, nonrenewed, noncontinued, rejected, nonassumed, or otherwise ended by a predecessor or successor manufacturer is authorized to remain in business as a franchised dealer with respect to a particular franchise; or (iv) November 25, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-824), whichever is latest, it shall be unlawful for such successor manufacturer to enter into a same line make franchise with any person or to permit the relocation of any existing same line make franchise, for a line make of the predecessor manufacturer that would be located or relocated within the relevant market area of a former franchisee who owned or leased a dealership facility in that relevant market area without first offering the additional or relocated franchise to the former franchisee, or the designated successor of such former franchisee in the event the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability, at no cost and without any requirements or restrictions other than those imposed generally on the manufacturer's other franchisees at that time, unless one of the following applies:

(1) As a result of the former franchisee's cancellation, termination, noncontinuance, or nonrenewal of the franchise, the predecessor manufacturer had consolidated the line make with another of its line makes for which the predecessor manufacturer had a franchisee with a then-existing dealership facility located within that relevant market area.

(2) The successor manufacturer has paid the former franchisee, or the designated successor of such former franchisee in the event the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability, the fair market value of the former franchisee's franchise on (i) the date the franchiser franchisor announces the action which results in the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal; or (ii) the date the action which results in termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal first became general knowledge; or (iii) the day 12 months prior to the date on which the notice of termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal is issued, whichever amount is higher. Payment is due within 90 days of the effective date of the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal. If the termination, cancellation, or nonrenewal is due to a manufacturer's change in distributors, the manufacturer may avoid paying fair market value to the dealer if the new distributor or the manufacturer offers the dealer a franchise agreement with terms acceptable to the dealer.

(3) The successor manufacturer proves that it would have had good cause to terminate the franchise agreement of the former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee under item (e)(10) in the event that the former franchisee is deceased or a person with a disability. The determination of whether the successor manufacturer would have had good cause to terminate the franchise agreement of the former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee, shall be made by the Board under subsection (d) of Section 12. A successor manufacturer that seeks to assert that it would have had good cause to terminate a former franchisee, or the successor of the former franchisee, must file a petition seeking a hearing on this issue before the Board and shall have the burden of proving that it would have had good cause to terminate the former franchisee or the successor of the former franchisee. No successor dealer, other than the former franchisee, may be appointed or franchised by the successor manufacturer within the relevant market area of the former franchisee until the Board has held a hearing and rendered a determination on the issue of whether the successor manufacturer would have had good cause to terminate the former franchisee.

In the event that a successor manufacturer attempts to enter into a same line make franchise with any person or to permit the relocation of any existing line make franchise under this subsection (h) at a location that is within the relevant market area of 2 or more former franchisees, then the successor manufacturer may not offer it to any person other than one of those former franchisees unless the successor manufacturer can prove that at least one of the 3 exceptions in items (1), (2), and (3) of this subsection (h) applies to each of those former franchisees.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-844, eff. 8-19-16; 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-308, eff. 8-24-17; revised 1-29-18.)

(815 ILCS 710/10.1) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 760.1)

Sec. 10.1. (a) As used in this Section, "motorcycle" means every motor vehicle having a seat or saddle for the use of the rider and designed to travel with 3 or less wheels in contact with the ground, excluding farm, garden, and lawn equipment, and including off-highway vehicles.

(b) It shall be deemed a violation for a manufacturer, a distributor, a wholesaler, a distributor branch or division, or officer, agent, or other representative thereof:

(1) To require a motorcycle franchisee to participate in a retail financing plan or retail leasing plan or to participate in any retail consumer insurance plan.

(2) To own, to operate or to control any motorcycle dealership in this State for a period longer than 2 years.

(3) (Blank). Whenever any motorcycle dealer enters into a franchise agreement, evidenced by a contract, with a wholesaler, manufacturer or distributor wherein the franchisee agrees to maintain an inventory and the contract is terminated by the wholesaler, manufacturer, distributor, or franchisee, then the franchisee may require the repurchase of the inventory as provided for in this Act. If the franchisee has any outstanding debts to the wholesaler, manufacturer or distributor then the repurchase amount may be credited to the franchisee's account. The franchise agreement shall either expressly or by operation of law have as part of its terms a security agreement whereby the wholesaler, manufacturer, or distributor agrees to and does grant a security interest to the motorcycle dealer in the repurchased inventory to secure payment of the repurchase amount to the dealer. The perfection, priority, and other matters relating to the security interest shall be governed by Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code. The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to affect in any way any security interest that any financial institution, person, wholesaler, manufacturer, or distributor may have in the inventory of the motorcycle dealer.

(4) To require a motorcycle dealer to utilize manufacturer approved floor fixtures for the display of any product that is not a product of the manufacturer.

(5) To require a motorcycle dealer to purchase lighting fixtures that are to be installed in the dealership only from the manufacturer's approved vendors.

(6) To require a motorcycle dealer to relocate to a new or alternate facility.

Whenever any motorcycle dealer enters into a franchise agreement, evidenced by a contract, with a wholesaler, manufacturer, or distributor wherein the franchisee agrees to maintain an inventory and the contract is terminated by the wholesaler, manufacturer, distributor, or franchisee, then the franchisee may require the repurchase of the inventory as provided for in this Act. If the franchisee has any outstanding debts to the wholesaler, manufacturer, or distributor, then the repurchase amount may be credited to the franchisee's account. The franchise agreement shall either expressly or by operation of law have as part of its terms a security agreement whereby the wholesaler, manufacturer, or distributor agrees to and does grant a security interest to the motorcycle dealer in the repurchased inventory to secure payment of the repurchase amount to the dealer. The perfection, priority, and other matters relating to the security interest shall be governed by Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code. The provisions of this Section shall not be construed to affect in any way any security interest that any financial institution, person, wholesaler, manufacturer, or distributor may have in the inventory of the motorcycle dealer.

(c) The provisions of this Section 10.1 are applicable to all new or existing motorcycle franchisees and franchisers franchisors and are in addition to the other rights and remedies provided in this Act, and, in the case of a conflict with other provisions contained in this Act, with respect to motorcycle franchises, this Section shall be controlling.

(d) The filing of a timely protest by a motorcycle franchise before the Motor Vehicle Review Board as prescribed by Sections 12 and 29 of this Act, shall stay the effective date of a proposed additional franchise or selling agreement, or the effective date of a proposed motorcycle dealership relocation, or the effective date of a cancellation, termination, or modification, or extend the expiration date of a franchise or selling agreement by refusal to honor succession to ownership or refusal to approve a sale or transfer pending a final determination of the issues in the hearing.

(Source: P.A. 98-424, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 685. The Illinois Secure Choice Savings Program Act is amended by changing Section 60 as follows:

(820 ILCS 80/60)

Sec. 60. Program implementation and enrollment. Except as otherwise provided in Section 93 of this Act, the Program shall be implemented, and enrollment of employees shall begin in 2018. The Board shall establish an implementation timeline under which employers shall enroll their employees in into the Program. The timeline shall include the date by which an employer must begin enrollment of its employees in into the Program and the date by which enrollment must be complete. The Board shall adopt the implementation timeline at a public meeting of the Board and shall publicize the implementation timeline. The Board shall provide advance notice to employers of their enrollment date and the amount of time to complete enrollment. The Board's implementation timeline shall ensure that all employees are required to be enrolled in into the Program by December 31, 2020. The provisions of this Section shall be in force after the Board opens the Program for enrollment.

(a) Each employer shall establish a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement to allow each employee to participate in the Program within the timeline set by the Board after the Program opens for enrollment.

(b) Employers shall automatically enroll in the Program each of their employees who has not opted out of participation in the Program using the form described in subsection (c) of Section 55 of this Act and shall provide payroll deduction retirement savings arrangements for such employees and deposit, on behalf of such employees, these funds into the Program. Small employers may, but are not required to, provide payroll deduction retirement savings arrangements for each employee who elects to participate in the Program. Small employers' use of automatic enrollment for employees is subject to final rules from the United States Department of Labor. Utilization of automatic enrollment by small employers may be allowed only if it does not create employer liability under the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act.

(c) Enrollees shall have the ability to select a contribution level into the Fund. This level may be expressed as a percentage of wages or as a dollar amount up to the deductible amount for the enrollee's taxable year under Section 219(b)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code. Enrollees may change their contribution level at any time, subject to rules promulgated by the Board. If an enrollee fails to select a contribution level using the form described in subsection (c) of Section 55 of this Act, then he or she shall contribute the default contribution rate of his or her wages to the Program, provided that such contributions shall not cause the enrollee's total contributions to IRAs for the year to exceed the deductible amount for the enrollee's taxable year under Section 219(b)(1)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) Enrollees may select an investment option from the permitted investment options listed in Section 45 of this Act. Enrollees may change their investment option at any time, subject to rules promulgated by the Board. In the event that an enrollee fails to select an investment option, that enrollee shall be placed in the investment option selected by the Board as the default under subsection (c) of Section 45 of this Act. If the Board has not selected a default investment option under subsection (c) of Section 45 of this Act, then an enrollee who fails to select an investment option shall be placed in the life-cycle fund investment option.

(e) Following initial implementation of the Program pursuant to this Section, at least once every year, participating employers shall designate an open enrollment period during which employees who previously opted out of the Program may enroll in the Program.

(f) An employee who opts out of the Program who subsequently wants to participate through the participating employer's payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement may only enroll during the participating employer's designated open enrollment period or if permitted by the participating employer at an earlier time.

(g) Employers shall retain the option at all times to set up any type of employer-sponsored retirement plan, such as a defined benefit plan or a 401(k), Simplified Employee Pension (SEP) plan, or Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees (SIMPLE) plan, or to offer an automatic enrollment payroll deduction IRA, instead of having a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement to allow employee participation in the Program.

(h) An employee may terminate his or her participation in the Program at any time in a manner prescribed by the Board.

(i) The Board shall establish and maintain an Internet website designed to assist employers in identifying private sector providers of retirement arrangements that can be set up by the employer rather than allowing employee participation in the Program under this Act; however, the Board shall only establish and maintain an Internet website under this subsection if there is sufficient interest in such an Internet website by private sector providers and if the private sector providers furnish the funding necessary to establish and maintain the Internet website. The Board must provide public notice of the availability of and the process for inclusion on the Internet website before it becomes publicly available. This Internet website must be available to the public before the Board opens the Program for enrollment, and the Internet website address must be included on any Internet website posting or other materials regarding the Program offered to the public by the Board.

(Source: P.A. 99-571, eff. 7-15-16; 100-6, eff. 6-30-17; revised 10-5-17.)

Section 690. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:

(820 ILCS 130/9) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-9)

Sec. 9. To effectuate the purpose and policy of this Act each public body shall, during the month of June of each calendar year, investigate and ascertain the prevailing rate of wages as defined in this Act and publicly post or keep available for inspection by any interested party in the main office of such public body its determination of such prevailing rate of wage and shall promptly file, no later than July 15 of each year, a certified copy thereof in the office of the Illinois Department of Labor.

The Department of Labor shall during the month of June of each calendar year, investigate and ascertain the prevailing rate of wages for each county in the State. If a public body does not investigate and ascertain the prevailing rate of wages during the month of June as required by the previous paragraph, then the prevailing rate of wages for that public body shall be the rate as determined by the Department under this paragraph for the county in which such public body is located. The Department shall publish on its official website a prevailing wage schedule for each county in the State, no later than August 15 of each year, based on the prevailing rate of wages investigated and ascertained by the Department during the month of June. Nothing prohibits the Department from publishing prevailing wage rates more than once per year.

Where the Department of Labor ascertains the prevailing rate of wages, it is the duty of the Department of Labor within 30 days after receiving a notice from the public body authorizing the proposed work, to conduct an investigation to ascertain the prevailing rate of wages as defined in this Act and such investigation shall be conducted in the locality in which the work is to be performed. The Department of Labor shall send a certified copy of its findings to the public body authorizing the work and keep a record of its findings available for inspection by any interested party in the office of the Department of Labor at Springfield.

The public body except for the Department of Transportation with respect to highway contracts shall within 30 days after filing with the Department of Labor, or the Department of Labor shall within 30 days after filing with such public body, publish in a newspaper of general circulation within the area that the determination is effective, a notice of its determination and shall promptly mail a copy of its determination to any employer, and to any association of employers and to any person or association of employees who have filed their names and addresses, requesting copies of any determination stating the particular rates and the particular class of workers whose wages will be affected by such rates. If the Department of Labor ascertains the prevailing rate of wages for a public body, the public body may satisfy the newspaper publication requirement in this paragraph by posting on the public body's website a notice of its determination with a hyperlink to the prevailing wage schedule for that locality that is published on the official website of the Department of Labor.

At any time within 30 days after the Department of Labor has published on its official web site a prevailing wage schedule, any person affected thereby may object in writing to the determination or such part thereof as they may deem objectionable by filing a written notice with the public body or Department of Labor, whichever has made such determination, stating the specified grounds of the objection. It shall thereafter be the duty of the public body or Department of Labor to set a date for a hearing on the objection after giving written notice to the objectors at least 10 days before the date of the hearing and said notice shall state the time and place of such hearing. Such hearing by a public body shall be held within 45 days after the objection is filed, and shall not be postponed or reset for a later date except upon the consent, in writing, of all the objectors and the public body. If such hearing is not held by the public body within the time herein specified, the Department of Labor may, upon request of the objectors, conduct the hearing on behalf of the public body.

The public body or Department of Labor, whichever has made such determination, is authorized in its discretion to hear each written objection filed separately or consolidate for hearing any one or more written objections filed with them. At such hearing, the public body or Department of Labor shall introduce in evidence the investigation it instituted which formed the basis of its determination, and the public body or Department of Labor, or any interested objectors may thereafter introduce such evidence as is material to the issue. Thereafter, the public body or Department of Labor, must rule upon the written objection and make such final determination as it believes the evidence warrants, and promptly file a certified copy of its final determination with such public body, and serve a copy by personal service or registered mail on all parties to the proceedings. The final determination by the Department of Labor or a public body shall be rendered within 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing.

If proceedings to review judicially the final determination of the public body or Department of Labor are not instituted as hereafter provided, such determination shall be final and binding.

The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and all amendments and modifications thereof, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto, shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative decisions of any public body or the Department of Labor hereunder. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Appeals from all final orders and judgments entered by the court in review of the final administrative decision of the public body or Department of Labor, may be taken by any party to the action.

Any proceeding in any court affecting a determination of the Department of Labor or public body shall have priority in hearing and determination over all other civil proceedings pending in said court, except election contests.

In all reviews or appeals under this Act, it shall be the duty of the Attorney General to represent the Department of Labor, and defend its determination. The Attorney General shall not represent any public body, except the State, in any such review or appeal.

(Source: P.A. 100-2, eff. 6-16-17; 100-154, eff. 8-18-17; revised 10-6-17.)

Section 695. The Workplace Violence Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 95 as follows:

(820 ILCS 275/95)

Sec. 95. Notice of orders. (a) Upon issuance of a workplace protection restraining order, the clerk shall immediately, or on the next court day if an emergency order is issued in accordance with subsection (c) of Section 70 of this Act:

(1) enter the order on the record and file it in accordance with the circuit court procedures; and

(2) provide a file stamped copy of the order to the respondent, if present, and to the petitioner.

(Source: P.A. 98-766, eff. 7-16-14; revised 11-8-17.)

Section 700. "An Act concerning revenue", veto overridden July 6, 2017, Public Act 100-22, is amended by changing the headings of Article 1 (STATE TAX LIEN REGISTRATION ACT), Article 15 (REVISED UNIFORM UNCLAIMED PROPERTY ACT), Article 17 (AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; UNCLAIMED PROPERTY), Article 20 (AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; INCOME TAX), Article 25 (AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; STATE TAX LIEN REGISTRY), Article 30 (GASOHOL; ETHANOL FUEL), Article 35 (GRAPHIC ARTS), and Article 99 (EFFECTIVE DATE) as follows:

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 1 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 1. STATE TAX LIEN REGISTRATION ACT

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 15 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 15. REVISED UNIFORM UNCLAIMED PROPERTY ACT

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 17 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 17. AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; UNCLAIMED PROPERTY

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 20 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 20. AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; INCOME TAX

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 25 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 25. AMENDATORY PROVISIONS; STATE TAX LIEN

REGISTRY

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 30 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 30. GASOHOL; ETHANOL FUEL

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 35 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 35. GRAPHIC ARTS

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

(P.A. 100-22, Tit. 99 heading)

TITLE ARTICLE 99. EFFECTIVE DATE

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 7-6-17.)

Section 705. The Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act is amended by changing Section 15-101 as follows:

(765 ILCS 1026/15-101)

Sec. 15-101. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act. References in this Title Article 15 (the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act) to "this Act" mean this Title Article 15 (the Revised Uniform Unclaimed Property Act).

(Source: P.A. 100-22, eff. 1-1-18.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.