HB0312ham002 100TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

Rep. Sara Feigenholtz

Filed: 3/24/2017

10000HB0312ham002 LRB100 04151 SMS 24327 a

AMENDMENT TO HOUSE BILL 312

AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend House Bill 312 by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the following:

"Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing Section 4.28 and by adding Section 4.38 as follows:

(5 ILCS 80/4.28)

Sec. 4.28. Acts repealed on January 1, 2018. The following Acts are repealed on January 1, 2018:

The Illinois Petroleum Education and Marketing Act.

The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

The Acupuncture Practice Act.

The Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act.

The Interpreter for the Deaf Licensure Act of 2007.

The Nurse Practice Act.

The Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act.

The Pharmacy Practice Act.

The Home Medical Equipment and Services Provider License Act.

The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act.

The Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act.

The Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 95-187, eff. 8-16-07; 95-235, eff. 8-17-07; 95-450, eff. 8-27-07; 95-465, eff. 8-27-07; 95-617, eff. 9-12-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 95-689, eff. 10-29-07; 95-703, eff. 12-31-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

(5 ILCS 80/4.38 new)

Sec. 4.38. Act repealed on January 1, 2028. The following Act is repealed on January 1, 2028:

The Nurse Practice Act.

Section 10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11A as follows:

(5 ILCS 375/6.11A)

Sec. 6.11A. Physical therapy and occupational therapy.

(a) The program of health benefits provided under this Act shall provide coverage for medically necessary physical therapy and occupational therapy when that therapy is ordered for the treatment of autoimmune diseases or referred for the same purpose by (i) a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, (ii) a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(b) For the purpose of this Section, "medically necessary" means any care, treatment, intervention, service, or item that will or is reasonably expected to:

(i) prevent the onset of an illness, condition, injury, disease, or disability;

(ii) reduce or ameliorate the physical, mental, or developmental effects of an illness, condition, injury, disease, or disability; or

(iii) assist the achievement or maintenance of maximum functional activity in performing daily activities.

(c) The coverage required under this Section shall be subject to the same deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, cost sharing limitation, treatment limitation, calendar year maximum, or other limitations as provided for other physical or rehabilitative or occupational therapy benefits covered by the policy.

(d) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, the provider of the physical therapy or occupational therapy shall furnish medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data that substantiate that initial or continued treatment is medically necessary. When treatment is anticipated to require continued services to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may request a treatment plan consisting of the diagnosis, proposed treatment by type, proposed frequency of treatment, anticipated duration of treatment, anticipated outcomes stated as goals, and proposed frequency of updating the treatment plan.

(e) When making a determination of medical necessity for treatment, an insurer must make the determination in a manner consistent with the manner in which that determination is made with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an appeals process. During the appeals process, any challenge to medical necessity may be viewed as reasonable only if the review includes a licensed health care professional with the same category of license as the professional who ordered or referred the service in question and with expertise in the most current and effective treatment.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 15. The Election Code is amended by changing Sections 19-12.1 and 19-13 as follows:

(10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)

Sec. 19-12.1. Any qualified elector who has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card in accordance with the Illinois Identification Card Act, indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent physical incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, or any voter who is a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act and has a condition or disability of such a nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be present at the polls at any future election, may secure a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable him to vote under this Article as a physically incapacitated or nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

Application for a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's sworn affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, and shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant specifically describing the nature of the physical incapacity or the fact that the voter is a nursing home resident and is physically unable to be present at the polls on election days; or (b) by presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk or board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability. Upon the receipt of either the sworn-to application and the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's affidavit or proof that the applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, the county clerk or board of election commissioners shall issue a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card. Such identification cards shall be issued for a period of 5 years, upon the expiration of which time the voter may secure a new card by making application in the same manner as is prescribed for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new affidavit of the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant. The date of expiration of such five-year period shall be made known to any interested person by the election authority upon the request of such person. Applications for the renewal of the identification cards shall be mailed to the voters holding such cards not less than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.

Each voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly noted on the voter's original and duplicate registration record cards. In the event the holder becomes physically capable of resuming normal voting, he must surrender his voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card to the county clerk or board of election commissioners before the next election.

The holder of a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a nursing home resident's identification card may make application by mail for an official ballot within the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall contain the same information as is included in the form of application for ballot by a physically incapacitated elector prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall also include the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with disabilities card number and except that it need not be sworn to. If an examination of the records discloses that the applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be mailed a ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with physical disabilities, and the manner of voting and returning the ballot shall be the same as that provided in this Article for other vote by mail ballots, except that a statement to be subscribed to by the voter but which need not be sworn to shall be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit prescribed by Section 19-5.

Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 6-28-16.)

(10 ILCS 5/19-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-13)

Sec. 19-13. Any qualified voter who has been admitted to a hospital, nursing home, or rehabilitation center due to an illness or physical injury not more than 14 days before an election shall be entitled to personal delivery of a vote by mail ballot in the hospital, nursing home, or rehabilitation center subject to the following conditions:

(1) The voter completes the Application for Physically Incapacitated Elector as provided in Section 19-3, stating as reasons therein that he is a patient in ............... (name of hospital/home/center), ............... located at, ............... (address of hospital/home/center), ............... (county, city/village), was admitted for ............... (nature of illness or physical injury), on ............... (date of admission), and does not expect to be released from the hospital/home/center on or before the day of election or, if released, is expected to be homebound on the day of the election and unable to travel to the polling place.

(2) The voter's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant completes a Certificate of Attending Health Care Professional in a form substantially as follows:

CERTIFICATE OF ATTENDING HEALTH CARE PROFESSIONAL

I state that I am a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, duly licensed to practice in the State of .........; that .......... is a patient in .......... (name of hospital/home/center), located at ............. (address of hospital/home/center), ................. (county, city/village); that such individual was admitted for ............. (nature of illness or physical injury), on ............ (date of admission); and that I have examined such individual in the State in which I am licensed to practice and do not expect such individual to be released from the hospital/home/center on or before the day of election or, if released, to be able to travel to the polling place on election day.

Under penalties as provided by law pursuant to Section 29-10 of The Election Code, the undersigned certifies that the statements set forth in this certification are true and correct.

(Signature) ...............

(Date licensed) ............

(3) Any person who is registered to vote in the same precinct as the admitted voter or any legal relative of the admitted voter may present such voter's vote by mail ballot application, completed as prescribed in paragraph 1, accompanied by the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's certificate, completed as prescribed in paragraph 2, to the election authority. Such precinct voter or relative shall execute and sign an affidavit furnished by the election authority attesting that he is a registered voter in the same precinct as the admitted voter or that he is a legal relative of the admitted voter and stating the nature of the relationship. Such precinct voter or relative shall further attest that he has been authorized by the admitted voter to obtain his or her vote by mail ballot from the election authority and deliver such ballot to him in the hospital, home, or center.

Upon receipt of the admitted voter's application, physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's certificate, and the affidavit of the precinct voter or the relative, the election authority shall examine the registration records to determine if the applicant is qualified to vote and, if found to be qualified, shall provide the precinct voter or the relative the vote by mail ballot for delivery to the applicant.

Upon receipt of the vote by mail ballot, the admitted voter shall mark the ballot in secret and subscribe to the certifications on the vote by mail ballot return envelope. After depositing the ballot in the return envelope and securely sealing the envelope, such voter shall give the envelope to the precinct voter or the relative who shall deliver it to the election authority in sufficient time for the ballot to be delivered by the election authority to the election authority's central ballot counting location before 7 p.m. on election day.

Upon receipt of the admitted voter's vote by mail ballot, the ballot shall be counted in the manner prescribed in this Article.

(Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 20. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-907)

Sec. 4. Identification card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-907)

Sec. 4. Identification Card.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act, "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to the Secretary of State.

(a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to utilize the same residence address and name on the identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision.

(a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.

(a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of expedited identification card requests received on a given day exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited service shall be refunded to the applicant.

(a-20) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois Identification Card to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person presents a certified copy of his or her birth certificate, social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, and 2 documents proving his or her Illinois residence address. Documents proving residence address may include any official document of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice showing the released person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed certificate of residency form, which may be executed by Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice personnel.

(a-25) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a committed person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person is unable to present a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a Secretary of State prescribed verification form completed by the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, verifying the released person's date of birth and social security number and 2 documents proving his or her Illinois residence address. The verification form must have been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of application for the Illinois Identification Card. Documents proving residence address shall include any official document of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice showing the person's address after release and a Secretary of State prescribed certificate of residency, which may be executed by Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice personnel.

Prior to the expiration of the 90-day period of the limited-term Illinois Identification Card, if the released person submits to the Secretary of State a certified copy of his or her birth certificate and his or her social security card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, a standard Illinois Identification Card shall be issued. A limited-term Illinois Identification Card may not be renewed.

(b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any person who holds a valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible designation of the type and classification of the applicant's disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall include a description of the applicant's disability and any information about the applicant's disability or medical history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.

The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of a physician's determination of disability, a determination of disability from a physician assistant, a determination of disability from an advanced practice registered nurse, or any other documentation of disability whenever any State law requires that a person with a disability provide such documentation of disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is not available to all persons with like disabilities. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person other than the person named on such card to prove that the person named on such card is a person with a disability or for any other purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person named on such card, and the person named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is so used.

An optometrist's determination of a visual disability under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken based upon that medical information.

(c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the Secretary of State.

(c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon which the person becomes 21 years of age.

(c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify military veterans living in this State for the purpose of ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may not issue any other identification card which identifies an occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique characteristics of the identification card holder which is unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.

(c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of State shall designate a space on each original or renewal identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall be available to a person identified as a veteran under subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or separated under honorable conditions.

(d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be issued in every county and applications shall be made available at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.

(e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-907, eff. 7-1-17.)

Section 25. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:

(20 ILCS 301/5-23)

Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program.

(a) Reports of drug overdose.

(1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse shall publish annually a report on drug overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall also provide information on interventions that would be effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose information reported to the Department of Public Health pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code.

(2) The report may include:

(A) Trends in drug overdose death rates.

(B) Trends in emergency room utilization related to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room utilization.

(C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and emergency services and the cost impact of emergency services utilization.

(D) Suggested improvements in data collection.

(E) A description of other interventions effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug overdose.

(F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate the public about unused medication and about how to properly dispose of unused medication, including the number of registered collection receptacles in this State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.

(b) Programs; drug overdose prevention.

(1) The Director may establish a program to provide for the production and publication, in electronic and other formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response literature. The Director may develop and disseminate curricula for use by professionals, organizations, individuals, or committees interested in the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital staff, families and associates of drug users, peace officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to information regarding drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response, literature produced by the Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall provide information and resources for substance abuse treatment.

The Director may establish or authorize programs for prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist.

(2) The Director may provide advice to State and local officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose crisis.

(c) Grants.

(1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, universities, community-based organizations, and faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner the Director prescribes.

(2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the necessity for overdose prevention projects in various settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to develop interventions that will be effective and viable in their local areas.

(3) The Director shall give preference for grants to proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving interventions and responses, provide information to drug users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give preference to proposals that include one or more of the following elements:

(A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a potentially fatal drug overdose.

(B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and response education projects in drug treatment centers, outreach programs, and other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(C) Drug overdose recognition and response training, including rescue breathing, in drug treatment centers and for other organizations that work with, or have access to, drug users and their families and communities.

(D) The production and distribution of targeted or mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and response, the potential dangers of keeping unused prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly dispose of unused prescription drugs.

(E) Prescription and distribution of opioid antagonists.

(F) The institution of education and training projects on drug overdose response and treatment for emergency services and law enforcement personnel.

(G) A system of parent, family, and survivor education and mutual support groups.

(4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the grants under this Section and to fund an evaluation of the programs supported by the grants.

(d) Health care professional prescription of opioid antagonists.

(1) A health care professional who, acting in good faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a position to assist another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person has received the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct.

(3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient receives the patient information specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided by the health care professional or a community-based organization, substance abuse program, or other organization with which the health care professional establishes a written agreement that includes a description of how the organization will provide patient information, how employees or volunteers providing information will be trained, and standards for documenting the provision of patient information to patients. Provision of patient information shall be documented in the patient's medical record or through similar means as determined by agreement between the health care professional and the organization. The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in consultation with statewide organizations representing physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care professionals, community-based organizations, substance abuse programs, and other organizations training materials in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient information.

(4) For the purposes of this subsection:

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority, an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, may be in a position to assist another individual during an overdose and who has received patient information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist.

"Patient information" includes information provided to the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist; and other issues as necessary.

(e) Drug overdose response policy.

(1) Every State and local government agency that employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A State or local government agency that employs a fireman as defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical services shall be exempt from this subsection.

(2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which responds to requests for emergency services or transports patients between hospitals in emergency situations must possess opioid antagonists.

(3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid antagonists and training programs on the administration of opioid antagonists.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 9-19-16.)

Section 30. The Department of Central Management Services Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 405-105 as follows:

(20 ILCS 405/405-105) (was 20 ILCS 405/64.1)

Sec. 405-105. Fidelity, surety, property, and casualty insurance. The Department shall establish and implement a program to coordinate the handling of all fidelity, surety, property, and casualty insurance exposures of the State and the departments, divisions, agencies, branches, and universities of the State. In performing this responsibility, the Department shall have the power and duty to do the following:

(1) Develop and maintain loss and exposure data on all State property.

(2) Study the feasibility of establishing a self-insurance plan for State property and prepare estimates of the costs of reinsurance for risks beyond the realistic limits of the self-insurance.

(3) Prepare a plan for centralizing the purchase of property and casualty insurance on State property under a master policy or policies and purchase the insurance contracted for as provided in the Illinois Purchasing Act.

(4) Evaluate existing provisions for fidelity bonds required of State employees and recommend changes that are appropriate commensurate with risk experience and the determinations respecting self-insurance or reinsurance so as to permit reduction of costs without loss of coverage.

(5) Investigate procedures for inclusion of school districts, public community college districts, and other units of local government in programs for the centralized purchase of insurance.

(6) Implement recommendations of the State Property Insurance Study Commission that the Department finds necessary or desirable in the performance of its powers and duties under this Section to achieve efficient and comprehensive risk management.

(7) Prepare and, in the discretion of the Director, implement a plan providing for the purchase of public liability insurance or for self-insurance for public liability or for a combination of purchased insurance and self-insurance for public liability (i) covering the State and drivers of motor vehicles owned, leased, or controlled by the State of Illinois pursuant to the provisions and limitations contained in the Illinois Vehicle Code, (ii) covering other public liability exposures of the State and its employees within the scope of their employment, and (iii) covering drivers of motor vehicles not owned, leased, or controlled by the State but used by a State employee on State business, in excess of liability covered by an insurance policy obtained by the owner of the motor vehicle or in excess of the dollar amounts that the Department shall determine to be reasonable. Any contract of insurance let under this Law shall be by bid in accordance with the procedure set forth in the Illinois Purchasing Act. Any provisions for self-insurance shall conform to subdivision (11).

The term "employee" as used in this subdivision (7) and in subdivision (11) means a person while in the employ of the State who is a member of the staff or personnel of a State agency, bureau, board, commission, committee, department, university, or college or who is a State officer, elected official, commissioner, member of or ex officio member of a State agency, bureau, board, commission, committee, department, university, or college, or a member of the National Guard while on active duty pursuant to orders of the Governor of the State of Illinois, or any other person while using a licensed motor vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the State of Illinois with the authorization of the State of Illinois, provided the actual use of the motor vehicle is within the scope of that authorization and within the course of State service.

Subsequent to payment of a claim on behalf of an employee pursuant to this Section and after reasonable advance written notice to the employee, the Director may exclude the employee from future coverage or limit the coverage under the plan if (i) the Director determines that the claim resulted from an incident in which the employee was grossly negligent or had engaged in willful and wanton misconduct or (ii) the Director determines that the employee is no longer an acceptable risk based on a review of prior accidents in which the employee was at fault and for which payments were made pursuant to this Section.

The Director is authorized to promulgate administrative rules that may be necessary to establish and administer the plan.

Appropriations from the Road Fund shall be used to pay auto liability claims and related expenses involving employees of the Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Police, and the Secretary of State.

(8) Charge, collect, and receive from all other agencies of the State government fees or monies equivalent to the cost of purchasing the insurance.

(9) Establish, through the Director, charges for risk management services rendered to State agencies by the Department. The State agencies so charged shall reimburse the Department by vouchers drawn against their respective appropriations. The reimbursement shall be determined by the Director as amounts sufficient to reimburse the Department for expenditures incurred in rendering the service.

The Department shall charge the employing State agency or university for workers' compensation payments for temporary total disability paid to any employee after the employee has received temporary total disability payments for 120 days if the employee's treating physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant has issued a release to return to work with restrictions and the employee is able to perform modified duty work but the employing State agency or university does not return the employee to work at modified duty. Modified duty shall be duties assigned that may or may not be delineated as part of the duties regularly performed by the employee. Modified duties shall be assigned within the prescribed restrictions established by the treating physician and the physician who performed the independent medical examination. The amount of all reimbursements shall be deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund which is hereby created as a revolving fund in the State treasury. In addition to any other purpose authorized by law, moneys in the Fund shall be used, subject to appropriation, to pay these or other temporary total disability claims of employees of State agencies and universities.

Beginning with fiscal year 1996, all amounts recovered by the Department through subrogation in workers' compensation and workers' occupational disease cases shall be deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund created under this subdivision (9).

(10) Establish rules, procedures, and forms to be used by State agencies in the administration and payment of workers' compensation claims. For claims filed prior to July 1, 2013, the Department shall initially evaluate and determine the compensability of any injury that is the subject of a workers' compensation claim and provide for the administration and payment of such a claim for all State agencies. For claims filed on or after July 1, 2013, the Department shall retain responsibility for certain administrative payments including, but not limited to, payments to the private vendor contracted to perform services under subdivision (10b) of this Section, payments related to travel expenses for employees of the Office of the Attorney General, and payments to internal Department staff responsible for the oversight and management of any contract awarded pursuant to subdivision (10b) of this Section. Through December 31, 2012, the Director may delegate to any agency with the agreement of the agency head the responsibility for evaluation, administration, and payment of that agency's claims. Neither the Department nor the private vendor contracted to perform services under subdivision (10b) of this Section shall be responsible for providing workers' compensation services to the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority or to State universities that maintain self-funded workers' compensation liability programs.

(10a) By April 1 of each year prior to calendar year 2013, the Director must report and provide information to the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board concerning the status of the State workers' compensation program for the next fiscal year. Information that the Director must provide to the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board includes, but is not limited to, documents, reports of negotiations, bid invitations, requests for proposals, specifications, copies of proposed and final contracts or agreements, and any other materials concerning contracts or agreements for the program. By the first of each month prior to calendar year 2013, the Director must provide updated, and any new, information to the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board until the State workers' compensation program for the next fiscal year is determined.

(10b) No later than January 1, 2013, the chief procurement officer appointed under paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Illinois Procurement Code (hereinafter "chief procurement officer"), in consultation with the Department of Central Management Services, shall procure one or more private vendors to administer the program providing payments for workers' compensation liability with respect to the employees of all State agencies. The chief procurement officer may procure a single contract applicable to all State agencies or multiple contracts applicable to one or more State agencies. If the chief procurement officer procures a single contract applicable to all State agencies, then the Department of Central Management Services shall be designated as the agency that enters into the contract and shall be responsible for the contract. If the chief procurement officer procures multiple contracts applicable to one or more State agencies, each agency to which the contract applies shall be designated as the agency that shall enter into the contract and shall be responsible for the contract. If the chief procurement officer procures contracts applicable to an individual State agency, the agency subject to the contract shall be designated as the agency responsible for the contract.

(10c) The procurement of private vendors for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees is subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code and administration by the chief procurement officer.

(10d) Contracts for the procurement of private vendors for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees shall be based upon, but limited to, the following criteria: (i) administrative cost, (ii) service capabilities of the vendor, and (iii) the compensation (including premiums, fees, or other charges). A vendor for the administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees shall provide services, including, but not limited to:

(A) providing a web-based case management system and provide access to the Office of the Attorney General;

(B) ensuring claims adjusters are available to provide testimony or information as requested by the Office of the Attorney General;

(C) establishing a preferred provider program for all State agencies and facilities; and

(D) authorizing the payment of medical bills at the preferred provider discount rate.

(10e) By September 15, 2012, the Department of Central Management Services shall prepare a plan to effectuate the transfer of responsibility and administration of the workers' compensation program for State employees to the selected private vendors. The Department shall submit a copy of the plan to the General Assembly.

(11) Any plan for public liability self-insurance implemented under this Section shall provide that (i) the Department shall attempt to settle and may settle any public liability claim filed against the State of Illinois or any public liability claim filed against a State employee on the basis of an occurrence in the course of the employee's State employment; (ii) any settlement of such a claim is not subject to fiscal year limitations and must be approved by the Director and, in cases of settlements exceeding $100,000, by the Governor; and (iii) a settlement of any public liability claim against the State or a State employee shall require an unqualified release of any right of action against the State and the employee for acts within the scope of the employee's employment giving rise to the claim.

Whenever and to the extent that a State employee operates a motor vehicle or engages in other activity covered by self-insurance under this Section, the State of Illinois shall defend, indemnify, and hold harmless the employee against any claim in tort filed against the employee for acts or omissions within the scope of the employee's employment in any proper judicial forum and not settled pursuant to this subdivision (11), provided that this obligation of the State of Illinois shall not exceed a maximum liability of $2,000,000 for any single occurrence in connection with the operation of a motor vehicle or $100,000 per person per occurrence for any other single occurrence, or $500,000 for any single occurrence in connection with the provision of medical care by a licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant employee.

Any claims against the State of Illinois under a self-insurance plan that are not settled pursuant to this subdivision (11) shall be heard and determined by the Court of Claims and may not be filed or adjudicated in any other forum. The Attorney General of the State of Illinois or the Attorney General's designee shall be the attorney with respect to all public liability self-insurance claims that are not settled pursuant to this subdivision (11) and therefore result in litigation. The payment of any award of the Court of Claims entered against the State relating to any public liability self-insurance claim shall act as a release against any State employee involved in the occurrence.

(12) Administer a plan the purpose of which is to make payments on final settlements or final judgments in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act. The plan shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund specifically designated for that purpose, except that indemnification expenses for employees of the Department of Transportation, the Illinois State Police, and the Secretary of State shall be paid from the Road Fund. The term "employee" as used in this subdivision (12) has the same meaning as under subsection (b) of Section 1 of the State Employee Indemnification Act. Subject to sufficient appropriation, the Director shall approve payment of any claim, without regard to fiscal year limitations, presented to the Director that is supported by a final settlement or final judgment when the Attorney General and the chief officer of the public body against whose employee the claim or cause of action is asserted certify to the Director that the claim is in accordance with the State Employee Indemnification Act and that they approve of the payment. In no event shall an amount in excess of $150,000 be paid from this plan to or for the benefit of any claimant.

(13) Administer a plan the purpose of which is to make payments on final settlements or final judgments for employee wage claims in situations where there was an appropriation relevant to the wage claim, the fiscal year and lapse period have expired, and sufficient funds were available to pay the claim. The plan shall be funded through appropriations from the General Revenue Fund specifically designated for that purpose.

Subject to sufficient appropriation, the Director is authorized to pay any wage claim presented to the Director that is supported by a final settlement or final judgment when the chief officer of the State agency employing the claimant certifies to the Director that the claim is a valid wage claim and that the fiscal year and lapse period have expired. Payment for claims that are properly submitted and certified as valid by the Director shall include interest accrued at the rate of 7% per annum from the forty-fifth day after the claims are received by the Department or 45 days from the date on which the amount of payment is agreed upon, whichever is later, until the date the claims are submitted to the Comptroller for payment. When the Attorney General has filed an appearance in any proceeding concerning a wage claim settlement or judgment, the Attorney General shall certify to the Director that the wage claim is valid before any payment is made. In no event shall an amount in excess of $150,000 be paid from this plan to or for the benefit of any claimant.

Nothing in Public Act 84-961 shall be construed to affect in any manner the jurisdiction of the Court of Claims concerning wage claims made against the State of Illinois.

(14) Prepare and, in the discretion of the Director, implement a program for self-insurance for official fidelity and surety bonds for officers and employees as authorized by the Official Bond Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 35. The Regional Integrated Behavioral Health Networks Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1340/20)

Sec. 20. Steering Committee and Networks.

(a) To achieve these goals, the Department of Human Services shall convene a Regional Integrated Behavioral Health Networks Steering Committee (hereinafter "Steering Committee") comprised of State agencies involved in the provision, regulation, or financing of health, mental health, substance abuse, rehabilitation, and other services. These include, but shall not be limited to, the following agencies:

(1) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services.

(2) The Department of Human Services and its Divisions of Mental Illness and Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Services.

(3) The Department of Public Health, including its Center for Rural Health.

The Steering Committee shall include a representative from each Network. The agencies of the Steering Committee are directed to work collaboratively to provide consultation, advice, and leadership to the Networks in facilitating communication within and across multiple agencies and in removing regulatory barriers that may prevent Networks from accomplishing the goals. The Steering Committee collectively or through one of its member Agencies shall also provide technical assistance to the Networks.

(b) There also shall be convened Networks in each of the Department of Human Services' regions comprised of representatives of community stakeholders represented in the Network, including when available, but not limited to, relevant trade and professional associations representing hospitals, community providers, public health care, hospice care, long term care, law enforcement, emergency medical service, physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, and physician assistants trained in psychiatry; an organization that advocates on behalf of federally qualified health centers, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons suffering with mental illness and substance abuse disorders, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons with disabilities, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons who live in rural areas, an organization that advocates on behalf of persons who live in medically underserved areas; and others designated by the Steering Committee or the Networks. A member from each Network may choose a representative who may serve on the Steering Committee.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 40. The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Sections 5.1, 14, and 15.4 as follows:

(20 ILCS 1705/5.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-5.1)

Sec. 5.1. The Department shall develop, by rule, the procedures and standards by which it shall approve medications for clinical use in its facilities. A list of those drugs approved pursuant to these procedures shall be distributed to all Department facilities.

Drugs not listed by the Department may not be administered in facilities under the jurisdiction of the Department, provided that an unlisted drug may be administered as part of research with the prior written consent of the Secretary specifying the nature of the permitted use and the physicians authorized to prescribe the drug. Drugs, as used in this Section, mean psychotropic and narcotic drugs.

No physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant in the Department shall sign a prescription in blank, nor permit blank prescription forms to circulate out of his possession or control.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 1705/14) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-14)

Sec. 14. Chester Mental Health Center. To maintain and operate a facility for the care, custody, and treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities hereinafter designated, to be known as the Chester Mental Health Center.

Within the Chester Mental Health Center there shall be confined the following classes of persons, whose history, in the opinion of the Department, discloses dangerous or violent tendencies and who, upon examination under the direction of the Department, have been found a fit subject for confinement in that facility:

(a) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been acquitted by reason of insanity as provided in Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(b) Any male person who is charged with the commission of a crime but has been found unfit under Article 104 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(c) Any male person with mental illness or developmental disabilities or person in need of mental treatment now confined under the supervision of the Department or hereafter admitted to any facility thereof or committed thereto by any court of competent jurisdiction.

If and when it shall appear to the facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center that it is necessary to confine persons in order to maintain security or provide for the protection and safety of recipients and staff, the Chester Mental Health Center may confine all persons on a unit to their rooms. This period of confinement shall not exceed 10 hours in a 24 hour period, including the recipient's scheduled hours of sleep, unless approved by the Secretary of the Department. During the period of confinement, the persons confined shall be observed at least every 15 minutes. A record shall be kept of the observations. This confinement shall not be considered seclusion as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of handcuffs on a recipient for a period not to exceed 10 minutes when necessary in the course of transport of the recipient within the facility to maintain custody or security. Use of handcuffs is subject to the provisions of Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing each instance in which handcuffs are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of handcuffs, and time of application of handcuffs and time of release therefrom. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, and the Department to examine and copy such record upon request.

The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center may authorize the temporary use of transport devices on a civil recipient when necessary in the course of transport of the civil recipient outside the facility to maintain custody or security. The decision whether to use any transport devices shall be reviewed and approved on an individualized basis by a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant based upon a determination of the civil recipient's: (1) history of violence, (2) history of violence during transports, (3) history of escapes and escape attempts, (4) history of trauma, (5) history of incidents of restraint or seclusion and use of involuntary medication, (6) current functioning level and medical status, and (7) prior experience during similar transports, and the length, duration, and purpose of the transport. The least restrictive transport device consistent with the individual's need shall be used. Staff transporting the individual shall be trained in the use of the transport devices, recognizing and responding to a person in distress, and shall observe and monitor the individual while being transported. The facility shall keep a monthly record listing all transports, including those transports for which use of transport devices was not sought, those for which use of transport devices was sought but denied, and each instance in which transport devices are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of transport devices, time of application of transport devices, time of release from those devices, and any adverse events. The facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, and the Department to examine and copy the record upon request. This use of transport devices shall not be considered restraint as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. For the purpose of this Section "transport device" means ankle cuffs, handcuffs, waist chains or wrist-waist devices designed to restrict an individual's range of motion while being transported. These devices must be approved by the Division of Mental Health, used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, and used only by qualified staff members who have completed all training required to be eligible to transport patients and all other required training relating to the safe use and application of transport devices, including recognizing and responding to signs of distress in an individual whose movement is being restricted by a transport device.

If and when it shall appear to the satisfaction of the Department that any person confined in the Chester Mental Health Center is not or has ceased to be such a source of danger to the public as to require his subjection to the regimen of the center, the Department is hereby authorized to transfer such person to any State facility for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, as the nature of the individual case may require.

Subject to the provisions of this Section, the Department, except where otherwise provided by law, shall, with respect to the management, conduct and control of the Chester Mental Health Center and the discipline, custody and treatment of the persons confined therein, have and exercise the same rights and powers as are vested by law in the Department with respect to any and all of the State facilities for treatment of persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with developmental disabilities, and the recipients thereof, and shall be subject to the same duties as are imposed by law upon the Department with respect to such facilities and the recipients thereof.

The Department may elect to place persons who have been ordered by the court to be detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act in a distinct portion of the Chester Mental Health Center. The persons so placed shall be separated and shall not comingle with the recipients of the Chester Mental Health Center. The portion of Chester Mental Health Center that is used for the persons detained under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a part of the mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The changes added to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-356, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 1705/15.4)

Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit direct care staff to administer medications.

(a) This Section applies to (i) all programs for persons with a developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or fewer that are funded or licensed by the Department of Human Services and that distribute or administer medications and (ii) all intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities with 16 beds or fewer that are licensed by the Department of Public Health. The Department of Human Services shall develop a training program for authorized direct care staff to administer medications under the supervision and monitoring of a registered professional nurse. This training program shall be developed in consultation with professional associations representing (i) physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) registered professional nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.

(b) For the purposes of this Section:

"Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons who have successfully completed a medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a nurse-trainer. This authorization is specific to an individual receiving service in a specific agency and does not transfer to another agency.

"Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes, utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged specifically for an identified individual.

"Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer. Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully completed a Department-approved advanced training program specific to insulin administration developed in consultation with professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse, prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or (ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed to do so by the registered nurse.

"Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized, competency-based medication administration train-the-trainer program provided by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a Department of Human Services master nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the supervision and monitoring of the nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, and a curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal aspects of supervising those administering medications.

"Self-administration of medications" means an individual administers his or her own medications. To be considered capable to self-administer their own medication, individuals must, at a minimum, be able to identify their medication by size, shape, or color, know when they should take the medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each time.

"Training program" means a standardized medication administration training program approved by the Department of Human Services and conducted by a registered professional nurse for the purpose of training persons employed or under contract to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer medications and provide self-administration of medication training to individuals under the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, curriculum overview, including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized competency-based evaluations on administration of medications and self-administration of medication training programs.

(c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care staff by nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this subsection.

(1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to administer medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the following for each individual to whom medication will be administered by non-licensed direct care staff:

(A) An assessment of the individual's health history and physical and mental status.

(B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.

(2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall meet the following criteria:

(A) Be 18 years of age or older.

(B) Have completed high school or have a high school equivalency certificate.

(C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.

(D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and Safety component of a Department of Human Services authorized direct care staff training program.

(E) Have successfully completed the training program, pass the written portion of the comprehensive exam, and score 100% on the competency-based assessment specific to the individual and his or her medications.

(F) Have received additional competency-based assessment by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by the nurse-trainer whenever a change of medication occurs or a new individual that requires medication administration enters the program.

(3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated by a nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse. Any necessary retraining shall be to the extent that is necessary to ensure competency of the authorized direct care staff to administer medication.

(4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer medication shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the registered professional nurse, the authorized direct care staff is no longer competent to administer medication.

(5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an individual's health status at least annually or more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse.

(d) Medication self-administration shall meet the following requirements:

(1) As part of the normalization process, in order for each individual to attain the highest possible level of independent functioning, all individuals shall be permitted to participate in their total health care program. This program shall include, but not be limited to, individual training in preventive health and self-medication procedures.

(A) Every program shall adopt written policies and procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining preventative health and self-medication skills in consultation with a registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

(B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine their ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer through the use of the Department's required, standardized screening and assessment instruments.

(C) When the results of the screening and assessment indicate an individual not to be capable to self-administer his or her own medications, programs shall be developed in consultation with the Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team to provide individuals with self-medication administration.

(2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent to self-administer medications if:

(A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant; and

(B) approved to self-administer medication by the individual's Community Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse.

(e) Quality Assurance.

(1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician assistant, or pharmacist shall review the following for all individuals:

(A) Medication orders.

(B) Medication labels, including medications listed on the medication administration record for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure the labels match the orders issued by the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(C) Medication administration records for persons who are not self-medicating to ensure that the records are completed appropriately for:

(i) medication administered as prescribed;

(ii) refusal by the individual; and

(iii) full signatures provided for all initials used.

(2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be done more frequently at the discretion of the registered professional nurse or advanced practice registered nurse.

(3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and data collection for the purpose of monitoring and recommending corrective action shall be conducted within 7 days and included in the required annual review.

(f) Programs using authorized direct care staff to administer medications are responsible for documenting and maintaining records on the training that is completed.

(g) The absence of this training program constitutes a threat to the public interest, safety, and welfare and necessitates emergency rulemaking by the Departments of Human Services and Public Health under Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated authority to administer medications pursuant to the provisions of this Section shall be given additional education and testing to meet criteria for delegation authority to administer medications. Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify as an authorized direct care staff after initial training and testing must within 3 months be given another opportunity for retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails to meet criteria for delegated authority to administer medication, including, but not limited to, failure of the written test on 2 occasions shall be given consideration for shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee shall be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time period following initial testing. Refusal to complete training and testing required by this Section may be grounds for immediate dismissal.

(i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to administer medication shall be subject to suspension or discharge for errors resulting from the staff person's acts or omissions when performing the functions unless the staff person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton conduct. Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede paragraph (4) of subsection (c).

(j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistant shall be on duty or on call at all times in any program covered by this Section.

(k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining liability insurance for any program covered by this Section.

(l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as authorized direct care staff pursuant to this Section shall be granted consideration for a one-time additional salary differential. The Department shall determine and provide the necessary funding for the differential in the base. This subsection (l) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2000.

(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-901, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 45. The Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2105-17 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2105/2105-17)

Sec. 2105-17. Volunteer licenses.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, an optometrist licensed under the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, and a nurse or advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act. The Department may expand this definition by rule.

"Volunteer practice" means the practice of a licensed health care professional for the benefit of an individual or the public and without compensation for the health care services provided.

(b) The Department may grant a volunteer license to a health care professional who:

(1) meets all requirements of the State licensing Act that applies to his or her health care profession and the rules adopted under the Act; and

(2) agrees to engage in the volunteer practice of his or her health care profession in a free medical clinic, as defined in the Good Samaritan Act, or in a public health clinic, as defined in Section 6-101 of the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunities Act, and to not practice for compensation.

(c) A volunteer license shall be granted in accordance with the licensing Act that applies to the health care professional's given health care profession, and the licensure fee shall be set by rule in accordance with subsection (f).

(d) No health care professional shall hold a non-volunteer license in a health care profession and a volunteer license in that profession at the same time. In the event that the health care professional obtains a volunteer license in the profession for which he or she holds a non-volunteer license, that non-volunteer license shall automatically be placed in inactive status. In the event that a health care professional obtains a non-volunteer license in the profession for which he or she holds a volunteer license, the volunteer license shall be placed in inactive status. Practicing on an expired volunteer license constitutes the unlicensed practice of the health care professional's profession.

(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to waive or modify any statute, rule, or regulation concerning the licensure or practice of any health care profession. A health care professional who holds a volunteer license shall be subject to all statutes, rules, and regulations governing his or her profession. The Department shall waive the licensure fee for the first 500 volunteer licenses issued and may by rule provide for a fee waiver or fee reduction that shall apply to all licenses issued after the initial 500.

(f) The Department shall determine by rule the total number of volunteer licenses to be issued. The Department shall file proposed rules implementing this Section within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-659, eff. 6-23-14.)

Section 50. The Department of Public Health Act is amended by changing Sections 7 and 8.2 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2305/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.05)

Sec. 7. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall adopt rules requiring that upon death of a person who had or is suspected of having an infectious or communicable disease that could be transmitted through contact with the person's body or bodily fluids, the body shall be labeled "Infection Hazard", or with an equivalent term to inform persons having subsequent contact with the body, including any funeral director or embalmer, to take suitable precautions. Such rules shall require that the label shall be prominently displayed on and affixed to the outer wrapping or covering of the body if the body is wrapped or covered in any manner. Responsibility for such labeling shall lie with the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant who certifies death, or if the death occurs in a health care facility, with such staff member as may be designated by the administrator of the facility. The Department may adopt rules providing for the safe disposal of human remains. To the extent feasible without endangering the public's health, the Department shall respect and accommodate the religious beliefs of individuals in implementing this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2305/8.2)

Sec. 8.2. Osteoporosis Prevention and Education Program.

(a) The Department of Public Health, utilizing available federal funds, State funds appropriated for that purpose, or other available funding as provided for in this Section, shall establish, promote, and maintain an Osteoporosis Prevention and Education Program to promote public awareness of the causes of osteoporosis, options for prevention, the value of early detection, and possible treatments (including the benefits and risks of those treatments). The Department may accept, for that purpose, any special grant of money, services, or property from the federal government or any of its agencies or from any foundation, organization, or medical school.

(b) The program shall include the following:

(1) Development of a public education and outreach campaign to promote osteoporosis prevention and education, including, but not limited to, the following subjects:

(A) The cause and nature of the disease.

(B) Risk factors.

(C) The role of hysterectomy.

(D) Prevention of osteoporosis, including nutrition, diet, and physical exercise.

(E) Diagnostic procedures and appropriate indications for their use.

(F) Hormone replacement, including benefits and risks.

(G) Environmental safety and injury prevention.

(H) Availability of osteoporosis diagnostic treatment services in the community.

(2) Development of educational materials to be made available for consumers, particularly targeted to high-risk groups, through local health departments, local physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants, other providers (including, but not limited to, health maintenance organizations, hospitals, and clinics), and women's organizations.

(3) Development of professional education programs for health care providers to assist them in understanding research findings and the subjects set forth in paragraph (1).

(4) Development and maintenance of a list of current providers of specialized services for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. Dissemination of the list shall be accompanied by a description of diagnostic procedures, appropriate indications for their use, and a cautionary statement about the current status of osteoporosis research, prevention, and treatment. The statement shall also indicate that the Department does not license, certify, or in any other way approve osteoporosis programs or centers in this State.

(c) The State Board of Health shall serve as an advisory board to the Department with specific respect to the prevention and education activities related to osteoporosis described in this Section. The State Board of Health shall assist the Department in implementing this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 55. The Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Sections 2310-145, 2310-397, 2310-410, 2310-600, 2310-677, and 2310-690 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-145)

Sec. 2310-145. Registry of health care professionals. The Department of Public Health shall maintain a registry of all active-status health care professionals, including nurses, nurse practitioners, advanced practice registered nurses, physicians, physician assistants, psychologists, professional counselors, clinical professional counselors, and pharmacists.

The registry must consist of information shared between the Department of Public Health and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation via a secure communication link. The registry must be updated on a quarterly basis.

The registry shall be accessed in the event of an act of bioterrorism or other public health emergency or for the planning for the possibility of such an event.

(Source: P.A. 96-377, eff. 1-1-10.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-397) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.90)

Sec. 2310-397. Prostate and testicular cancer program.

(a) The Department, subject to appropriation or other available funding, shall conduct a program to promote awareness and early detection of prostate and testicular cancer. The program may include, but need not be limited to:

(1) Dissemination of information regarding the incidence of prostate and testicular cancer, the risk factors associated with prostate and testicular cancer, and the benefits of early detection and treatment.

(2) Promotion of information and counseling about treatment options.

(3) Establishment and promotion of referral services and screening programs.

Beginning July 1, 2004, the program must include the development and dissemination, through print and broadcast media, of public service announcements that publicize the importance of prostate cancer screening for men over age 40.

(b) Subject to appropriation or other available funding, a Prostate Cancer Screening Program shall be established in the Department of Public Health.

(1) The Program shall apply to the following persons and entities:

(A) uninsured and underinsured men 50 years of age and older;

(B) uninsured and underinsured men between 40 and 50 years of age who are at high risk for prostate cancer, upon the advice of a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant or upon the request of the patient; and

(C) non-profit organizations providing assistance to persons described in subparagraphs (A) and (B).

(2) Any entity funded by the Program shall coordinate with other local providers of prostate cancer screening, diagnostic, follow-up, education, and advocacy services to avoid duplication of effort. Any entity funded by the Program shall comply with any applicable State and federal standards regarding prostate cancer screening.

(3) Administrative costs of the Department shall not exceed 10% of the funds allocated to the Program. Indirect costs of the entities funded by this Program shall not exceed 12%. The Department shall define "indirect costs" in accordance with applicable State and federal law.

(4) Any entity funded by the Program shall collect data and maintain records that are determined by the Department to be necessary to facilitate the Department's ability to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the entities and the Program. Commencing with the Program's second year of operation, the Department shall submit an Annual Report to the General Assembly and the Governor. The report shall describe the activities and effectiveness of the Program and shall include, but not be limited to, the following types of information regarding those served by the Program:

(A) the number; and

(B) the ethnic, geographic, and age breakdown.

(5) The Department or any entity funded by the Program shall collect personal and medical information necessary to administer the Program from any individual applying for services under the Program. The information shall be confidential and shall not be disclosed other than for purposes directly connected with the administration of the Program or except as otherwise provided by law or pursuant to prior written consent of the subject of the information.

(6) The Department or any entity funded by the program may disclose the confidential information to medical personnel and fiscal intermediaries of the State to the extent necessary to administer the Program, and to other State public health agencies or medical researchers if the confidential information is necessary to carry out the duties of those agencies or researchers in the investigation, control, or surveillance of prostate cancer.

(c) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the Prostate Cancer Screening Program in accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-87, eff. 1-1-14; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-410) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.42)

Sec. 2310-410. Sickle cell disease. To conduct a public information campaign for physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, hospitals, health facilities, public health departments, and the general public on sickle cell disease, methods of care, and treatment modalities available; to identify and catalogue sickle cell resources in this State for distribution and referral purposes; and to coordinate services with the established programs, including State, federal, and voluntary groups.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-600)

Sec. 2310-600. Advance directive information.

(a) The Department of Public Health shall prepare and publish the summary of advance directives law, as required by the federal Patient Self-Determination Act, and related forms. Publication may be limited to the World Wide Web. The summary required under this subsection (a) must include the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.

(b) The Department of Public Health shall publish Spanish language versions of the following:

(1) The statutory Living Will Declaration form.

(2) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Health Care.

(3) The statutory Declaration of Mental Health Treatment Form.

(4) The summary of advance directives law in Illinois.

(5) The Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.

Publication may be limited to the World Wide Web.

(b-5) In consultation with a statewide professional organization representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, statewide organizations representing physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, nursing homes, registered professional nurses, and emergency medical systems, and a statewide organization representing hospitals, the Department of Public Health shall develop and publish a uniform form for practitioner cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or life-sustaining treatment orders that may be utilized in all settings. The form shall meet the published minimum requirements to nationally be considered a practitioner orders for life-sustaining treatment form, or POLST, and may be referred to as the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form. This form does not replace a physician's or other practitioner's authority to make a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order.

(c) (Blank).

(d) The Department of Public Health shall publish the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form reflecting the changes made by this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly no later than January 1, 2015.

(Source: P.A. 98-1110, eff. 8-26-14; 99-319, eff. 1-1-16; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-677)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2019)

Sec. 2310-677. Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome Advisory Committee.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome" or "NAS" means various adverse conditions that occur in a newborn infant who was exposed to addictive or prescription drugs while in the mother's womb.

(b) There is created the Advisory Committee on Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome. The Advisory Committee shall consist of up to 10 members appointed by the Director of Public Health. The Director shall make the appointments within 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly. Members shall receive no compensation for their services. The members of the Advisory Committee shall represent different racial, ethnic, and geographic backgrounds and consist of:

(1) at least one member representing a statewide association of hospitals;

(2) at least one member representing a statewide organization of pediatricians;

(3) at least one member representing a statewide organization of obstetricians;

(4) at least one member representing a statewide organization that advocates for the health of mothers and infants;

(5) at least one member representing a statewide organization of licensed physicians;

(6) at least one member who is a licensed practical nurse, registered professional nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse with expertise in the treatment of newborns in neonatal intensive care units;

(7) at least one member representing a local or regional public health agency; and

(8) at least one member with expertise in the treatment of drug dependency and addiction.

(c) In addition to the membership in subsection (a) of this Section, the following persons or their designees shall serve as ex officio members of the Advisory Committee: the Director of Public Health, the Secretary of Human Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Director of Children and Family Services. The Director of Public Health, or his or her designee, shall serve as Chair of the Committee.

(d) The Advisory Committee shall meet at the call of the Chair. The Committee shall meet at least 3 times each year and its initial meeting shall take place within 120 days after the effective date of this Act. The Advisory Committee shall advise and assist the Department to:

(1) develop an appropriate standard clinical definition of "NAS";

(2) develop a uniform process of identifying NAS;

(3) develop protocols for training hospital personnel in implementing an appropriate and uniform process for identifying and treating NAS;

(4) identify and develop options for reporting NAS data to the Department by using existing or new data reporting options; and

(5) make recommendations to the Department on evidence-based guidelines and programs to improve the outcomes of pregnancies with respect to NAS.

(e) The Advisory Committee shall provide an annual report of its activities and recommendations to the Director, the General Assembly, and the Governor by March 31 of each year beginning in 2016. The final report of the Advisory Committee shall be submitted by March 31, 2019.

(f) This Section is repealed on June 30, 2019.

(Source: P.A. 99-320, eff. 8-7-15.)

(20 ILCS 2310/2310-690)

Sec. 2310-690. Cytomegalovirus public education.

(a) In this Section:

"CMV" means cytomegalovirus.

"Health care professional and provider" means any physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, hospital facility, or other person that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

(b) The Department shall develop or approve and publish informational materials for women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants regarding:

(1) the incidence of CMV;

(2) the transmission of CMV to pregnant women and women who may become pregnant;

(3) birth defects caused by congenital CMV;

(4) methods of diagnosing congenital CMV; and

(5) available preventive measures to avoid the infection of women who are pregnant or may become pregnant.

(c) The Department shall publish the information required under subsection (b) on its Internet website.

(d) The Department shall publish information to:

(1) educate women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants about CMV; and

(2) raise awareness of CMV among health care professionals and providers who provide care to expectant mothers or infants.

(e) The Department may solicit and accept the assistance of any relevant health care professional associations or community resources, including faith-based resources, to promote education about CMV under this Section.

(f) If a newborn infant fails the 2 initial hearing screenings in the hospital, then the hospital performing that screening shall provide to the parents of the newborn infant information regarding: (i) birth defects caused by congenital CMV; (ii) testing opportunities and options for CMV, including the opportunity to test for CMV before leaving the hospital; and (iii) early intervention services. Health care professionals and providers may, but are not required to, use the materials developed by the Department for distribution to parents of newborn infants.

(Source: P.A. 99-424, eff. 1-1-16; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-26.)

Section 60. The Community Health Worker Advisory Board Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2335/10)

Sec. 10. Advisory Board.

(a) There is created the Advisory Board on Community Health Workers. The Board shall consist of 16 members appointed by the Director of Public Health. The Director shall make the appointments to the Board within 90 days after the effective date of this Act. The members of the Board shall represent different racial and ethnic backgrounds and have the qualifications as follows:

(1) four members who currently serve as community health workers in Cook County, one of whom shall have served as a health insurance marketplace navigator;

(2) two members who currently serve as community health workers in DuPage, Kane, Lake, or Will County;

(3) one member who currently serves as a community health worker in Bond, Calhoun, Clinton, Jersey, Macoupin, Madison, Monroe, Montgomery, Randolph, St. Clair, or Washington County;

(4) one member who currently serves as a community health worker in any other county in the State;

(5) one member who is a physician licensed to practice medicine in Illinois;

(6) one member who is a physician assistant;

(7) one member who is a licensed nurse or advanced practice registered nurse;

(8) one member who is a licensed social worker, counselor, or psychologist;

(9) one member who currently employs community health workers;

(10) one member who is a health policy advisor with experience in health workforce policy;

(11) one member who is a public health professional with experience with community health policy; and

(12) one representative of a community college, university, or educational institution that provides training to community health workers.

(b) In addition, the following persons or their designees shall serve as ex officio, non-voting members of the Board: the Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board, the Director of Children and Family Services, the Director of Aging, the Director of Public Health, the Director of Employment Security, the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Secretary of Human Services.

(c) The voting members of the Board shall select a chairperson from the voting members of the Board. The Board shall consult with additional experts as needed. Members of the Board shall serve without compensation. The Department shall provide administrative and staff support to the Board. The meetings of the Board are subject to the provisions of the Open Meetings Act.

(d) The Board shall consider the core competencies of a community health worker, including skills and areas of knowledge that are essential to bringing about expanded health and wellness in diverse communities and reducing health disparities. As relating to members of communities and health teams, the core competencies for effective community health workers may include, but are not limited to:

(1) outreach methods and strategies;

(2) client and community assessment;

(3) effective community-based and participatory methods, including research;

(4) culturally competent communication and care;

(5) health education for behavior change;

(6) support, advocacy, and health system navigation for clients;

(7) application of public health concepts and approaches;

(8) individual and community capacity building and mobilization; and

(9) writing, oral, technical, and communication skills.

(Source: P.A. 98-796, eff. 7-31-14; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 65. The Illinois Housing Development Act is amended by changing Section 7.30 as follows:

(20 ILCS 3805/7.30)

Sec. 7.30. Foreclosure Prevention Program.

(a) The Authority shall establish and administer a Foreclosure Prevention Program. The Authority shall use moneys in the Foreclosure Prevention Program Fund, and any other funds appropriated for this purpose, to make grants to (i) approved counseling agencies for approved housing counseling and (ii) approved community-based organizations for approved foreclosure prevention outreach programs. The Authority shall promulgate rules to implement this Program and may adopt emergency rules as soon as practicable to begin implementation of the Program.

(b) Subject to appropriation and the annual receipt of funds, the Authority shall make grants from the Foreclosure Prevention Program Fund derived from fees paid as specified in subsection (a) of Section 15-1504.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure as follows:

(1) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make grants to approved counseling agencies that provide services in Illinois outside of the City of Chicago. Grants shall be based upon the number of foreclosures filed in an approved counseling agency's service area, the capacity of the agency to provide foreclosure counseling services, and any other factors that the Authority deems appropriate.

(2) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be distributed to the City of Chicago to make grants to approved counseling agencies located within the City of Chicago for approved housing counseling or to support foreclosure prevention counseling programs administered by the City of Chicago.

(3) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make grants to approved community-based organizations located outside of the City of Chicago for approved foreclosure prevention outreach programs.

(4) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make grants to approved community-based organizations located within the City of Chicago for approved foreclosure prevention outreach programs, with priority given to programs that provide door-to-door outreach.

(b-1) Subject to appropriation and the annual receipt of funds, the Authority shall make grants from the Foreclosure Prevention Program Graduated Fund derived from fees paid as specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a-5) of Section 15-1504.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as follows:

(1) 30% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in Cook County outside of the City of Chicago;

(2) 25% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in the City of Chicago;

(3) 30% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties; and

(4) 15% shall be used to make grants for approved housing counseling in Illinois in counties other than Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties provided that grants to provide approved housing counseling to borrowers residing within these counties shall be based, to the extent practicable, (i) proportionately on the amount of fees paid to the respective clerks of the courts within these counties and (ii) on any other factors that the Authority deems appropriate.

The percentages set forth in this subsection (b-1) shall be calculated after deduction of reimbursable administrative expenses incurred by the Authority, but shall not be greater than 4% of the annual appropriated amount.

(b-5) As used in this Section:

"Approved community-based organization" means a not-for-profit entity that provides educational and financial information to residents of a community through in-person contact. "Approved community-based organization" does not include a not-for-profit corporation or other entity or person that provides legal representation or advice in a civil proceeding or court-sponsored mediation services, or a governmental agency.

"Approved foreclosure prevention outreach program" means a program developed by an approved community-based organization that includes in-person contact with residents to provide (i) pre-purchase and post-purchase home ownership counseling, (ii) education about the foreclosure process and the options of a mortgagor in a foreclosure proceeding, and (iii) programs developed by an approved community-based organization in conjunction with a State or federally chartered financial institution.

"Approved counseling agency" means a housing counseling agency approved by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.

"Approved housing counseling" means in-person counseling provided by a counselor employed by an approved counseling agency to all borrowers, or documented telephone counseling where a hardship would be imposed on one or more borrowers. A hardship shall exist in instances in which the borrower is confined to his or her home due to a medical condition, as verified in writing by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, or the borrower resides 50 miles or more from the nearest approved counseling agency. In instances of telephone counseling, the borrower must supply all necessary documents to the counselor at least 72 hours prior to the scheduled telephone counseling session.

(c) (Blank).

(c-5) Where the jurisdiction of an approved counseling agency is included within more than one of the geographic areas set forth in this Section, the Authority may elect to fully fund the applicant from one of the relevant geographic areas.

(Source: P.A. 98-20, eff. 6-11-13; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 70. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing Sections 15-168 and 15-172 as follows:

(35 ILCS 200/15-168)

Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with disabilities.

(a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an annual homestead exemption is granted to persons with disabilities in the amount of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to be deducted from the property's value as equalized or assessed by the Department of Revenue. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable for paying the real estate taxes on the property.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of the property or have a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. In the case of a leasehold interest in property, the lease must be for a single family residence.

A person who has a disability during the taxable year is eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application must be made during the application period in effect for the county of residence. If a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and the person awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, then the exemption shall continue (i) so long as the residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person qualified for the homestead exemption.

(b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a disability" means a person unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person named thereon is a person with a disability for purposes of this Act. A person with a disability not covered under the Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant designated by the Department, and his status as a person with a disability determined using the same standards as used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any required examination shall be borne by the claimant.

(c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a person with a disability. The person with a disability shall receive the homestead exemption upon meeting the following requirements:

(1) The property must be occupied as the primary residence by the person with a disability.

(2) The person with a disability must be liable by contract with the owner or owners of record for paying the apportioned property taxes on the property of the cooperative or life care facility. In the case of a life care facility, the person with a disability must be liable for paying the apportioned property taxes under a life care contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

(3) The person with a disability must be an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building. A leasehold interest does not meet this requirement. If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the cooperative association or management firm shall credit the savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax liability of the qualifying person with a disability. The chief county assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the qualified person with a disability is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption according to guidelines established by the Department. After a person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed to the taxpayer.

In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the chief county assessment officer shall provide to each person granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form to designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed designation with the county collector, who shall issue the duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability in the manner required by the chief county assessment officer.

(e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(35 ILCS 200/15-172)

Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption.

(b) As used in this Section:

"Applicant" means an individual who has filed an application under this Section.

"Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value of the residence plus the first year's equalized assessed value of any added improvements which increased the assessed value of the residence after the base year.

"Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable year for which the applicant first qualifies and applies for the exemption provided that in the prior taxable year the property was improved with a permanent structure that was occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for paying real property taxes on the property and who was either (i) an owner of record of the property or had legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a lessee in the parcel of property that was single family residence. If in any subsequent taxable year for which the applicant applies and qualifies for the exemption the equalized assessed value of the residence is less than the equalized assessed value in the existing base year (provided that such equalized assessed value is not based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years), then that subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph. For taxable year 1999 only, the Chief County Assessment Officer shall review (i) all taxable years for which the applicant applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing base year. The assessment officer shall select as the new base year the year with the lowest equalized assessed value. An equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value that results from a temporary irregularity in the property that reduces the assessed value for one or more taxable years shall not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value. The selected year shall be the base year for taxable year 1999 and thereafter until a new base year is established under the terms of this paragraph.

"Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County Assessor or Supervisor of Assessments of the county in which the property is located.

"Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as equalized by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

"Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the applicant, and all persons using the residence of the applicant as their principal place of residence.

"Household income" means the combined income of the members of a household for the calendar year preceding the taxable year.

"Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 of the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, "income" does not include veteran's benefits.

"Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or any successor law or laws relating to federal income taxes in effect for the year preceding the taxable year.

"Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means a facility as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act.

"Maximum income limitation" means:

(1) $35,000 prior to taxable year 1999;

(2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003;

(3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005;

(4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and

(5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.

"Residence" means the principal dwelling place and appurtenant structures used for residential purposes in this State occupied on January 1 of the taxable year by a household and so much of the surrounding land, constituting the parcel upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer has established a specific legal description for a portion of property constituting the residence, then that portion of property shall be deemed the residence for the purposes of this Section.

"Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad valorem property taxes payable in the next succeeding year are levied.

(c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens assessment freeze homestead exemption is granted for real property that is improved with a permanent structure that is occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written instrument. This homestead exemption shall also apply to a leasehold interest in a parcel of property improved with a permanent structure that is a single family residence that is occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) has a legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as lessee, and (iv) is liable for the payment of real property taxes on that property.

In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount. In all other counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount; and (ii) for taxable year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:

(1) For an applicant who has a household income of $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount.

(2) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8.

(3) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6.

(4) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4.

(5) For an applicant who has a household income exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the residence in the taxable year for which application is made minus the base amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.

When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant for a prior year for the same residence for which an exemption under this Section has been granted, the base year and base amount for that residence are the same as for the applicant for the prior year.

Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to the County Clerk, the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall give to the County Clerk a list of the assessed values of improvements on each parcel qualifying for this exemption that were added after the base year for this parcel and that increased the assessed value of the property.

In the case of land improved with an apartment building owned and operated as a cooperative or a building that is a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the equalized assessed value of the property is limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of age or older, (ii) with a household income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract with the owner or owners of record, for paying real property taxes on the property, and (iv) who is an owner of record of a legal or equitable interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section, the cooperative association or its management firm shall credit the savings resulting from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of the owner who qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses to credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the exemption is guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

When a homestead exemption has been granted under this Section and an applicant then becomes a resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent years so long as the residence (i) continues to be occupied by the qualified applicant's spouse or (ii) if remaining unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the homestead exemption.

Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who would have qualified for an exemption under this Section, and the surviving spouse does not independently qualify for this exemption because of age, the exemption under this Section shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year preceding and the taxable year of the death, provided that, except for age, the surviving spouse meets all other qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those years.

When married persons maintain separate residences, the exemption provided for in this Section may be claimed by only one of such persons and for only one residence.

For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by February 15, 1995 to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. In counties having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, for taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to receive the exemption, a person may submit an application to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located during such period as may be specified by the Chief County Assessment Officer. The Chief County Assessment Officer in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall annually give notice of the application period by mail or by publication. In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, beginning with taxable year 1995 and thereafter, to receive the exemption, a person shall submit an application by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. A county may, by ordinance, establish a date for submission of applications that is different than July 1. The applicant shall submit with the application an affidavit of the applicant's total household income, age, marital status (and if married the name and address of the applicant's spouse, if known), and principal dwelling place of members of the household on January 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, a method for verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. The applications shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.

Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 30 days after the applicant regains the capability to file the application, but in no case may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3 months of the original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant stating the nature and extent of the condition, that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the date on which the applicant regained the capability to file the application.

Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in counties having fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant fails to file the application required by this Section in a timely manner and this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so as to render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend the filing deadline for a period of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County Assessment Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant stating the nature and extent of the condition, and that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the application in a timely manner.

In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant was denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the denial occurred due to an error on the part of an assessment official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in taxable year 1997 the applicant's base year, for purposes of determining the amount of the exemption, shall be 1993 rather than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the applicant's exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, (ii) the amount of any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption erroneously denied for taxable year 1994.

For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years of age during the current taxable year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead exemption during that taxable year. Application shall be made during the application period in effect for the county of his or her residence.

The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the eligibility of a life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative to receive the benefits provided by this Section by use of an affidavit, application, visual inspection, questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure that the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited by the management firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying resident. The Chief County Assessment Officer may request reasonable proof that the management firm has so credited that exemption.

Except as provided in this Section, all information received by the chief county assessment officer or the Department from applications filed under this Section, or from any investigation conducted under the provisions of this Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or local tax or enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or sanction imposed by this Act or by any statute or ordinance imposing a State or local tax. Any person who divulges any such information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the Director or chief county assessment officer from publishing or making available reasonable statistics concerning the operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a way that information contained in any individual claim shall not be disclosed.

(d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually publish a notice of availability of the exemption provided under this Section. The notice shall be published at least 60 days but no more than 75 days prior to the date on which the application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment Officer of the county in which the property is located. The notice shall appear in a newspaper of general circulation in the county.

Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the implementation of any mandate created by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 75. The Counties Code is amended by changing Sections 3-14049, 3-15003.6, and 5-1069 as follows:

(55 ILCS 5/3-14049) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-14049)

Sec. 3-14049. Appointment of physicians and nurses for the poor and mentally ill persons. The appointment, employment and removal by the Board of Commissioners of Cook County of all physicians and surgeons, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, and nurses for the care and treatment of the sick, poor, mentally ill or persons in need of mental treatment of said county shall be made only in conformity with rules prescribed by the County Civil Service Commission to accomplish the purposes of this Section.

The Board of Commissioners of Cook County may provide that all such physicians and surgeons who serve without compensation shall be appointed for a term to be fixed by the Board, and that the physicians and surgeons usually designated and known as interns shall be appointed for a term to be fixed by the Board: Provided, that there may also, at the discretion of the board, be a consulting staff of physicians and surgeons, which staff may be appointed by the president, subject to the approval of the board, and provided further, that the Board may contract with any recognized training school or any program for health professionals for health care services of any or all of such sick or mentally ill or persons in need of mental treatment.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(55 ILCS 5/3-15003.6)

Sec. 3-15003.6. Pregnant female prisoners.

(a) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section:

(1) "Restraints" means any physical restraint or mechanical device used to control the movement of a prisoner's body or limbs, or both, including, but not limited to, flex cuffs, soft restraints, hard metal handcuffs, a black box, Chubb cuffs, leg irons, belly chains, a security (tether) chain, or a convex shield, or shackles of any kind.

(2) "Labor" means the period of time before a birth and shall include any medical condition in which a woman is sent or brought to the hospital for the purpose of delivering her baby. These situations include: induction of labor, prodromal labor, pre-term labor, prelabor rupture of membranes, the 3 stages of active labor, uterine hemorrhage during the third trimester of pregnancy, and caesarian delivery including pre-operative preparation.

(3) "Post-partum" means, as determined by her physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, the period immediately following delivery, including the entire period a woman is in the hospital or infirmary after birth.

(4) "Correctional institution" means any entity under the authority of a county law enforcement division of a county of more than 3,000,000 inhabitants that has the power to detain or restrain, or both, a person under the laws of the State.

(5) "Corrections official" means the official that is responsible for oversight of a correctional institution, or his or her designee.

(6) "Prisoner" means any person incarcerated or detained in any facility who is accused of, convicted of, sentenced for, or adjudicated delinquent for, violations of criminal law or the terms and conditions of parole, probation, pretrial release, or diversionary program, and any person detained under the immigration laws of the United States at any correctional facility.

(7) "Extraordinary circumstance" means an extraordinary medical or security circumstance, including a substantial flight risk, that dictates restraints be used to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, the staff of the correctional institution or medical facility, other prisoners, or the public.

(b) A county department of corrections shall not apply security restraints to a prisoner that has been determined by a qualified medical professional to be pregnant and is known by the county department of corrections to be pregnant or in postpartum recovery, which is the entire period a woman is in the medical facility after birth, unless the corrections official makes an individualized determination that the prisoner presents a substantial flight risk or some other extraordinary circumstance that dictates security restraints be used to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, her child or unborn child, the staff of the county department of corrections or medical facility, other prisoners, or the public. The protections set out in clauses (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this Section shall apply to security restraints used pursuant to this subsection. The corrections official shall immediately remove all restraints upon the written or oral request of medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical personnel shall be verified in writing as promptly as reasonably possible.

(1) Qualified authorized health staff shall have the authority to order therapeutic restraints for a pregnant or postpartum prisoner who is a danger to herself, her child, unborn child, or other persons due to a psychiatric or medical disorder. Therapeutic restraints may only be initiated, monitored and discontinued by qualified and authorized health staff and used to safely limit a prisoner's mobility for psychiatric or medical reasons. No order for therapeutic restraints shall be written unless medical or mental health personnel, after personally observing and examining the prisoner, are clinically satisfied that the use of therapeutic restraints is justified and permitted in accordance with hospital policies and applicable State law. Metal handcuffs or shackles are not considered therapeutic restraints.

(2) Whenever therapeutic restraints are used by medical personnel, Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall apply.

(3) Leg irons, shackles or waist shackles shall not be used on any pregnant or postpartum prisoner regardless of security classification. Except for therapeutic restraints under clause (b)(2), no restraints of any kind may be applied to prisoners during labor.

(4) When a pregnant or postpartum prisoner must be restrained, restraints used shall be the least restrictive restraints possible to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, her child, unborn child, the staff of the county department of corrections or medical facility, other prisoners, or the public, and in no case shall include leg irons, shackles or waist shackles.

(5) Upon the pregnant prisoner's entry into a hospital room, and completion of initial room inspection, a corrections official shall be posted immediately outside the hospital room, unless requested to be in the room by medical personnel attending to the prisoner's medical needs.

(6) The county department of corrections shall provide adequate corrections personnel to monitor the pregnant prisoner during her transport to and from the hospital and during her stay at the hospital.

(7) Where the county department of corrections requires prisoner safety assessments, a corrections official may enter the hospital room to conduct periodic prisoner safety assessments, except during a medical examination or the delivery process.

(8) Upon discharge from a medical facility, postpartum prisoners shall be restrained only with handcuffs in front of the body during transport to the county department of corrections. A corrections official shall immediately remove all security restraints upon written or oral request by medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical personnel shall be verified in writing as promptly as reasonably possible.

(c) Enforcement. No later than 30 days before the end of each fiscal year, the county sheriff or corrections official of the correctional institution where a pregnant prisoner has been restrained during that previous fiscal year, shall submit a written report to the Illinois General Assembly and the Office of the Governor that includes an account of every instance of prisoner restraint pursuant to this Section. The written report shall state the date, time, location and rationale for each instance in which restraints are used. The written report shall not contain any individually identifying information of any prisoner. Such reports shall be made available for public inspection.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(55 ILCS 5/5-1069) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1069)

Sec. 5-1069. Group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(a) The county board of any county may arrange to provide, for the benefit of employees of the county, group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, or the county board may self-insure, for the benefit of its employees, all or a portion of the employees' group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination of those types of insurance, including a combination of self-insurance and other types of insurance authorized by this Section, provided that the county board complies with all other requirements of this Section. The insurance may include provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets and practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The county board may provide for payment by the county of a portion or all of the premium or charge for the insurance with the employee paying the balance of the premium or charge, if any. If the county board undertakes a plan under which the county pays only a portion of the premium or charge, the county board shall provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent to join the plan the balance of the premium or charge for the insurance.

(b) If the county board does not provide for self-insurance or for a plan under which the county pays a portion or all of the premium or charge for a group insurance plan, the county board may provide for withholding and deducting from the compensation of those employees who consent thereto the total premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance.

(c) The county board may exercise the powers granted in this Section only if it provides for self-insurance or, where it makes arrangements to provide group insurance through an insurance carrier, if the kinds of group insurance are obtained from an insurance company authorized to do business in the State of Illinois. The county board may enact an ordinance prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.

(d) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include screening by low-dose mammography for all women 35 years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer unless the county elects to provide mammograms itself under Section 5-1069.1. The coverage shall be as follows:

(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of age.

(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or older.

(3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for women under 40 years of age and having a family history of breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.

(4) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

For purposes of this subsection, "low-dose mammography" means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also includes digital mammography.

(d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to an annual or lifetime maximum benefit.

(d-10) When health care services are available through contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the policy or contract.

(d-15) If a county, including a home rule county, is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection with a mastectomy shall include:

(1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the mastectomy has been performed;

(2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance; and

(3) prostheses and treatment for physical complications at all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedemas. Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as determined by a licensed physician.

A county, including a home rule county, that is a self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this Section.

(d-20) The requirement that mammograms be included in health insurance coverage as provided in subsections (d) through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county powers. A home rule county to which subsections (d) through (d-15) apply must comply with every provision of those subsections.

(e) The term "employees" as used in this Section includes elected or appointed officials but does not include temporary employees.

(f) The county board may, by ordinance, arrange to provide group life, health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or a combination of those types of insurance, under this Section to retired former employees and retired former elected or appointed officials of the county.

(g) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 80. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by changing Sections 10-1-38.1 and 10-2.1-18 as follows:

(65 ILCS 5/10-1-38.1) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-38.1)

Sec. 10-1-38.1. When the force of the Fire Department or of the Police Department is reduced, and positions displaced or abolished, seniority shall prevail, and the officers and members so reduced in rank, or removed from the service of the Fire Department or of the Police Department shall be considered furloughed without pay from the positions from which they were reduced or removed.

Such reductions and removals shall be in strict compliance with seniority and in no event shall any officer or member be reduced more than one rank in a reduction of force. Officers and members with the least seniority in the position to be reduced shall be reduced to the next lower rated position. For purposes of determining which officers and members will be reduced in rank, seniority shall be determined by adding the time spent at the rank or position from which the officer or member is to be reduced and the time spent at any higher rank or position in the Department. For purposes of determining which officers or members in the lowest rank or position shall be removed from the Department in the event of a layoff, length of service in the Department shall be the basis for determining seniority, with the least senior such officer or member being the first so removed and laid off. Such officers or members laid off shall have their names placed on an appropriate reemployment list in the reverse order of dates of layoff.

If any positions which have been vacated because of reduction in forces or displacement and abolition of positions, are reinstated, such members and officers of the Fire Department or of the Police Department as are furloughed from the said positions shall be notified by registered mail of such reinstatement of positions and shall have prior right to such positions if otherwise qualified, and in all cases seniority shall prevail. Written application for such reinstated position must be made by the furloughed person within 30 days after notification as above provided and such person may be required to submit to examination by physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants of both the commission and the appropriate pension board to determine his physical fitness.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-18) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-18)

Sec. 10-2.1-18. Fire or police departments - Reduction of force - Reinstatement. When the force of the fire department or of the police department is reduced, and positions displaced or abolished, seniority shall prevail and the officers and members so reduced in rank, or removed from the service of the fire department or of the police department shall be considered furloughed without pay from the positions from which they were reduced or removed.

Such reductions and removals shall be in strict compliance with seniority and in no event shall any officer or member be reduced more than one rank in a reduction of force. Officers and members with the least seniority in the position to be reduced shall be reduced to the next lower rated position. For purposes of determining which officers and members will be reduced in rank, seniority shall be determined by adding the time spent at the rank or position from which the officer or member is to be reduced and the time spent at any higher rank or position in the Department. For purposes of determining which officers or members in the lowest rank or position shall be removed from the Department in the event of a layoff, length of service in the Department shall be the basis for determining seniority, with the least senior such officer or member being the first so removed and laid off. Such officers or members laid off shall have their names placed on an appropriate reemployment list in the reverse order of dates of layoff.

If any positions which have been vacated because of reduction in forces or displacement and abolition of positions, are reinstated, such members and officers of the fire department or of the police department as are furloughed from the said positions shall be notified by the board by registered mail of such reinstatement of positions and shall have prior right to such positions if otherwise qualified, and in all cases seniority shall prevail. Written application for such reinstated position must be made by the furloughed person within 30 days after notification as above provided and such person may be required to submit to examination by physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants of both the board of fire and police commissioners and the appropriate pension board to determine his physical fitness.

(Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 85. The School Code is amended by changing Sections 22-30, 22-80, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:

(105 ILCS 5/22-30)

Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an opioid antagonist; asthma episode emergency response protocol.

(a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:

"Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day management and to serve as a student-specific document to be referenced in the event of an asthma episode.

"Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, or breathing difficulty.

"Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's asthma and that has an individual prescription label.

"Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.

"Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector.

"Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority, or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority.

"Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school district, public school, or nonpublic school.

(b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication by a pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:

(1) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) written authorization from the parents or guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written authorization from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and

(2) the parents or guardians of the pupil provide to the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, and the time at which or circumstances under which the asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, a written statement from the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse containing the following information:

(A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine auto-injector;

(B) the prescribed dosage; and

(C) the time or times at which or the special circumstances under which the epinephrine auto-injector is to be administered.

The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school's administrator.

(b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize the provision of a student-specific or undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file.

(b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that meets the prescription on file to any student who has an Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose.

(c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must inform the parents or guardians of the pupil, in writing, that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, including a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. The parents or guardians of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and that the parents or guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based on willful and wanton conduct, arising out of the administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction or administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or the use of an opioid antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective for the school year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of this Section.

(e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a pupil with asthma may self-administer and self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus.

(e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property or while being transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, such as while in before-school or after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school or at a school-sponsored activity.

(f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in any secure location that is accessible before, during, and after school where an allergic person is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

(f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors and providing training to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors shall pay for the costs of the undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.

(f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known.

(f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who provided the standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use.

Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic school must notify the health care professional who provided the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.

(g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. their The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to the training curriculum and trained personnel.

Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, trained personnel must submit to their school's administration proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external defibrillator certification. The school district, public school, or nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training curriculum and the trained personnel.

(h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in person.

Training shall include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis;

(2) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; and

(3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an epinephrine auto-injector.

Training may also include, but is not limited to:

(A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its related facilities;

(B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens;

(C) emergency follow-up procedures;

(D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; and

(E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

In consultation with statewide professional organizations representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by other states, as well as any other curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State Board is not required to create new resource materials. The State Board shall make these resource materials available on its Internet website.

(h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited to:

(1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose;

(2) information on drug overdose prevention and recognition;

(3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation;

(4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid overdose;

(5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration;

(6) the importance of calling 911;

(7) care for the overdose victim after administration of the overdose antagonist;

(8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a dose of an opioid antagonist; and

(9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted pursuant to this Section.

(i) Within 3 days after the administration of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored activity, the school must report to the State Board of Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board the following information:

(1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine (student, staff, visitor);

(2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy;

(3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode;

(4) location where symptoms developed;

(5) number of doses administered;

(6) type of person administering epinephrine (school nurse, trained personnel, student); and

(7) any other information required by the State Board.

If a school district, public school, or nonpublic school maintains or has an independent contractor providing transportation to students who maintains a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, then the school district, public school, or nonpublic school must report that information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or change of the policy of the school district, public school, nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the number of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in supply.

(i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school must report to the State Board of Education, in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board, the following information:

(1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid antagonist (student, staff, or visitor);

(2) the location where symptoms developed;

(3) the type of person administering the opioid antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and

(4) any other information required by the State Board.

(j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain information on which school districts, public schools, and nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or individualized education program plan.

(j-10) To assist schools with emergency response procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization representing school administrators, shall develop a model asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the components of the State Board's model protocol.

(j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils shall complete an in-person or online training program on the management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma management, the State Board of Education shall make available resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma and emergency response in the school setting.

(j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the report is delivered to the General Assembly.

(k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary to implement this Section.

(l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of epinephrine auto-injectors that any type of school or student may carry or maintain a supply of.

(Source: P.A. 98-795, eff. 8-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; 99-843, eff. 8-19-16; revised 9-8-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/22-80)

Sec. 22-80. Student athletes; concussions and head injuries.

(a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following:

(1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported injuries in children and adolescents who participate in sports and recreational activities. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related concussions occur in the United States each year. A concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are significant when a concussion or head injury is not properly evaluated and managed.

(2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of concussions occur without loss of consciousness.

(3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly recognizes that, despite having generally recognized return-to-play standards for concussions and head injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical injury or death to youth athletes in this State.

(4) Student athletes who have sustained a concussion may need informal or formal accommodations, modifications of curriculum, and monitoring by medical or academic staff until the student is fully recovered. To that end, all schools are encouraged to establish a return-to-learn protocol that is based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines and conduct baseline testing for student athletes.

(b) In this Section:

"Athletic trainer" means an athletic trainer licensed under the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act.

"Coach" means any volunteer or employee of a school who is responsible for organizing and supervising students to teach them or train them in the fundamental skills of an interscholastic athletic activity. "Coach" refers to both head coaches and assistant coaches.

"Concussion" means a complex pathophysiological process affecting the brain caused by a traumatic physical force or impact to the head or body, which may include temporary or prolonged altered brain function resulting in physical, cognitive, or emotional symptoms or altered sleep patterns and which may or may not involve a loss of consciousness.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Game official" means a person who officiates at an interscholastic athletic activity, such as a referee or umpire, including, but not limited to, persons enrolled as game officials by the Illinois High School Association or Illinois Elementary School Association.

"Interscholastic athletic activity" means any organized school-sponsored or school-sanctioned activity for students, generally outside of school instructional hours, under the direction of a coach, athletic director, or band leader, including, but not limited to, baseball, basketball, cheerleading, cross country track, fencing, field hockey, football, golf, gymnastics, ice hockey, lacrosse, marching band, rugby, soccer, skating, softball, swimming and diving, tennis, track (indoor and outdoor), ultimate Frisbee, volleyball, water polo, and wrestling. All interscholastic athletics are deemed to be interscholastic activities.

"Licensed healthcare professional" means a person who has experience with concussion management and who is a nurse, a psychologist who holds a license under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act and specializes in the practice of neuropsychology, a physical therapist licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, an occupational therapist licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

"Nurse" means a person who is employed by or volunteers at a school and is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as a registered nurse, practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"School" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, including a charter school.

"Student" means an adolescent or child enrolled in a school.

(c) This Section applies to any interscholastic athletic activity, including practice and competition, sponsored or sanctioned by a school, the Illinois Elementary School Association, or the Illinois High School Association. This Section applies beginning with the 2016-2017 school year.

(d) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall appoint or approve a concussion oversight team. Each concussion oversight team shall establish a return-to-play protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to interscholastic athletics practice or competition following a force or impact believed to have caused a concussion. Each concussion oversight team shall also establish a return-to-learn protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to the classroom after that student is believed to have experienced a concussion, whether or not the concussion took place while the student was participating in an interscholastic athletic activity.

Each concussion oversight team must include to the extent practicable at least one physician. If a school employs an athletic trainer, the athletic trainer must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. If a school employs a nurse, the nurse must be a member of the school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. At a minimum, a school shall appoint a person who is responsible for implementing and complying with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols adopted by the concussion oversight team. A school may appoint other licensed healthcare professionals to serve on the concussion oversight team.

(e) A student may not participate in an interscholastic athletic activity for a school year until the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student have signed a form for that school year that acknowledges receiving and reading written information that explains concussion prevention, symptoms, treatment, and oversight and that includes guidelines for safely resuming participation in an athletic activity following a concussion. The form must be approved by the Illinois High School Association.

(f) A student must be removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition immediately if one of the following persons believes the student might have sustained a concussion during the practice or competition:

(1) a coach;

(2) a physician;

(3) a game official;

(4) an athletic trainer;

(5) the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student;

(6) the student; or

(7) any other person deemed appropriate under the school's return-to-play protocol.

(g) A student removed from an interscholastic athletics practice or competition under this Section may not be permitted to practice or compete again following the force or impact believed to have caused the concussion until:

(1) the student has been evaluated, using established medical protocols based on peer-reviewed scientific evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention guidelines, by a treating physician (chosen by the student or the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student) or an athletic trainer working under the supervision of a physician;

(2) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-play protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to play;

(3) the student has successfully completed each requirement of the return-to-learn protocol established under this Section necessary for the student to return to learn;

(4) the treating physician or athletic trainer working under the supervision of a physician has provided a written statement indicating that, in the physician's professional judgment, it is safe for the student to return to play and return to learn; and

(5) the student and the student's parent or guardian or another person with legal authority to make medical decisions for the student:

(A) have acknowledged that the student has completed the requirements of the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols necessary for the student to return to play;

(B) have provided the treating physician's or athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) to the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols under this subsection (g) and the person who has supervisory responsibilities under this subsection (g); and

(C) have signed a consent form indicating that the person signing:

(i) has been informed concerning and consents to the student participating in returning to play in accordance with the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols;

(ii) understands the risks associated with the student returning to play and returning to learn and will comply with any ongoing requirements in the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols; and

(iii) consents to the disclosure to appropriate persons, consistent with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191), of the treating physician's or athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection (g) and, if any, the return-to-play and return-to-learn recommendations of the treating physician or the athletic trainer, as the case may be.

A coach of an interscholastic athletics team may not authorize a student's return to play or return to learn.

The district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school shall supervise an athletic trainer or other person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play protocol and shall supervise the person responsible for compliance with the return-to-learn protocol. The person who has supervisory responsibilities under this paragraph may not be a coach of an interscholastic athletics team.

(h)(1) The Illinois High School Association shall approve, for coaches and game officials of interscholastic athletic activities, training courses that provide for not less than 2 hours of training in the subject matter of concussions, including evaluation, prevention, symptoms, risks, and long-term effects. The Association shall maintain an updated list of individuals and organizations authorized by the Association to provide the training.

(2) The following persons must take a training course in accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) from an authorized training provider at least once every 2 years:

(A) a coach of an interscholastic athletic activity;

(B) a nurse who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team and is an employee, representative, or agent of a school;

(C) a game official of an interscholastic athletic activity; and

(D) a nurse who serves on a volunteer basis as a member of a concussion oversight team for a school.

(3) A physician who serves as a member of a concussion oversight team shall, to the greatest extent practicable, periodically take an appropriate continuing medical education course in the subject matter of concussions.

(4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (h):

(A) a coach or game officials, as the case may be, must take a course described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h).

(B) an athletic trainer must take a concussion-related continuing education course from an athletic trainer continuing education sponsor approved by the Department; and

(C) a nurse must take a course concerning the subject matter of concussions that has been approved for continuing education credit by the Department.

(5) Each person described in paragraph (2) of this subsection (h) must submit proof of timely completion of an approved course in compliance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) to the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school.

(6) A physician, athletic trainer, or nurse who is not in compliance with the training requirements under this subsection (h) may not serve on a concussion oversight team in any capacity.

(7) A person required under this subsection (h) to take a training course in the subject of concussions must initially complete the training not later than September 1, 2016.

(i) The governing body of each public or charter school and the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic athletic activity shall develop a school-specific emergency action plan for interscholastic athletic activities to address the serious injuries and acute medical conditions in which the condition of the student may deteriorate rapidly. The plan shall include a delineation of roles, methods of communication, available emergency equipment, and access to and a plan for emergency transport. This emergency action plan must be:

(1) in writing;

(2) reviewed by the concussion oversight team;

(3) approved by the district superintendent or the superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary school, the chief school administrator or that person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of a private school;

(4) distributed to all appropriate personnel;

(5) posted conspicuously at all venues utilized by the school; and

(6) reviewed annually by all athletic trainers, first responders, coaches, school nurses, athletic directors, and volunteers for interscholastic athletic activities.

(j) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as necessary to administer this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-486, eff. 11-20-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)

Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth.

(a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor that provides services to students or in schools, or any other individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or 34-18.5 of this Code.

(b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence of physical fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical examination by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other state to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant not more than 90 days preceding time of presentation to the board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the employee. A new or existing employee may be subject to additional health examinations, including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a local public health official. The board may from time to time require an examination of any employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant and shall pay the expenses thereof from school funds.

(c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to furnish from time to time evidence of continued professional growth.

(Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/24-6)

Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school districts, including special charter districts, but not including school districts in municipalities of 500,000 or more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall grant such of their other employees as are eligible to participate in the Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the "600-Hour Standard" established, or under such other eligibility participation standard as may from time to time be established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of the Illinois Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick leave provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in each school year. If any such teacher or employee does not use the full amount of annual leave thus allowed, the unused amount shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum available leave of 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current year. Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, quarantine at home, serious illness or death in the immediate family or household, or birth, adoption, or placement for adoption. The school board may require a certificate from a physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or, if the treatment is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave after an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board may deem necessary in other cases. If the school board does require a certificate as a basis for pay during leave of less than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay, from school funds, the expenses incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive bargaining representative.

If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school districts, or by reason of the creation of a new school district, the employment of a teacher is transferred to a new or different board, the accumulated sick leave of such teacher is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new or different district.

For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall include parents, spouse, brothers, sisters, children, grandparents, grandchildren, parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)

Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or (ii) between the ages of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) beginning with the 2014-2015 school year shall cause such child to attend some public school in the district wherein the child resides the entire time it is in session during the regular school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during a required summer school program established under Section 10-22.33B; provided, that the following children shall not be required to attend the public schools:

1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school where children are taught the branches of education taught to children of corresponding age and grade in the public schools, and where the instruction of the child in the branches of education is in the English language;

2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to attend school, such disability being certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or a Christian Science practitioner residing in this State and listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused for temporary absence for cause by the principal or teacher of the school which the child attends; the exemptions in this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is pregnant or the mother of one or more children, except where a female is unable to attend school due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence of such complication is certified to the county or district truant officer by a competent physician;

3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed according to the provisions of the law regulating child labor may be excused from attendance at school by the county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of the public school which the child should be attending, on certification of the facts by and the recommendation of the school board of the public school district in which the child resides. In districts having part time continuation schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at least 8 hours each week;

4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in attendance at confirmation classes;

5. Any child absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the reason that he is unable to attend classes or to participate in any examination, study or work requirements on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, because the tenets of his religion forbid secular activity on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day. Each school board shall prescribe rules and regulations relative to absences for religious holidays including, but not limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it shall be mandatory to excuse a child; but nothing in this paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit the right of any school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on any other day by reason of the observance of a religious holiday. A school board may require the parent or guardian of a child who is to be excused from attending school due to the observance of a religious holiday to give notice, not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from attending school under this paragraph 5 shall not be required to submit a written excuse for such absence after returning to school;

6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B of this Code; and

7. A child in any of grades 6 through 12 absent from a public school on a particular day or days or at a particular time of day for the purpose of sounding "Taps" at a military honors funeral held in this State for a deceased veteran. In order to be excused under this paragraph 7, the student shall notify the school's administration at least 2 days prior to the date of the absence and shall provide the school's administration with the date, time, and location of the military honors funeral. The school's administration may waive this 2-day notification requirement if the student did not receive at least 2 days advance notice, but the student shall notify the school's administration as soon as possible of the absence. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 shall be counted as if the student attended school for purposes of calculating the average daily attendance of students in the school district. A student whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 must be allowed a reasonable time to make up school work missed during the absence. If the student satisfactorily completes the school work, the day of absence shall be counted as a day of compulsory attendance and he or she may not be penalized for that absence.

(Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-804, eff. 1-1-17.)

(105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-927)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include the collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, or licensed physician assistants shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious belief that conflicts with the examination, test, immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining health care provider responsible for the performance of the child's health examination confirming that the provider provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student and to the community of the communicable diseases for which immunization is required in this State. However, the health care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that education was provided and does not allow a health care provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that are required to be disseminated by the federal National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare provider may consider including without limitation the nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the information outlined in the relevant vaccine information statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the Department of Public Health and shall be made available and used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed by the tenets of an established religious organization. However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. The local school authority is responsible for determining if the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption constitutes a valid religious objection. The local school authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, at the time the objection is presented.

If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form.

Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 98-673, eff. 6-30-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-927)

Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations.

(1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the Department of Public Health shall promulgate, and except as hereinafter provided, all children in Illinois shall have a health examination as follows: within one year prior to entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, private, or parochial elementary school; upon entering the sixth and ninth grades of any public, private, or parochial school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, immediately prior to or upon entrance into any public, private, or parochial school or nursery school, each child shall present proof of having been examined in accordance with this Section and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child who received a health examination within one year prior to entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not required to receive an additional health examination in order to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the child is attending school for the first time as provided in this paragraph.

A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, including eye examinations, may be required when deemed necessary by school authorities. Parents are encouraged to have their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in time required for health examinations.

(1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the child presents proof that a dental examination will take place within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.

(1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each of these children shall present proof of having been examined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the child presents proof that an eye examination will take place within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye examination requirement to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the child.

(2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules and regulations specifying the examinations and procedures that constitute a health examination, which shall include an age-appropriate developmental screening, an age-appropriate social and emotional screening, and the collection of data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), and a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain additional examinations be performed. The rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify that a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a required part of each health examination included under this Section if the child resides in an area designated by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of tuberculosis. With respect to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening, the Department of Public Health must develop rules and appropriate revisions to the Child Health Examination form in conjunction with a statewide organization representing school boards; a statewide organization representing pediatricians; statewide organizations representing individuals holding Illinois educator licenses with school support personnel endorsements, including school social workers, school psychologists, and school nurses; a statewide organization representing children's mental health experts; a statewide organization representing school principals; the Director of Healthcare and Family Services or his or her designee, the State Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; and representatives of other appropriate State agencies and, at a minimum, must recommend the use of validated screening tools appropriate to the child's age or grade, and, with regard to the social and emotional screening, require recording only whether or not the screening was completed. The rules shall take into consideration the screening recommendations of the American Academy of Pediatrics and must be consistent with the State Board of Education's social and emotional learning standards. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a diabetes screening as defined by rule shall be included as a required part of each health examination. Diabetes testing is not required.

Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, or licensed physician assistants shall be responsible for the performance of the health examinations, other than dental examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions of the health examination for which the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant is responsible. If a registered nurse performs any part of a health examination, then a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all required report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all dental examinations and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the dental examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye examinations required by this Section and shall sign all report forms required by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, as well as any other tests or observations that in the professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered examinations as that term is used in this Section, shall be conducted in accordance with rules and regulations of the Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the Department of Public Health has certified. In these rules and regulations, the Department of Public Health shall require that individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's parent or guardian written notification, before the vision screening is conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a substitute for a complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye doctor. Your child is not required to undergo this vision screening if an optometrist or ophthalmologist has completed and signed a report form indicating that an examination has been administered within the previous 12 months."

(2.5) With respect to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening portion of the health examination, each child may present proof of having been screened in accordance with this Section and the rules adopted under this Section before October 15th of the school year. With regard to the social and emotional screening only, the examining health care provider shall only record whether or not the screening was completed. If the child fails to present proof of the developmental screening or the social and emotional screening portions of the health examination by October 15th of the school year, qualified school support personnel may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, offer the developmental screening or the social and emotional screening to the child. Each public, private, and parochial school must give notice of the developmental screening and social and emotional screening requirements to the parents and guardians of students in compliance with the rules of the Department of Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's or guardian's failure to obtain a developmental screening or a social and emotional screening for the child. Once a developmental screening or a social and emotional screening is completed and proof has been presented to the school, the school may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, make available appropriate school personnel to work with the parent or guardian, the child, and the provider who signed the screening form to obtain any appropriate evaluations and services as indicated on the form and in other information and documentation provided by the parents, guardians, or provider.

(3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or she receives a health examination required by subsection (1) of this Section, present to the local school proof of having received such immunizations against preventable communicable diseases as the Department of Public Health shall require by rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and the Communicable Disease Prevention Act.

(4) The individuals conducting the health examination, dental examination, or eye examination shall record the fact of having conducted the examination, and such additional information as required, including for a health examination data relating to obesity (including at a minimum, date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health and the State Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide use. The examiner shall summarize on the report form any condition that he or she suspects indicates a need for special services, including for a health examination factors relating to obesity. The duty to summarize on the report form does not apply to social and emotional screenings. The confidentiality of the information and records relating to the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening shall be determined by the statutes, rules, and professional ethics governing the type of provider conducting the screening. The individuals confirming the administration of required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the immunizations were administered.

(5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either the health examination or the immunization as required, then the child shall be examined or receive the immunization, as the case may be, and present proof by October 15 of the current school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year established by a school district. To establish a date before October 15 of the current school year for the health examination or immunization as required, a school district must give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days prior to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or more of the required immunizations must be given after October 15 of the current school year, or after an earlier established date of the current school year, then the child shall present, by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a schedule for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of the medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and the statement being issued by the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, registered nurse, or local health department that will be responsible for administration of the remaining required immunizations. If a child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier established date of the current school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the local school authority shall exclude that child from school until such time as the child presents proof of having had the health examination as required and presents proof of having received those required immunizations which are medically possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or legal guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 and subject to any penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations, eye examinations, and the developmental screening and the social and emotional screening portions of the health examination. If the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or employee of a school district shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6) Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by November 15, in the manner which that agency shall require, the number of children who have received the necessary immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental examination or eye examination) as required, indicating, of those who have not received the immunizations and examination as required, the number of children who are exempt from health examination and immunization requirements on religious or medical grounds as provided in subsection (8). On or before December 1 of each year, every public school district and registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the immunization data they are required to submit to the State Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made publicly available must be identical to the data the school district or school has reported to the State Board of Education.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required dental examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required dental examination, the number of children who are exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of this Section.

Every school shall report to the State Board of Education by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the number of children who have received the required eye examination, indicating, of those who have not received the required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this Section, the number of children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number of children in noncompliance with the eye examination requirement.

The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be provided to the Department of Public Health by the State Board of Education.

(7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are required to be in compliance with subsection (5) of this Section is below 90% of the number of pupils enrolled in the school district, 10% of each State aid payment made pursuant to Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be withheld by the State Board of Education until the number of students in compliance with subsection (5) is the applicable specified percentage or higher.

(8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious belief that conflicts with the examination, test, immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining health care provider responsible for the performance of the child's health examination confirming that the provider provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student and to the community of the communicable diseases for which immunization is required in this State. However, the health care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that education was provided and does not allow a health care provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that are required to be disseminated by the federal National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare provider may consider including without limitation the nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the information outlined in the relevant vaccine information statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the Department of Public Health and shall be made available and used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed by the tenets of an established religious organization. However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. The local school authority is responsible for determining if the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption constitutes a valid religious objection. The local school authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, at the time the objection is presented.

If the physical condition of the child is such that any one or more of the immunizing agents should not be administered, the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant responsible for the performance of the health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health examination form.

Exempting a child from the health, dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from participation in the program of physical education training provided in Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code.

(9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" means those nursery schools operated by elementary school systems or secondary level school units or institutions of higher learning.

(Source: P.A. 98-673, eff. 6-30-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-927, eff. 6-1-17.)

Section 90. The Care of Students with Diabetes Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(105 ILCS 145/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Delegated care aide" means a school employee who has agreed to receive training in diabetes care and to assist students in implementing their diabetes care plan and has entered into an agreement with a parent or guardian and the school district or private school.

"Diabetes care plan" means a document that specifies the diabetes-related services needed by a student at school and at school-sponsored activities and identifies the appropriate staff to provide and supervise these services.

"Health care provider" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice registered nurse who has a written agreement with a collaborating physician who authorizes the provision of diabetes care, or a physician assistant who has a written supervision agreement with a supervising physician who authorizes the provision of diabetes care.

"Principal" means the principal of the school.

"School" means any primary or secondary public, charter, or private school located in this State.

"School employee" means a person who is employed by a public school district or private school, a person who is employed by a local health department and assigned to a school, or a person who contracts with a school or school district to perform services in connection with a student's diabetes care plan. This definition must not be interpreted as requiring a school district or private school to hire additional personnel for the sole purpose of serving as a designated care aide.

(Source: P.A. 96-1485, eff. 12-1-10.)

Section 95. The Nursing Education Scholarship Law is amended by changing Sections 3, 5, and 6.5 as follows:

(110 ILCS 975/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 2753)

Sec. 3. Definitions.

The following terms, whenever used or referred to, have the following meanings except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

(1) "Board" means the Board of Higher Education created by the Board of Higher Education Act.

(2) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(3) "Approved institution" means a public community college, private junior college, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, or public or private college or university located in this State that has approval by the Department of Professional Regulation for an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program.

(4) "Baccalaureate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a bachelor of science degree in nursing.

(5) "Enrollment" means the establishment and maintenance of an individual's status as a student in an approved institution, regardless of the terms used at the institution to describe such status.

(6) "Academic year" means the period of time from September 1 of one year through August 31 of the next year or as otherwise defined by the academic institution.

(7) "Associate degree in nursing program or hospital-based diploma in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to an associate degree in nursing, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing, or hospital-based diploma in nursing.

(8) "Graduate degree in nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution and leading to a master of science degree in nursing or a doctorate of philosophy or doctorate of nursing degree in nursing.

(9) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of Public Health.

(10) "Accepted for admission" means a student has completed the requirements for entry into an associate degree in nursing program, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or certificate in practical nursing program at an approved institution, as documented by the institution.

(11) "Fees" means those mandatory charges, in addition to tuition, that all enrolled students must pay, including required course or lab fees.

(12) "Full-time student" means a student enrolled for at least 12 hours per term or as otherwise determined by the academic institution.

(13) "Law" means the Nursing Education Scholarship Law.

(14) "Nursing employment obligation" means employment in this State as a registered professional nurse, licensed practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse in direct patient care for at least one year for each year of scholarship assistance received through the Nursing Education Scholarship Program.

(15) "Part-time student" means a person who is enrolled for at least one-third of the number of hours required per term by a school for its full-time students.

(16) "Practical nursing program" means a program offered by an approved institution leading to a certificate in practical nursing.

(17) "Registered professional nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered professional nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act.

(18) "Licensed practical nurse" means a person who is currently licensed as a licensed practical nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act.

(19) "School term" means an academic term, such as a semester, quarter, trimester, or number of clock hours, as defined by an approved institution.

(20) "Student in good standing" means a student maintaining a cumulative grade point average equivalent to at least the academic grade of a "C".

(21) "Total and permanent disability" means a physical or mental impairment, disease, or loss of a permanent nature that prevents nursing employment with or without reasonable accommodation. Proof of disability shall be a declaration from the social security administration, Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission, Department of Defense, or an insurer authorized to transact business in Illinois who is providing disability insurance coverage to a contractor.

(22) "Tuition" means the established charges of an institution of higher learning for instruction at that institution.

(23) "Nurse educator" means a person who is currently licensed as a registered nurse by the Department of Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act, who has a graduate degree in nursing, and who is employed by an approved academic institution to educate registered nursing students, licensed practical nursing students, and registered nurses pursuing graduate degrees.

(24) "Nurse educator employment obligation" means employment in this State as a nurse educator for at least 2 years for each year of scholarship assistance received under Section 6.5 of this Law.

Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)

(110 ILCS 975/5) (from Ch. 144, par. 2755)

Sec. 5. Nursing education scholarships. Beginning with the fall term of the 2004-2005 academic year, the Department, in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by it for this program, shall provide scholarships to individuals selected from among those applicants who qualify for consideration by showing:

(1) that he or she has been a resident of this State for at least one year prior to application, and is a citizen or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States;

(2) that he or she is enrolled in or accepted for admission to an associate degree in nursing program, hospital-based diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing program, or practical nursing program at an approved institution; and

(3) that he or she agrees to meet the nursing employment obligation.

If in any year the number of qualified applicants exceeds the number of scholarships to be awarded, the Department shall, in consultation with the Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing Advisory Board, consider the following factors in granting priority in awarding scholarships:

(A) Financial need, as shown on a standardized financial needs assessment form used by an approved institution, of students who will pursue their education on a full-time or close to full-time basis and who already have a certificate in practical nursing, a diploma in nursing, or an associate degree in nursing and are pursuing a higher degree.

(B) A student's status as a registered nurse who is pursuing a graduate degree in nursing to pursue employment in an approved institution that educates licensed practical nurses and that educates registered nurses in undergraduate and graduate nursing programs.

(C) A student's merit, as shown through his or her grade point average, class rank, and other academic and extracurricular activities. The Department may add to and further define these merit criteria by rule.

Unless otherwise indicated, scholarships shall be awarded to recipients at approved institutions for a period of up to 2 years if the recipient is enrolled in an associate degree in nursing program, up to 3 years if the recipient is enrolled in a hospital-based diploma in nursing program, up to 4 years if the recipient is enrolled in a baccalaureate degree in nursing program, up to 5 years if the recipient is enrolled in a graduate degree in nursing program, and up to one year if the recipient is enrolled in a certificate in practical nursing program. At least 40% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing baccalaureate degrees in nursing, 30% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing associate degrees in nursing or a diploma in nursing, 10% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing a certificate in practical nursing, and 20% of the scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing a graduate degree in nursing.

(Source: P.A. 93-879, eff. 1-1-05; 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06.)

(110 ILCS 975/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Nurse educator scholarships.

(a) Beginning with the fall term of the 2009-2010 academic year, the Department shall provide scholarships to individuals selected from among those applicants who qualify for consideration by showing the following:

(1) that he or she has been a resident of this State for at least one year prior to application and is a citizen or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States;

(2) that he or she is enrolled in or accepted for admission to a graduate degree in nursing program at an approved institution; and

(3) that he or she agrees to meet the nurse educator employment obligation.

(b) If in any year the number of qualified applicants exceeds the number of scholarships to be awarded under this Section, the Department shall, in consultation with the Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing Advisory Board, consider the following factors in granting priority in awarding scholarships:

(1) Financial need, as shown on a standardized financial needs assessment form used by an approved institution, of students who will pursue their education on a full-time or close to full-time basis and who already have a diploma in nursing and are pursuing a higher degree.

(2) A student's status as a registered nurse who is pursuing a graduate degree in nursing to pursue employment in an approved institution that educates licensed practical nurses and that educates registered nurses in undergraduate and graduate nursing programs.

(3) A student's merit, as shown through his or her grade point average, class rank, experience as a nurse, including supervisory experience, experience as a nurse in the United States military, and other academic and extracurricular activities.

(c) Unless otherwise indicated, scholarships under this Section shall be awarded to recipients at approved institutions for a period of up to 3 years.

(d) Within 12 months after graduation from a graduate degree in nursing program for nurse educators, any recipient who accepted a scholarship under this Section shall begin meeting the required nurse educator employment obligation. In order to defer his or her continuous employment obligation, a recipient must request the deferment in writing from the Department. A recipient shall receive a deferment if he or she notifies the Department, within 30 days after enlisting, that he or she is spending up to 4 years in military service. A recipient shall receive a deferment if he or she notifies the Department, within 30 days after enrolling, that he or she is enrolled in an academic program leading to a graduate degree in nursing. The recipient must begin meeting the required nurse educator employment obligation no later than 6 months after the end of the deferment or deferments.

Any person who fails to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation shall pay to the Department an amount equal to the amount of scholarship funds received per year for each unfulfilled year of the nurse educator employment obligation, together with interest at 7% per year on the unpaid balance. Payment must begin within 6 months following the date of the occurrence initiating the repayment. All repayments must be completed within 6 years from the date of the occurrence initiating the repayment. However, this repayment obligation may be deferred and re-evaluated every 6 months when the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation results from involuntarily leaving the profession due to a decrease in the number of nurses employed in this State or when the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation results from total and permanent disability. The repayment obligation shall be excused if the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation results from the death or adjudication as incompetent of the person holding the scholarship. No claim for repayment may be filed against the estate of such a decedent or incompetent.

The Department may allow a nurse educator employment obligation fulfillment alternative if the nurse educator scholarship recipient is unsuccessful in finding work as a nurse educator. The Department shall maintain a database of all available nurse educator positions in this State.

(e) Each person applying for a scholarship under this Section must be provided with a copy of this Section at the time of application for the benefits of this scholarship.

(f) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.

(Source: P.A. 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)

Section 100. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:

(210 ILCS 5/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice registered nurses. All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted by the consulting committee of the ASTC. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery by the consulting committee of the ASTC. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an ambulatory surgical treatment center employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice registered nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice registered nursing services in an ambulatory surgical treatment center. An advanced practice registered nurse must possess clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice registered nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advanced practice registered nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice registered nurses granted privileges.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted by the medical staff and ASTC, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with clinical privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff consulting committee in consultation with the anesthesia service and included in the medical staff consulting committee policies.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 105. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(210 ILCS 9/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act:

"Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, bathing, toileting, transferring, or personal hygiene.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a home, building, residence, or any other place where sleeping accommodations are provided for at least 3 unrelated adults, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the following are provided consistent with the purposes of this Act:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit in assisted living and shared housing is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident;

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or resident's representative; and

(4) a physical environment that is a homelike setting that includes the following and such other elements as established by the Department: individual living units each of which shall accommodate small kitchen appliances and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet facilities, or private washing and toilet facilities with a common bathing room readily accessible to each resident. Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in cases in which 2 residents choose to share a unit. Sufficient common space shall exist to permit individual and group activities.

"Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. However, a facility licensed under any of those Acts may convert distinct parts of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted living establishment under this Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) A shared housing establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Director of Public Health.

"Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to a resident of an establishment.

"License" means any of the following types of licenses issued to an applicant or licensee by the Department:

(1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an applicant or licensee that has not held a license under this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act.

(2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the Department to an applicant or licensee that is in substantial compliance with this Act and any rules promulgated under this Act.

"Licensee" means a person, agency, association, corporation, partnership, or organization that has been issued a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Licensed health care professional" means a registered professional nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, and a licensed practical nurse.

"Mandatory services" include the following:

(1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared by the establishment or an outside contractor;

(2) housekeeping services including, but not limited to, vacuuming, dusting, and cleaning the resident's unit;

(3) personal laundry and linen services available to the residents provided or arranged for by the establishment;

(4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but not limited to, locked entrances or building or contract security personnel;

(5) an emergency communication response system, which is a procedure in place 24 hours each day by which a resident can notify building management, an emergency response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her need for assistance; and

(6) assistance with activities of daily living as required by each resident.

"Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or his or her representative, may formally negotiate with providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume in service provision and the resident's living environment. The provider assures that the resident and the resident's representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these decisions and of the potential consequences of assuming these risks.

"Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other person who owns an assisted living or shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted living or shared housing establishment is operated by a person who leases or manages the physical plant, which is owned by another person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment, except that if the person who owns the physical plant is an affiliate of the person who operates the assisted living or shared housing establishment and has significant control over the day to day operations of the assisted living or shared housing establishment, the person who owns the physical plant shall incur jointly and severally with the owner all liabilities imposed on an owner under this Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or shared housing establishment.

"Resident's representative" means a person, other than the owner, agent, or employee of an establishment or of the health care provider unless related to the resident, designated in writing by a resident to be his or her representative. This designation may be accomplished through the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the Probate Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of representative form specified by the Department.

"Self" means the individual or the individual's designated representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a publicly or privately operated free-standing residence for 16 or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of the residence, where the following are provided:

(1) services consistent with a social model that is based on the premise that the resident's unit is his or her own home;

(2) community-based residential care for persons who need assistance with activities of daily living, including housing and personal, supportive, and intermittent health-related services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a resident; and

(3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by the establishment or by another entity arranged for by the establishment, with the consent of the resident or the resident's representative.

"Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not mean any of the following:

(1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by the federal government or the State of Illinois.

(2) A long term care facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a facility licensed under the MC/DD Act. A facility licensed under any of those Acts may, however, convert sections of the facility to assisted living. If the facility elects to do so, the facility shall retain the Certificate of Need for its nursing beds that were converted.

(3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis, care, and treatment of human illness and that is required to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act.

(4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child Care Act of 1969.

(5) A community living facility as defined in the Community Living Facilities Licensing Act.

(6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and for persons who rely exclusively upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the creed or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious denomination.

(7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human Services as a community-integrated living arrangement as defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements Licensure and Certification Act.

(8) A supportive residence licensed under the Supportive Residences Licensing Act.

(9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities Act; a life care facility may apply under this Act to convert sections of the community to assisted living.

(10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(11) An assisted living establishment.

(12) A supportive living facility as described in Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Total assistance" means that staff or another individual performs the entire activity of daily living without participation by the resident.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 110. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:

(210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)

Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a licensed physician assistant, (v-A) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (vi) an authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other authorized person shall submit a written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive the written request within that period, it shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.

(Source: P.A. 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 115. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by changing Section 3-206.05 as follows:

(210 ILCS 45/3-206.05)

Sec. 3-206.05. Safe resident handling policy.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care worker" means an individual providing direct resident care services who may be required to lift, transfer, reposition, or move a resident.

"Nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Safe lifting equipment and accessories" means mechanical equipment designed to lift, move, reposition, and transfer residents, including, but not limited to, fixed and portable ceiling lifts, sit-to-stand lifts, slide sheets and boards, slings, and repositioning and turning sheets.

"Safe lifting team" means at least 2 individuals who are trained and proficient in the use of both safe lifting techniques and safe lifting equipment and accessories.

"Adjustable equipment" means products and devices that may be adapted for use by individuals with physical and other disabilities in order to optimize accessibility. Adjustable equipment includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) Wheelchairs with adjustable footrest height and seat width and depth.

(2) Height-adjustable, drop-arm commode chairs and height-adjustable shower gurneys or shower benches to enable individuals with mobility disabilities to use a toilet and to shower safely and with increased comfort.

(3) Accessible weight scales that accommodate wheelchair users.

(4) Height-adjustable beds that can be lowered to accommodate individuals with mobility disabilities in getting in and out of bed and that utilize drop-down side railings for stability and positioning support.

(5) Universally designed or adaptable call buttons and motorized bed position and height controls that can be operated by persons with limited or no reach range, fine motor ability, or vision.

(6) Height-adjustable platform tables for physical therapy with drop-down side railings for stability and positioning support.

(7) Therapeutic rehabilitation and exercise machines with foot straps to secure the user's feet to the pedals and with cuffs or splints to augment the user's grip strength on handles.

(b) A facility must adopt and ensure implementation of a policy to identify, assess, and develop strategies to control risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a resident. The policy shall establish a process that, at a minimum, includes all of the following:

(1) Analysis of the risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers taking into account the resident handling needs of the resident populations served by the facility and the physical environment in which the resident handling and movement occurs.

(2) Education and training of nurses and other direct resident care providers in the identification, assessment, and control of risks of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers during resident handling and on safe lifting policies and techniques and current lifting equipment.

(3) Evaluation of alternative ways to reduce risks associated with resident handling, including evaluation of equipment and the environment.

(4) Restriction, to the extent feasible with existing equipment and aids, of manual resident handling or movement of all or most of a resident's weight except for emergency, life-threatening, or otherwise exceptional circumstances.

(5) Procedures for a nurse to refuse to perform or be involved in resident handling or movement that the nurse in good faith believes will expose a resident or nurse or other health care worker to an unacceptable risk of injury.

(6) Development of strategies to control risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a resident.

(7) In developing architectural plans for construction or remodeling of a facility or unit of a facility in which resident handling and movement occurs, consideration of the feasibility of incorporating resident handling equipment or the physical space and construction design needed to incorporate that equipment.

(8) Fostering and maintaining resident safety, dignity, self-determination, and choice, including the following policies, strategies, and procedures:

(A) The existence and availability of a trained safe lifting team.

(B) A policy of advising residents of a range of transfer and lift options, including adjustable diagnostic and treatment equipment, mechanical lifts, and provision of a trained safe lifting team.

(C) The right of a competent resident, or the guardian of a resident adjudicated incompetent, to choose among the range of transfer and lift options consistent with the procedures set forth under subdivision (b)(5) and the policies set forth under this paragraph (8), subject to the provisions of subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (8).

(D) Procedures for documenting, upon admission and as status changes, a mobility assessment and plan for lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a resident, including the choice of the resident or the resident's guardian among the range of transfer and lift options.

(E) Incorporation of such safe lifting procedures, techniques, and equipment as are consistent with applicable federal law.

(c) Safe lifting teams must receive specialized, in-depth training that includes, but need not be limited to, the following:

(1) Types and operation of equipment.

(2) Safe manual lifting and moving techniques.

(3) Ergonomic principles in the assessment of risk both to nurses and other workers and to residents.

(4) The selection, safe use, location, and condition of appropriate pieces of equipment individualized to each resident's medical and physical conditions and preferences.

(5) Procedures for advising residents of the full range of transfer and lift options and for documenting individualized lifting plans that include resident choice.

Specialized, in-depth training may rely on federal standards and guidelines such as the United States Department of Labor Guidelines for Nursing Homes, supplemented by federal requirements for barrier removal, independent access, and means of accommodation optimizing independent movement and transfer.

(Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10; 97-866, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 120. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act is amended by changing Sections 3.10 and 3.117 as follows:

(210 ILCS 50/3.10)

Sec. 3.10. Scope of Services.

(a) "Advanced Life Support (ALS) Services" means an advanced level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic life support care, cardiac monitoring, cardiac defibrillation, electrocardiography, intravenous therapy, administration of medications, drugs and solutions, use of adjunctive medical devices, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to Advanced Life Support and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved advanced life support EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(b) "Intermediate Life Support (ILS) Services" means an intermediate level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic life support care plus intravenous cannulation and fluid therapy, invasive airway management, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in the Intermediate Life Support national curriculum of the United States Department of Transportation and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved intermediate or advanced life support EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(c) "Basic Life Support (BLS) Services" means a basic level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and non-emergency medical services that includes medical monitoring, clinical observation, airway management, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), control of shock and bleeding and splinting of fractures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to Basic Life Support and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

That care shall be initiated, where authorized by the EMS Medical Director in a Department approved EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or under the verbal direction of an Emergency Communications Registered Nurse.

(d) "Emergency Medical Responder Services" means a preliminary level of pre-hospital emergency care that includes cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), monitoring vital signs and control of bleeding, as outlined in the Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) curriculum of the National EMS Education Standards and any modifications to that curriculum specified in rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.

(e) "Pre-hospital care" means those medical services rendered to patients for analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, or preventive purposes, precedent to and during transportation of such patients to health care facilities.

(f) "Inter-hospital care" means those medical services rendered to patients for analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, or preventive purposes, during transportation of such patients from one hospital to another hospital.

(f-5) "Critical care transport" means the pre-hospital or inter-hospital transportation of a critically injured or ill patient by a vehicle service provider, including the provision of medically necessary supplies and services, at a level of service beyond the scope of the Paramedic. When medically indicated for a patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician's assistant, in compliance with subsections (b) and (c) of Section 3.155 of this Act, critical care transport may be provided by:

(1) Department-approved critical care transport providers, not owned or operated by a hospital, utilizing Paramedics with additional training, nurses, or other qualified health professionals; or

(2) Hospitals, when utilizing any vehicle service provider or any hospital-owned or operated vehicle service provider. Nothing in Public Act 96-1469 requires a hospital to use, or to be, a Department-approved critical care transport provider when transporting patients, including those critically injured or ill. Nothing in this Act shall restrict or prohibit a hospital from providing, or arranging for, the medically appropriate transport of any patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician's assistant.

(g) "Non-emergency medical services" means medical care, clinical observation, or medical monitoring rendered to patients whose conditions do not meet this Act's definition of emergency, before or during transportation of such patients to or from health care facilities visited for the purpose of obtaining medical or health care services which are not emergency in nature, using a vehicle regulated by this Act.

(g-5) The Department shall have the authority to promulgate minimum standards for critical care transport providers through rules adopted pursuant to this Act. All critical care transport providers must function within a Department-approved EMS System. Nothing in Department rules shall restrict a hospital's ability to furnish personnel, equipment, and medical supplies to any vehicle service provider, including a critical care transport provider. Minimum critical care transport provider standards shall include, but are not limited to:

(1) Personnel staffing and licensure.

(2) Education, certification, and experience.

(3) Medical equipment and supplies.

(4) Vehicular standards.

(5) Treatment and transport protocols.

(6) Quality assurance and data collection.

(h) The provisions of this Act shall not apply to the use of an ambulance or SEMSV, unless and until emergency or non-emergency medical services are needed during the use of the ambulance or SEMSV.

(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-661, eff. 1-1-17.)

(210 ILCS 50/3.117)

Sec. 3.117. Hospital Designations.

(a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation provided they are certified by a nationally-recognized certifying body, approved by the Department, and certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines related to reducing the occurrence, disabilities, and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Primary Stroke Center.

(3) A center designated as a Primary Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3.5) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances where patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal.

(5) A hospital that no longer meets nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(a-5) The Department shall attempt to designate Comprehensive Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.

(1) The Department shall designate as many certified Comprehensive Stroke Centers as apply for that designation, provided that the Comprehensive Stroke Centers are certified by a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department, and provided that the certifying body's certification criteria are consistent with the most current nationally-recognized and evidence-based stroke guidelines for reducing the occurrence of stroke and the disabilities and death associated with stroke.

(2) A hospital certified as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Comprehensive Stroke Center.

(3) A hospital designated as a Comprehensive Stroke Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(4) With respect to a hospital that is a designated Comprehensive Stroke Center, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Suspend or revoke the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized certifying body.

(B) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation, in extreme circumstances in which patients may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such time as the certifying body investigates and makes a final determination regarding certification.

(C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked Department designation upon notice to the Department that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the Comprehensive Stroke Center certification of that previously designated hospital.

(D) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking to suspend its own Department designation.

(5) Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, in good standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification. Each designated Comprehensive Stroke Center shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal.

(6) A hospital that no longer meets nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, or loses its Comprehensive Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days.

(b) Beginning on the first day of the month that begins 12 months after the adoption of rules authorized by this subsection, the Department shall attempt to designate hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals in all areas of the State. Designation may be approved by the Department after a hospital has been certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital or through application and designation by the Department. For any hospital that is designated as an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital at the time that the Department begins the designation of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, the Emergent Stroke Ready designation shall remain intact for the duration of the 12-month period until that designation expires. Until the Department begins the designation of hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, hospitals may achieve Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation utilizing the processes and criteria provided in Public Act 96-514.

(1) (Blank).

(2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation and pays an annual fee.

A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(2.5) A hospital may apply for, and receive, Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, provided that the hospital provides proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification and the hospital pays an annual fee.

(A) Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its certification as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, with the certifying body.

(B) The duration of an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall coincide with the duration of its Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification.

(C) Each designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's certification renewal and Application for Stroke Center Designation form.

(D) A hospital must submit a copy of its certification renewal from the certifying body as soon as practical but no later than 30 business days after that certification is received by the hospital. Upon the Department's receipt of the renewal certification, the Department shall renew the hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation.

(E) A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection Fund.

(3) Hospitals seeking Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation that do not have certification shall develop policies and procedures that are consistent with nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols for the provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital policies relating to emergent stroke care and stroke patient outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or more often as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees quality improvement. Adjustments shall be made as necessary to advance the quality of stroke care delivered. Criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of hospitals shall be limited to the ability of a hospital to:

(A) create written acute care protocols related to emergent stroke care;

(A-5) participate in the data collection system provided in Section 3.118, if available;

(B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise;

(C) designate a Clinical Director of Stroke Care who shall be a clinical member of the hospital staff with training or experience, as defined by the facility, in the care of patients with cerebrovascular disease. This training or experience may include, but is not limited to, completion of a fellowship or other specialized training in the area of cerebrovascular disease, attendance at national courses, or prior experience in neuroscience intensive care units. The Clinical Director of Stroke Care may be a neurologist, neurosurgeon, emergency medicine physician, internist, radiologist, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician's assistant;

(C-5) provide rapid access to an acute stroke team, as defined by the facility, that considers and reflects nationally-recognized, evidenced-based protocols or guidelines;

(D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or subsequently developed medical therapies that meet nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke guidelines;

(E) conduct brain image tests at all times;

(F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all times;

(G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall be available for review upon request by the Department or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement with the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital;

(H) admit stroke patients to a unit that can provide appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines or transfer stroke patients to an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, Primary Stroke Center, or Comprehensive Stroke Center, or another facility that can provide the appropriate care that considers and reflects nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or guidelines; and

(I) demonstrate compliance with nationally-recognized quality indicators.

(4) With respect to Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, the Department shall have the authority and responsibility to do the following:

(A) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital.

(A-5) Require hospitals applying for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation via national Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification to provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification, in good standing.

The Department shall require a hospital that is already certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital to send a copy of the Certificate to the Department.

Within 30 business days of the Department's receipt of a hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Certificate and Application for Stroke Center Designation form that indicates that the hospital is a certified Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, the hospital shall be deemed a State-designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital. The Department shall send a designation notice to each hospital that it designates as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital and shall add the names of designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to the website listing immediately upon designation. The Department shall immediately remove the name of a hospital from the website listing when a hospital loses its designation after notice and, if requested by the hospital, a hearing.

The Department shall develop an Application for Stroke Center Designation form that contains a statement that "The above named facility meets the requirements for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital Designation as provided in Section 3.117 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act" and shall instruct the applicant facility to provide: the hospital name and address; the hospital CEO or Administrator's typed name and signature; the hospital Clinical Director of Stroke Care's typed name and signature; and a contact person's typed name, email address, and phone number.

The Application for Stroke Center Designation form shall contain a statement that instructs the hospital to "Provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification from a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the Department".

(B) Designate a hospital as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital no more than 30 business days after receipt of an attestation that meets the requirements for attestation, unless the Department, within 30 days of receipt of the attestation, chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation. If the Department chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to designation, then the onsite survey shall be conducted within 90 days of receipt of the attestation.

(C) Require annual written attestation, on a form developed by the Department in consultation with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria, as described in this Section, and automatically renew Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of the hospital.

(D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation when the Director, or his or her designee, has determined that the hospital no longer meets the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger to the public health, safety, and welfare exists. If the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital fails to eliminate the violation immediately or within a fixed period of time, not exceeding 10 days, as determined by the Director, the Director may immediately revoke the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation. The Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital may appeal the revocation within 15 business days after receiving the Director's revocation order, by requesting an administrative hearing.

(E) After notice and an opportunity for an administrative hearing, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, when the Department finds the hospital is not in substantial compliance with current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria.

(c) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee for developing the designation, re-designation, and de-designation processes for Comprehensive Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers, and Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals.

(d) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee as subject matter experts at least annually regarding stroke standards of care.

(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1001, eff. 1-1-15.)

Section 125. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 2.05 and 2.11 as follows:

(210 ILCS 55/2.05) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)

Sec. 2.05. "Home health services" means services provided to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment for illness or infirmity prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse. Such services include part time and intermittent nursing services and other therapeutic services such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, medical social services, or services provided by a home health aide.

(Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(210 ILCS 55/2.11)

Sec. 2.11. "Home nursing agency" means an agency that provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, in order to deliver skilled nursing and home health aide services to persons in their personal residences. A home nursing agency provides services that would require a licensed nurse to perform. Home health aide services are provided under the direction of a registered professional nurse or advanced practice registered Advanced Practice nurse. A home nursing agency does not require licensure as a home health agency under this Act. "Home nursing agency" does not include an individually licensed nurse acting as a private contractor or a person that provides or procures temporary employment in health care facilities, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-379, eff. 1-1-06; 95-951, eff. 8-29-08.)

Section 130. The End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:

(210 ILCS 62/25)

Sec. 25. Minimum staffing. An end stage renal disease facility shall be under the medical direction of a physician experienced in renal disease treatment, as required for licensure under this Act. Additionally, at a minimum, every facility licensed under this Act shall ensure that whenever patients are undergoing dialysis all of the following are met:

(1) one currently licensed physician, registered nurse, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed practical nurse experienced in rendering end stage renal disease care is physically present on the premises to oversee patient care; and

(2) adequate staff is present to meet the medical and non-medical needs of each patient, as provided by this Act and the rules adopted pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 92-794, eff. 7-1-03.)

Section 135. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 6.14g, 6.23a, 6.25, 10, 10.7, 10.8, and 10.9 as follows:

(210 ILCS 85/6.14g)

Sec. 6.14g. Reports to the Department; opioid overdoses.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Overdose" has the same meaning as provided in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

"Health care professional" includes a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed in the State.

(b) When treatment is provided in a hospital's emergency department, a health care professional who treats a drug overdose or hospital administrator or designee shall report the case to the Department of Public Health within 48 hours of providing treatment for the drug overdose or at such time the drug overdose is confirmed. The Department shall by rule create a form for this purpose which requires the following information, if known: (1) whether an opioid antagonist was administered; (2) the cause of the overdose; and (3) the demographic information of the person treated. The Department shall create the form with input from the statewide association representing a majority of hospitals in Illinois. The person completing the form may not disclose the name, address, or any other personal information of the individual experiencing the overdose.

(c) The identity of the person and entity reporting under this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. For the purposes of this subsection, the health care professional, hospital administrator, or designee making the report and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for reporting under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(d) The Department shall provide a semiannual report to the General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report of drug overdose figures. The figures shall be organized by the overdose location, the age of the victim, the cause of the overdose, and any other factors the Department deems appropriate.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.23a)

Sec. 6.23a. Sepsis screening protocols.

(a) Each hospital shall adopt, implement, and periodically update evidence-based protocols for the early recognition and treatment of patients with sepsis, severe sepsis, or septic shock (sepsis protocols) that are based on generally accepted standards of care. Sepsis protocols must include components specific to the identification, care, and treatment of adults and of children, and must clearly identify where and when components will differ for adults and for children seeking treatment in the emergency department or as an inpatient. These protocols must also include the following components:

(1) a process for the screening and early recognition of patients with sepsis, severe sepsis, or septic shock;

(2) a process to identify and document individuals appropriate for treatment through sepsis protocols, including explicit criteria defining those patients who should be excluded from the protocols, such as patients with certain clinical conditions or who have elected palliative care;

(3) guidelines for hemodynamic support with explicit physiologic and treatment goals, methodology for invasive or non-invasive hemodynamic monitoring, and timeframe goals;

(4) for infants and children, guidelines for fluid resuscitation consistent with current, evidence-based guidelines for severe sepsis and septic shock with defined therapeutic goals for children;

(5) identification of the infectious source and delivery of early broad spectrum antibiotics with timely re-evaluation to adjust to narrow spectrum antibiotics targeted to identified infectious sources; and

(6) criteria for use, based on accepted evidence of vasoactive agents.

(b) Each hospital shall ensure that professional staff with direct patient care responsibilities and, as appropriate, staff with indirect patient care responsibilities, including, but not limited to, laboratory and pharmacy staff, are periodically trained to implement the sepsis protocols required under subsection (a). The hospital shall ensure updated training of staff if the hospital initiates substantive changes to the sepsis protocols.

(c) Each hospital shall be responsible for the collection and utilization of quality measures related to the recognition and treatment of severe sepsis for purposes of internal quality improvement.

(d) The evidence-based protocols adopted under this Section shall be provided to the Department upon the Department's request.

(e) Hospitals submitting sepsis data as required by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Hospital Inpatient Quality Reporting program as of fiscal year 2016 are presumed to meet the sepsis protocol requirements outlined in this Section.

(f) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall:

(1) recommend evidence-based sepsis definitions and metrics that incorporate evidence-based findings, including appropriate antibiotic stewardship, and that align with the National Quality Forum, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, and the Joint Commission;

(2) establish and use a methodology for collecting, analyzing, and disclosing the information collected under this Section, including collection methods, formatting, and methods and means for aggregate data release and dissemination;

(3) complete a digest of efforts and recommendations no later than 12 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly; the digest may include Illinois-specific data, trends, conditions, or other clinical factors; a summary shall be provided to the Governor and General Assembly and shall be publicly available on the Department's website; and

(4) consult and seek input and feedback prior to the proposal, publication, or issuance of any guidance, methodologies, metrics, rulemaking, or any other information authorized under this Section from statewide organizations representing hospitals, physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, pharmacists, and long-term care facilities. Public and private hospitals, epidemiologists, infection prevention professionals, health care informatics and health care data professionals, and academic researchers may be consulted.

If the Department receives an appropriation and carries out the requirements of paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4), then the Department may adopt rules concerning the collection of data from hospitals regarding sepsis and requiring that each hospital shall be responsible for reporting to the Department.

Any publicly released hospital-specific information under this Section is subject to data provisions specified in Section 25 of the Hospital Report Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-828, eff. 8-18-16.)

(210 ILCS 85/6.25)

Sec. 6.25. Safe patient handling policy.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care worker" means an individual providing direct patient care services who may be required to lift, transfer, reposition, or move a patient.

"Nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Safe lifting equipment and accessories" means mechanical equipment designed to lift, move, reposition, and transfer patients, including, but not limited to, fixed and portable ceiling lifts, sit-to-stand lifts, slide sheets and boards, slings, and repositioning and turning sheets.

"Safe lifting team" means at least 2 individuals who are trained in the use of both safe lifting techniques and safe lifting equipment and accessories, including the responsibility for knowing the location and condition of such equipment and accessories.

(b) A hospital must adopt and ensure implementation of a policy to identify, assess, and develop strategies to control risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a patient. The policy shall establish a process that, at a minimum, includes all of the following:

(1) Analysis of the risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers posted by the patient handling needs of the patient populations served by the hospital and the physical environment in which the patient handling and movement occurs.

(2) Education and training of nurses and other direct patient care providers in the identification, assessment, and control of risks of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers during patient handling and on safe lifting policies and techniques and current lifting equipment.

(3) Evaluation of alternative ways to reduce risks associated with patient handling, including evaluation of equipment and the environment.

(4) Restriction, to the extent feasible with existing equipment and aids, of manual patient handling or movement of all or most of a patient's weight except for emergency, life-threatening, or otherwise exceptional circumstances.

(5) Collaboration with and an annual report to the nurse staffing committee.

(6) Procedures for a nurse to refuse to perform or be involved in patient handling or movement that the nurse in good faith believes will expose a patient or nurse or other health care worker to an unacceptable risk of injury.

(7) Submission of an annual report to the hospital's governing body or quality assurance committee on activities related to the identification, assessment, and development of strategies to control risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care workers associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a patient.

(8) In developing architectural plans for construction or remodeling of a hospital or unit of a hospital in which patient handling and movement occurs, consideration of the feasibility of incorporating patient handling equipment or the physical space and construction design needed to incorporate that equipment.

(9) Fostering and maintaining patient safety, dignity, self-determination, and choice, including the following policies, strategies, and procedures:

(A) the existence and availability of a trained safe lifting team;

(B) a policy of advising patients of a range of transfer and lift options, including adjustable diagnostic and treatment equipment, mechanical lifts, and provision of a trained safe lifting team;

(C) the right of a competent patient, or guardian of a patient adjudicated incompetent, to choose among the range of transfer and lift options, subject to the provisions of subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (9);

(D) procedures for documenting, upon admission and as status changes, a mobility assessment and plan for lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a patient, including the choice of the patient or patient's guardian among the range of transfer and lift options; and

(E) incorporation of such safe lifting procedures, techniques, and equipment as are consistent with applicable federal law.

(Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-122, eff. 1-1-12.)

(210 ILCS 85/10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 151)

Sec. 10. Board creation; Department rules.

(a) The Governor shall appoint a Hospital Licensing Board composed of 14 persons, which shall advise and consult with the Director in the administration of this Act. The Secretary of Human Services (or his or her designee) shall serve on the Board, along with one additional representative of the Department of Human Services to be designated by the Secretary. Four appointive members shall represent the general public and 2 of these shall be members of hospital governing boards; one appointive member shall be a registered professional nurse or advanced practice registered , nurse as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, who is employed in a hospital; 3 appointive members shall be hospital administrators actively engaged in the supervision or administration of hospitals; 2 appointive members shall be practicing physicians, licensed in Illinois to practice medicine in all of its branches; and one appointive member shall be a physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987; and one appointive member shall be a dentist licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. In making Board appointments, the Governor shall give consideration to recommendations made through the Director by professional organizations concerned with hospital administration for the hospital administrative and governing board appointments, registered professional nurse organizations for the registered professional nurse appointment, professional medical organizations for the physician appointments, and professional dental organizations for the dentist appointment.

(b) Each appointive member shall hold office for a term of 3 years, except that any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of such term and the terms of office of the members first taking office shall expire, as designated at the time of appointment, 2 at the end of the first year, 2 at the end of the second year, and 3 at the end of the third year, after the date of appointment. The initial terms of office of the 2 additional members representing the general public provided for in this Section shall expire at the end of the third year after the date of appointment. The term of office of each original appointee shall commence July 1, 1953; the term of office of the original registered professional nurse appointee shall commence July 1, 1969; the term of office of the original licensed podiatric physician appointee shall commence July 1, 1981; the term of office of the original dentist appointee shall commence July 1, 1987; and the term of office of each successor shall commence on July 1 of the year in which his predecessor's term expires. Board members, while serving on business of the Board, shall receive actual and necessary travel and subsistence expenses while so serving away from their places of residence. The Board shall meet as frequently as the Director deems necessary, but not less than once a year. Upon request of 5 or more members, the Director shall call a meeting of the Board.

(c) The Director shall prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and statements of policy needed to implement, interpret, or make specific the provisions and purposes of this Act. The Department shall adopt rules which set forth standards for determining when the public interest, safety or welfare requires emergency action in relation to termination of a research program or experimental procedure conducted by a hospital licensed under this Act. No rule, regulation, or standard shall be adopted by the Department concerning the operation of hospitals licensed under this Act which has not had prior approval of the Hospital Licensing Board, nor shall the Department adopt any rule, regulation or standard relating to the establishment of a hospital without consultation with the Hospital Licensing Board.

(d) Within one year after August 7, 1984 (the effective date of Public Act 83-1248) this amendatory Act of 1984, all hospitals licensed under this Act and providing perinatal care shall comply with standards of perinatal care promulgated by the Department. The Director shall promulgate rules or regulations under this Act which are consistent with the Developmental Disability Prevention Act "An Act relating to the prevention of developmental disabilities", approved September 6, 1973, as amended.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-26-16.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.7)

Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice registered nurses. All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the following requirements:

(1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, with medical staff membership and surgical clinical privileges granted at the hospital. A licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted clinical privileges to assist in surgery at the hospital. Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not a hospital employee shall be paid at the appropriate non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have made payment had the same services been provided by a physician.

(2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an invasive or operative procedure.

(3) An advanced practice registered nurse is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice registered nursing services in a hospital. An advanced practice registered nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice registered nurses may also be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The attending physician must determine the advanced practice registered nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws. The medical staff shall periodically review the services of advanced practice registered nurses granted privileges. This review shall be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice registered nurses employed by the hospital.

(4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches who has had specialized preparation or experience in the area or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board certified or Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.

(A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges granted at the hospital, may administer anesthesia services are limited to the following:

(i) an anesthesiologist; or

(ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; or

(iii) a dentist with authority to administer anesthesia under Section 8.1 of the Illinois Dental Practice Act; or

(iv) a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist; or

(v) a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. In the absence of 24-hour availability of anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges, an alternate policy (requiring participation, presence, and availability of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical staff and licensed hospital in consultation with the anesthesia service.

(C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not required to possess prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act to provide anesthesia services ordered by a licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to select, order, and administer drugs and apply the appropriate medical devices in the provision of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available anesthesiologist with clinical privileges, agreed with by the operating physician, operating dentist, or operating podiatric physician in accordance with the hospital's alternative policy.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.8)

Sec. 10.8. Requirements for employment of physicians.

(a) Physician employment by hospitals and hospital affiliates. Employing entities may employ physicians to practice medicine in all of its branches provided that the following requirements are met:

(1) The employed physician is a member of the medical staff of either the hospital or hospital affiliate. If a hospital affiliate decides to have a medical staff, its medical staff shall be organized in accordance with written bylaws where the affiliate medical staff is responsible for making recommendations to the governing body of the affiliate regarding all quality assurance activities and safeguarding professional autonomy. The affiliate medical staff bylaws may not be unilaterally changed by the governing body of the affiliate. Nothing in this Section requires hospital affiliates to have a medical staff.

(2) Independent physicians, who are not employed by an employing entity, periodically review the quality of the medical services provided by the employed physician to continuously improve patient care.

(3) The employing entity and the employed physician sign a statement acknowledging that the employer shall not unreasonably exercise control, direct, or interfere with the employed physician's exercise and execution of his or her professional judgment in a manner that adversely affects the employed physician's ability to provide quality care to patients. This signed statement shall take the form of a provision in the physician's employment contract or a separate signed document from the employing entity to the employed physician. This statement shall state: "As the employer of a physician, (employer's name) shall not unreasonably exercise control, direct, or interfere with the employed physician's exercise and execution of his or her professional judgment in a manner that adversely affects the employed physician's ability to provide quality care to patients."

(4) The employing entity shall establish a mutually agreed upon independent review process with criteria under which an employed physician may seek review of the alleged violation of this Section by physicians who are not employed by the employing entity. The affiliate may arrange with the hospital medical staff to conduct these reviews. The independent physicians shall make findings and recommendations to the employing entity and the employed physician within 30 days of the conclusion of the gathering of the relevant information.

(b) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section:

"Employing entity" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or a hospital affiliate.

"Employed physician" means a physician who receives an IRS W-2 form, or any successor federal income tax form, from an employing entity.

"Hospital" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, except county hospitals as defined in subsection (c) of Section 15-1 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.

"Hospital affiliate" means a corporation, partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, or similar organization, other than a hospital, that is devoted primarily to the provision, management, or support of health care services and that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control of the hospital. "Control" means having at least an equal or a majority ownership or membership interest. A hospital affiliate shall be 100% owned or controlled by any combination of hospitals, their parent corporations, or physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois. "Hospital affiliate" does not include a health maintenance organization regulated under the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

"Physician" means an individual licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

"Professional judgment" means the exercise of a physician's independent clinical judgment in providing medically appropriate diagnoses, care, and treatment to a particular patient at a particular time. Situations in which an employing entity does not interfere with an employed physician's professional judgment include, without limitation, the following:

(1) practice restrictions based upon peer review of the physician's clinical practice to assess quality of care and utilization of resources in accordance with applicable bylaws;

(2) supervision of physicians by appropriately licensed medical directors, medical school faculty, department chairpersons or directors, or supervising physicians;

(3) written statements of ethical or religious directives; and

(4) reasonable referral restrictions that do not, in the reasonable professional judgment of the physician, adversely affect the health or welfare of the patient.

(c) Private enforcement. An employed physician aggrieved by a violation of this Act may seek to obtain an injunction or reinstatement of employment with the employing entity as the court may deem appropriate. Nothing in this Section limits or abrogates any common law cause of action. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to alter the law of negligence.

(d) Department enforcement. The Department may enforce the provisions of this Section, but nothing in this Section shall require or permit the Department to license, certify, or otherwise investigate the activities of a hospital affiliate not otherwise required to be licensed by the Department.

(e) Retaliation prohibited. No employing entity shall retaliate against any employed physician for requesting a hearing or review under this Section. No action may be taken that affects the ability of a physician to practice during this review, except in circumstances where the medical staff bylaws authorize summary suspension.

(f) Physician collaboration. No employing entity shall adopt or enforce, either formally or informally, any policy, rule, regulation, or practice inconsistent with the provision of adequate collaboration, including medical direction of licensed advanced practice registered nurses or supervision of licensed physician assistants and delegation to other personnel under Section 54.5 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(g) Physician disciplinary actions. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or prohibit the governing body of an employing entity or its medical staff, if any, from taking disciplinary actions against a physician as permitted by law.

(h) Physician review. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit a hospital or hospital affiliate from making a determination not to pay for a particular health care service or to prohibit a medical group, independent practice association, hospital medical staff, or hospital governing body from enforcing reasonable peer review or utilization review protocols or determining whether the employed physician complied with those protocols.

(i) Review. Nothing in this Section may be used or construed to establish that any activity of a hospital or hospital affiliate is subject to review under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act.

(j) Rules. The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 92-455, eff. 9-30-01; revised 10-26-16.)

(210 ILCS 85/10.9)

Sec. 10.9. Nurse mandated overtime prohibited.

(a) Definitions. As used in this Section:

"Mandated overtime" means work that is required by the hospital in excess of an agreed-to, predetermined work shift. Time spent by nurses required to be available as a condition of employment in specialized units, such as surgical nursing services, shall not be counted or considered in calculating the amount of time worked for the purpose of applying the prohibition against mandated overtime under subsection (b).

"Nurse" means any advanced practice registered nurse, registered professional nurse, or licensed practical nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, who receives an hourly wage and has direct responsibility to oversee or carry out nursing care. For the purposes of this Section, "advanced practice registered nurse" does not include a certified registered nurse anesthetist who is primarily engaged in performing the duties of a nurse anesthetist.

"Unforeseen emergent circumstance" means (i) any declared national, State, or municipal disaster or other catastrophic event, or any implementation of a hospital's disaster plan, that will substantially affect or increase the need for health care services or (ii) any circumstance in which patient care needs require specialized nursing skills through the completion of a procedure. An "unforeseen emergent circumstance" does not include situations in which the hospital fails to have enough nursing staff to meet the usual and reasonably predictable nursing needs of its patients.

(b) Mandated overtime prohibited. No nurse may be required to work mandated overtime except in the case of an unforeseen emergent circumstance when such overtime is required only as a last resort. Such mandated overtime shall not exceed 4 hours beyond an agreed-to, predetermined work shift.

(c) Off-duty period. When a nurse is mandated to work up to 12 consecutive hours, the nurse must be allowed at least 8 consecutive hours of off-duty time immediately following the completion of a shift.

(d) Retaliation prohibited. No hospital may discipline, discharge, or take any other adverse employment action against a nurse solely because the nurse refused to work mandated overtime as prohibited under subsection (b).

(e) Violations. Any employee of a hospital that is subject to this Act may file a complaint with the Department of Public Health regarding an alleged violation of this Section. The complaint must be filed within 45 days following the occurrence of the incident giving rise to the alleged violation. The Department must forward notification of the alleged violation to the hospital in question within 3 business days after the complaint is filed. Upon receiving a complaint of a violation of this Section, the Department may take any action authorized under Section 7 or 9 of this Act.

(f) Proof of violation. Any violation of this Section must be proved by clear and convincing evidence that a nurse was required to work overtime against his or her will. The hospital may defeat the claim of a violation by presenting clear and convincing evidence that an unforeseen emergent circumstance, which required overtime work, existed at the time the employee was required or compelled to work.

(Source: P.A. 94-349, eff. 7-28-05; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

Section 140. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by changing Section 356g.5 as follows:

(215 ILCS 5/356g.5)

Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam.

(a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois.

(b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant, to check for lumps and other changes for the purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer as follows:

(1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years of age but less than 40 years of age; and

(2) annually for women 40 years of age or older.

(c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 145. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 4 and 8.1 as follows:

(225 ILCS 25/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 2304)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.

"Dentist" means a person who has received a general license pursuant to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and who may perform any intraoral and extraoral procedure required in the practice of dentistry and to whom is reserved the responsibilities specified in Section 17.

"Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license under this Act to perform dental services as authorized by Section 18.

"Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental services as authorized by Section 17.

"Dental laboratory" means a person, firm or corporation which:

(i) engages in making, providing, repairing or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and

(ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to provide such services; and

(iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or dentists.

"Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a dental assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the procedure, remain in the dental facility while the procedure is performed, and approve the work performed by the dental hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of the patient, but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all times in the treatment room.

"General supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist requiring that the patient be a patient of record, that the dentist examine the patient in accordance with Section 18 prior to treatment by the dental hygienist, and that the dentist authorize the procedures which are being carried out by a notation in the patient's record, but not requiring that a dentist be present when the authorized procedures are being performed. The issuance of a prescription to a dental laboratory by a dentist does not constitute general supervision.

"Public member" means a person who is not a health professional. For purposes of board membership, any person with a significant financial interest in a health service or profession is not a public member.

"Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with the examination, diagnosis, treatment planning and care of conditions within the human oral cavity and its adjacent tissues and structures, as further specified in Section 17.

"Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of dentistry which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to the following: endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, orthodontics and dentofacial orthopedics, pediatric dentistry, periodontics, prosthodontics, and oral and maxillofacial radiology.

"Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty license pursuant to Section 11(b).

"Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates or is employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making, providing, repairing or altering dental prosthetic appliances and other artificial materials and devices which are returned to a dentist for insertion into the human oral cavity or which come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.

"Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish the person's ability to deliver competent patient care.

"Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified registered nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's most recent dentist has obtained a relevant medical and dental history and on whom the dentist has performed an examination and evaluated the condition to be treated.

"Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness, immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public Health and training certified by the National Incident Management System or the National Disaster Life Support Foundation.

"Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one location to another in order to establish a location where dental services can be provided.

"Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours of clinical experience and has completed at least 42 clock hours of additional structured courses in dental education approved by rule by the Department in advanced areas specific to public health dentistry, including, but not limited to, emergency procedures for medically compromised patients, pharmacology, medical recordkeeping procedures, geriatric dentistry, pediatric dentistry, pathology, and other areas of study as determined by the Department, and works in a public health setting pursuant to a written public health supervision agreement as defined by rule by the Department with a dentist working in or contracted with a local or State government agency or institution or who is providing services as part of a certified school-based program or school-based oral health program.

"Public health setting" means a federally qualified health center; a federal, State, or local public health facility; Head Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; or a certified school-based health center or school-based oral health program.

"Public health supervision" means the supervision of a public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a written public health supervision agreement with that public health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who are eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured and whose household income is not greater than 200% of the federal poverty level.

(Source: P.A. 99-25, eff. 1-1-16; 99-492, eff. 12-31-15; 99-680, eff. 1-1-17.)

(225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and sedation.

(a) No licensed dentist shall administer general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation without first applying for and obtaining a permit for such purpose from the Department. The Department shall issue such permit only after ascertaining that the applicant possesses the minimum qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person with a dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation in an approved hospital training program under the supervision of either a licensed dentist holding such permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.

(b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by rule, shall:

(1) establish the minimum educational and training requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an appropriate permit;

(2) establish the standards for properly equipped dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is administered, as necessary to protect public safety;

(3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who assist the dentist in the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation, including minimum training requirements for each member of the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping requirements, and emergency procedures; and

(4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting the dentist or monitoring the administration of general anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS); and .

(5) establish continuing education requirements in sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under this Section.

When establishing requirements under this Section, the Department shall consider the current American Dental Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation (OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons.

(c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia, and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice registered nurse.

(Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 150. The Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 47/15)

Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:

(a) "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review Board.

(b) "Entity" means any individual, partnership, firm, corporation, or other business that provides health services but does not include an individual who is a health care worker who provides professional services to an individual.

(c) "Group practice" means a group of 2 or more health care workers legally organized as a partnership, professional corporation, not-for-profit corporation, faculty practice plan or a similar association in which:

(1) each health care worker who is a member or employee or an independent contractor of the group provides substantially the full range of services that the health care worker routinely provides, including consultation, diagnosis, or treatment, through the use of office space, facilities, equipment, or personnel of the group;

(2) the services of the health care workers are provided through the group, and payments received for health services are treated as receipts of the group; and

(3) the overhead expenses and the income from the practice are distributed by methods previously determined by the group.

(d) "Health care worker" means any individual licensed under the laws of this State to provide health services, including but not limited to: dentists licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act; dental hygienists licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act; nurses and advanced practice registered nurses licensed under the Nurse Practice Act; occupational therapists licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act; optometrists licensed under the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987; pharmacists licensed under the Pharmacy Practice Act; physical therapists licensed under the Illinois Physical Therapy Act; physicians licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987; physician assistants licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; podiatric physicians licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987; clinical psychologists licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act; clinical social workers licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act; speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed under the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology Practice Act; or hearing instrument dispensers licensed under the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, or any of their successor Acts.

(e) "Health services" means health care procedures and services provided by or through a health care worker.

(f) "Immediate family member" means a health care worker's spouse, child, child's spouse, or a parent.

(g) "Investment interest" means an equity or debt security issued by an entity, including, without limitation, shares of stock in a corporation, units or other interests in a partnership, bonds, debentures, notes, or other equity interests or debt instruments except that investment interest for purposes of Section 20 does not include interest in a hospital licensed under the laws of the State of Illinois.

(h) "Investor" means an individual or entity directly or indirectly owning a legal or beneficial ownership or investment interest, (such as through an immediate family member, trust, or another entity related to the investor).

(i) "Office practice" includes the facility or facilities at which a health care worker, on an ongoing basis, provides or supervises the provision of professional health services to individuals.

(j) "Referral" means any referral of a patient for health services, including, without limitation:

(1) The forwarding of a patient by one health care worker to another health care worker or to an entity outside the health care worker's office practice or group practice that provides health services.

(2) The request or establishment by a health care worker of a plan of care outside the health care worker's office practice or group practice that includes the provision of any health services.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 155. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Sections 8.1, 22, 54.2, and 54.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 60/8.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)

Sec. 8.1. Matters concerning advanced practice registered nurses. Any proposed rules, amendments, second notice materials and adopted rule or amendment materials, and policy statements concerning advanced practice registered nurses shall be presented to the Licensing Board for review and comment. The recommendations of both the Board of Nursing and the Licensing Board shall be presented to the Secretary for consideration in making final decisions. Whenever the Board of Nursing and the Licensing Board disagree on a proposed rule or policy, the Secretary shall convene a joint meeting of the officers of each Board to discuss the resolution of any such disagreements.

(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11.)

(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)

Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.

(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with regard to the license or permit of any person issued under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:

(1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, locale, facility, or institution other than:

(a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act;

(b) an institution licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act;

(c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or hospitalization or care facility maintained by the State or any agency thereof, where such department or agency has authority under law to establish and enforce standards for the ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization, or care facilities under its management and control;

(d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by the Federal Government; or

(e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, hospitalization or care facilities maintained by any university or college established under the laws of this State and supported principally by public funds raised by taxation.

(2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time the abortion procedure was performed.

(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States of any crime that is a felony.

(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.

(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public.

(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation.

(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any other substances which results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, an assumed name.

(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding their skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at their direction in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the body or mind.

(11) Allowing another person or organization to use their license, procured under this Act, to practice.

(12) Adverse action taken by another state or jurisdiction against a license or other authorization to practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine or doctor of chiropractic, a certified copy of the record of the action taken by the other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's participants.

(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the Medical Practice Act prior to the repeal of that Act, or violation of the rules, or a final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board.

(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.

(15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the registrant after having his or her license placed on probationary status or subjected to conditions or restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(16) Abandonment of a patient.

(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving or self-administering any drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances or goods provided for a patient in such manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the physician.

(19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat disease by a secret method, procedure, treatment or medicine, or the treating, operating or prescribing for any human condition by a method, means or procedure which the licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.

(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice.

(21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in his or her practice as a physician, including, but not limited to, false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully impeding the filing or recording, or inducing another person to omit to file or record, medical reports as required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.

(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any corporation, agents or persons, or profiting from those representing themselves to be agents of the licensee.

(25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for professional services, including filing false statements for collection of fees for which services are not rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false statements for collection of monies for services not rendered from the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under this Act.

(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in a physician's inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing examinations administered under this Act.

(30) Wilfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between physician and patient except as required by law.

(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with practice under this Act.

(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed under this Act in the practice of a profession licensed under this Act.

(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations relating to controlled substances, legend drugs, or ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.

(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against them by another licensing jurisdiction (any other state or any territory of the United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer review body, by any health care institution, by any professional society or association related to practice under this Act, by any governmental agency, by any law enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a license or authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on any medical staff or in any medical or professional association or society, while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies, for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse judgment, settlement, or award arising from a liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as required by law.

(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its investigators or representatives, relevant information, legally requested by the Department after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical Coordinator.

(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.

(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by this law.

(42) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed advanced practice registered nurses resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

(45) Entering into an excessive number of written collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately collaborate.

(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a licensed prescribing psychologist.

Except for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next after receipt by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described herein. Except for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and (29), no action shall be commenced more than 10 years after the date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, such claim, cause of action or civil action being grounded on the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an additional period of 2 years from the date of notification to the Department under Section 23 of this Act of such settlement or final judgment in which to investigate and commence formal disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder of the license was outside the State of Illinois shall not be included within any period of time limiting the commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.

The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court establishing that any person holding a license under this Act is a person in need of mental treatment operates as a suspension of that license. That person may resume their practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon a finding by the Disciplinary Board that they have been determined to be recovered from mental illness by the court and upon the Disciplinary Board's recommendation that they be permitted to resume their practice.

The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary action concerning the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as determined by the Illinois Department of Revenue.

The Department, upon the recommendation of the Disciplinary Board, shall adopt rules which set forth standards to be used in determining:

(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;

(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission of any act, including, but not limited to, commission of an act of sexual misconduct related to the licensee's practice; and

(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice of medicine.

However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in any civil action except for review of a licensing or other disciplinary action under this Act.

In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the Licensing Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual who is licensed to practice under this Act or holds a permit to practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the Licensing Board any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee, permit holder, or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds a physician unable to practice following an examination and evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice. Any physician, whose license was granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such terms, conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required program of care, counseling, or treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the licensee shall have their license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the subject physician's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Disciplinary Board that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of fines in disciplinary cases, not to exceed $10,000 for each violation of this Act. Fines may be imposed in conjunction with other forms of disciplinary action, but shall not be the exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds collected from such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(B) The Department shall revoke the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic physician who has been convicted a second time of committing any felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who has been convicted a second time of committing a Class 1 felony under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public Aid Code. A person whose license or permit is revoked under this subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing medicine or treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative surgery.

(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to a physician based solely upon the recommendation of the physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological product, or device.

(D) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the Department civil penalties and any other appropriate discipline in disciplinary cases when the Board finds that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been performed is a minor or an incompetent person without notice as required under the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a second or subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.

(Source: P.A. 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14; 99-270, eff. 1-1-16; 99-933, eff. 1-27-17.)

(225 ILCS 60/54.2)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)

Sec. 54.2. Physician delegation of authority.

(a) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of patient care tasks or duties by a physician, to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other licensed person practicing within the scope of his or her individual licensing Act. Delegation by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to physician assistants or advanced practice registered nurses is also addressed in Section 54.5 of this Act. No physician may delegate any patient care task or duty that is statutorily or by rule mandated to be performed by a physician.

(b) In an office or practice setting and within a physician-patient relationship, a physician may delegate patient care tasks or duties to an unlicensed person who possesses appropriate training and experience provided a health care professional, who is practicing within the scope of such licensed professional's individual licensing Act, is on site to provide assistance.

(c) Any such patient care task or duty delegated to a licensed or unlicensed person must be within the scope of practice, education, training, or experience of the delegating physician and within the context of a physician-patient relationship.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect referrals for professional services required by law.

(e) The Department shall have the authority to promulgate rules concerning a physician's delegation, including but not limited to, the use of light emitting devices for patient care or treatment.

(f) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(Source: P.A. 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; 97-622, eff. 11-23-11.)

(225 ILCS 60/54.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)

Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, and prescribing psychologists.

(a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may enter into supervising physician agreements with no more than 5 physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section 7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration is for the purpose of providing medical consultation, and no employment relationship is required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement shall be for services in the same area of practice or specialty as the collaborating physician in his or her clinical medical practice. A written collaborative agreement shall be adequate with respect to collaboration with advanced practice registered nurses if all of the following apply:

(1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of professional judgment by the advanced practice registered nurse commensurate with his or her education and experience.

(2) The advanced advance practice registered nurse provides services based upon a written collaborative agreement with the collaborating physician, except as set forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must provide delivery services in order to participate with a certified nurse midwife.

(3) Methods of communication are available with the collaborating physician in person or through telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to address patient care needs.

(b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches may collaborate with a certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. Collaboration shall be adequate if:

(1) an anesthesiologist or a physician participates in the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the services provided patients under such orders; and

(2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist or physician participates through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and is physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. Anesthesia services in a hospital shall be conducted in accordance with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.

(c) The supervising physician shall have access to the medical records of all patients attended by a physician assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to the medical records of all patients attended to by an advanced practice registered nurse.

(d) (Blank).

(e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse solely on the basis of having signed a supervision agreement or guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a standing delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has reason to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.

(f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(h) (Blank).

(i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 160. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 50-10, 50-15, 50-50, 50-65, 50-75, 55-10, 55-30, 60-10, 65-5, 65-10, 65-15, 65-20, 65-25, 65-30, 65-35, 65-35.1, 65-40, 65-45, 65-50, 65-55, 65-65, 70-5, and 80-15 and the heading of Article 65 as follows:

(225 ILCS 65/50-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when used in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this Section, except where the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of courses at a college, university, or approved school, customarily regarded as the school year as distinguished from the calendar year.

"Advanced practice registered nurse" or "APRN" "APN" means a person who has met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All advanced practice registered nurses licensed and practicing in the State of Illinois shall use the title APRN APN and may use specialty credentials CNM, CNP, CRNA, or CNS after their name. All advanced practice registered nurses may only practice in accordance with national certification and this Act.

"Approved program of professional nursing education" and "approved program of practical nursing education" are programs of professional or practical nursing, respectively, approved by the Department under the provisions of this Act.

"Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the Secretary.

"Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health care professionals working together, each contributing one's respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive patient care.

"Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced practice registered nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health care professional.

"Credentialed" means the process of assessing and validating the qualifications of a health care professional.

"Current nursing practice update course" means a planned nursing education curriculum approved by the Department consisting of activities that have educational objectives, instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and updating content and specifically planned for those nurses previously licensed in the United States or its territories and preparing for reentry into nursing practice.

"Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry under the Illinois Dental Practice Act.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Hospital affiliate" means a corporation, partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, or similar organization, other than a hospital, that is devoted primarily to the provision, management, or support of health care services and that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control of the hospital. For the purposes of this definition, "control" means having at least an equal or a majority ownership or membership interest. A hospital affiliate shall be 100% owned or controlled by any combination of hospitals, their parent corporations, or physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois. "Hospital affiliate" does not include a health maintenance organization regulated under the Health Maintenance Organization Act.

"Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or her ability to deliver competent patient care.

"License-pending advanced practice registered nurse" means a registered professional nurse who has completed all requirements for licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse except the certification examination and has applied to take the next available certification exam and received a temporary license from the Department.

"License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam and has applied for a license from the Department. A license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.

"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and practices practical nursing as defined in this Act. Only a practical nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the title "licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation "L.P.N.".

"Practical nursing" means the performance of nursing acts requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment, and skill acquired by means of completion of an approved practical nursing education program. Practical nursing includes assisting in the nursing process as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse. The practical nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care professional determined by the Department.

"Privileged" means the authorization granted by the governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or organization to provide specific patient care services within well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the credentialing process.

"Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" means a person who is licensed as a professional nurse under this Act and practices nursing as defined in this Act. Only a registered nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" and the abbreviation, "R.N.".

"Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a learned profession based on the understanding of the human condition across the life span and environment and includes all nursing specialties and means the performance of any nursing act based upon professional knowledge, judgment, and skills acquired by means of completion of an approved professional nursing education program. A registered professional nurse provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process to individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes but is not limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation, and nursing evaluation; (2) the promotion, maintenance, and restoration of health; (3) counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed podiatric physician, or a licensed optometrist or as prescribed by a physician assistant or by an advanced practice registered nurse; (5) the coordination and management of the nursing plan of care; (6) the delegation to and supervision of individuals who assist the registered professional nurse implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include those acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or corrective measures.

"Professional assistance program for nurses" means a professional assistance program that meets criteria established by the Board of Nursing and approved by the Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to practice is compromised by alcohol or chemical substance addiction.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good standing.

"Written collaborative agreement" means a written agreement between an advanced practice registered nurse and a collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician pursuant to Section 65-35.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-330, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(225 ILCS 65/50-15) (was 225 ILCS 65/5-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-15. Policy; application of Act.

(a) For the protection of life and the promotion of health, and the prevention of illness and communicable diseases, any person practicing or offering to practice advanced, professional, or practical nursing in Illinois shall submit evidence that he or she is qualified to practice, and shall be licensed as provided under this Act. No person shall practice or offer to practice advanced, professional, or practical nursing in Illinois or use any title, sign, card or device to indicate that such a person is practicing professional or practical nursing unless such person has been licensed under the provisions of this Act.

(b) This Act does not prohibit the following:

(1) The practice of nursing in Federal employment in the discharge of the employee's duties by a person who is employed by the United States government or any bureau, division or agency thereof and is a legally qualified and licensed nurse of another state or territory and not in conflict with Sections 50-50, 55-10, 60-10, and 70-5 of this Act.

(2) Nursing that is included in the program of study by students enrolled in programs of nursing or in current nurse practice update courses approved by the Department.

(3) The furnishing of nursing assistance in an emergency.

(4) The practice of nursing by a nurse who holds an active license in another state when providing services to patients in Illinois during a bonafide emergency or in immediate preparation for or during interstate transit.

(5) The incidental care of the sick by members of the family, domestic servants or housekeepers, or care of the sick where treatment is by prayer or spiritual means.

(6) Persons from being employed as unlicensed assistive personnel in private homes, long term care facilities, nurseries, hospitals or other institutions.

(7) The practice of practical nursing by one who is a licensed practical nurse under the laws of another U.S. jurisdiction and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as a licensed practical nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.

(8) The practice of advanced practice registered nursing by one who is an advanced practice registered nurse under the laws of another state, territory of the United States, or country and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as an advanced practice registered nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.

(9) The practice of professional nursing by one who is a registered professional nurse under the laws of another state, territory of the United States or country and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as a registered professional nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under Section 55-10, until (1) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written application, (2) the withdrawal of such application, or (3) the denial of such application by the Department.

(10) The practice of professional nursing that is included in a program of study by one who is a registered professional nurse under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or foreign country, territory or province and who is enrolled in a graduate nursing education program or a program for the completion of a baccalaureate nursing degree in this State, which includes clinical supervision by faculty as determined by the educational institution offering the program and the health care organization where the practice of nursing occurs.

(11) Any person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which she or he is licensed.

(12) Delegation to authorized direct care staff trained under Section 15.4 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act consistent with the policies of the Department.

(13) The practice, services, or activities of persons practicing the specified occupations set forth in subsection (a) of, and pursuant to a licensing exemption granted in subsection (b) or (d) of, Section 2105-350 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, but only for so long as the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games Professional Licensure Exemption Law is operable.

(14) County correctional personnel from delivering prepackaged medication for self-administration to an individual detainee in a correctional facility.

Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician, dentist, or podiatric physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/50-50) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-50. Prohibited acts.

(a) No person shall:

(1) Practice as an advanced practice registered nurse without a valid license as an advanced practice registered nurse, except as provided in Section 50-15 of this Act;

(2) Practice professional nursing without a valid license as a registered professional nurse except as provided in Section 50-15 of this Act;

(3) Practice practical nursing without a valid license as a licensed practical nurse or practice practical nursing, except as provided in Section 50-15 of this Act;

(4) Practice nursing under cover of any diploma, license, or record illegally or fraudulently obtained or signed or issued unlawfully or under fraudulent representation;

(5) Practice nursing during the time her or his license is suspended, revoked, expired or on inactive status;

(6) Use any words, abbreviations, figures, letters, title, sign, card, or device tending to imply that she or he is a registered professional nurse, including the titles or initials, "Nurse," "Registered Nurse," "Professional Nurse," "Registered Professional Nurse," "Certified Nurse," "Trained Nurse," "Graduate Nurse," "P.N.," or "R.N.," or "R.P.N." or similar titles or initials with intention of indicating practice without a valid license as a registered professional nurse;

(7) Use any words, abbreviations, figures, letters, titles, signs, cards, or devices tending to imply that she or he is an advanced practice registered nurse, including the titles or initials "Advanced Practice Registered Nurse", "APRN" "A.P.N.", or similar titles or initials, with the intention of indicating practice as an advanced practice registered nurse without a valid license as an advanced practice registered nurse under this Act.

(8) Use any words, abbreviations figures, letters, title, sign, card, or device tending to imply that she or he is a licensed practical nurse including the titles or initials "Practical Nurse," "Licensed Practical Nurse," "P.N.," or "L.P.N.," or similar titles or initials with intention of indicated practice as a licensed practical nurse without a valid license as a licensed practical nurse under this Act;

(9) Advertise services regulated under this Act without including in every advertisement his or her title as it appears on the license or the initials authorized under this Act;

(10) Obtain or furnish a license by or for money or any other thing of value other than the fees required under this Act, or by any fraudulent representation or act;

(11) Make any wilfully false oath or affirmation required by this Act;

(12) Conduct a nursing education program preparing persons for licensure that has not been approved by the Department;

(13) Represent that any school or course is approved or accredited as a school or course for the education of registered professional nurses or licensed practical nurses unless such school or course is approved by the Department under the provisions of this Act;

(14) Attempt or offer to do any of the acts enumerated in this Section, or knowingly aid, abet, assist in the doing of any such acts or in the attempt or offer to do any of such acts;

(15) Employ persons not licensed under this Act to practice professional nursing or practical nursing; and

(16) Otherwise intentionally violate any provision of this Act.

(17) Retaliate against any nurse who reports unsafe, unethical, or illegal health care practices or conditions.

(18) Be deemed a supervisor when delegating nursing activities or tasks as authorized under this Act.

(b) Any person, including a firm, association or corporation who violates any provision of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/50-65) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-65. Board.

(a) The term of each member of the Board of Nursing and the Advanced Practice Registered Nursing Board serving before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall terminate on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, the Secretary shall solicit recommendations from nursing organizations and appoint the Board of Nursing, which shall consist of 13 members, one of whom shall be a practical nurse; one of whom shall be a practical nurse educator; one of whom shall be a registered professional nurse in practice; one of whom shall be an associate degree nurse educator; one of whom shall be a baccalaureate degree nurse educator; one of whom shall be a nurse who is actively engaged in direct care; one of whom shall be a registered professional nurse actively engaged in direct care; one of whom shall be a nursing administrator; 4 of whom shall be advanced practice registered nurses representing CNS, CNP, CNM, and CRNA practice; and one of whom shall be a public member who is not employed in and has no material interest in any health care field. The Board shall receive actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

Members of the Board of Nursing and the Advanced Practice Registered Nursing Board whose terms were terminated by this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall be considered for membership positions on the Board.

All nursing members of the Board must be (i) residents of this State, (ii) licensed in good standing to practice nursing in this State, (iii) graduates of an approved nursing program, with a minimum of 5 years experience in the field of nursing, and (iv) at the time of appointment to the Board, actively engaged in nursing or work related to nursing.

Membership terms shall be for 3 years, except that in making initial appointments, the Secretary shall appoint all members for initial terms of 2, 3, and 4 years and these terms shall be staggered as follows: 3 shall be appointed for terms of 2 years; 4 shall be appointed for terms of 3 years; and 6 shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. No member shall be appointed to more than 2 consecutive terms. In the case of a vacated position, an individual may be appointed to serve the unexpired portion of that term; if the term is less than half of a full term, the individual is eligible to serve 2 full terms.

The Secretary may remove any member of the Board for misconduct, incapacity, or neglect of duty. The Secretary shall reduce to writing any causes for removal.

The Board shall meet annually to elect a chairperson and vice chairperson. The Board shall hold regularly scheduled meetings during the year. A simple majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum at any meeting. Any action taken by the Board must be on the affirmative vote of a simple majority of members. Voting by proxy shall not be permitted. In the case of an emergency where all Board members cannot meet in person, the Board may convene a meeting via an electronic format in accordance with the Open Meetings Act.

(b) The Board may perform each of the following activities:

(1) Recommend to the Department the adoption and the revision of rules necessary for the administration of this Act;

(2) Recommend the approval, denial of approval, withdrawal of approval, or discipline of nursing education programs;

(c) The Board shall participate in disciplinary conferences and hearings and make recommendations to the Department regarding disciplinary action taken against a licensee as provided under this Act. Disciplinary conference hearings and proceedings regarding scope of practice issues shall be conducted by a Board member at the same or higher licensure level as the respondent. Participation in an informal conference shall not bar members of the Board from future participation or decisions relating to that matter.

(d) With the exception of emergency rules, any proposed rules, amendments, second notice materials, and adopted rule or amendment materials or policy statements concerning advanced practice registered nurses shall be presented to the Medical Licensing Board for review and comment. The recommendations of both the Board of Nursing and the Medical Licensing Board shall be presented to the Secretary for consideration in making final decisions. Whenever the Board of Nursing and Medical Licensing Board disagree on a proposed rule or policy, the Secretary shall convene a joint meeting of the officers of each Board to discuss resolution of any disagreements.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/50-75)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 50-75. Nursing delegation.

(a) For the purposes of this Section:

"Delegation" means transferring to an individual the authority to perform a selected nursing activity or task, in a selected situation.

"Nursing activity" means any work requiring the use of knowledge acquired by completion of an approved program for licensure, including advanced education, continuing education, and experience as a licensed practical nurse or professional nurse, as defined by the Department by rule.

"Task" means work not requiring nursing knowledge, judgment, or decision-making, as defined by the Department by rule.

(b) Nursing shall be practiced by licensed practical nurses, registered professional nurses, and advanced practice registered nurses. In the delivery of nursing care, nurses work with many other licensed professionals and other persons. An advanced practice registered nurse may delegate to registered professional nurses, licensed practical nurses, and others persons.

(c) A registered professional nurse shall not delegate any nursing activity requiring the specialized knowledge, judgment, and skill of a licensed nurse to an unlicensed person, including medication administration. A registered professional nurse may delegate nursing activities to other registered professional nurses or licensed practical nurses.

A registered nurse may delegate tasks to other licensed and unlicensed persons. A licensed practical nurse who has been delegated a nursing activity shall not re-delegate the nursing activity. A registered professional nurse or advanced practice registered nurse retains the right to refuse to delegate or to stop or rescind a previously authorized delegation.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/55-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 55-10. Qualifications for LPN licensure.

(a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements of this Section shall be entitled to licensure as a Licensed Practical Nurse.

(b) An applicant for licensure by examination to practice as a practical nurse must do each of the following:

(1) Submit a completed written application, on forms provided by the Department and fees as established by the Department.

(2) Have graduated from a practical nursing education program approved by the Department or have been granted a certificate of completion of pre-licensure requirements from another United States jurisdiction.

(3) Successfully complete a licensure examination approved by the Department.

(4) Have not violated the provisions of this Act concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The Department may take into consideration any felony conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction shall not operate as an absolute bar to licensure.

(5) Submit to the criminal history records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act.

(6) Submit either to the Department or its designated testing service, a fee covering the cost of providing the examination. Failure to appear for the examination on the scheduled date at the time and place specified after the applicant's application for examination has been received and acknowledged by the Department or the designated testing service shall result in the forfeiture of the examination fee.

(7) Meet all other requirements established by rule.

An applicant for licensure by examination may take the Department-approved examination in another jurisdiction.

(b-5) If an applicant for licensure by examination neglects, fails, or refuses to take an examination or fails to pass an examination for a license under this Act within 3 years after filing the application, the application shall be denied. The applicant must enroll in and complete an approved practical nursing education program prior to submitting an additional application for the licensure exam.

An applicant may take and successfully complete a Department-approved examination in another jurisdiction. However, an applicant who has never been licensed previously in any jurisdiction that utilizes a Department-approved examination and who has taken and failed to pass the examination within 3 years after filing the application must submit proof of successful completion of a Department-authorized nursing education program or recompletion of an approved licensed practical nursing program prior to re-application.

(c) An applicant for licensure by examination shall have one year from the date of notification of successful completion of the examination to apply to the Department for a license. If an applicant fails to apply within one year, the applicant shall be required to retake and pass the examination unless licensed in another jurisdiction of the United States.

(d) A licensed practical nurse applicant who passes the Department-approved licensure examination and has applied to the Department for licensure may obtain employment as a license-pending practical nurse and practice as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse or physician. An individual may be employed as a license-pending practical nurse if all of the following criteria are met:

(1) He or she has completed and passed the Department-approved licensure exam and presents to the employer the official written notification indicating successful passage of the licensure examination.

(2) He or she has completed and submitted to the Department an application for licensure under this Section as a practical nurse.

(3) He or she has submitted the required licensure fee.

(4) He or she has met all other requirements established by rule, including having submitted to a criminal history records check.

(e) The privilege to practice as a license-pending practical nurse shall terminate with the occurrence of any of the following:

(1) Three months have passed since the official date of passing the licensure exam as inscribed on the formal written notification indicating passage of the exam. This 3-month period may be extended as determined by rule.

(2) Receipt of the practical nurse license from the Department.

(3) Notification from the Department that the application for licensure has been denied.

(4) A request by the Department that the individual terminate practicing as a license-pending practical nurse until an official decision is made by the Department to grant or deny a practical nurse license.

(f) An applicant for licensure by endorsement who is a licensed practical nurse licensed by examination under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or a foreign country, jurisdiction, territory, or province must do each of the following:

(1) Submit a completed written application, on forms supplied by the Department, and fees as established by the Department.

(2) Have graduated from a practical nursing education program approved by the Department.

(3) Submit verification of licensure status directly from the United States jurisdiction of licensure, if applicable, as defined by rule.

(4) Submit to the criminal history records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act.

(5) Meet all other requirements as established by the Department by rule.

(g) All applicants for practical nurse licensure by examination or endorsement who are graduates of nursing educational programs in a country other than the United States or its territories shall have their nursing education credentials evaluated by a Department-approved nursing credentialing evaluation service. No such applicant may be issued a license under this Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the nursing credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a professional nursing education program approved by the Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing educational program outside of the United States or its territories and whose first language is not English shall submit certification of passage of the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL), as defined by rule. The Department may, upon recommendation from the nursing evaluation service, waive the requirement that the applicant pass the TOEFL examination if the applicant submits verification of the successful completion of a nursing education program conducted in English. The requirements of this subsection (d) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of a certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools.

(h) An applicant licensed in another state or territory who is applying for licensure and has received her or his education in a country other than the United States or its territories shall have her or his nursing education credentials evaluated by a Department-approved nursing credentialing evaluation service. No such applicant may be issued a license under this Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the nursing credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a professional nursing education program approved by the Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing educational program outside of the United States or its territories and whose first language is not English shall submit certification of passage of the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL), as defined by rule. The Department may, upon recommendation from the nursing evaluation service, waive the requirement that the applicant pass the TOEFL examination if the applicant submits verification of the successful completion of a nursing education program conducted in English or the successful passage of an approved licensing examination given in English. The requirements of this subsection (d-5) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of a certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools.

(i) A licensed practical nurse who holds an unencumbered license in good standing in another United States jurisdiction and who has applied for practical nurse licensure under this Act by endorsement may be issued a temporary license, if satisfactory proof of such licensure in another jurisdiction is presented to the Department. The Department shall not issue an applicant a temporary practical nurse license until it is satisfied that the applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in good standing in another jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current active license or one or more active temporary licenses from another jurisdiction, the Department may not issue a temporary license until the Department is satisfied that each current active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The temporary license, which shall be issued no later than 14 working days following receipt by the Department of an application for the temporary license, shall be granted upon the submission of all of the following to the Department:

(1) A completed application for licensure as a practical nurse.

(2) Proof of a current, active license in at least one other jurisdiction of the United States and proof that each current active license or temporary license held by the applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered.

(3) A signed and completed application for a temporary license.

(4) The required temporary license fee.

(j) The Department may refuse to issue an applicant a temporary license authorized pursuant to this Section if, within 14 working days following its receipt of an application for a temporary license, the Department determines that:

(1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under the laws of a jurisdiction of the United States that is: (i) a felony; or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years;

(2) the applicant has had a license or permit related to the practice of practical nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction within the last 5 years and at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or

(3) the Department intends to deny licensure by endorsement.

(k) The Department may revoke a temporary license issued pursuant to this Section if it determines any of the following:

(1) That the applicant has been convicted of a crime under the law of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years.

(2) That within the last 5 years the applicant has had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction, and at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this Act.

(3) That the Department intends to deny licensure by endorsement.

(l) A temporary license shall expire 6 months from the date of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the Department in hardship cases, as defined by rule and upon approval of the Secretary. However, a temporary license shall automatically expire upon issuance of a valid license under this Act or upon notification that the Department intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs first.

(m) All applicants for practical nurse licensure have 3 years from the date of application to complete the application process. If the process has not been completed within 3 years from the date of application, the application shall be denied, the fee forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.

(Source: P.A. 94-352, eff. 7-28-05; 94-932, eff. 1-1-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/55-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 55-30. LPN scope of practice.

(a) Practice as a licensed practical nurse means a scope of basic nursing practice, with or without compensation, as delegated by a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse or as directed by a physician assistant, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician, and includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Collecting data and collaborating in the assessment of the health status of a patient.

(2) Collaborating in the development and modification of the registered professional nurse's or advanced practice registered nurse's comprehensive nursing plan of care for all types of patients.

(3) Implementing aspects of the plan of care as delegated.

(4) Participating in health teaching and counseling to promote, attain, and maintain the optimum health level of patients, as delegated.

(5) Serving as an advocate for the patient by communicating and collaborating with other health service personnel, as delegated.

(6) Participating in the evaluation of patient responses to interventions.

(7) Communicating and collaborating with other health care professionals as delegated.

(8) Providing input into the development of policies and procedures to support patient safety.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/60-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 60-10. Qualifications for RN licensure.

(a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements of this Section shall be entitled to licensure as a registered professional nurse.

(b) An applicant for licensure by examination to practice as a registered professional nurse must do each of the following:

(1) Submit a completed written application, on forms provided by the Department, and fees, as established by the Department.

(2) Have graduated from a professional nursing education program approved by the Department or have been granted a certificate of completion of pre-licensure requirements from another United States jurisdiction.

(3) Successfully complete a licensure examination approved by the Department.

(4) Have not violated the provisions of this Act concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The Department may take into consideration any felony conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction may not operate as an absolute bar to licensure.

(5) Submit to the criminal history records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act.

(6) Submit, either to the Department or its designated testing service, a fee covering the cost of providing the examination. Failure to appear for the examination on the scheduled date at the time and place specified after the applicant's application for examination has been received and acknowledged by the Department or the designated testing service shall result in the forfeiture of the examination fee.

(7) Meet all other requirements established by the Department by rule. An applicant for licensure by examination may take the Department-approved examination in another jurisdiction.

(b-5) If an applicant for licensure by examination neglects, fails, or refuses to take an examination or fails to pass an examination for a license within 3 years after filing the application, the application shall be denied. The applicant may make a new application accompanied by the required fee, evidence of meeting the requirements in force at the time of the new application, and proof of the successful completion of at least 2 additional years of professional nursing education.

(c) An applicant for licensure by examination shall have one year after the date of notification of the successful completion of the examination to apply to the Department for a license. If an applicant fails to apply within one year, the applicant shall be required to retake and pass the examination unless licensed in another jurisdiction of the United States.

(d) An applicant for licensure by examination who passes the Department-approved licensure examination for professional nursing may obtain employment as a license-pending registered nurse and practice under the direction of a registered professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse until such time as he or she receives his or her license to practice or until the license is denied. In no instance shall any such applicant practice or be employed in any management capacity. An individual may be employed as a license-pending registered nurse if all of the following criteria are met:

(1) He or she has completed and passed the Department-approved licensure exam and presents to the employer the official written notification indicating successful passage of the licensure examination.

(2) He or she has completed and submitted to the Department an application for licensure under this Section as a registered professional nurse.

(3) He or she has submitted the required licensure fee.

(4) He or she has met all other requirements established by rule, including having submitted to a criminal history records check.

(e) The privilege to practice as a license-pending registered nurse shall terminate with the occurrence of any of the following:

(1) Three months have passed since the official date of passing the licensure exam as inscribed on the formal written notification indicating passage of the exam. The 3-month license pending period may be extended if more time is needed by the Department to process the licensure application.

(2) Receipt of the registered professional nurse license from the Department.

(3) Notification from the Department that the application for licensure has been refused.

(4) A request by the Department that the individual terminate practicing as a license-pending registered nurse until an official decision is made by the Department to grant or deny a registered professional nurse license.

(f) An applicant for registered professional nurse licensure by endorsement who is a registered professional nurse licensed by examination under the laws of another state or territory of the United States must do each of the following:

(1) Submit a completed written application, on forms supplied by the Department, and fees as established by the Department.

(2) Have graduated from a registered professional nursing education program approved by the Department.

(3) Submit verification of licensure status directly from the United States jurisdiction of licensure, if applicable, as defined by rule.

(4) Submit to the criminal history records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act.

(5) Meet all other requirements as established by the Department by rule.

(g) Pending the issuance of a license under this Section, the Department may grant an applicant a temporary license to practice nursing as a registered professional nurse if the Department is satisfied that the applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in good standing in another U.S. jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current active license or one or more active temporary licenses from another jurisdiction, the Department may not issue a temporary license until the Department is satisfied that each current active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The temporary license, which shall be issued no later than 14 working days after receipt by the Department of an application for the temporary license, shall be granted upon the submission of all of the following to the Department:

(1) A completed application for licensure as a registered professional nurse.

(2) Proof of a current, active license in at least one other jurisdiction of the United States and proof that each current active license or temporary license held by the applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered.

(3) A completed application for a temporary license.

(4) The required temporary license fee.

(h) The Department may refuse to issue an applicant a temporary license authorized pursuant to this Section if, within 14 working days after its receipt of an application for a temporary license, the Department determines that:

(1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under the laws of a jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years;

(2) the applicant has had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction within the last 5 years, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this Act; or

(3) the Department intends to deny licensure by endorsement.

(i) The Department may revoke a temporary license issued pursuant to this Section if it determines any of the following:

(1) That the applicant has been convicted of a crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years.

(2) That within the last 5 years, the applicant has had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this Act.

(3) That it intends to deny licensure by endorsement.

(j) A temporary license issued under this Section shall expire 6 months after the date of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the Department in hardship cases, as defined by rule and upon approval of the Secretary. However, a temporary license shall automatically expire upon issuance of the Illinois license or upon notification that the Department intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs first.

(k) All applicants for registered professional nurse licensure have 3 years after the date of application to complete the application process. If the process has not been completed within 3 years after the date of application, the application shall be denied, the fee forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.

(l) All applicants for registered nurse licensure by examination or endorsement who are graduates of practical nursing educational programs in a country other than the United States and its territories shall have their nursing education credentials evaluated by a Department-approved nursing credentialing evaluation service. No such applicant may be issued a license under this Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the nursing credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a professional nursing education program approved by the Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing educational program outside of the United States or its territories and whose first language is not English shall submit certification of passage of the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL), as defined by rule. The Department may, upon recommendation from the nursing evaluation service, waive the requirement that the applicant pass the TOEFL examination if the applicant submits verification of the successful completion of a nursing education program conducted in English. The requirements of this subsection (l) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of a certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools.

(m) An applicant licensed in another state or territory who is applying for licensure and has received her or his education in a country other than the United States or its territories shall have her or his nursing education credentials evaluated by a Department-approved nursing credentialing evaluation service. No such applicant may be issued a license under this Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the nursing credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a professional nursing education program approved by the Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing educational program outside of the United States or its territories and whose first language is not English shall submit certification of passage of the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL), as defined by rule. The Department may, upon recommendation from the nursing evaluation service, waive the requirement that the applicant pass the TOEFL examination if the applicant submits verification of the successful completion of a nursing education program conducted in English or the successful passage of an approved licensing examination given in English. The requirements of this subsection (m) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of a certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/Art. 65 heading)

ARTICLE 65. ADVANCED PRACTICE REGISTERED NURSES

(Article scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-5) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-5. Qualifications for APRN APN licensure.

(a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements of this Section shall be entitled to licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse.

(b) An applicant for licensure to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse must do each of the following:

(1) Submit a completed application and any fees as established by the Department.

(2) Hold a current license to practice as a registered professional nurse under this Act.

(3) Have successfully completed requirements to practice as, and holds and maintains current, national certification as, a nurse midwife, clinical nurse specialist, nurse practitioner, or certified registered nurse anesthetist from the appropriate national certifying body as determined by rule of the Department.

(4) Have obtained a graduate degree appropriate for national certification in a clinical advanced practice registered nursing specialty or a graduate degree or post-master's certificate from a graduate level program in a clinical advanced practice registered nursing specialty.

(5) Have not violated the provisions of this Act concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The Department may take into consideration any felony conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction may not operate as an absolute bar to licensure.

(6) Submit to the criminal history records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act.

(b-5) A registered professional nurse seeking licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse in the category of certified registered nurse anesthetist who does not have a graduate degree as described in subsection (b) of this Section shall be qualified for licensure if that person:

(1) submits evidence of having successfully completed a nurse anesthesia program described in item (4) of subsection (b) of this Section prior to January 1, 1999;

(2) submits evidence of certification as a registered nurse anesthetist by an appropriate national certifying body; and

(3) has continually maintained active, up-to-date recertification status as a certified registered nurse anesthetist by an appropriate national recertifying body.

(b-10) The Department shall issue a certified registered nurse anesthetist license to an APRN APN who (i) does not have a graduate degree, (ii) applies for licensure before July 1, 2018, and (iii) submits all of the following to the Department:

(1) His or her current State registered nurse license number.

(2) Proof of current national certification, which includes the completion of an examination from either of the following:

(A) the Council on Certification of the American Association of Nurse Anesthetists; or

(B) the Council on Recertification of the American Association of Nurse Anesthetists.

(3) Proof of the successful completion of a post-basic advanced practice formal education program in the area of nurse anesthesia prior to January 1, 1999.

(4) His or her complete work history for the 5-year period immediately preceding the date of his or her application.

(5) Verification of licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse from the state in which he or she was originally licensed, current state of licensure, and any other state in which he or she has been actively practicing as an advanced practice registered nurse within the 5-year period immediately preceding the date of his or her application. If applicable, this verification must state:

(A) the time during which he or she was licensed in each state, including the date of the original issuance of each license; and

(B) any disciplinary action taken or pending concerning any nursing license held, currently or in the past, by the applicant.

(6) The required fee.

(c) Those applicants seeking licensure in more than one advanced practice registered nursing specialty need not possess multiple graduate degrees. Applicants may be eligible for licenses for multiple advanced practice registered nurse licensure specialties, provided that the applicant (i) has met the requirements for at least one advanced practice registered nursing specialty under paragraphs (3) and (5) of subsection (a) of this Section, (ii) possesses an additional graduate education that results in a certificate for another clinical advanced practice registered nurse specialty and that meets the requirements for the national certification from the appropriate nursing specialty, and (iii) holds a current national certification from the appropriate national certifying body for that additional advanced practice registered nursing specialty.

(Source: P.A. 98-837, eff. 1-1-15.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-13)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-10. APRN APN license pending status.

(a) A graduate of an advanced practice registered nursing program may practice in the State of Illinois in the role of certified clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse midwife, certified nurse practitioner, or certified registered nurse anesthetist for not longer than 6 months provided he or she submits all of the following:

(1) An application for licensure as an advanced practice registered nurse in Illinois and all fees established by rule.

(2) Proof of an application to take the national certification examination in the specialty.

(3) Proof of completion of a graduate advanced practice education program that allows the applicant to be eligible for national certification in a clinical advanced practice registered nursing specialty and that allows the applicant to be eligible for licensure in Illinois in the area of his or her specialty.

(4) Proof that he or she is licensed in Illinois as a registered professional nurse.

(b) License pending status shall preclude delegation of prescriptive authority.

(c) A graduate practicing in accordance with this Section must use the title "license pending certified clinical nurse specialist", "license pending certified nurse midwife", "license pending certified nurse practitioner", or "license pending certified registered nurse anesthetist", whichever is applicable.

(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-15. Expiration of APRN APN license; renewal.

(a) The expiration date and renewal period for each advanced practice registered nurse license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The holder of a license may renew the license during the month preceding the expiration date of the license by paying the required fee. It is the responsibility of the licensee to notify the Department in writing of a change of address.

(b) On and after May 30, 2020, except as provided in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section, each advanced practice registered nurse is required to show proof of continued, current national certification in the specialty.

(c) An advanced practice registered nurse who does not meet the educational requirements necessary to obtain national certification but has continuously held an unencumbered license under this Act since 2001 shall not be required to show proof of national certification in the specialty to renew his or her advanced practice registered nurse license.

(d) The Department may renew the license of an advanced practice registered nurse who applies for renewal of his or her license on or before May 30, 2016 and is unable to provide proof of continued, current national certification in the specialty but complies with all other renewal requirements.

(e) Any advanced practice registered nurse license renewed on and after May 31, 2016 based on the changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall be retroactive to the expiration date.

(Source: P.A. 99-505, eff. 5-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-20. Restoration of APRN APN license; temporary permit.

(a) Any license issued under this Act that has expired or that is on inactive status may be restored by making application to the Department and filing proof of fitness acceptable to the Department as specified by rule to have the license restored and by paying the required restoration fee. Such proof of fitness may include evidence certifying active lawful practice in another jurisdiction.

(b) A licensee seeking restoration of a license after it has expired or been placed on inactive status for more than 5 years shall file an application, on forms supplied by the Department, and submit the restoration or renewal fees set forth by the Department. The licensee shall also submit proof of fitness to practice, including one of the following:

(1) Certification of active practice in another jurisdiction, which may include a statement from the appropriate board or licensing authority in the other jurisdiction in which the licensee was authorized to practice during the term of said active practice.

(2) Proof of the successful completion of a Department-approved licensure examination.

(3) An affidavit attesting to military service as provided in subsection (c) of this Section; however, if application is made within 2 years after discharge and if all other provisions of subsection (c) of this Section are satisfied, the applicant shall be required to pay the current renewal fee.

(4) Other proof as established by rule.

(c) Any advanced practice registered nurse license issued under this Act that expired while the licensee was (1) in federal service on active duty with the Armed Forces of the United States or in the State Militia called into service or training or (2) in training or education under the supervision of the United States preliminary to induction into the military service may have the license restored without paying any lapsed renewal fees if, within 2 years after honorable termination of such service, training, or education, the applicant furnishes the Department with satisfactory evidence to the effect that the applicant has been so engaged and that the individual's service, training, or education has been so terminated.

(d) Any licensee who engages in the practice of advanced practice registered nursing with a lapsed license or while on inactive status shall be considered to be practicing without a license, which shall be grounds for discipline under Section 70-5 of this Act.

(e) Pending restoration of an advanced practice registered nurse license under this Section, the Department may grant an applicant a temporary permit to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse if the Department is satisfied that the applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in good standing in another jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current active license or one or more active temporary licenses from another jurisdiction, the Department shall not issue a temporary permit until it is satisfied that each current active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The temporary permit, which shall be issued no later than 14 working days after receipt by the Department of an application for the permit, shall be granted upon the submission of all of the following to the Department:

(1) A signed and completed application for restoration of licensure under this Section as an advanced practice registered nurse.

(2) Proof of (i) a current, active license in at least one other jurisdiction and proof that each current, active license or temporary permit held by the applicant is unencumbered or (ii) fitness to practice nursing in Illinois, as specified by rule.

(3) A signed and completed application for a temporary permit.

(4) The required permit fee.

(5) Other proof as established by rule.

(f) The Department may refuse to issue to an applicant a temporary permit authorized under this Section if, within 14 working days after its receipt of an application for a temporary permit, the Department determines that:

(1) the applicant has been convicted within the last 5 years of any crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession;

(2) within the last 5 years, the applicant had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this Act; or

(3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the license.

(g) The Department may revoke a temporary permit issued under this Section if:

(1) the Department determines that the applicant has been convicted within the last 5 years of any crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the profession;

(2) within the last 5 years, the applicant had a license or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or placing on probation is the same or substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or

(3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the license.

(h) A temporary permit or renewed temporary permit shall expire (i) upon issuance of an Illinois license or (ii) upon notification that the Department intends to deny restoration of licensure. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a temporary permit shall expire 6 months from the date of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the Department in hardship cases that shall automatically expire upon issuance of the Illinois license or upon notification that the Department intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs first. No extensions shall be granted beyond the 6-month period unless approved by the Secretary. Notification by the Department under this Section must be by certified or registered mail.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-25. Inactive status of a APRN APN license. Any advanced practice registered nurse who notifies the Department in writing on forms prescribed by the Department may elect to place his or her license on inactive status and shall, subject to rules of the Department, be excused from payment of renewal fees until notice is given to the Department in writing of his or her intent to restore the license.

Any advanced practice registered nurse requesting restoration from inactive status shall be required to pay the current renewal fee and shall be required to restore his or her license, as provided by rule of the Department.

Any advanced practice registered nurse whose license is on inactive status shall not practice advanced practice registered nursing, as defined by this Act in the State of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-30. APRN APN scope of practice.

(a) Advanced practice registered nursing by certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse anesthetists, certified nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists is based on knowledge and skills acquired throughout an advanced practice registered nurse's nursing education, training, and experience.

(b) Practice as an advanced practice registered nurse means a scope of nursing practice, with or without compensation, and includes the registered nurse scope of practice.

(c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice registered nurse includes, but is not limited to, each of the following:

(1) Advanced nursing patient assessment and diagnosis.

(2) Ordering diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures, performing those tests and procedures when using health care equipment, and interpreting and using the results of diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures ordered by the advanced practice registered nurse or another health care professional.

(3) Ordering treatments, ordering or applying appropriate medical devices, and using nursing medical, therapeutic, and corrective measures to treat illness and improve health status.

(4) Providing palliative and end-of-life care.

(5) Providing advanced counseling, patient education, health education, and patient advocacy.

(6) Prescriptive authority as defined in Section 65-40 of this Act.

(7) Delegating selected nursing activities or tasks to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other personnel.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-35) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative agreements.

(a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all advanced practice registered nurses engaged in clinical practice, except for advanced practice registered nurses who are authorized to practice in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(a-5) If an advanced practice registered nurse engages in clinical practice outside of a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is authorized to practice, the advanced practice registered nurse must have a written collaborative agreement.

(b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the relationship of the advanced practice registered nurse with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician and shall describe the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be provided by the advanced practice registered nurse. A collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in accordance with subsection (c-10) of this Section. Collaboration does not require an employment relationship between the collaborating physician or podiatric physician and advanced practice registered nurse.

The collaborative relationship under an agreement shall not be construed to require the personal presence of a physician or podiatric physician at the place where services are rendered. Methods of communication shall be available for consultation with the collaborating physician or podiatric physician in person or by telecommunications or electronic communications as set forth in the written agreement.

(b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of patients of an advanced practice registered nurse within the scope of the advanced practice registered nurses training and experience, (2) limit third party payors or government health programs, such as the medical assistance program or Medicare with which the advanced practice registered nurse contracts, or (3) limit the geographic area or practice location of the advanced practice registered nurse in this State.

(c) In the case of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and remain physically present and available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.

(c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those services that the collaborating podiatric physician is authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating podiatric physician.

(c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter into a written collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the working relationship of the certified registered nurse anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only provide those services that the operating dentist with the appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist.

(d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement must be available to the Department upon request from both the advanced practice registered nurse and the collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an advanced practice registered nurse to provide health care services required by law or rule to be performed by a physician.

(f) An advanced practice registered nurse shall inform each collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of all collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician upon request.

(g) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-35.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-35.1. Written collaborative agreement; temporary practice. Any advanced practice registered nurse required to enter into a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician or collaborating podiatrist is authorized to continue to practice for up to 90 days after the termination of a collaborative agreement provided the advanced practice registered nurse seeks any needed collaboration at a local hospital and refers patients who require services beyond the training and experience of the advanced practice registered nurse to a physician or other health care provider.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-40) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-20)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-40. Written collaborative agreement; prescriptive authority.

(a) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as any Schedule III through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies. The collaborating physician or podiatric physician must have a valid current Illinois controlled substance license and federal registration to delegate authority to prescribe delegated controlled substances.

(b) To prescribe controlled substances under this Section, an advanced practice registered nurse must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license. Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician.

(c) The collaborating physician or podiatric physician shall file with the Department notice of delegation of prescriptive authority and termination of such delegation, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon receipt of this notice delegating authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances, the licensed advanced practice registered nurse shall be eligible to register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(d) In addition to the requirements of subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, a collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, but is not required to, delegate authority to an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(1) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated.

(2) Any delegation must be controlled substances that the collaborating physician or podiatric physician prescribes.

(3) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician.

(4) The advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician.

(5) The advanced practice registered nurse meets the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to any medication authority including Schedule II controlled substances of an advanced practice registered nurse for care provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45.

(g) Any advanced practice registered nurse who writes a prescription for a controlled substance without having a valid appropriate authority may be fined by the Department not more than $50 per prescription, and the Department may take any other disciplinary action provided for in this Act.

(h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-45) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice registered nursing in hospitals, hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.

(a) An advanced practice registered nurse may provide services in a hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section 65-35 of this Act. An advanced practice registered nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff committee shall periodically review the services of advanced practice registered nurses granted clinical privileges, including any care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center to individual advanced practice registered nurses to select, order, and administer medications, including controlled substances, to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending physician shall determine an advanced practice registered nurse's role in providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee policies.

(a-2) An advanced practice registered nurse granted authority to order medications including controlled substances may complete discharge prescriptions provided the prescription is in the name of the advanced practice registered nurse and the attending or discharging physician.

(a-3) Advanced practice registered nurses practicing in a hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not required to obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to order controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(a-5) For anesthesia services provided by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, dentist, or podiatric physician shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions, unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted pursuant to clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act provides otherwise. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication for anesthesia services under the anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(b) An advanced practice registered nurse who provides services in a hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act and, in an ambulatory surgical treatment center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.

(c) Advanced practice registered nurses certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists practicing in a hospital affiliate may be, but are not required to be, granted authority to prescribe Schedule II through V controlled substances when such authority is recommended by the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate and granted by the hospital affiliate. This authority may, but is not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and dispensing over-the-counter medications, legend drugs, medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and herbal remedies.

To prescribe controlled substances under this subsection (c), an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist must obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license. Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the appropriate hospital affiliate physicians committee or its physician designee.

The hospital affiliate shall file with the Department notice of a grant of prescriptive authority consistent with this subsection (c) and termination of such a grant of authority, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon receipt of this notice of grant of authority to prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled substances, the licensed advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist may register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

In addition, a hospital affiliate may, but is not required to, grant authority to an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following conditions apply:

(1) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be designated, provided that the designated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced practice registered nurses in their area of certification; this grant of authority must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name; authority to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be granted;

(2) any grant of authority must be controlled substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice registered nurse;

(3) any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply;

(4) the advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician designee; and

(5) the advanced practice registered nurse must meet the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-50) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-30)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-50. APRN APN title.

(a) No person shall use any words, abbreviations, figures, letters, title, sign, card, or device tending to imply that he or she is an advanced practice registered nurse, including but not limited to using the titles or initials "Advanced Practice Registered Nurse", "Certified Nurse Midwife", "Certified Nurse Practitioner", "Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist", "Clinical Nurse Specialist", "A.P.R.N." "A.P.N.", "C.N.M.", "C.N.P.", "C.R.N.A.", "C.N.S.", or similar titles or initials, with the intention of indicating practice as an advanced practice registered nurse without meeting the requirements of this Act.

(b) No advanced practice registered nurse shall indicate to other persons that he or she is qualified to engage in the practice of medicine.

(c) An advanced practice registered nurse shall verbally identify himself or herself as an advanced practice registered nurse, including specialty certification, to each patient.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to relieve an advanced practice registered nurse of the professional or legal responsibility for the care and treatment of persons attended by him or her.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-55) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-55. Advertising as an APRN APN.

(a) A person licensed under this Act as an advanced practice registered nurse may advertise the availability of professional services in the public media or on the premises where the professional services are rendered. The advertising shall be limited to the following information:

(1) publication of the person's name, title, office hours, address, and telephone number;

(2) information pertaining to the person's areas of specialization, including but not limited to appropriate board certification or limitation of professional practice;

(3) publication of the person's collaborating physician's, dentist's, or podiatric physician's name, title, and areas of specialization;

(4) information on usual and customary fees for routine professional services offered, which shall include notification that fees may be adjusted due to complications or unforeseen circumstances;

(5) announcements of the opening of, change of, absence from, or return to business;

(6) announcement of additions to or deletions from professional licensed staff; and

(7) the issuance of business or appointment cards.

(b) It is unlawful for a person licensed under this Act as an advanced practice registered nurse to use testimonials or claims of superior quality of care to entice the public. It shall be unlawful to advertise fee comparisons of available services with those of other licensed persons.

(c) This Article does not authorize the advertising of professional services that the offeror of the services is not licensed or authorized to render. Nor shall the advertiser use statements that contain false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading material or guarantees of success, statements that play upon the vanity or fears of the public, or statements that promote or produce unfair competition.

(d) It is unlawful and punishable under the penalty provisions of this Act for a person licensed under this Article to knowingly advertise that the licensee will accept as payment for services rendered by assignment from any third party payor the amount the third party payor covers as payment in full, if the effect is to give the impression of eliminating the need of payment by the patient of any required deductible or copayment applicable in the patient's health benefit plan.

(e) A licensee shall include in every advertisement for services regulated under this Act his or her title as it appears on the license or the initials authorized under this Act.

(f) As used in this Section, "advertise" means solicitation by the licensee or through another person or entity by means of handbills, posters, circulars, motion pictures, radio, newspapers, or television or any other manner.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/65-65) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-55)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 65-65. Reports relating to APRN APN professional conduct and capacity.

(a) Entities Required to Report.

(1) Health Care Institutions. The chief administrator or executive officer of a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public Health, which provides the minimum due process set forth in Section 10.4 of the Hospital Licensing Act, shall report to the Board when an advanced practice registered nurse's organized professional staff clinical privileges are terminated or are restricted based on a final determination, in accordance with that institution's bylaws or rules and regulations, that (i) a person has either committed an act or acts that may directly threaten patient care and that are not of an administrative nature or (ii) that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The chief administrator or officer shall also report if an advanced practice registered nurse accepts voluntary termination or restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon conduct related directly to patient care and not of an administrative nature, or in lieu of formal action seeking to determine whether a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care. The Board shall provide by rule for the reporting to it of all instances in which a person licensed under this Article, who is impaired by reason of age, drug, or alcohol abuse or physical or mental impairment, is under supervision and, where appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Reports submitted under this subsection shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed and considered only by the members of the Board or authorized staff as provided by rule of the Board. Provisions shall be made for the periodic report of the status of any such reported person not less than twice annually in order that the Board shall have current information upon which to determine the status of that person. Initial and periodic reports of impaired advanced practice registered nurses shall not be considered records within the meaning of the State Records Act and shall be disposed of, following a determination by the Board that such reports are no longer required, in a manner and at an appropriate time as the Board shall determine by rule. The filing of reports submitted under this subsection shall be construed as the filing of a report for purposes of subsection (c) of this Section.

(2) Professional Associations. The President or chief executive officer of an association or society of persons licensed under this Article, operating within this State, shall report to the Board when the association or society renders a final determination that a person licensed under this Article has committed unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under the person's care.

(3) Professional Liability Insurers. Every insurance company that offers policies of professional liability insurance to persons licensed under this Article, or any other entity that seeks to indemnify the professional liability of a person licensed under this Article, shall report to the Board the settlement of any claim or cause of action, or final judgment rendered in any cause of action, that alleged negligence in the furnishing of patient care by the licensee when the settlement or final judgment is in favor of the plaintiff.

(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each county shall report to the Board all instances in which a person licensed under this Article is convicted or otherwise found guilty of the commission of a felony.

(5) State Agencies. All agencies, boards, commissions, departments, or other instrumentalities of the government of this State shall report to the Board any instance arising in connection with the operations of the agency, including the administration of any law by the agency, in which a person licensed under this Article has either committed an act or acts that may constitute a violation of this Article, that may constitute unprofessional conduct related directly to patient care, or that indicates that a person licensed under this Article may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger patients under that person's care.

(b) Mandatory Reporting. All reports required under items (16) and (17) of subsection (a) of Section 70-5 shall be submitted to the Board in a timely fashion. The reports shall be filed in writing within 60 days after a determination that a report is required under this Article. All reports shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the report.

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who is the subject of the report.

(3) The name or other means of identification of any patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the report, except that no medical records may be revealed without the written consent of the patient or patients.

(4) A brief description of the facts that gave rise to the issuance of the report, including but not limited to the dates of any occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the report.

(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the court in which the action is filed, the docket number, and date of filing of the action.

(6) Any further pertinent information that the reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the report.

Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed to in any way waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports and committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the confidential use of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, and authorized clerical staff and shall be afforded the same status as is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(c) Immunity from Prosecution. An individual or organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing a report or other information to the Board, by assisting in the investigation or preparation of a report or information, by participating in proceedings of the Board, or by serving as a member of the Board shall not, as a result of such actions, be subject to criminal prosecution or civil damages.

(d) Indemnification. Members of the Board, the Board's attorneys, the investigative staff, advanced practice registered nurses or physicians retained under contract to assist and advise in the investigation, and authorized clerical staff shall be indemnified by the State for any actions (i) occurring within the scope of services on the Board, (ii) performed in good faith, and (iii) not wilful and wanton in nature. The Attorney General shall defend all actions taken against those persons unless he or she determines either that there would be a conflict of interest in the representation or that the actions complained of were not performed in good faith or were wilful and wanton in nature. If the Attorney General declines representation, the member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a determination by a court that the member's actions were not performed in good faith or were wilful and wanton in nature. The member shall notify the Attorney General within 7 days of receipt of notice of the initiation of an action involving services of the Board. Failure to so notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification. The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days after receiving the notice whether he or she will undertake to represent the member.

(e) Deliberations of Board. Upon the receipt of a report called for by this Section, other than those reports of impaired persons licensed under this Article required pursuant to the rules of the Board, the Board shall notify in writing by certified mail the person who is the subject of the report. The notification shall be made within 30 days of receipt by the Board of the report. The notification shall include a written notice setting forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in the notification shall be the address at which the file is maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and the telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. The person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written statement responding to, clarifying, adding to, or proposing to amend the report previously filed. The statement shall become a permanent part of the file and shall be received by the Board no more than 30 days after the date on which the person was notified of the existence of the original report. The Board shall review all reports received by it and any supporting information and responding statements submitted by persons who are the subject of reports. The review by the Board shall be in a timely manner but in no event shall the Board's initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the receipt of the initial report by the Board. When the Board makes its initial review of the materials contained within its disciplinary files, the Board shall, in writing, make a determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Failure to make that determination within the time provided shall be deemed to be a determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action. Should the Board find that there are not sufficient facts to warrant further investigation or action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the matter shall be deemed closed and so reported. The individual or entity filing the original report or complaint and the person who is the subject of the report or complaint shall be notified in writing by the Board of any final action on their report or complaint.

(f) Summary Reports. The Board shall prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than one every other month, a summary report of final actions taken upon disciplinary files maintained by the Board. The summary reports shall be made available to the public upon request and payment of the fees set by the Department. This publication may be made available to the public on the Department's Internet website.

(g) Any violation of this Section shall constitute a Class A misdemeanor.

(h) If a person violates the provisions of this Section, an action may be brought in the name of the People of the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of Illinois, for an order enjoining the violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon filing of a verified petition in court, the court may issue a temporary restraining order without notice or bond and may preliminarily or permanently enjoin the violation, and if it is established that the person has violated or is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of court. Proceedings under this subsection shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided for by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(225 ILCS 65/70-5) (was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below. All fines collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund.

(b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:

(1) Material deception in furnishing information to the Department.

(2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or violation of the rules of or final administrative action of the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation of the Board.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession.

(4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act.

(5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or rules.

(6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a request for information in response to a written request made by the Department by certified mail.

(7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule.

(8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or prescription device.

(9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug that could result in a licensee's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.

(10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or his license placed on probationary status or subject to conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of probation or failed to comply with such terms or conditions.

(12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services and under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully impeding the filing or recording or inducing another person to omit to file or record medical reports as required by law or willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, professional, or advanced practice registered nursing.

(15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under any name other than one's own.

(16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department any adverse final action taken against him or her by another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health care institution, any professional or nursing society or association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section.

(17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to practice nursing or advanced practice registered nursing in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or advanced practice registered nursing or professional association or society while under disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as defined by this Section.

(18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department.

(19) Failure to establish and maintain records of patient care and treatment as required by law.

(20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(21) Allowing another person or organization to use the licensees' license to deceive the public.

(22) Willfully making or filing false records or reports in the licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records to support claims against the medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) under the Illinois Public Aid Code.

(23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a licensing examination administered under this Act.

(24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, including, but not limited to, sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the licensee's practice.

(25) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between nurse and patient except as required by law.

(26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except as provided by law.

(27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive statement in any document connected with the licensee's practice.

(28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(29) A violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(30) Physical illness, including but not limited to deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill, mental illness, or disability that results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(31) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric physician in guidelines established under a written collaborative agreement.

(32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course of treatment.

(33) Prescribing, selling, administering, distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug classified as a controlled substance (designated product) or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes.

(34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to exploit the patient for financial gain.

(35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or regulations relating to controlled substances.

(36) Willfully or negligently violating the confidentiality between an advanced practice registered nurse, collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician and a patient, except as required by law.

(37) A violation of any provision of this Act or any rules promulgated under this Act.

(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or otherwise discipline the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to practice under this Act or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order the examining physician to present testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communications between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing.

All substance-related violations shall mandate an automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an addictionist or an advanced practice registered nurse with specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic suspension, as defined by rule.

If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to practice or unfit for duty because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department or Board may require that individual to submit to a substance abuse evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs approved or designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment, the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.

In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to review the subject individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

An individual licensed under this Act and affected under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance with nursing standards under the provisions of his or her license.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 65/80-15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 80-15. Licensure requirement; exempt activities.

(a) On and after January 1, 2015, no person shall practice as a medication aide or hold himself or herself out as a licensed medication aide in this State unless he or she is licensed under this Article.

(b) Nothing in this Article shall be construed as preventing or restricting the practice, services, or activities of:

(1) any person licensed in this State by any other law from engaging in the profession or occupation for which he or she is licensed;

(2) any person employed as a medication aide by the government of the United States, if such person practices as a medication aide solely under the direction or control of the organization by which he or she is employed; or

(3) any person pursuing a course of study leading to a certificate in medication aide at an accredited or approved educational program if such activities and services constitute a part of a supervised course of study and if such person is designated by a title which clearly indicates his or her status as a student or trainee.

(c) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, or podiatric physician as authorized by law.

(Source: P.A. 98-990, eff. 8-18-14.)

Section 170. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3.1 and 19 as follows:

(225 ILCS 75/3.1)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 3.1. Referrals.

(a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, evaluate, and monitor services for individuals, groups, and populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, implementation of direct occupational therapy treatment to individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or optometrist.

(b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness, prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations.

(c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant provides services in a school-based or educational environment, including the child's home.

(d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the occupational therapist.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(225 ILCS 75/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 3719)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 19. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as provided under Section 19.3 of this Act, with regard to any license for any one or combination of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department;

(2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated thereunder;

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of the profession;

(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act, or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act;

(5) Professional incompetence;

(6) Aiding or assisting another person, firm, partnership or corporation in violating any provision of this Act or rules;

(7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

(8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

(9) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other substance that results in the inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(10) Discipline by another state, unit of government, government agency, the District of Columbia, a territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;

(11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (11) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

(12) A finding by the Department that the license holder, after having his license disciplined, has violated the terms of the discipline;

(13) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports in the practice of occupational therapy, including but not limited to false records filed with the State agencies or departments;

(14) Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(15) Solicitation of professional services other than by permitted advertising;

(16) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act;

(17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by law, assumed name;

(18) Professional incompetence or gross negligence;

(19) Malpractice;

(20) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner to exploit the client for financial gain of the licensee;

(21) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for professional services;

(22) Mental illness or disability that results in the inability to practice under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;

(23) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act;

(24) Having treated patients other than by the practice of occupational therapy as defined in this Act, or having treated patients as a licensed occupational therapist independent of a referral from a physician, advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant in accordance with Section 3.1, dentist, podiatric physician, or optometrist, or having failed to notify the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, or optometrist who established a diagnosis that the patient is receiving occupational therapy pursuant to that diagnosis;

(25) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing examination administered under this Act; and

(26) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(b) The determination by a circuit court that a license holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and an order by the court so finding and discharging the patient. In any case where a license is suspended under this provision, the licensee shall file a petition for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable to the Department that the licensee can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of their profession.

(c) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who is licensed under this Act or any individual who has applied for licensure to submit to a mental or physical examination or evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and other professional and administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or neuropsychological testing.

The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the Department any and all records, including business records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning this examination and evaluation of the licensee or applicant, including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to communication between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of the examination.

Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as the individual submits to the examination. If the Department finds a licensee unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the Department shall require the licensee to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the Department as a condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure.

When the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical records.

Individuals licensed under this Act that are affected under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of their license.

(e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of this State in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 175. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 57 as follows:

(225 ILCS 84/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 15. Exceptions. This Act shall not be construed to prohibit:

(1) a physician licensed in this State from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed;

(2) a person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed;

(3) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics by a person who is employed by the federal government or any bureau, division, or agency of the federal government while in the discharge of the employee's official duties;

(4) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics by (i) a student enrolled in a school of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics, (ii) a resident continuing his or her clinical education in a residency accredited by the National Commission on Orthotic and Prosthetic Education, or (iii) a student in a qualified work experience program or internship in pedorthics;

(5) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics by one who is an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist licensed under the laws of another state or territory of the United States or another country and has applied in writing to the Department, in a form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist and who is qualified to receive the license under Section 40 until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the filing of the written application, (ii) the withdrawal of the application, or (iii) the denial of the application by the Department;

(6) a person licensed by this State as a physical therapist, occupational therapist, or advanced practice registered nurse from engaging in his or her profession; or

(7) a physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 from engaging in his or her profession.

(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

(225 ILCS 84/57)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide care or services only if the care or services are provided pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed podiatric physician, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or (iv) a licensed physician assistant. A licensed podiatric physician or advanced practice registered nurse collaborating with a podiatric physician may only order care or services concerning the foot from a licensed prosthetist.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 180. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 16b as follows:

(225 ILCS 85/3)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except where otherwise limited therein:

(a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric physicians, or optometrists, within the limits of their licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care", "Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of similar or like import, either in the English language or any other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

(b) "Drugs" means and includes (1) articles recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and (3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main use and intended for use as a component or any articles specified in clause (1), (2) or (3); but does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories.

(c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus, diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (6) drug regimen review; (7) drug or drug-related research; (8) the provision of patient counseling; (9) the practice of telepharmacy; (10) the provision of those acts or services necessary to provide pharmacist care; (11) medication therapy management; and (12) the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a pharmacist under this Act.

(e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, podiatric physician, or optometrist, within the limits of their licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the following: (1) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA number where required, for controlled substances. The prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug orders.

(f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or any other legal entity.

(g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section 25 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.

(k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to the founding and operation of the University of Illinois Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.

(k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care professional and provider currently licensed by this State to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

(l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of pharmacy.

(m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's representative in a home or institution by a designee of a pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical device to a patient or patient's representative by a pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.

(n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States, other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes, through the United States Postal Service, commercially acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(p) (Blank).

(q) (Blank).

(r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about the patient's medication or device for the purpose of optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A pharmacy technician may only participate in the following aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.

(s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient prescription information, including prescriptions for controlled substances, and personal information.

(t) (Blank).

(u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including any component part or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to be a licensed pharmacy.

(v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as approved by the Department.

(w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.

(x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, and maintains all transaction information.

(y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.

(z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.

(aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a distinct service or group of services offered by licensed pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurses authorized in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient medication records to resolve conflicts with the following:

(1) known allergies;

(2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;

(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, gender, and contraindications;

(4) reasonable directions for use;

(5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;

(6) drug-drug interactions;

(7) drug-food interactions;

(8) drug-disease contraindications;

(9) identification of therapeutic duplication;

(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;

(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

(12) drug abuse and misuse.

"Medication therapy management services" includes the following:

(1) documenting the services delivered and communicating the information provided to patients' prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed 48 hours;

(2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or her medications; and

(3) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.

"Medication therapy management services" may also include patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or limitations in a standing order from the physician.

"Medication therapy management services" in a licensed hospital may also include the following:

(1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health status; and

(2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of medication orders.

(bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist of medication therapy management services, with or without the dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and enhance patient safety.

(cc) "Protected health information" means individually identifiable health information that, except as otherwise provided, is:

(1) transmitted by electronic media;

(2) maintained in any medium set forth in the definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or

(3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or medium.

"Protected health information" does not include individually identifiable health information found in:

(1) education records covered by the federal Family Educational Right and Privacy Act; or

(2) employment records held by a licensee in its role as an employer.

(dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois.

(ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit.

(ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's primary operations.

(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)

(225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of this Act shall apply to, or in any manner interfere with:

(a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, dentist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically certified optometrist within the limits of his or her license, or prevent him or her from supplying to his or her bona fide patients such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him appropriate;

(b) the sale of compressed gases;

(c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies when sold in original and unbroken packages only, if such patent or proprietary medicines and household remedies be properly and adequately labeled as to content and usage and generally considered and accepted as harmless and nonpoisonous when used according to the directions on the label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, according to the latest editions of the following authoritative pharmaceutical treatises and standards, namely, The United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP/NF), the United States Dispensatory, and the Accepted Dental Remedies of the Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American Dental Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, promulgated thereunder now in effect, is designated, described or considered as a narcotic, hypnotic, habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;

(d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original and unbroken packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock medication;

(e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of poisonous substances, in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal use in the arts or industries or for insecticide purposes; provided, they are properly and adequately labeled as to content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity with the provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws and regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating thereto and governing the same, and those which are required under such applicable laws and regulations to be labeled with the word "Poison", are also labeled with the word "Poison" printed thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily obtainable antidote with directions for its administration;

(f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to a physician assistant under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This delegated authority under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 may, but is not required to, include prescription of controlled substances, as defined in Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision agreement; and

(g) the delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed podiatric physician to an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with a written collaborative agreement under Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 85/16b)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 16b. Prescription pick up and drop off. Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit a pharmacist or pharmacy, by means of its employee or by use of a common carrier or the U.S. mail, at the request of the patient, from picking up prescription orders from the prescriber or delivering prescription drugs to the patient or the patient's agent, including an advanced practice registered nurse, practical nurse, or registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice services to a hospice patient or who provides home health services to a person, at the residence or place of employment of the person for whom the prescription was issued or at the hospital or medical care facility in which the patient is confined. Conversely, the patient or patient's agent may drop off prescriptions at a designated area. In this Section, "home health services" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; and "hospice patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 185. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by changing Sections 1 and 17 as follows:

(225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:

(1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following:

(A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or other health and movement-related conditions, classifying these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the on-going effects of the interventions.

(B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through the use of the effective properties of physical measures and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability.

(C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, functional limitation, or disability, including the promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and wellness.

(D) Engaging in administration, consultation, education, and research.

"Physical therapy" includes, but is not limited to: (a) performance of specialized tests and measurements, (b) administration of specialized treatment procedures, (c) interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, and podiatric physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical therapy treatment programs, (e) administration of topical medication used in generally accepted physical therapy procedures when such medication is either prescribed by the patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice registered nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the patient's dentist or used following the physician's orders or written instructions, and (f) supervision or teaching of physical therapy. Physical therapy does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic technique or determination of a differential diagnosis; provided, however, the limitation on determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any manner limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from performing an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit a physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy techniques that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist shall refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, other physical therapist, or other health care provider any patient whose medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.

(2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices physical therapy and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act.

(3) "Department" means the Department of Professional Regulation.

(4) "Director" means the Director of Professional Regulation.

(5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and Disciplinary Board approved by the Director.

(6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a physical therapist.

(7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the purpose of this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by signature or oral verification of a physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, that a patient's condition is such that it may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician.

(8) "State" includes:

(a) the states of the United States of America;

(b) the District of Columbia; and

(c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

(9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed to assist a physical therapist and who has met all requirements as provided in this Act and who works under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist to assist in implementing the physical therapy treatment program as established by the licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities provided by the physical therapist assistant shall not include the interpretation of referrals, evaluation procedures, or the planning or major modification of patient programs.

(10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has received on the job training, specific to the facility in which he is employed.

(11) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a person licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under the Nurse Practice Act.

(12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-27-16.)

(225 ILCS 90/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 4267)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 17. (1) The Department may refuse to issue or to renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $5000, with regard to a license for any one or a combination of the following:

A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in the practice of the profession;

B. Violations of this Act, or of the rules or regulations promulgated hereunder;

C. Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof which is a felony or which is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or of any crime which is directly related to the practice of the profession; conviction, as used in this paragraph, shall include a finding or verdict of guilty, an admission of guilt or a plea of nolo contendere;

D. Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated thereunder pertaining to advertising;

E. A pattern of practice or other behavior which demonstrates incapacity or incompetency to practice under this Act;

F. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or Rules;

G. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in response to a written request made by the Department;

H. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public. Unprofessional conduct shall include any departure from or the failure to conform to the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing physical therapy practice, in which proceeding actual injury to a patient need not be established;

I. Unlawful distribution of any drug or narcotic, or unlawful conversion of any drug or narcotic not belonging to the person for such person's own use or benefit or for other than medically accepted therapeutic purposes;

J. Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in a physical therapist's or physical therapist assistant's inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;

K. Revocation or suspension of a license to practice physical therapy as a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant or the taking of other disciplinary action by the proper licensing authority of another state, territory or country;

L. Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation for any professional services not actually or personally rendered. Nothing contained in this paragraph prohibits persons holding valid and current licenses under this Act from practicing physical therapy in partnership under a partnership agreement, including a limited liability partnership, a limited liability company, or a corporation under the Professional Service Corporation Act or from pooling, sharing, dividing, or apportioning the fees and monies received by them or by the partnership, company, or corporation in accordance with the partnership agreement or the policies of the company or professional corporation. Nothing in this paragraph (L) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (L) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered;

M. A finding by the Board that the licensee after having his or her license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation;

N. Abandonment of a patient;

O. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

P. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected elder abuse or neglect as required by the Elder Abuse Reporting Act;

Q. Physical illness, including but not limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor skill which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgement, skill or safety;

R. The use of any words (such as physical therapy, physical therapist physiotherapy or physiotherapist), abbreviations, figures or letters with the intention of indicating practice as a licensed physical therapist without a valid license as a physical therapist issued under this Act;

S. The use of the term physical therapist assistant, or abbreviations, figures, or letters with the intention of indicating practice as a physical therapist assistant without a valid license as a physical therapist assistant issued under this Act;

T. Willfully violating or knowingly assisting in the violation of any law of this State relating to the practice of abortion;

U. Continued practice by a person knowingly having an infectious, communicable or contagious disease;

V. Having treated ailments of human beings otherwise than by the practice of physical therapy as defined in this Act, or having treated ailments of human beings as a licensed physical therapist independent of a documented referral or a documented current and relevant diagnosis from a physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, or having failed to notify the physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician who established a documented current and relevant diagnosis that the patient is receiving physical therapy pursuant to that diagnosis;

W. Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;

X. Interpretation of referrals, performance of evaluation procedures, planning or making major modifications of patient programs by a physical therapist assistant;

Y. Failure by a physical therapist assistant and supervising physical therapist to maintain continued contact, including periodic personal supervision and instruction, to insure safety and welfare of patients;

Z. Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act.

(2) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient; and upon the recommendation of the Board to the Director that the licensee be allowed to resume his practice.

(3) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 190. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by changing Section 20.5 as follows:

(225 ILCS 100/20.5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)

Sec. 20.5. Delegation of authority to advanced practice registered nurses.

(a) A podiatric physician in active clinical practice may collaborate with an advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration shall be for the purpose of providing podiatric care and no employment relationship shall be required. A written collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. A written collaborative agreement and podiatric physician collaboration and consultation shall be adequate with respect to advanced practice registered nurses if all of the following apply:

(1) With respect to the provision of anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, the collaborating podiatric physician must have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia consistent with Department rules.

(2) Methods of communication are available with the collaborating podiatric physician in person or through telecommunications or electronic communications for consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to address patient care needs.

(3) With respect to the provision of anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, physician, or podiatric physician shall participate through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions. The anesthesiologist or operating podiatric physician must agree with the anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services.

(b) The collaborating podiatric physician shall have access to the records of all patients attended to by an advanced practice registered nurse.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the delegation of tasks or duties by a podiatric physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other appropriately trained persons.

(d) A podiatric physician shall not be liable for the acts or omissions of an advanced practice registered nurse solely on the basis of having signed guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an order, a standing order, a standing delegation order, or other order or guideline authorizing an advanced practice registered nurse to perform acts, unless the podiatric physician has reason to believe the advanced practice registered nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or acts or commits willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) A podiatric physician, may, but is not required to delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 195. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:

(225 ILCS 106/10)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Address of record" means the designated address recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and those changes must be made either through the Department's website or by contacting the Department.

"Advanced practice registered nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the Secretary.

"Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all of the following activities:

(1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel.

(2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel.

(3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through non-invasive means, provided that the collection and review does not include the individual's interpretation of the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel in a timely manner.

(4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen therapy in the proper position on the patient's face.

(5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use.

(6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb syringe.

(7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency resuscitation using a manual resuscitator.

(8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel who is present and performing routine airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is connected to the ventilator.

"Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities that involve any of the following:

(1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of education or training in respiratory care.

(2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the patient.

(3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning patient care.

(4) The administration of aerosol medication or medical gas.

(5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial airway.

(6) Mechanical ventilatory support.

(7) Patient assessment.

(8) Patient education.

(9) The transferring of oxygen devices, for purposes of patient transport, with a liter flow greater than 6 liters per minute, and the transferring of oxygen devices at any liter flow being delivered to patients less than 12 years of age.

"Department" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

"Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself out as a respiratory care practitioner as defined in this Act.

"Licensed health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant.

"Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by (i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center.

"Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes the professional to supervise an individual who is not licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional.

"Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an individual is responsible for directing the actions of another individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.

"Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care" mean preventative services, evaluation and assessment services, therapeutic services, cardiopulmonary disease management, and rehabilitative services under the order of a licensed health care professional for an individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general physical response of individuals to respiratory care services, including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms, reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit abnormal characteristics; the administration of pharmacological and therapeutic agents and procedures related to respiratory care services; the collection of blood specimens and other bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of, cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but not limited to, blood gas analysis; development, implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a licensed health care professional; application, operation, and management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of life support, including, but not limited to, hemodynamic cardiovascular support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.

"Respiratory care education program" means a course of academic study leading to eligibility for registry or certification in respiratory care. The training is to be approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and shall include an evaluation of competence through a standardized testing mechanism that is determined by the Board to be both valid and reliable.

"Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is licensed by the Department of Professional Regulation and meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The person is engaged in the practice of cardiorespiratory care and has the knowledge and skill necessary to administer respiratory care.

(2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to the licensed health care professional in relation to the technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe and effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory care modalities.

(3) The person is able to function in situations of unsupervised patient contact requiring great individual judgment.

"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-230, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(225 ILCS 106/15)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)

Sec. 15. Exemptions.

(a) This Act does not prohibit a person legally regulated in this State by any other Act from engaging in any practice for which he or she is authorized.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the practice of respiratory care by a person who is employed by the United States government or any bureau, division, or agency thereof while in the discharge of the employee's official duties.

(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the activities and services of a person enrolled in an approved course of study leading to a degree or certificate of registry or certification eligibility in respiratory care if these activities and services constitute a part of a supervised course of study and if the person is designated by a title which clearly indicates his or her status as a student or trainee. Status as a student or trainee shall not exceed 3 years from the date of enrollment in an approved course.

(d) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a person from treating ailments by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious denomination.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent a person who is a registered nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed practical nurse, a physician assistant, or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches from providing respiratory care.

(f) Nothing in this Act shall limit a person who is credentialed by the National Society for Cardiopulmonary Technology or the National Board for Respiratory Care from performing pulmonary function tests and respiratory care procedures related to the pulmonary function test. Individuals who do not possess a license to practice respiratory care or a license in another health care field may perform basic screening spirometry limited to peak flow, forced vital capacity, slow vital capacity, and maximum voluntary ventilation if they possess spirometry certification from the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, an Office Spirometry Certificate from the American Association for Respiratory Care, or other similarly accepted certification training.

(g) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the collection and analysis of blood by clinical laboratory personnel meeting the personnel standards of the Illinois Clinical Laboratory Act.

(h) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a polysomnographic technologist, technician, or trainee, as defined in the job descriptions jointly accepted by the American Academy of Sleep Medicine, the Association of Polysomnographic Technologists, the Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists, and the American Society of Electroneurodiagnostic Technologists, from performing activities within the scope of practice of polysomnographic technology while under the direction of a physician licensed in this State.

(i) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a family member from providing respiratory care services to an ill person.

(j) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit an unlicensed practitioner in a licensed hospital who is working under the proximate supervision of a licensed health care professional or other authorized licensed personnel and providing direct patient care services from performing basic respiratory care activities if the unlicensed practitioner (i) has been trained to perform the basic respiratory care activities at the facility that employs or contracts with the individual and (ii) at a minimum, has annually received an evaluation of the unlicensed practitioner's performance of basic respiratory care activities documented by the facility.

(k) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit a person enrolled in a respiratory care education program or an approved course of study leading to a degree or certification in a health care-related discipline that provides respiratory care activities within his or her scope of practice and employed in a licensed hospital in order to provide direct patient care services under the direction of other authorized licensed personnel from providing respiratory care activities.

(l) Nothing in this Act prohibits a person licensed as a respiratory care practitioner in another jurisdiction from providing respiratory care: (i) in a declared emergency in this State; (ii) as a member of an organ procurement team; or (iii) as part of a medical transport team that is transporting a patient into or out of this State.

(Source: P.A. 99-230, eff. 8-3-15.)

Section 200. The Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider Act is amended by changing Sections 35 and 40 as follows:

(225 ILCS 109/35)

Sec. 35. Qualifications for licensure.

(a)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as a sex offender evaluator if that person:

(A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and furnished by the Department;

(B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and

(C) satisfies the licensure and experience requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a).

(2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued a sex offender evaluator license by the Department if the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (a) and provides evidence to the Department that the person:

(A) is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or licensed under the laws of another state; an advanced practice registered nurse with psychiatric specialty licensed under the Nurse Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a clinical psychologist licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical social worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical professional counselor licensed under the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; or a licensed marriage and family therapist licensed under the Marriage and Family Therapy Therapist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state;

(B) has 400 hours of supervised experience in the treatment or evaluation of sex offenders in the last 4 years, at least 200 of which are face-to-face therapy or evaluation with sex offenders;

(C) has completed at least 10 sex offender evaluations under supervision in the past 4 years; and

(D) has at least 40 hours of documented training in the specialty of sex offender evaluation, treatment, or management.

Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraphs (B) and (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) are satisfied if the applicant has been listed on the Sex Offender Management Board's Approved Provider List for a minimum of 2 years before application for licensure. Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) are satisfied if the applicant has completed at least 10 sex offender evaluations within the 4 years before application for licensure.

(b)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as a sex offender treatment provider if that person:

(A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and furnished by the Department;

(B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and

(C) satisfies the licensure and experience requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b).

(2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued a sex offender treatment provider license by the Department if the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (b) and provides evidence to the Department that the person:

(A) is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or licensed under the laws of another state; an advanced practice registered nurse with psychiatric specialty licensed under the Nurse Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a clinical psychologist licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical social worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical professional counselor licensed under the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another state; or a licensed marriage and family therapist licensed under the Marriage and Family Therapy Therapist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of another state;

(B) has 400 hours of supervised experience in the treatment of sex offenders in the last 4 years, at least 200 of which are face-to-face therapy with sex offenders; and

(C) has at least 40 hours documented training in the specialty of sex offender evaluation, treatment, or management.

Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraphs (B) and (C) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) are satisfied if the applicant has been listed on the Sex Offender Management Board's Approved Provider List for a minimum of 2 years before application.

(c)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as an associate sex offender provider if that person:

(A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and furnished by the Department;

(B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and

(C) satisfies the education and experience requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (c).

(2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued an associate sex offender provider license by the Department if the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c) and provides evidence to the Department that the person holds a master's degree or higher in social work, psychology, marriage and family therapy, counseling or closely related behavioral science degree, or psychiatry.

(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; 98-612, eff. 12-27-13; revised 9-14-16.)

(225 ILCS 109/40)

Sec. 40. Application; exemptions.

(a) No person may act as a sex offender evaluator, sex offender treatment provider, or associate sex offender provider as defined in this Act for the provision of sex offender evaluations or sex offender treatment pursuant to the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act unless the person is licensed to do so by the Department. Any evaluation or treatment services provided by a licensed health care professional not licensed under this Act shall not be valid under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act. No business shall provide, attempt to provide, or offer to provide sex offender evaluation services unless it is organized under the Professional Service Corporation Act, the Medical Corporation Act, or the Professional Limited Liability Company Act.

(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to require any licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or other health care professional to be licensed under this Act for the provision of services for which the person is otherwise licensed. This Act does not prohibit a person licensed under any other Act in this State from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed. This Act only applies to the provision of sex offender evaluations or sex offender treatment provided for the purposes of complying with the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act, or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15.)

Section 205. The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is amended by changing Section 40 as follows:

(225 ILCS 130/40)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)

Sec. 40. Application of Act. This Act shall not be construed to prohibit the following:

(1) A person licensed in this State under any other Act from engaging in the practice for which he or she is licensed, including but not limited to a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, or nurse performing surgery-related tasks within the scope of his or her license, nor are these individuals required to be registered under this Act.

(2) A person from engaging in practice as a surgical assistant or surgical technologist in the discharge of his or her official duties as an employee of the United States government.

(3) One or more registered surgical assistants or surgical technologists from forming a professional service corporation in accordance with the Professional Service Corporation Act and applying for licensure as a corporation providing surgical assistant or surgical technologist services.

(4) A student engaging in practice as a surgical assistant or surgical technologist under the direct supervision of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches as part of his or her program of study at a school approved by the Department or in preparation to qualify for the examination as prescribed under Sections 45 and 50 of this Act.

(5) A person from assisting in surgery at a physician's discretion, including but not limited to medical students and residents, nor are medical students and residents required to be registered under this Act.

(6) A hospital, health system or network, ambulatory surgical treatment center, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, physician medical group, or other entity that provides surgery-related services from employing individuals that the entity considers competent to assist in surgery. These entities are not required to utilize registered surgical assistants or registered surgical technologists when providing surgery-related services to patients. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to limit the ability of an employer to utilize the services of any person to assist in surgery within the employment setting consistent with the individual's skill and training.

(Source: P.A. 98-364, eff. 12-31-13.)

Section 210. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections 90 and 95 as follows:

(225 ILCS 135/90)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 90. Privileged communications and exceptions.

(a) With the exception of disclosure to the physician performing or supervising a genetic test and to the referring physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, no licensed genetic counselor shall disclose any information acquired from persons consulting the counselor in a professional capacity, except that which may be voluntarily disclosed under any of the following circumstances:

(1) In the course of formally reporting, conferring, or consulting with administrative superiors, colleagues, or consultants who share professional responsibility, in which instance all recipients of the information are similarly bound to regard the communication as privileged.

(2) With the written consent of the person who provided the information and about whom the information concerns.

(3) In the case of death or disability, with the written consent of a personal representative.

(4) When a communication reveals the intended commission of a crime or harmful act and such disclosure is judged necessary in the professional judgment of the licensed genetic counselor to protect any person from a clear risk of serious mental or physical harm or injury or to forestall a serious threat to the public safety.

(5) When the person waives the privilege by bringing any public charges or filing a lawsuit against the licensee.

(b) Any person having access to records or anyone who participates in providing genetic counseling services, or in providing any human services, or is supervised by a licensed genetic counselor is similarly bound to regard all information and communications as privileged in accord with this Section.

(c) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is incorporated herein as if all of its provisions were included in this Act. In the event of a conflict between the application of this Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to a specific situation, the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act shall control.

(Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10.)

(225 ILCS 135/95)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025)

Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.

(a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any one or more of the following:

(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to the Department or to any other State agency.

(2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard of this Act, or any of its rules.

(3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice of genetic counseling.

(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act or its rules.

(5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling services.

(6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any requested information to a referring physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any provision of this Act or any rules.

(8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request made by the Department.

(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of professional conduct adopted by the Department.

(10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any information received from a client, unless otherwise authorized or required by law.

(10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services provided and provide copies to clients upon request.

(11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, profit, or interest.

(12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug which results in inability to practice with reasonable skill, judgment, or safety.

(13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Section.

(14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for any professional service not actually rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide independent contractor or employment arrangements among health care professionals, health facilities, health care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or other employment benefits for the provision of services within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to require an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for services rendered.

(15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, after having the license placed on probationary status has violated the terms of probation.

(16) Failing to refer a client to other health care professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to adequately support or serve the client.

(17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but not limited to false records filed with federal or State agencies or departments.

(18) Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report by the Department of Children and Family Services pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.

(20) Physical or mental disability, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of abilities and skills which results in the inability to practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.

(21) Solicitation of professional services by using false or misleading advertising.

(22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue Service or any successor agency.

(23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.

(24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name other than the full name as shown on the license or any other legally authorized name.

(25) Gross overcharging for professional services, including filing statements for collection of fees or monies for which services are not rendered.

(26) (Blank).

(27) Charging for professional services not rendered, including filing false statements for the collection of fees for which services are not rendered.

(28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.

(b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any application or renewal for a license under this Act to any person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by the Illinois Student State Assistance Commission; however, the Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in default has established a satisfactory repayment record as determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.

(c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional practice.

(d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family Services has previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing the fine.

(Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-633, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)

Section 215. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by changing Sections 5-8 and 12-4.37 as follows:

(305 ILCS 5/5-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-8)

Sec. 5-8. Practitioners. In supplying medical assistance, the Illinois Department may provide for the legally authorized services of (i) persons licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended, except as hereafter in this Section stated, whether under a general or limited license, (ii) persons licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as advanced practice registered nurses, regardless of whether or not the persons have written collaborative agreements, (iii) persons licensed or registered under other laws of this State to provide dental, medical, pharmaceutical, optometric, podiatric, or nursing services, or other remedial care recognized under State law, and (iv) persons licensed under other laws of this State as a clinical social worker. The Department shall adopt rules, no later than 90 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, for the legally authorized services of persons licensed under other laws of this State as a clinical social worker. The Department may not provide for legally authorized services of any physician who has been convicted of having performed an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner on a woman who was not pregnant at the time such abortion procedure was performed. The utilization of the services of persons engaged in the treatment or care of the sick, which persons are not required to be licensed or registered under the laws of this State, is not prohibited by this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-621, eff. 1-1-17.)

(305 ILCS 5/12-4.37)

Sec. 12-4.37. Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program.

(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in cooperation with the Department of Human Services, shall establish a Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program in Sangamon County to fund the provision of various health care services by a single provider, or a group of providers that have entered into an agreement for that purpose, at a single location in the county. Services covered under the pilot program shall include, but need not be limited to, family practice, pediatric, nursing (including advanced practice registered nursing), psychiatric, dental, and vision services. The Departments shall fund the provision of all services provided under the pilot program using a rate structure that is cost-based. To be selected by the Departments as the provider of health care services under the pilot program, a provider or group of providers must serve a disproportionate share of low-income or indigent patients, including recipients of medical assistance under Article V of this Code. The Departments shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this Section.

(b) Implementation of this Section is contingent on federal approval. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall take appropriate action by January 1, 2010 to seek federal approval.

(c) This Section is inoperative if the provider of health care services under the pilot program receives designation as a Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) or FQHC Look-Alike.

(Source: P.A. 96-691, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)

Section 220. The Older Adult Services Act is amended by changing Section 35 as follows:

(320 ILCS 42/35)

Sec. 35. Older Adult Services Advisory Committee.

(a) The Older Adult Services Advisory Committee is created to advise the directors of Aging, Healthcare and Family Services, and Public Health on all matters related to this Act and the delivery of services to older adults in general.

(b) The Advisory Committee shall be comprised of the following:

(1) The Director of Aging or his or her designee, who shall serve as chair and shall be an ex officio and nonvoting member.

(2) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services and the Director of Public Health or their designees, who shall serve as vice-chairs and shall be ex officio and nonvoting members.

(3) One representative each of the Governor's Office, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Public Health, the Department of Veterans' Affairs, the Department of Human Services, the Department of Insurance, the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, the Department on Aging, the Department on Aging's State Long Term Care Ombudsman, the Illinois Housing Finance Authority, and the Illinois Housing Development Authority, each of whom shall be selected by his or her respective director and shall be an ex officio and nonvoting member.

(4) Thirty members appointed by the Director of Aging in collaboration with the directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services, and selected from the recommendations of statewide associations and organizations, as follows:

(A) One member representing the Area Agencies on Aging;

(B) Four members representing nursing homes or licensed assisted living establishments;

(C) One member representing home health agencies;

(D) One member representing case management services;

(E) One member representing statewide senior center associations;

(F) One member representing Community Care Program homemaker services;

(G) One member representing Community Care Program adult day services;

(H) One member representing nutrition project directors;

(I) One member representing hospice programs;

(J) One member representing individuals with Alzheimer's disease and related dementias;

(K) Two members representing statewide trade or labor unions;

(L) One advanced practice registered nurse with experience in gerontological nursing;

(M) One physician specializing in gerontology;

(N) One member representing regional long-term care ombudsmen;

(O) One member representing municipal, township, or county officials;

(P) (Blank);

(Q) (Blank);

(R) One member representing the parish nurse movement;

(S) One member representing pharmacists;

(T) Two members representing statewide organizations engaging in advocacy or legal representation on behalf of the senior population;

(U) Two family caregivers;

(V) Two citizen members over the age of 60;

(W) One citizen with knowledge in the area of gerontology research or health care law;

(X) One representative of health care facilities licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; and

(Y) One representative of primary care service providers.

The Director of Aging, in collaboration with the Directors of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services, may appoint additional citizen members to the Older Adult Services Advisory Committee. Each such additional member must be either an individual age 60 or older or an uncompensated caregiver for a family member or friend who is age 60 or older.

(c) Voting members of the Advisory Committee shall serve for a term of 3 years or until a replacement is named. All members shall be appointed no later than January 1, 2005. Of the initial appointees, as determined by lot, 10 members shall serve a term of one year; 10 shall serve for a term of 2 years; and 12 shall serve for a term of 3 years. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall be appointed for the remainder of that term. The Advisory Committee shall meet at least quarterly and may meet more frequently at the call of the Chair. A simple majority of those appointed shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a majority of those present and voting shall be necessary for Advisory Committee action. Members of the Advisory Committee shall receive no compensation for their services.

(d) The Advisory Committee shall have an Executive Committee comprised of the Chair, the Vice Chairs, and up to 15 members of the Advisory Committee appointed by the Chair who have demonstrated expertise in developing, implementing, or coordinating the system restructuring initiatives defined in Section 25. The Executive Committee shall have responsibility to oversee and structure the operations of the Advisory Committee and to create and appoint necessary subcommittees and subcommittee members.

(e) The Advisory Committee shall study and make recommendations related to the implementation of this Act, including but not limited to system restructuring initiatives as defined in Section 25 or otherwise related to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-916, eff. 6-9-10.)

Section 225. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:

(325 ILCS 5/4)

Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged communications; transmitting false report. Any physician, resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician, physician assistant, substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, school personnel (including administrators and both certified and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private school (but only to the extent required in accordance with other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty of school board members to report suspected child abuse), truant officers, social worker, social services administrator, domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care practitioner, advanced practice registered nurse, home health aide, director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day care center, recreational or athletic program or facility personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer, licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants working under the direct supervision of a psychologist, psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child known to them in their professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item (c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the Department.

If an allegation is raised to a school board member during the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to direct the superintendent of the school district or other equivalent school administrator to comply with the requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child abuse.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an employee of a school district has made a report or caused a report to be made to the Department under this Act involving the conduct of a current or former employee of the school district and a request is made by another school district for the provision of information concerning the job performance or qualifications of the current or former employee because he or she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school district, the general superintendent of the school district to which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting school district the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the school district has made a report involving the conduct of the applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school district to which the request for information concerning the applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases where the employee and the general superintendent have not been informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her employment with the school district must be informed by that school district that if he or she applies for employment with another school district, the general superintendent of the former school district, upon the request of the school district to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting school district that the employee is or was the subject of such a report.

Whenever such person is required to report under this Act in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act and may also notify the person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of such report to the Department.

The privileged quality of communication between any professional person required to report and his patient or client shall not apply to situations involving abused or neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for failure to share information or documents with the Department during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in writing that the information or documents disclosed by the professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation.

The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney and his or her client or to confidential information within the meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual client.

A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives shall provide to all office personnel copies of written information and training materials about abuse and neglect and the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any other person may make a report if such person has reasonable cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected child.

Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1, 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the statement shall be borne by the employer.

Within one year of initial employment and at least every 5 years thereafter, school personnel required to report child abuse as provided under this Section must complete mandated reporter training by a provider or agency with expertise in recognizing and reporting child abuse.

The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon request, to all employers employing persons who shall be required under the provisions of this Section to report under this Act.

Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.

Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent violation of transmitting a false report as described in the preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other prior offense).

A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices such beliefs.

A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely because the child is not attending school in accordance with the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.

Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.

A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.

For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-67, eff. 7-15-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-408, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 230. The Health Care Workplace Violence Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(405 ILCS 90/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Department" means (i) the Department of Human Services, in the case of a health care workplace that is operated or regulated by the Department of Human Services, or (ii) the Department of Public Health, in the case of a health care workplace that is operated or regulated by the Department of Public Health.

"Director" means the Secretary of Human Services or the Director of Public Health, as appropriate.

"Employee" means any individual who is employed on a full-time, part-time, or contractual basis by a health care workplace.

"Health care workplace" means a mental health facility or developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, other than a hospital or unit thereof licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act. "Health care workplace" does not include, and shall not be construed to include, any office of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant, regardless of the form of such office.

"Imminent danger" means a preliminary determination of immediate, threatened, or impending risk of physical injury as determined by the employee.

"Responsible agency" means the State agency that (i) licenses, certifies, registers, or otherwise regulates or exercises jurisdiction over a health care workplace or a health care workplace's activities or (ii) contracts with a health care workplace for the delivery of health care services.

"Violence" or "violent act" means any act by a patient or resident that causes or threatens to cause an injury to another person.

(Source: P.A. 94-347, eff. 7-28-05.)

Section 235. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(405 ILCS 95/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Licensed health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant.

"Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the infant or mother.

"Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before birth.

"Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or other validated assessment methods.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 240. The Epinephrine Auto-Injector Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 27/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Administer" means to directly apply an epinephrine auto-injector to the body of an individual.

"Authorized entity" means any entity or organization, other than a school covered under Section 22-30 of the School Code, in connection with or at which allergens capable of causing anaphylaxis may be present, including, but not limited to, independent contractors who provide student transportation to schools, recreation camps, colleges and universities, day care facilities, youth sports leagues, amusement parks, restaurants, sports arenas, and places of employment. The Department shall, by rule, determine what constitutes a day care facility under this definition.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of epinephrine into the human body.

"Health care practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a physician assistant under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 with prescriptive authority, or an advanced practice registered nurse with prescribing authority under Article 65 of the Nurse Practice Act.

"Pharmacist" has the meaning given to that term under subsection (k-5) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.

"Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of an authorized entity.

(Source: P.A. 99-711, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 245. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 6.2 as follows:

(410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)

Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.

(a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6 years of age or younger shall test those children for lead poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high risk by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as low risk by the Department shall be evaluated for risk by the Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed by the Department and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in accordance with rules adopted by the Department.

(b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care facility serving children 6 years of age or younger, including, but not limited to, health departments, hospitals, clinics, and health maintenance organizations approved, registered, or licensed by the Department, shall take the appropriate steps to ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.

(c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may also be tested by physicians or health care providers, in accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and health care providers shall also evaluate children for lead poisoning in conjunction with the school health examination, as required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, the child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.

(d) (Blank).

(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 250. The Medical Patient Rights Act is amended by changing Section 7 as follows:

(410 ILCS 50/7)

Sec. 7. Patient examination. Any physician, medical student, resident, advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or physician assistant who provides treatment or care to a patient shall inform the patient of his or her profession upon providing the treatment or care, which includes but is not limited to any physical examination, such as a pelvic examination. In the case of an unconscious patient, any care or treatment must be related to the patient's illness, condition, or disease.

(Source: P.A. 93-771, eff. 7-21-04.)

Section 255. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 1a, 2.2, 5, 5.5, and 6.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 70/1a) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-1a)

Sec. 1a. Definitions. In this Act:

"Ambulance provider" means an individual or entity that owns and operates a business or service using ambulances or emergency medical services vehicles to transport emergency patients.

"Areawide sexual assault treatment plan" means a plan, developed by the hospitals in the community or area to be served, which provides for hospital emergency services to sexual assault survivors that shall be made available by each of the participating hospitals.

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Emergency contraception" means medication as approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after sexual assault.

"Follow-up healthcare" means healthcare services related to a sexual assault, including laboratory services and pharmacy services, rendered within 90 days of the initial visit for hospital emergency services.

"Forensic services" means the collection of evidence pursuant to a statewide sexual assault evidence collection program administered by the Department of State Police, using the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Health care professional" means a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse.

"Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Hospital emergency services" means healthcare delivered to outpatients within or under the care and supervision of personnel working in a designated emergency department of a hospital, including, but not limited to, care ordered by such personnel for a sexual assault survivor in the emergency department.

"Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit" means a prepackaged set of materials and forms to be used for the collection of evidence relating to sexual assault. The standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit.

"Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the law enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where an alleged sexual assault or sexual abuse occurred.

"Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches.

"Sexual assault" means an act of nonconsensual sexual conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, including, without limitation, acts prohibited under Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

"Sexual assault survivor" means a person who presents for hospital emergency services in relation to injuries or trauma resulting from a sexual assault.

"Sexual assault transfer plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital and approved by the Department, which describes the hospital's procedures for transferring sexual assault survivors to another hospital in order to receive emergency treatment.

"Sexual assault treatment plan" means a written plan developed by a hospital that describes the hospital's procedures and protocols for providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors who present themselves for such services, either directly or through transfer from another hospital.

"Transfer services" means the appropriate medical screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment prior to the transfer of a sexual assault survivor to a hospital that provides hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors pursuant to a sexual assault treatment plan or areawide sexual assault treatment plan.

"Voucher" means a document generated by a hospital at the time the sexual assault survivor receives hospital emergency and forensic services that a sexual assault survivor may present to providers for follow-up healthcare.

(Source: P.A. 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; 99-801, eff. 1-1-17.)

(410 ILCS 70/2.2)

Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.

(a) The General Assembly finds:

(1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse cause significant physical, emotional, and psychological trauma to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result of the sexual assault.

(2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the United States as the result of rape and approximately 50% of these pregnancies end in abortion.

(3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA), emergency contraception can significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 hours after the sexual assault.

(4) By providing emergency contraception to rape victims in a timely manner, the trauma of rape can be significantly reduced.

(b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, every hospital providing services to sexual assault survivors in accordance with a plan approved under Section 2 must develop a protocol that ensures that each survivor of sexual assault will receive medically and factually accurate and written and oral information about emergency contraception; the indications and counter-indications and risks associated with the use of emergency contraception; and a description of how and when victims may be provided emergency contraception upon the written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant. The Department shall approve the protocol if it finds that the implementation of the protocol would provide sufficient protection for survivors of sexual assault.

The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by the Department. The Department shall adopt rules and regulations establishing one or more safe harbor protocols and setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that hospitals may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any protocol that meets those standards. The Department may provide a sample acceptable protocol upon request.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)

Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors.

(a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors under this Act shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant, the following:

(1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of a sexual assault survivor or which may be used as evidence in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such examinations and tests shall be maintained by the hospital and made available to law enforcement officials upon the request of the sexual assault survivor;

(2) appropriate oral and written information concerning the possibility of infection, sexually transmitted disease and pregnancy resulting from sexual assault;

(3) appropriate oral and written information concerning accepted medical procedures, medication, and possible contraindications of such medication available for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease resulting from sexual assault;

(4) an amount of medication for treatment at the hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;

(5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the sexual assault;

(6) written and oral instructions indicating the need for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease;

(7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate counseling; and

(8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with written and oral instructions indicating the importance of timely follow-up healthcare.

(b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up healthcare under this Act shall be provided such services without the consent of any parent, guardian, custodian, surrogate, or agent.

(b-5) Every treating hospital providing hospital emergency and forensic services to sexual assault survivors shall issue a voucher to any sexual assault survivor who is eligible to receive one. The hospital shall make a copy of the voucher and place it in the medical record of the sexual assault survivor. The hospital shall provide a copy of the voucher to the sexual assault survivor after discharge upon request.

(c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital emergency department.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(410 ILCS 70/5.5)

Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up healthcare.

(a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant shall be reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided. Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to, the following:

(1) a physical examination;

(2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or absence of sexually transmitted disease; and

(3) appropriate medications, including HIV prophylaxis.

(b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office visits with a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital emergency services.

(c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 70/6.5)

Sec. 6.5. Written consent to the release of sexual assault evidence for testing.

(a) Upon the completion of hospital emergency services and forensic services, the health care professional providing the forensic services shall provide the patient the opportunity to sign a written consent to allow law enforcement to submit the sexual assault evidence for testing. The written consent shall be on a form included in the sexual assault evidence collection kit and shall include whether the survivor consents to the release of information about the sexual assault to law enforcement.

(1) A survivor 13 years of age or older may sign the written consent to release the evidence for testing.

(2) If the survivor is a minor who is under 13 years of age, the written consent to release the sexual assault evidence for testing may be signed by the parent, guardian, investigating law enforcement officer, or Department of Children and Family Services.

(3) If the survivor is an adult who has a guardian of the person, a health care surrogate, or an agent acting under a health care power of attorney, the consent of the guardian, surrogate, or agent is not required to release evidence and information concerning the sexual assault or sexual abuse. If the adult is unable to provide consent for the release of evidence and information and a guardian, surrogate, or agent under a health care power of attorney is unavailable or unwilling to release the information, then an investigating law enforcement officer may authorize the release.

(4) Any health care professional, including any physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or nurse, sexual assault nurse examiner, and any health care institution, including any hospital, who provides evidence or information to a law enforcement officer under a written consent as specified in this Section is immune from any civil or professional liability that might arise from those actions, with the exception of willful or wanton misconduct. The immunity provision applies only if all of the requirements of this Section are met.

(b) The hospital shall keep a copy of a signed or unsigned written consent form in the patient's medical record.

(c) If a written consent to allow law enforcement to test the sexual assault evidence is not signed at the completion of hospital emergency services and forensic services, the hospital shall include the following information in its discharge instructions:

(1) the sexual assault evidence will be stored for 5 years from the completion of an Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit, or 5 years from the age of 18 years, whichever is longer;

(2) a person authorized to consent to the testing of the sexual assault evidence may sign a written consent to allow law enforcement to test the sexual assault evidence at any time during that 5-year period for an adult victim, or until a minor victim turns 23 years of age by (A) contacting the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, or if unknown, the law enforcement agency contacted by the hospital under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification Act; or (B) by working with an advocate at a rape crisis center;

(3) the name, address, and phone number of the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, or if unknown the name, address, and phone number of the law enforcement agency contacted by the hospital under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification Act; and

(4) the name and phone number of a local rape crisis center.

(Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17.)

Section 260. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, 3, and 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)

Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant executed by a married person who is a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by a pregnant woman who is a minor, or by any person 18 years of age or older, is not voidable because of such minority, and, for such purpose, a married person who is a minor, a parent who is a minor, a pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 years of age or older, is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 210/1.5)

Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care services.

(a) The consent to the performance of primary care services by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant executed by a minor seeking care is not voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, a minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age under the following circumstances:

(1) the health care professional reasonably believes that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and risks of any proposed primary care or services; and

(2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as a minor seeking care by:

(A) an adult relative;

(B) a representative of a homeless service agency that receives federal, State, county, or municipal funding to provide those services or that is otherwise sanctioned by a local continuum of care;

(C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this State;

(D) a public school homeless liaison or school social worker;

(E) a social service agency providing services to at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or

(F) a representative of a religious organization.

(b) A health care professional rendering primary care services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall be presumed.

(c) The confidential nature of any communication between a health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the time of communication, of any additional persons present at the request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care professional's disclosure of confidential information to the additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has coverage for the services provided.

(d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a minor in their absence.

(e) For the purposes of this Section:

"Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or guardianship of the Department of Children and Family Services.

"Primary care services" means health care services that include screening, counseling, immunizations, medication, and treatment of illness and conditions customarily provided by licensed health care professionals in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not include invasive care, beyond standard injections, laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.

(Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 210/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)

Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may consent to the performance upon his or her child of a medical or surgical procedure by a physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant or a dental procedure by a licensed dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall not be voidable because of such minority, but, for such purpose, a parent who is a minor shall be deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and shall have the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)

Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to practice medicine or surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant renders emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist renders emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not reasonably feasible under the circumstances without adversely affecting the condition of such minor's health.

(b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse or criminal sexual abuse, as provided in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent of the minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to authorize a hospital, physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish medical care or counseling related to the diagnosis or treatment of any disease or injury arising from such offense. The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis or treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of majority. Such consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to later disaffirmance, because of minority.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 210/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 4505)

Sec. 5. Counseling; informing parent or guardian. Any physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, who provides diagnosis or treatment or any licensed clinical psychologist or professionally trained social worker with a master's degree or any qualified person employed (i) by an organization licensed or funded by the Department of Human Services, (ii) by units of local government, or (iii) by agencies or organizations operating drug abuse programs funded or licensed by the Federal Government or the State of Illinois or any qualified person employed by or associated with any public or private alcoholism or drug abuse program licensed by the State of Illinois who provides counseling to a minor patient who has come into contact with any sexually transmitted disease referred to in Section 4 of this Act may, but shall not be obligated to, inform the parent, parents, or guardian of the minor as to the treatment given or needed. Any person described in this Section who provides counseling to a minor who abuses drugs or alcohol or has a family member who abuses drugs or alcohol shall not inform the parent, parents, guardian, or other responsible adult of the minor's condition or treatment without the minor's consent unless that action is, in the person's judgment, necessary to protect the safety of the minor, a family member, or another individual.

Any such person shall, upon the minor's consent, make reasonable efforts to involve the family of the minor in his or her treatment, if the person furnishing the treatment believes that the involvement of the family will not be detrimental to the progress and care of the minor. Reasonable effort shall be extended to assist the minor in accepting the involvement of his or her family in the care and treatment being given.

(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)

Section 265. The Early Hearing Detection and Intervention Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 213/10)

Sec. 10. Reports to Department of Public Health. Physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants, otolaryngologists, audiologists, ancillary health care providers, early intervention programs and providers, parent-to-parent support programs, the Department of Human Services, and the University of Illinois at Chicago Division of Specialized Care for Children shall report all hearing testing, medical treatment, and intervention outcomes related to newborn hearing screening or newly identified hearing loss for children birth through 6 years of age to the Department. Reporting shall be done within 7 days after the date of service or after an inquiry from the Department. Reports shall be in a format determined by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 99-834, eff. 8-19-16.)

Section 270. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended by changing Sections 2 and 6 as follows:

(410 ILCS 225/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)

Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

"Advanced practice registered nurse" or "APRN" "APN" means an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services.

"Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment (EPSDT)" means the provision of preventative health care under 42 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq., including medical and dental services, needed to assess growth and development and detect and treat health problems.

"Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital Licensing Act.

"Local health authority" means the full-time official health department or board of health, as recognized by the Illinois Department of Public Health, having jurisdiction over a particular area.

"Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

"Physician" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

"Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

"Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with reference to the newborn.

"Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.

"Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program established pursuant to this Act.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 225/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7026)

Sec. 6. Covered services.

(a) Covered services under the program may include, but are not necessarily limited to, the following:

(1) Laboratory services related to a recipient's pregnancy, performed or ordered by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(2) Screening and treatment for sexually transmitted disease.

(3) Prenatal visits to a physician in the physician's office, an advanced practice registered nurse in the advanced practice registered nurse's office, a physician assistant in the physician assistant's office, or to a hospital outpatient prenatal clinic, local health department maternity clinic, or community health center.

(4) Radiology services which are directly related to the pregnancy, are determined to be medically necessary and are ordered by a physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant.

(5) Pharmacy services related to the pregnancy.

(6) Other medical consultations related to the pregnancy.

(7) Physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or nurse services associated with delivery.

(8) One postnatal office visit within 60 days after delivery.

(9) Two EPSDT-equivalent screenings for the infant within 90 days after birth.

(10) Social and support services.

(11) Nutrition services.

(12) Case management services.

(b) The following services shall not be covered under the program:

(1) Services determined by the Department not to be medically necessary.

(2) Services not directly related to the pregnancy, except for the 2 covered EPSDT-equivalent screenings.

(3) Hospital inpatient services.

(4) Anesthesiologist and radiologist services during a period of hospital inpatient care.

(5) Physician, advanced practice registered nurse, and physician assistant hospital visits.

(6) Services considered investigational or experimental.

(Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)

Section 275. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:

(410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)

Sec. 3. Definitions. When used in this Act:

(a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.

(b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act.

(c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(e) "De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

(f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public Health or its designated agents.

(g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed physician assistant, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges, (v) a licensed dentist, (vi) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vii) an individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a state or local public health department.

(j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

(l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

(m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

(o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus.

(p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related information" does not include information that has been de-identified in accordance with HIPAA.

(q) "Informed consent" means:

(1) where a health care provider, health care professional, or health facility has implemented opt-in testing, a process by which an individual or their legal representative receives pre-test information, has an opportunity to ask questions, and consents verbally or in writing to the test without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion; or

(2) where a health care provider, health care professional, or health facility has implemented opt-out testing, the individual or their legal representative has been notified verbally or in writing that the test is planned, has received pre-test information, has been given the opportunity to ask questions and the opportunity to decline testing, and has not declined testing; where such notice is provided, consent for opt-out HIV testing may be incorporated into the patient's general consent for medical care on the same basis as are other screening or diagnostic tests; a separate consent for opt-out HIV testing is not required.

In addition, where the person providing informed consent is a participant in an HIE, informed consent requires a fair explanation that the results of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right under Section 9.6 of this Act.

A health care provider, health care professional, or health facility undertaking an informed consent process for HIV testing under this subsection may combine a form used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other medical test or procedure, provided that the forms make it clear that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing, and clearly explain how the subject may decline HIV testing. Health facility clerical staff or other staff responsible for the consent form for general medical care may obtain consent for HIV testing through a general consent form.

(r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

(s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

(s-1) "Opt-in testing" means an approach where an HIV test is presented by offering the test and the patient accepts or declines testing.

(s-3) "Opt-out testing" means an approach where an HIV test is presented such that a patient is notified that HIV testing may occur unless the patient declines.

(t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

(v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

(w-5) "Pre-test information" means:

(1) a reasonable explanation of the test, including its purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of its results; and

(2) a reasonable explanation of the procedures to be followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the availability of a qualified person to answer questions, the right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of test results, and the right to confidential treatment of information identifying the subject of the test and the results of the test, to the extent provided by law.

Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, or by video, electronic, or other means and may be provided as designated by the supervising health care professional or the health facility.

For the purposes of this definition, a qualified person to answer questions is a health care professional or, when acting under the supervision of a health care professional, a registered nurse, medical assistant, or other person determined to be sufficiently knowledgeable about HIV testing, its purpose, potential uses, limitations, the meaning of the test results, and the testing procedures in the professional judgment of a supervising health care professional or as designated by a health care facility.

(x) "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

(y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.

(aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the presence of the antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV infection.

(bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

(cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; 99-54, eff. 1-1-16; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 280. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 5.5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 325/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)

Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

(1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.

(2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official health department of board of health, as recognized by the Department, having jurisdiction over a particular area.

(3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic disease, determined by rule of the Department to be sexually transmissible, to be a threat to the public health and welfare, and to be a disease for which a legitimate public interest will be served by providing for regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to be designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department shall consider such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea, granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma venereum, genital herpes simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute Salpingitis, syphilis, Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall consider the recommendations and classifications of the Centers for Disease Control and other nationally recognized medical authorities. Not all diseases that are sexually transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.

(4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe, dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible disease, without physical examination of the partner or partners.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 325/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)

Sec. 4. Reporting required.

(a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who makes a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually transmissible disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result shall report such facts as may be required by the Department by rule, within such time period as the Department may require by rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.

(b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the information required in reporting a sexually transmissible disease, the method of reporting and specifying a minimum time period for reporting. In adopting such rules, the Department shall consider the need for information, protections for the privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the practical abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable fashion.

(c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any false information or report concerning the existence of any sexually transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section or the rules adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department up to $500 for each violation. The Department shall report each violation of this Section to the regulatory agency responsible for licensing a health care professional or a laboratory to which these provisions apply.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)

Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.

(a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV infection or AIDS pursuant to this Act and the Department determines that the subject of the report may present or may have presented a possible risk of HIV transmission, the Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate the subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission. Any investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely fashion. All contacts other than those defined in subsection (c) shall be investigated in accordance with Section 5 of this Act.

(b) If the Department determines that there is or may have been potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of the report to other persons, the Department shall afford the subject the opportunity to submit any information and comment on proposed actions the Department intends to take with respect to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's contacts. The Department shall also afford the subject of the report the opportunity to notify the subject's contacts in a timely fashion who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV prior to the Department taking any steps to notify such contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if the Department determines the notices to be inadequate or incomplete, the Department shall endeavor to notify such other persons of the potential risk, and offer testing and counseling services to these individuals. When the contacts are notified, they shall be informed of the disclosure provisions of the AIDS Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and this Section.

(c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the case of HIV infection include (i) individuals who have undergone invasive procedures performed by an HIV infected health care provider and (ii) health care providers who have performed invasive procedures for persons infected with HIV, provided the Department has determined that there is or may have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health care provider to those individuals or from infected persons to health care providers. The Department shall have access to the subject's records to review for the identity of contacts. The subject's records shall not be copied or seized by the Department.

For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive procedures" means those procedures termed invasive by the Centers for Disease Control in current guidelines or recommendations for the prevention of HIV transmission in health care settings, and the term "health care provider" means any physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person providing health care services of any kind.

(d) All information and records held by the Department and local health authorities pertaining to activities conducted pursuant to this Section shall be strictly confidential and exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of Information Act. Such information and records shall not be released or made public by the Department or local health authorities, and shall not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall be treated in the same manner as the information and those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure except under the following circumstances:

(1) When made with the written consent of all persons to whom this information pertains;

(2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released under court order or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(3) When made by the Department for the purpose of seeking a warrant authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this Act. Such disclosure shall conform to the requirements of subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.

(e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates any information or report concerning the existence of any disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

Section 285. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:

(410 ILCS 335/5)

Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:

"Department" means the Department of Public Health.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

"Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or other institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care services.

"Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or labor or delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn infant, including hospitalization.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 290. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 513/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act.

"Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"De-identified information" means health information that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b).

"Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local government, and any board, commission, department, institution, or school district, any party to a public contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee within the State, and every other person employing employees within the State.

"Employment agency" means both public and private employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place employees.

"Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i) the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the individual, including a child who is born to or placed for adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii) of this definition.

"Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the workplace.

"Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a licensed physician assistant, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic counselor, or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic testing by a state or local public health department.

"Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois Finance Authority Act.

"Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health information exchange or health information organization that exchanges health information electronically that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation shall not require the establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate.

"Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.

"Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a managed care plan.

"Labor organization" includes any organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the rights of union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships.

"Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee, council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant, deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a license or certificate of registration.

"Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2).

"Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes, operates, or maintains a network of health care providers that have entered into agreements with the plan to provide health care services to enrollees where the plan has the ultimate and direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for the provision of or pay for services through:

(1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or dispute resolution; or

(2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the plan to use the participating providers and procedures covered by the plan.

A managed care plan may be established or operated by any entity including a licensed insurance company, hospital or medical service plan, health maintenance organization, limited health service organization, preferred provider organization, third party administrator, or an employer or employee organization.

"Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using, disclosing, and requesting protected health information found in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d).

"Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the individual whom the information concerns.

"Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.

"Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it under 42 CFR 3.20.

"Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Person" includes any natural person, partnership, association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity.

"Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103.

"Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons.

"Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501.

"Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.

(Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 295. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

(410 ILCS 642/10)

Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:

"Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or advanced practice registered nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in this State.

"Health care professional" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant.

"Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act.

"Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of the Hospice Program Licensing Act.

"Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

Section 300. The Radiation Protection Act of 1990 is amended by changing Sections 5 and 6 as follows:

(420 ILCS 40/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 210-5)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 5. Limitations on application of radiation to human beings and requirements for radiation installation operators providing mammography services.

(a) No person shall intentionally administer radiation to a human being unless such person is licensed to practice a treatment of human ailments by virtue of the Illinois Medical, Dental or Podiatric Medical Practice Acts, or, as physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, technician, nurse, or other assistant, is acting under the supervision, prescription or direction of such licensed person. However, no such physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, technician, nurse, or other assistant acting under the supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, shall administer radiation to human beings unless accredited by the Agency, except that persons enrolled in a course of education approved by the Agency may apply ionizing radiation to human beings as required by their course of study when under the direct supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. No person authorized by this Section to apply ionizing radiation shall apply such radiation except to those parts of the human body specified in the Act under which such person or his supervisor is licensed. No person may operate a radiation installation where ionizing radiation is administered to human beings unless all persons who administer ionizing radiation in that radiation installation are licensed, accredited, or exempted in accordance with this Section. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to relieve a person from complying with the provisions of Section 10.

(b) In addition, no person shall provide mammography services unless all of the following requirements are met:

(1) the mammography procedures are performed using a radiation machine that is specifically designed for mammography;

(2) the mammography procedures are performed using a radiation machine that is used solely for performing mammography procedures;

(3) the mammography procedures are performed using equipment that has been subjected to a quality assurance program that satisfies quality assurance requirements which the Agency shall establish by rule;

(4) beginning one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1991, if the mammography procedure is performed by a radiologic technologist, that technologist, in addition to being accredited by the Agency to perform radiography, has satisfied training requirements specific to mammography, which the Agency shall establish by rule.

(c) Every operator of a radiation installation at which mammography services are provided shall ensure and have confirmed by each mammography patient that the patient is provided with a pamphlet which is orally reviewed with the patient and which contains the following:

(1) how to perform breast self-examination;

(2) that early detection of breast cancer is maximized through a combined approach, using monthly breast self-examination, a thorough physical examination performed by a physician, and mammography performed at recommended intervals;

(3) that mammography is the most accurate method for making an early detection of breast cancer, however, no diagnostic tool is 100% effective;

(4) that if the patient is self-referred and does not have a primary care physician, or if the patient is unfamiliar with the breast examination procedures, that the patient has received information regarding public health services where she can obtain a breast examination and instructions.

(Source: P.A. 93-149, eff. 7-10-03; 94-104, eff. 7-1-05.)

(420 ILCS 40/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 210-6)

(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)

Sec. 6. Accreditation of administrators of radiation; Limited scope accreditation; Rules and regulations; Education.

(a) The Agency shall promulgate such rules and regulations as are necessary to establish accreditation standards and procedures, including a minimum course of education and continuing education requirements in the administration of radiation to human beings, which are appropriate to the classification of accreditation and which are to be met by all physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, nurses, technicians, or other assistants who administer radiation to human beings under the supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Such rules and regulations may provide for different classes of accreditation based on evidence of national certification, clinical experience or community hardship as conditions of initial and continuing accreditation. The rules and regulations of the Agency shall be consistent with national standards in regard to the protection of the health and safety of the general public.

(b) The rules and regulations shall also provide that persons who have been accredited by the Agency, in accordance with the Radiation Protection Act, without passing an examination, will remain accredited as provided in Section 43 of this Act and that those persons may be accredited, without passing an examination, to use other equipment, procedures, or supervision within the original category of accreditation if the Agency receives written assurances from a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, that the person accredited has the necessary skill and qualifications for such additional equipment procedures or supervision. The Agency shall, in accordance with subsection (c) of this Section, provide for the accreditation of nurses, technicians, or other assistants, unless exempted elsewhere in this Act, to perform a limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures of the chest, the extremities, skull and sinuses, or the spine, while under the supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(c) The rules or regulations promulgated by the Agency pursuant to subsection (a) shall establish standards and procedures for accrediting persons to perform a limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures. The rules or regulations shall require persons seeking limited scope accreditation to register with the Agency as a "student-in-training," and declare those procedures in which the student will be receiving training. The student-in-training registration shall be valid for a period of 16 months, during which the time the student may, under the supervision of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, perform the diagnostic radiography procedures listed on the student's registration. The student-in-training registration shall be nonrenewable.

Upon expiration of the 16 month training period, the student shall be prohibited from performing diagnostic radiography procedures unless accredited by the Agency to perform such procedures. In order to be accredited to perform a limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures, an individual must pass an examination offered by the Agency. The examination shall be consistent with national standards in regard to protection of public health and safety. The examination shall consist of a standardized component covering general principles applicable to diagnostic radiography procedures and a clinical component specific to the types of procedures for which accreditation is being sought. The Agency may assess a reasonable fee for such examinations to cover the costs incurred by the Agency in conjunction with offering the examinations.

(d) The Agency shall by rule or regulation exempt from accreditation physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, nurses, technicians, or other assistants who administer radiation to human beings under supervision of a person licensed to practice under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 when the services are performed on employees of a business at a medical facility owned and operated by the business. Such exemption shall only apply to the equipment, procedures and supervision specific to the medical facility owned and operated by the business.

(Source: P.A. 94-104, eff. 7-1-05; 95-777, eff. 8-4-08.)

Section 305. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-609, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, 6-106.1a, 6-901, 11-501.01, 11-501.2, 11-501.6, 11-501.8, 11-1301.2, and 11-1301.5 as follows:

(625 ILCS 5/1-159.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)

Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a licensed physician assistant, or by a licensed advanced practice registered nurse: (1) cannot walk without the use of, or assistance from, a brace, cane, crutch, another person, prosthetic device, wheelchair, or other assistive device; (2) is restricted by lung disease to such an extent that his or her forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one second, when measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or the arterial oxygen tension is less than 60 mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) uses portable oxygen; (4) has a cardiac condition to the extent that the person's functional limitations are classified in severity as Class III or Class IV, according to standards set by the American Heart Association; (5) is severely limited in the person's ability to walk due to an arthritic, neurological, oncological, or orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet without stopping to rest because of one of the above 5 conditions; or (7) is missing a hand or arm or has permanently lost the use of a hand or arm.

(Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-609) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-609)

Sec. 3-609. Plates for Veterans with Disabilities.

(a) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected disability from the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and who has obtained certification from a licensed physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse that the service-connected disability qualifies the veteran for issuance of registration plates or decals to a person with disabilities in accordance with Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make application to the Secretary of State for license plates for veterans with disabilities displaying the international symbol of access, for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

(b) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected disability from the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, and whose degree of disability has been declared to be 50% or more, but whose disability does not qualify the veteran for a plate or decal for persons with disabilities under Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make application to the Secretary for a special registration plate without the international symbol of access for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.

(c) Renewal of such registration must be accompanied with documentation for eligibility of registration without fee unless the applicant has a permanent qualifying disability, and such registration plates may not be issued to any person not eligible therefor. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs may assist in providing the documentation of disability.

(d) The design and color of the plates shall be within the discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates issued under subsection (b) of this Section shall not contain the international symbol of access. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. Registration shall be for a multi-year period and may be issued staggered registration.

(e) Any person eligible to receive license plates under this Section who has been approved for benefits under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act, or who has claimed and received a grant under that Act, shall pay a fee of $24 instead of the fee otherwise provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, for motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(a), or for recreational vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b), for a second set of plates under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)

Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.

(a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of registration for a motor vehicle of the first division or for a motor vehicle of the second division weighing no more than 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the registration fees required under this Code from a person with disabilities or a person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State, if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates as provided for in Section 3-611, provided that the person with disabilities or person who is deaf or hard of hearing must not be disqualified from obtaining a driver's license under subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further provided that any person making such a request must submit a statement, certified by a licensed physician, by a licensed physician assistant, or by a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively provide adequate documentation that such person has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four disability under the provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois Identification Card Act indicating that the person thereon named has a disability shall be adequate documentation of such a disability.

(b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to a parent or legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the person with disabilities has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered in his or her name, provided that the person with disabilities relies frequently on the parent or legal guardian for transportation. Only one vehicle per family may be registered under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person requesting special plates under this subsection shall submit such documentation or such physician's, physician assistant's, or advanced practice registered nurse's statement as is required in subsection (a) and a statement describing the circumstances qualifying for issuance of special plates under this subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.

(c) The Secretary may issue a parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a driver's license or registration of a vehicle by such person with disabilities or such person's immediate family, provided such person with disabilities making such a request has been issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that the person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability, or alternatively, submits a statement certified by a licensed physician, or by a licensed physician assistant or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse as provided in subsection (a), to the effect that such person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this subsection.

(d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations procedures to certify or re-certify as necessary the eligibility of persons whose disabilities are other than permanent for special plates or parking decals or devices issued under subsections (a), (b) and (c). Except as provided under subsection (f) of this Section, no such special plates, decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of State to or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person is certified as meeting the definition of a person with disabilities pursuant to Section 1-159.1 or meeting the requirement of a Type Four disability as provided under Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the period of time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse as provided in subsection (a), determines the applicant will have the disability, but not to exceed 6 months from the date of certification or recertification.

(e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section may also apply to have the special plates personalized, as provided under Section 3-405.1.

(f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue disability registration plates or a parking decal to corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, limited liability companies, nursing homes, convalescent homes, or special education cooperatives which will transport persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe by rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of organizations to receive disability plates or decals and to designate which of the 2 person with disabilities emblems shall be placed on qualifying vehicles.

(g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign jurisdictions, on behalf of this State relating to the extension of parking privileges by such jurisdictions to residents of this State with disabilities who display a special license plate or parking device that contains the International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and to recognize such plates or devices issued by such other jurisdictions. This State shall grant the same parking privileges which are granted to residents of this State with disabilities to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed in another state, district, territory or foreign country if such vehicle displays the international symbol of access or a distinguishing insignia on license plates or parking device issued in accordance with the laws of the non-resident's state, district, territory or foreign country.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)

Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue any permit under this Code:

1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except that an instruction permit may be issued under Section 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if the child is enrolled in an approved driver education course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and requires an instruction permit to participate therein, except that an instruction permit may be issued under the provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an approved driver education course and except that an instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act, and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his or her discretion may prescribe;

1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to any other requirements of this Code, successfully completed an adult driver education course as provided in Section 6-107.5 of this Code;

2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle unless the person has, in addition to meeting the provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully completed a motorcycle training course approved by the Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle driver's examination;

3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to any person whose driver's license or permit has been revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and 6-208;

4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol or any other drug to a degree that renders the person incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;

5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental or physical disability or disease and who has not at the time of application been restored to competency by the methods provided by law;

6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the person has successfully passed the examination and submitted any required evaluation;

7. To any person who is required under the provisions of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited the security or proof;

8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or mental disability would not be able to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a competent medical specialist, a licensed physician assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public safety;

9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age or older, unless the person has successfully complied with the provisions of Section 6-109;

10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section 6-205;

11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of Section 6-104;

12. To any person who has been either convicted of or adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act while that person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur while the person was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit for a period of one year;

13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle without a valid license or permit in violation of Section 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;

14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in court ordered child support payments or has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days' obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of court for failure to pay the support, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;

14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an order of support entered by a court or administrative body of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code regarding those certifications;

15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law of another state relating to reckless homicide or for violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term of imprisonment;

16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the owner or employee of any commercial driver training school licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual authorized by the laws of this State to give driving instructions or administer all or part of a driver's license examination, promises or tenders to that person any property or personal advantage which that person is not authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or tendering such property or personal advantage shall be disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing this period of disqualification and the procedures by which persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review of the decision to disqualify;

17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State cannot verify the accuracy of any information or documentation submitted in application for a driver's license;

18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is determined by the court to have been committed in furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied a license or permit for the period determined by the court; or

19. Beginning July 1, 2017, to any person who has been issued an identification card under the Illinois Identification Card Act. Any such person may, at his or her discretion, surrender the identification card in order to become eligible to obtain a driver's license.

The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction information, if the information is required to be held confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.

(Source: P.A. 98-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-511, eff. 1-1-17.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.1)

Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.

(a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of the application and screening process under this Section to insure the welfare and safety of children who are transported on school buses throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants shall obtain the proper application required by the Secretary of State from their prospective or current employer and submit the completed application to the prospective or current employer along with the necessary fingerprint submission as required by the Department of State Police to conduct fingerprint based criminal background checks on current and future information available in the state system and current information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or submitting proof of successful completion of the annual refresher course. Individuals who on July 1, 1995 (the effective date of Public Act 88-612) possess a valid school bus driver permit that has been previously issued by the appropriate Regional School Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid and does not lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all related application and fingerprinting fees as established by rule including, but not limited to, the amounts established by the Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to process fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All fees paid for fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the fingerprint based criminal background investigations. All other fees paid under this Section shall be deposited into the Road Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in administering this Section. All applicants must:

1. be 21 years of age or older;

2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's license issued by the Secretary of State;

3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately prior to the date of application, or have not had his or her commercial motor vehicle driving privileges disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the date of application;

4. successfully pass a written test, administered by the Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus safety, and special traffic laws relating to school buses and submit to a review of the applicant's driving habits by the Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;

5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in the operation of school buses in accordance with rules promulgated by the Secretary of State;

6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical examination, including tests for drug use for each applicant not subject to such testing pursuant to federal law, conducted by a licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant within 90 days of the date of application according to standards promulgated by the Secretary of State;

7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has not made a false statement or knowingly concealed a material fact in any application for permit;

8. have completed an initial classroom course, including first aid procedures, in school bus driver safety as promulgated by the Secretary of State; and after satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual refresher course; such courses and the agency or organization conducting such courses shall be approved by the Secretary of State; failure to complete the annual refresher course, shall result in cancellation of the permit until such course is completed;

9. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of application that may endanger the life or safety of any of the driver's passengers within the duration of the permit period;

10. not have been under an order of court supervision for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle within 3 years of the date of application;

11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting to commit any one or more of the following offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6, 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9, 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6, 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in any other state or against the laws of the United States, which if committed or attempted in this State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act;

12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor vehicle collisions or been repeatedly convicted of offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the movement of traffic, to a degree which indicates lack of ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the highway;

13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any person;

14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability or disease; and

15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the applicant to the Secretary of State.

(b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period specified by the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this Section.

(c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's driver's license number, legal name, residence address, zip code, and date of birth, a brief description of the holder and a space for signature. The Secretary of State may require a suitable photograph of the holder.

(d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a pre-employment interview with prospective school bus driver candidates, distributing school bus driver applications and medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and submitting the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State Police that are required for the criminal background investigations. The employer shall certify in writing to the Secretary of State that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed including the successful completion of an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through the Department of State Police and the submission of necessary fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal history information available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation system. The applicant shall present the certification to the Secretary of State at the time of submitting the school bus driver permit application.

(e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving certification from the employer that all pre-employment conditions have been successfully completed, and upon successful completion of all training and examination requirements for the classification of the vehicle to be operated, the Secretary of State shall provisionally issue a School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall remain in a provisional status pending the completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation based upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal Bureau of Investigation shall report the findings directly to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the bus driver permit from provisional status upon the applicant's successful completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's criminal background investigation.

(f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an order of court supervision for or convicted in another state of an offense that would make him or her ineligible for a permit under subsection (a) of this Section. The written notification shall be made within 5 days of the entry of the order of court supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to provide the notification is punishable as a petty offense for a first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a second or subsequent violation.

(g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.

(1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background investigation discloses that he or she is not in compliance with the provisions of subsection (a) of this Section.

(2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit when he or she receives notice that the permit holder fails to comply with any provision of this Section or any rule promulgated for the administration of this Section.

(3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial or commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or otherwise invalidated.

(4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who fails to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice that the holder has failed to obtain a negative result on a drug test as required in item 6 of subsection (a) of this Section or under federal law.

(6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder failed to perform the inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-816 of this Code.

(7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has submitted to a test required by that Section which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set forth in 49 CFR 40.87.

The Secretary of State shall notify the State Superintendent of Education and the permit holder's prospective or current employer that the applicant has (1) has failed a criminal background investigation or (2) is no longer eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver permit. The cancellation shall remain in effect pending the outcome of a hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issuance criteria contained in subsection (a) of this Section. A petition requesting a hearing shall be submitted to the Secretary of State and shall contain the reason the individual feels he or she is entitled to a school bus driver permit. The permit holder's employer shall notify in writing to the Secretary of State that the employer has certified the removal of the offending school bus driver from service prior to the start of that school bus driver's next workshift. An employing school board that fails to remove the offending school bus driver from service is subject to the penalties defined in Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A school bus contractor who violates a provision of this Section is subject to the penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.

All valid school bus driver permits issued under this Section prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until their expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.

(h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State shall not characterize the permit as invalid.

(i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of subsection (b) of this Section.

(j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this Section:

"Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor.

"Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois National Guard.

(k) A private carrier employer of a school bus driver permit holder, having satisfied the employer requirements of this Section, shall be held to a standard of ordinary care for intentional acts committed in the course of employment by the bus driver permit holder. This subsection (k) shall in no way limit the liability of the private carrier employer for violation of any provision of this Section or for the negligent hiring or retention of a school bus driver permit holder.

(Source: P.A. 99-148, eff. 1-1-16; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-106.1a)

Sec. 6-106.1a. Cancellation of school bus driver permit; trace of alcohol.

(a) A person who has been issued a school bus driver permit by the Secretary of State in accordance with Section 6-106.1 of this Code and who drives or is in actual physical control of a school bus or any other vehicle owned or operated by or for a public or private school, or a school operated by a religious institution, when the vehicle is being used over a regularly scheduled route for the transportation of persons enrolled as students in grade 12 or below, in connection with any activity of the entities listed, upon the public highways of this State shall be deemed to have given consent to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol content of the person's blood if arrested, as evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket for any violation of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if a police officer has probable cause to believe that the driver has consumed any amount of an alcoholic beverage based upon evidence of the driver's physical condition or other first hand knowledge of the police officer. The test or tests shall be administered at the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall be administered. A urine or other bodily substance test may be administered even after a blood or breath test or both has been administered.

(b) A person who is dead, unconscious, or who is otherwise in a condition rendering that person incapable of refusal, shall be deemed not to have withdrawn the consent provided by paragraph (a) of this Section and the test or tests may be administered subject to the following provisions:

(1) Chemical analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance, to be considered valid under the provisions of this Section, shall have been performed according to standards promulgated by the Department of State Police by an individual possessing a valid permit issued by the Department of State Police for this purpose. The Director of State Police is authorized to approve satisfactory techniques or methods, to ascertain the qualifications and competence of individuals to conduct analyses, to issue permits that shall be subject to termination or revocation at the direction of the Department of State Police, and to certify the accuracy of breath testing equipment. The Department of State Police shall prescribe rules as necessary.

(2) When a person submits to a blood test at the request of a law enforcement officer under the provisions of this Section, only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or other qualified person trained in venipuncture and acting under the direction of a licensed physician may withdraw blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol content. This limitation does not apply to the taking of breath, other bodily substance, or urine specimens.

(3) The person tested may have a physician, qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person of his or her own choosing administer a chemical test or tests in addition to any test or tests administered at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The test administered at the request of the person may be admissible into evidence at a hearing conducted in accordance with Section 2-118 of this Code. The failure or inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall not preclude the consideration of the previously performed chemical test.

(4) Upon a request of the person who submits to a chemical test or tests at the request of a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the test or tests shall be made available to the person or that person's attorney by the requesting law enforcement agency within 72 hours of receipt of the test result.

(5) Alcohol concentration means either grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.

(6) If a driver is receiving medical treatment as a result of a motor vehicle accident, a physician licensed to practice medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or other qualified person trained in venipuncture and acting under the direction of a licensed physician shall withdraw blood for testing purposes to ascertain the presence of alcohol upon the specific request of a law enforcement officer. However, that testing shall not be performed until, in the opinion of the medical personnel on scene, the withdrawal can be made without interfering with or endangering the well-being of the patient.

(c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided in this Section shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, may result in the loss of that person's privilege to possess a school bus driver permit. The loss of the individual's privilege to possess a school bus driver permit shall be imposed in accordance with Section 6-106.1b of this Code. A person requested to submit to a test under this Section shall also acknowledge, in writing, receipt of the warning required under this subsection (c). If the person refuses to acknowledge receipt of the warning, the law enforcement officer shall make a written notation on the warning that the person refused to sign the warning. A person's refusal to sign the warning shall not be evidence that the person was not read the warning.

(d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test that discloses an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the Secretary of State on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State certifying that the test or tests were requested under subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00. The law enforcement officer shall submit the same sworn report when a person who has been issued a school bus driver permit and who was operating a school bus or any other vehicle owned or operated by or for a public or private school, or a school operated by a religious institution, when the vehicle is being used over a regularly scheduled route for the transportation of persons enrolled as students in grade 12 or below, in connection with any activity of the entities listed, submits to testing under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the testing discloses an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 and less than the alcohol concentration at which driving or being in actual physical control of a motor vehicle is prohibited under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall enter the school bus driver permit sanction on the individual's driving record and the sanction shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice of the sanction was given to the person.

The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report shall serve immediate notice of this school bus driver permit sanction on the person and the sanction shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

In cases where the blood alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 is established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine, the police officer or arresting agency shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of that notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to that person at his or her last known address and the loss of the school bus driver permit shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall also give notice of the school bus driver permit sanction to the driver and the driver's current employer by mailing a notice of the effective date of the sanction to the individual. However, shall the sworn report be defective by not containing sufficient information or be completed in error, the notice of the school bus driver permit sanction may not be mailed to the person or his current employer or entered to the driving record, but rather the sworn report shall be returned to the issuing law enforcement agency.

(e) A driver may contest this school bus driver permit sanction by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State in accordance with Section 2-118 of this Code. An individual whose blood alcohol concentration is shown to be more than 0.00 is not subject to this Section if he or she consumed alcohol in the performance of a religious service or ceremony. An individual whose blood alcohol concentration is shown to be more than 0.00 shall not be subject to this Section if the individual's blood alcohol concentration resulted only from ingestion of the prescribed or recommended dosage of medicine that contained alcohol. The petition for that hearing shall not stay or delay the effective date of the impending suspension. The scope of this hearing shall be limited to the issues of:

(1) whether the police officer had probable cause to believe that the person was driving or in actual physical control of a school bus or any other vehicle owned or operated by or for a public or private school, or a school operated by a religious institution, when the vehicle is being used over a regularly scheduled route for the transportation of persons enrolled as students in grade 12 or below, in connection with any activity of the entities listed, upon the public highways of the State and the police officer had reason to believe that the person was in violation of any provision of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; and

(2) whether the person was issued a Uniform Traffic Ticket for any violation of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; and

(3) whether the police officer had probable cause to believe that the driver had consumed any amount of an alcoholic beverage based upon the driver's physical actions or other first-hand knowledge of the police officer; and

(4) whether the person, after being advised by the officer that the privilege to possess a school bus driver permit would be canceled if the person refused to submit to and complete the test or tests, did refuse to submit to or complete the test or tests to determine the person's alcohol concentration; and

(5) whether the person, after being advised by the officer that the privileges to possess a school bus driver permit would be canceled if the person submits to a chemical test or tests and the test or tests disclose an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 and the person did submit to and complete the test or tests that determined an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00; and

(6) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 was based upon the person's consumption of alcohol in the performance of a religious service or ceremony; and

(7) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 was based upon the person's consumption of alcohol through ingestion of the prescribed or recommended dosage of medicine.

The Secretary of State may adopt administrative rules setting forth circumstances under which the holder of a school bus driver permit is not required to appear in person at the hearing.

Provided that the petitioner may subpoena the officer, the hearing may be conducted upon a review of the law enforcement officer's own official reports. Failure of the officer to answer the subpoena shall be grounds for a continuance if, in the hearing officer's discretion, the continuance is appropriate. At the conclusion of the hearing held under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State may rescind, continue, or modify the school bus driver permit sanction.

(f) The results of any chemical testing performed in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section are not admissible in any civil or criminal proceeding, except that the results of the testing may be considered at a hearing held under Section 2-118 of this Code. However, the results of the testing may not be used to impose driver's license sanctions under Section 11-501.1 of this Code. A law enforcement officer may, however, pursue a statutory summary suspension or revocation of driving privileges under Section 11-501.1 of this Code if other physical evidence or first hand knowledge forms the basis of that suspension or revocation.

(g) This Section applies only to drivers who have been issued a school bus driver permit in accordance with Section 6-106.1 of this Code at the time of the issuance of the Uniform Traffic Ticket for a violation of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and a chemical test request is made under this Section.

(h) The action of the Secretary of State in suspending, revoking, canceling, or denying any license, permit, registration, or certificate of title shall be subject to judicial review in the Circuit Court of Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of Cook County, and the provisions of the Administrative Review Law and its rules are hereby adopted and shall apply to and govern every action for the judicial review of final acts or decisions of the Secretary of State under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)

Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this Article:

"Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.

"Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means:

(i) any person licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in the State of Illinois or any other state;

(ii) a licensed physician assistant; or

(iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse.

(Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.01)

Sec. 11-501.01. Additional administrative sanctions.

(a) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final sentencing or an order for supervision, for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid for by the individual required to undergo the professional evaluation.

(b) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person receiving a disposition of court supervision for violating that Section, may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel offered by, or under contract with, a county State's Attorney's office, a probation and court services department, Mothers Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be determined by the court.

(c) Every person found guilty of violating Section 11-501, whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of that Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of this Section.

(d) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving privileges of any person convicted under Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance.

(e) The Secretary of State shall require the use of ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating to these fees. During the time period in which a person is required to install an ignition interlock device under this subsection (e), that person shall only operate vehicles in which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of Section 6-205 of this Code.

(f) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating Section 11-501, including any person placed on court supervision for violating Section 11-501, shall be assessed $750, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the money as follows: $350 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest, and $400 shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. If the person has been previously convicted of violating Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, the fine shall be $1,000, and the circuit clerk shall distribute $200 to the law enforcement agency that made the arrest and $800 to the State Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. In the event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, the amount payable to law enforcement agencies shall be shared equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under this subsection (f) shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations. Any moneys received by the Department of State Police under this subsection (f) shall be deposited into the State Police DUI Fund and shall be used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State.

(g) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the Secretary of State Police under subsection (f) of this Section shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police DUI Fund and, subject to appropriation, shall be used for enforcement and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement equipment and commodities to assist in the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police officer training and education in areas related to alcohol related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation patrols, and liquor store sting operations.

(h) Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor compliance with any remedial education or treatment recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human Services. If the individual is not a resident of Illinois, however, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug evaluation or remedial education program in the individual's state of residence. Programs providing treatment must be licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug treatment licensure standards.

(i) In addition to any other fine or penalty required by law, an individual convicted of a violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in an appropriate emergency response, shall be required to make restitution to a public agency for the costs of that emergency response. The restitution may not exceed $1,000 per public agency for each emergency response. As used in this subsection (i), "emergency response" means any incident requiring a response by a police officer, a firefighter carried on the rolls of a regularly constituted fire department, or an ambulance. With respect to funds designated for the Department of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit court clerk to the State Police within one month after receipt for deposit into the State Police DUI Fund. With respect to funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.

(j) A person that is subject to a chemical test or tests of blood under subsection (a) of Section 11-501.1 or subdivision (c)(2) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, whether or not that person consents to testing, shall be liable for the expense up to $500 for blood withdrawal by a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist, a licensed paramedic, or a qualified person other than a police officer approved by the Department of State Police to withdraw blood, who responds, whether at a law enforcement facility or a health care facility, to a police department request for the drawing of blood based upon refusal of the person to submit to a lawfully requested breath test or probable cause exists to believe the test would disclose the ingestion, consumption, or use of drugs or intoxicating compounds if:

(1) the person is found guilty of violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; or

(2) the person pleads guilty to or stipulates to facts supporting a violation of Section 11-503 of this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when the plea or stipulation was the result of a plea agreement in which the person was originally charged with violating Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.

(Source: P.A. 98-292, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-289, eff. 8-6-15; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.2)

Sec. 11-501.2. Chemical and other tests.

(a) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of an arrest for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings pursuant to Section 2-118.1, evidence of the concentration of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof in a person's blood or breath at the time alleged, as determined by analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance, shall be admissible. Where such test is made the following provisions shall apply:

1. Chemical analyses of the person's blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance to be considered valid under the provisions of this Section shall have been performed according to standards promulgated by the Department of State Police by a licensed physician, registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, licensed paramedic, or other individual possessing a valid permit issued by that Department for this purpose. The Director of State Police is authorized to approve satisfactory techniques or methods, to ascertain the qualifications and competence of individuals to conduct such analyses, to issue permits which shall be subject to termination or revocation at the discretion of that Department and to certify the accuracy of breath testing equipment. The Department of State Police shall prescribe regulations as necessary to implement this Section.

2. When a person in this State shall submit to a blood test at the request of a law enforcement officer under the provisions of Section 11-501.1, only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, or licensed paramedic, or other qualified person approved by the Department of State Police may withdraw blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug, or alcohol and drug content therein. This limitation shall not apply to the taking of breath, other bodily substance, or urine specimens.

When a blood test of a person who has been taken to an adjoining state for medical treatment is requested by an Illinois law enforcement officer, the blood may be withdrawn only by a physician authorized to practice medicine in the adjoining state, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist acting under the direction of the physician, or licensed paramedic. The law enforcement officer requesting the test shall take custody of the blood sample, and the blood sample shall be analyzed by a laboratory certified by the Department of State Police for that purpose.

3. The person tested may have a physician, or a qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person of their own choosing administer a chemical test or tests in addition to any administered at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the test or tests taken at the direction of a law enforcement officer.

4. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a chemical test or tests at the request of a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the test or tests shall be made available to the person or such person's attorney.

5. Alcohol concentration shall mean either grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.

6. Tetrahydrocannabinol concentration means either 5 nanograms or more of delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol per milliliter of whole blood or 10 nanograms or more of delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol per milliliter of other bodily substance.

(a-5) Law enforcement officials may use standardized field sobriety tests approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration when conducting investigations of a violation of Section 11-501 or similar local ordinance by drivers suspected of driving under the influence of cannabis. The General Assembly finds that standardized field sobriety tests approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration are divided attention tasks that are intended to determine if a person is under the influence of cannabis. The purpose of these tests is to determine the effect of the use of cannabis on a person's capacity to think and act with ordinary care and therefore operate a motor vehicle safely. Therefore, the results of these standardized field sobriety tests, appropriately administered, shall be admissible in the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of an arrest for a cannabis-related offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings under Section 2-118.1 or 2-118.2. Where a test is made the following provisions shall apply:

1. The person tested may have a physician, or a qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person of their own choosing administer a chemical test or tests in addition to the standardized field sobriety test or tests administered at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to obtain an additional test by a person does not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the test or tests taken at the direction of a law enforcement officer.

2. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a standardized field sobriety test or tests at the request of a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the test or tests shall be made available to the person or the person's attorney.

3. At the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of an arrest for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings under Section 2-118.1 or 2-118.2 in which the results of these standardized field sobriety tests are admitted, the cardholder may present and the trier of fact may consider evidence that the card holder lacked the physical capacity to perform the standardized field sobriety tests.

(b) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed by any person while driving or in actual physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the concentration of alcohol in the person's blood or breath at the time alleged as shown by analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance shall give rise to the following presumptions:

1. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration of 0.05 or less, it shall be presumed that the person was not under the influence of alcohol.

2. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration in excess of 0.05 but less than 0.08, such facts shall not give rise to any presumption that the person was or was not under the influence of alcohol, but such fact may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person was under the influence of alcohol.

3. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, it shall be presumed that the person was under the influence of alcohol.

4. The foregoing provisions of this Section shall not be construed as limiting the introduction of any other relevant evidence bearing upon the question whether the person was under the influence of alcohol.

(b-5) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed by any person while driving or in actual physical control of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination thereof, the concentration of cannabis in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance at the time alleged as shown by analysis of the person's blood or other bodily substance shall give rise to the following presumptions:

1. If there was a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of 5 nanograms or more in whole blood or 10 nanograms or more in an other bodily substance as defined in this Section, it shall be presumed that the person was under the influence of cannabis.

2. If there was at that time a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of less than 5 nanograms in whole blood or less than 10 nanograms in an other bodily substance, such facts shall not give rise to any presumption that the person was or was not under the influence of cannabis, but such fact may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person was under the influence of cannabis.

(c) 1. If a person under arrest refuses to submit to a chemical test under the provisions of Section 11-501.1, evidence of refusal shall be admissible in any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed while the person under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle.

2. Notwithstanding any ability to refuse under this Code to submit to these tests or any ability to revoke the implied consent to these tests, if a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that a motor vehicle driven by or in actual physical control of a person under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof has caused the death or personal injury to another, the law enforcement officer shall request, and that person shall submit, upon the request of a law enforcement officer, to a chemical test or tests of his or her blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol content thereof or the presence of any other drug or combination of both.

This provision does not affect the applicability of or imposition of driver's license sanctions under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

3. For purposes of this Section, a personal injury includes any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A Type A injury includes severe bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(d) If a person refuses standardized field sobriety tests under Section 11-501.9 of this Code, evidence of refusal shall be admissible in any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts committed while the person was driving or in actual physical control of a vehicle and alleged to have been impaired by the use of cannabis.

(e) Department of State Police compliance with the changes in this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly concerning testing of other bodily substances and tetrahydrocannabinol concentration by Department of State Police laboratories is subject to appropriation and until the Department of State Police adopt standards and completion validation. Any laboratories that test for the presence of cannabis or other drugs under this Article, the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, or the Boat Registration and Safety Act must comply with ISO/IEC 17025:2005.

(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.6) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.6)

Sec. 11-501.6. Driver involvement in personal injury or fatal motor vehicle accident; chemical test.

(a) Any person who drives or is in actual control of a motor vehicle upon the public highways of this State and who has been involved in a personal injury or fatal motor vehicle accident, shall be deemed to have given consent to a breath test using a portable device as approved by the Department of State Police or to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds of such person's blood if arrested as evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket for any violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, with the exception of equipment violations contained in Chapter 12 of this Code, or similar provisions of local ordinances. The test or tests shall be administered at the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall be administered. Up to 2 additional tests of urine or other bodily substance may be administered even after a blood or breath test or both has been administered. Compliance with this Section does not relieve such person from the requirements of Section 11-501.1 of this Code.

(b) Any person who is dead, unconscious or who is otherwise in a condition rendering such person incapable of refusal shall be deemed not to have withdrawn the consent provided by subsection (a) of this Section. In addition, if a driver of a vehicle is receiving medical treatment as a result of a motor vehicle accident, any physician licensed to practice medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse or a phlebotomist acting under the direction of a licensed physician shall withdraw blood for testing purposes to ascertain the presence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, upon the specific request of a law enforcement officer. However, no such testing shall be performed until, in the opinion of the medical personnel on scene, the withdrawal can be made without interfering with or endangering the well-being of the patient.

(c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided above shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or testing discloses the presence of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as detected in such person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, may result in the suspension of such person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle. If the person is also a CDL holder, he or she shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis, as covered by the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as detected in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, may result in the disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code. The length of the suspension shall be the same as outlined in Section 6-208.1 of this Code regarding statutory summary suspensions.

A person requested to submit to a test shall also acknowledge, in writing, receipt of the warning required under this Section. If the person refuses to acknowledge receipt of the warning, the law enforcement officer shall make a written notation on the warning that the person refused to sign the warning. A person's refusal to sign the warning shall not be evidence that the person was not read the warning.

(d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test which discloses an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, the presence of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in such person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the Secretary of State on a form prescribed by the Secretary, certifying that the test or tests were requested under subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, the presence of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in such person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. If the person is also a CDL holder and refuses testing or submits to a test which discloses an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the Secretary of State on a form prescribed by the Secretary, certifying that the test or tests were requested under subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in such person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary shall enter the suspension and disqualification to the individual's driving record and the suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice of the suspension was given to the person.

The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report shall serve immediate notice of this suspension on the person and such suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

In cases involving a person who is not a CDL holder where the blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or blood testing discloses the presence of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, is established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine collected at the time of arrest, the arresting officer shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of such notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to such person at his or her address as shown on the Uniform Traffic Ticket and the suspension shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

In cases involving a person who is a CDL holder where the blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, is established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine collected at the time of arrest, the arresting officer shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of such notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to the person at his or her address as shown on the Uniform Traffic Ticket and the suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary shall also give notice of the suspension and disqualification to the driver by mailing a notice of the effective date of the suspension and disqualification to the individual. However, should the sworn report be defective by not containing sufficient information or be completed in error, the notice of the suspension and disqualification shall not be mailed to the person or entered to the driving record, but rather the sworn report shall be returned to the issuing law enforcement agency.

(e) A driver may contest this suspension of his or her driving privileges and disqualification of his or her CDL privileges by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary in accordance with Section 2-118 of this Code. At the conclusion of a hearing held under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary may rescind, continue, or modify the orders of suspension and disqualification. If the Secretary does not rescind the orders of suspension and disqualification, a restricted driving permit may be granted by the Secretary upon application being made and good cause shown. A restricted driving permit may be granted to relieve undue hardship to allow driving for employment, educational, and medical purposes as outlined in Section 6-206 of this Code. The provisions of Section 6-206 of this Code shall apply. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified.

(f) (Blank).

(g) For the purposes of this Section, a personal injury shall include any type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(Source: P.A. 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-501.8)

Sec. 11-501.8. Suspension of driver's license; persons under age 21.

(a) A person who is less than 21 years of age and who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon the public highways of this State shall be deemed to have given consent to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol content of the person's blood if arrested, as evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket for any violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, if a police officer has probable cause to believe that the driver has consumed any amount of an alcoholic beverage based upon evidence of the driver's physical condition or other first hand knowledge of the police officer. The test or tests shall be administered at the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall be administered. Up to 2 additional tests of urine or other bodily substance may be administered even after a blood or breath test or both has been administered.

(b) A person who is dead, unconscious, or who is otherwise in a condition rendering that person incapable of refusal, shall be deemed not to have withdrawn the consent provided by paragraph (a) of this Section and the test or tests may be administered subject to the following provisions:

(i) Chemical analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or other bodily substance, to be considered valid under the provisions of this Section, shall have been performed according to standards promulgated by the Department of State Police by an individual possessing a valid permit issued by that Department for this purpose. The Director of State Police is authorized to approve satisfactory techniques or methods, to ascertain the qualifications and competence of individuals to conduct analyses, to issue permits that shall be subject to termination or revocation at the direction of that Department, and to certify the accuracy of breath testing equipment. The Department of State Police shall prescribe regulations as necessary.

(ii) When a person submits to a blood test at the request of a law enforcement officer under the provisions of this Section, only a physician authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or other qualified person trained in venipuncture and acting under the direction of a licensed physician may withdraw blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol content therein. This limitation does not apply to the taking of breath, other bodily substance, or urine specimens.

(iii) The person tested may have a physician, qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person of his or her own choosing administer a chemical test or tests in addition to any test or tests administered at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall not preclude the consideration of the previously performed chemical test.

(iv) Upon a request of the person who submits to a chemical test or tests at the request of a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the test or tests shall be made available to the person or that person's attorney.

(v) Alcohol concentration means either grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.

(vi) If a driver is receiving medical treatment as a result of a motor vehicle accident, a physician licensed to practice medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or other qualified person trained in venipuncture and acting under the direction of a licensed physician shall withdraw blood for testing purposes to ascertain the presence of alcohol upon the specific request of a law enforcement officer. However, that testing shall not be performed until, in the opinion of the medical personnel on scene, the withdrawal can be made without interfering with or endangering the well-being of the patient.

(c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided above shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, may result in the loss of that person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle and may result in the disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the person is a CDL holder. The loss of driving privileges shall be imposed in accordance with Section 6-208.2 of this Code.

A person requested to submit to a test shall also acknowledge, in writing, receipt of the warning required under this Section. If the person refuses to acknowledge receipt of the warning, the law enforcement officer shall make a written notation on the warning that the person refused to sign the warning. A person's refusal to sign the warning shall not be evidence that the person was not read the warning.

(d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test that discloses an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the Secretary of State on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State, certifying that the test or tests were requested under subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00. The law enforcement officer shall submit the same sworn report when a person under the age of 21 submits to testing under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the testing discloses an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 and less than 0.08.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall enter the suspension and disqualification on the individual's driving record and the suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice of the suspension was given to the person. If this suspension is the individual's first driver's license suspension under this Section, reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, except during the time the suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities, the Secretary of State, or the individual personally, unless the person is a CDL holder, is operating a commercial motor vehicle or vehicle required to be placarded for hazardous materials, in which case the suspension shall not be privileged. Reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall also be made available to the parent or guardian of a person under the age of 18 years that holds an instruction permit or a graduated driver's license, regardless of whether the suspension is in effect.

The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report shall serve immediate notice of this suspension on the person and the suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

In cases where the blood alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 is established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine, the police officer or arresting agency shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of that notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to that person at his last known address and the loss of driving privileges shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall also give notice of the suspension and disqualification to the driver by mailing a notice of the effective date of the suspension and disqualification to the individual. However, should the sworn report be defective by not containing sufficient information or be completed in error, the notice of the suspension and disqualification shall not be mailed to the person or entered to the driving record, but rather the sworn report shall be returned to the issuing law enforcement agency.

(e) A driver may contest this suspension and disqualification by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State in accordance with Section 2-118 of this Code. An individual whose blood alcohol concentration is shown to be more than 0.00 is not subject to this Section if he or she consumed alcohol in the performance of a religious service or ceremony. An individual whose blood alcohol concentration is shown to be more than 0.00 shall not be subject to this Section if the individual's blood alcohol concentration resulted only from ingestion of the prescribed or recommended dosage of medicine that contained alcohol. The petition for that hearing shall not stay or delay the effective date of the impending suspension. The scope of this hearing shall be limited to the issues of:

(1) whether the police officer had probable cause to believe that the person was driving or in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon the public highways of the State and the police officer had reason to believe that the person was in violation of any provision of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; and

(2) whether the person was issued a Uniform Traffic Ticket for any violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance; and

(3) whether the police officer had probable cause to believe that the driver had consumed any amount of an alcoholic beverage based upon the driver's physical actions or other first-hand knowledge of the police officer; and

(4) whether the person, after being advised by the officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would be suspended if the person refused to submit to and complete the test or tests, did refuse to submit to or complete the test or tests to determine the person's alcohol concentration; and

(5) whether the person, after being advised by the officer that the privileges to operate a motor vehicle would be suspended if the person submits to a chemical test or tests and the test or tests disclose an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, did submit to and complete the test or tests that determined an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00; and

(6) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 was based upon the person's consumption of alcohol in the performance of a religious service or ceremony; and

(7) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 was based upon the person's consumption of alcohol through ingestion of the prescribed or recommended dosage of medicine.

At the conclusion of the hearing held under Section 2-118 of this Code, the Secretary of State may rescind, continue, or modify the suspension and disqualification. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the suspension and disqualification, a restricted driving permit may be granted by the Secretary of State upon application being made and good cause shown. A restricted driving permit may be granted to relieve undue hardship by allowing driving for employment, educational, and medical purposes as outlined in item (3) of part (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code. The provisions of item (3) of part (c) of Section 6-206 of this Code and of subsection (f) of that Section shall apply. The Secretary of State shall promulgate rules providing for participation in an alcohol education and awareness program or activity, a drug education and awareness program or activity, or both as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving permit for suspensions imposed under this Section.

(f) The results of any chemical testing performed in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section are not admissible in any civil or criminal proceeding, except that the results of the testing may be considered at a hearing held under Section 2-118 of this Code. However, the results of the testing may not be used to impose driver's license sanctions under Section 11-501.1 of this Code. A law enforcement officer may, however, pursue a statutory summary suspension or revocation of driving privileges under Section 11-501.1 of this Code if other physical evidence or first hand knowledge forms the basis of that suspension or revocation.

(g) This Section applies only to drivers who are under age 21 at the time of the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and a chemical test request is made under this Section.

(h) The action of the Secretary of State in suspending, revoking, cancelling, or disqualifying any license or permit shall be subject to judicial review in the Circuit Court of Sangamon County or in the Circuit Court of Cook County, and the provisions of the Administrative Review Law and its rules are hereby adopted and shall apply to and govern every action for the judicial review of final acts or decisions of the Secretary of State under this Section.

(Source: P.A. 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.2)

Sec. 11-1301.2. Special decals for parking; persons with disabilities.

(a) The Secretary of State shall provide for, by administrative rules, the design, size, color, and placement of a person with disabilities motorist decal or device and shall provide for, by administrative rules, the content and form of an application for a person with disabilities motorist decal or device, which shall be used by local authorities in the issuance thereof to a person with temporary disabilities, provided that the decal or device is valid for no more than 90 days, subject to renewal for like periods based upon continued disability, and further provided that the decal or device clearly sets forth the date that the decal or device expires. The application shall include the requirement of an Illinois Identification Card number or a State of Illinois driver's license number. This decal or device may be used by the authorized holder to designate and identify a vehicle not owned or displaying a registration plate as provided in Sections 3-609 and 3-616 of this Act to designate when the vehicle is being used to transport said person or persons with disabilities, and thus is entitled to enjoy all the privileges that would be afforded a person with disabilities licensed vehicle. Person with disabilities decals or devices issued and displayed pursuant to this Section shall be recognized and honored by all local authorities regardless of which local authority issued such decal or device.

The decal or device shall be issued only upon a showing by adequate documentation that the person for whose benefit the decal or device is to be used has a disability as defined in Section 1-159.1 of this Code and the disability is temporary.

(b) The local governing authorities shall be responsible for the provision of such decal or device, its issuance and designated placement within the vehicle. The cost of such decal or device shall be at the discretion of such local governing authority.

(c) The Secretary of State may, pursuant to Section 3-616(c), issue a person with disabilities parking decal or device to a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. Any person with disabilities parking decal or device issued by the Secretary of State shall be registered to that person with disabilities in the form to be prescribed by the Secretary of State. The person with disabilities parking decal or device shall not display that person's address. One additional decal or device may be issued to an applicant upon his or her written request and with the approval of the Secretary of State. The written request must include a justification of the need for the additional decal or device.

(c-5) Beginning January 1, 2014, the Secretary shall provide by administrative rule for the issuance of a separate and distinct parking decal or device for persons with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code and who meet the qualifications under this subsection. The authorized holder of a decal or device issued under this subsection (c-5) shall be exempt from the payment of fees generated by parking in a metered space, a parking area subject to paragraph (10) of subsection (a) of Section 11-209 of this Code, or a publicly owned parking area.

The Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a person with disabilities who: (i) has been issued registration plates under subsection (a) of Section 3-609 or Section 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this Section, (ii) holds a valid Illinois driver's license, and (iii) is unable to do one or more of the following:

(1) manage, manipulate, or insert coins, or obtain tickets or tokens in parking meters or ticket machines in parking lots, due to the lack of fine motor control of both hands;

(2) reach above his or her head to a height of 42 inches from the ground, due to a lack of finger, hand, or upper extremity strength or mobility;

(3) approach a parking meter due to his or her use of a wheelchair or other device for mobility; or

(4) walk more than 20 feet due to an orthopedic, neurological, cardiovascular, or lung condition in which the degree of debilitation is so severe that it almost completely impedes the ability to walk.

The application for a meter-exempt parking decal or device shall contain a statement certified by a licensed physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse attesting to the permanent nature of the applicant's condition and verifying that the applicant meets the physical qualifications specified in this subsection (c-5).

Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c-5), the Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a person who has been issued registration plates under Section 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this Section, if the applicant is the parent or guardian of a person with disabilities who is under 18 years of age and incapable of driving.

(d) Replacement decals or devices may be issued for lost, stolen, or destroyed decals upon application and payment of a $10 fee. The replacement fee may be waived for individuals that have claimed and received a grant under the Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act.

(e) A person classified as a veteran under subsection (e) of Section 6-106 of this Code that has been issued a decal or device under this Section shall not be required to submit evidence of disability in order to renew that decal or device if, at the time of initial application, he or she submitted evidence from his or her physician or the Department of Veterans' Affairs that the disability is of a permanent nature. However, the Secretary shall take reasonable steps to ensure the veteran still resides in this State at the time of the renewal. These steps may include requiring the veteran to provide additional documentation or to appear at a Secretary of State facility. To identify veterans who are eligible for this exemption, the Secretary shall compare the list of the persons who have been issued a decal or device to the list of persons who have been issued a vehicle registration plate for veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code, or who are identified as a veteran on their driver's license under Section 6-110 of this Code or on their identification card under Section 4 of the Illinois Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-577, eff. 1-1-14; 98-879, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

(625 ILCS 5/11-1301.5)

Sec. 11-1301.5. Fictitious or unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking decal or device.

(a) As used in this Section:

"Fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device" means any issued disability license plate or parking decal or device, or any license plate issued to a veteran with a disability under Section 3-609 of this Code, that has been issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government that was issued based upon false information contained on the required application.

"False information" means any incorrect or inaccurate information concerning the name, date of birth, social security number, driver's license number, physician certification, or any other information required on the Persons with Disabilities Certification for Plate or Parking Placard, on the Application for Replacement Disability Parking Placard, or on the application for license plates issued to veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code, that falsifies the content of the application.

"Unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking permit or device" means any disability license plate or parking permit or device, or any license plate issued to a veteran with a disability under Section 3-609 of this Code, issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit of local government that has been physically altered or changed in such manner that false information appears on the license plate or parking decal or device.

"Authorized holder" means an individual issued a disability license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code or an individual issued a parking decal or device under Section 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a license plate for veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code.

(b) It is a violation of this Section for any person:

(1) to knowingly possess any fictitious or unlawfully altered disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(2) to knowingly issue or assist in the issuance of, by the Secretary of State or unit of local government, any fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(3) to knowingly alter any disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(4) to knowingly manufacture, possess, transfer, or provide any documentation used in the application process whether real or fictitious, for the purpose of obtaining a fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(5) to knowingly provide any false information to the Secretary of State or a unit of local government in order to obtain a disability license plate or parking decal or device;

(6) to knowingly transfer a disability license plate or parking decal or device for the purpose of exercising the privileges granted to an authorized holder of a disability license plate or parking decal or device under this Code in the absence of the authorized holder; or

(7) who is a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse to knowingly falsify a certification that a person is a person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code.

(c) Sentence.

(1) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (b) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and fined not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. Any person convicted of a violation of subdivision (b)(6) of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000 for a first offense and not less than $2,000 for a second or subsequent offense. The circuit clerk shall distribute one-half of any fine imposed on any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this Section, including any person placed on court supervision for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the citation or making the arrest, one-half of the fine imposed shall be shared equally.

(2) Any person who commits a violation of this Section or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his or her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the Secretary of State for a period of time determined by the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may suspend or revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(3) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or device from any person who commits a violation of this Section. Any police officer may seize the disability license plate upon authorization from the Secretary of State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of State revoke the parking decal or device or the disability license plate of any person who commits a violation of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

Section 310. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is amended by changing Section 5-16c as follows:

(625 ILCS 45/5-16c)

Sec. 5-16c. Operator involvement in personal injury or fatal boating accident; chemical tests.

(a) Any person who operates or is in actual physical control of a motorboat within this State and who has been involved in a personal injury or fatal boating accident shall be deemed to have given consent to a breath test using a portable device as approved by the Department of State Police or to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or urine for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds of the person's blood if arrested as evidenced by the issuance of a uniform citation for a violation of the Boat Registration and Safety Act or a similar provision of a local ordinance, with the exception of equipment violations contained in Article IV of this Act or similar provisions of local ordinances. The test or tests shall be administered at the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall be administered. Up to 2 additional tests of urine or other bodily substance may be administered even after a blood or breath test or both has been administered. Compliance with this Section does not relieve the person from the requirements of any other Section of this Act.

(b) Any person who is dead, unconscious, or who is otherwise in a condition rendering that person incapable of refusal shall be deemed not to have withdrawn the consent provided by subsection (a) of this Section. In addition, if an operator of a motorboat is receiving medical treatment as a result of a boating accident, any physician licensed to practice medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or a phlebotomist acting under the direction of a licensed physician shall withdraw blood for testing purposes to ascertain the presence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, upon the specific request of a law enforcement officer. However, this testing shall not be performed until, in the opinion of the medical personnel on scene, the withdrawal can be made without interfering with or endangering the well-being of the patient.

(c) A person who is a CDL holder requested to submit to a test under subsection (a) of this Section shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as detected in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, may result in the suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle and may result in the disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. A person who is not a CDL holder requested to submit to a test under subsection (a) of this Section shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act as detected in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, may result in the suspension of the person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle. The length of the suspension shall be the same as outlined in Section 6-208.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code regarding statutory summary suspensions.

(d) If the person is a CDL holder and refuses testing or submits to a test which discloses an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the Secretary of State on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State, certifying that the test or tests were requested under subsection (a) of this Section and the person refused to submit to a test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine, resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. If the person is not a CDL holder and refuses testing or submits to a test which discloses an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to the Secretary of State on a form prescribed by the Secretary of State, certifying that the test or tests were requested under subsection (a) of this Section and the person refused to submit to a test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the person's blood or urine, resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall enter the suspension and disqualification to the person's driving record and the suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice of the suspension was given to the person.

The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report shall serve immediate notice of this suspension on the person and this suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

In cases involving a person who is a CDL holder where the blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, is established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine collected at the time of arrest, the arresting officer shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of this notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to the person at his or her address as shown on the uniform citation and the suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given. In cases involving a person who is not a CDL holder where the blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or any amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, is established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine collected at the time of arrest, the arresting officer shall give notice as provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States mail of this notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to the person at his or her address as shown on the uniform citation and the suspension shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice was given.

Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer, the Secretary of State shall also give notice of the suspension and disqualification to the person by mailing a notice of the effective date of the suspension and disqualification to the person. However, should the sworn report be defective by not containing sufficient information or be completed in error, the notice of the suspension and disqualification shall not be mailed to the person or entered to the driving record, but rather the sworn report shall be returned to the issuing law enforcement agency.

(e) A person may contest this suspension of his or her driving privileges and disqualification of his or her CDL privileges by requesting an administrative hearing with the Secretary of State in accordance with Section 2-118 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. At the conclusion of a hearing held under Section 2-118 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the Secretary of State may rescind, continue, or modify the orders of suspension and disqualification. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the orders of suspension and disqualification, a restricted driving permit may be granted by the Secretary of State upon application being made and good cause shown. A restricted driving permit may be granted to relieve undue hardship to allow driving for employment, educational, and medical purposes as outlined in Section 6-206 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The provisions of Section 6-206 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall apply. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or disqualified.

(f) For the purposes of this Section, a personal injury shall include any type A injury as indicated on the accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate professional attention in a doctor's office or a medical facility. A type A injury shall include severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured party to be carried from the scene.

(Source: P.A. 98-103, eff. 1-1-14; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)

Section 315. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by changing Section 9-1 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1)

Sec. 9-1. First degree Murder - Death penalties - Exceptions - Separate Hearings - Proof - Findings - Appellate procedures - Reversals.

(a) A person who kills an individual without lawful justification commits first degree murder if, in performing the acts which cause the death:

(1) he either intends to kill or do great bodily harm to that individual or another, or knows that such acts will cause death to that individual or another; or

(2) he knows that such acts create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to that individual or another; or

(3) he is attempting or committing a forcible felony other than second degree murder.

(b) Aggravating Factors. A defendant who at the time of the commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more and who has been found guilty of first degree murder may be sentenced to death if:

(1) the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a peace officer or fireman; or

(2) the murdered individual was an employee of an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections, or any similar local correctional agency, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, or the murdered individual was an inmate at such institution or facility and was killed on the grounds thereof, or the murdered individual was otherwise present in such institution or facility with the knowledge and approval of the chief administrative officer thereof; or

(3) the defendant has been convicted of murdering two or more individuals under subsection (a) of this Section or under any law of the United States or of any state which is substantially similar to subsection (a) of this Section regardless of whether the deaths occurred as the result of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts so long as the deaths were the result of either an intent to kill more than one person or of separate acts which the defendant knew would cause death or create a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; or

(4) the murdered individual was killed as a result of the hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus or other public conveyance; or

(5) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a contract, agreement or understanding by which he was to receive money or anything of value in return for committing the murder or procured another to commit the murder for money or anything of value; or

(6) the murdered individual was killed in the course of another felony if:

(a) the murdered individual:

(i) was actually killed by the defendant, or

(ii) received physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant substantially contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by one or more persons for whose conduct the defendant is legally accountable under Section 5-2 of this Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by either the defendant or the other person or persons for whose conduct he is legally accountable caused the death of the murdered individual; and

(b) in performing the acts which caused the death of the murdered individual or which resulted in physical injuries personally inflicted by the defendant on the murdered individual under the circumstances of subdivision (ii) of subparagraph (a) of paragraph (6) of subsection (b) of this Section, the defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered individual or with the knowledge that his acts created a strong probability of death or great bodily harm to the murdered individual or another; and

(c) the other felony was an inherently violent crime or the attempt to commit an inherently violent crime. In this subparagraph (c), "inherently violent crime" includes, but is not limited to, armed robbery, robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated kidnapping, aggravated vehicular hijacking, aggravated arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and home invasion; or

(7) the murdered individual was under 12 years of age and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(8) the defendant committed the murder with intent to prevent the murdered individual from testifying or participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution or giving material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; or the defendant committed the murder because the murdered individual was a witness in any prosecution or gave material assistance to the State in any investigation or prosecution, either against the defendant or another; for purposes of this paragraph (8), "participating in any criminal investigation or prosecution" is intended to include those appearing in the proceedings in any capacity such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys, investigators, witnesses, or jurors; or

(9) the defendant, while committing an offense punishable under Sections 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, 407 or 407.1 or subsection (b) of Section 404 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(10) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution or facility of the Department of Corrections at the time of the murder, and while committing an offense punishable as a felony under Illinois law, or while engaged in a conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, intentionally killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced, procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered individual; or

(11) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated and premeditated manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, scheme or design to take a human life by unlawful means, and the conduct of the defendant created a reasonable expectation that the death of a human being would result therefrom; or

(12) the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, killed in the course of performing his official duties, to prevent the performance of his official duties, or in retaliation for performing his official duties, and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel; or

(13) the defendant was a principal administrator, organizer, or leader of a calculated criminal drug conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position of authority superior to that of all other members of the conspiracy, and the defendant counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the intentional killing of the murdered person; or

(14) the murder was intentional and involved the infliction of torture. For the purpose of this Section torture means the infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering or agony of the victim; or

(15) the murder was committed as a result of the intentional discharge of a firearm by the defendant from a motor vehicle and the victim was not present within the motor vehicle; or

(16) the murdered individual was 60 years of age or older and the death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or

(17) the murdered individual was a person with a disability and the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a person with a disability. For purposes of this paragraph (17), "person with a disability" means a person who suffers from a permanent physical or mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury, a functional disorder, or a congenital condition that renders the person incapable of adequately providing for his or her own health or personal care; or

(18) the murder was committed by reason of any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a community policing volunteer; or

(19) the murdered individual was subject to an order of protection and the murder was committed by a person against whom the same order of protection was issued under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; or

(20) the murdered individual was known by the defendant to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes; or

(21) the murder was committed by the defendant in connection with or as a result of the offense of terrorism as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this Code.

(b-5) Aggravating Factor; Natural Life Imprisonment. A defendant who has been found guilty of first degree murder and who at the time of the commission of the offense had attained the age of 18 years or more may be sentenced to natural life imprisonment if (i) the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, (ii) the defendant knew or should have known that the murdered individual was a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, and (iii) the murdered individual was killed in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that capacity, or in retaliation for his or her acting in that capacity.

(c) Consideration of factors in Aggravation and Mitigation.

The court shall consider, or shall instruct the jury to consider any aggravating and any mitigating factors which are relevant to the imposition of the death penalty. Aggravating factors may include but need not be limited to those factors set forth in subsection (b). Mitigating factors may include but need not be limited to the following:

(1) the defendant has no significant history of prior criminal activity;

(2) the murder was committed while the defendant was under the influence of extreme mental or emotional disturbance, although not such as to constitute a defense to prosecution;

(3) the murdered individual was a participant in the defendant's homicidal conduct or consented to the homicidal act;

(4) the defendant acted under the compulsion of threat or menace of the imminent infliction of death or great bodily harm;

(5) the defendant was not personally present during commission of the act or acts causing death;

(6) the defendant's background includes a history of extreme emotional or physical abuse;

(7) the defendant suffers from a reduced mental capacity.

(d) Separate sentencing hearing.

Where requested by the State, the court shall conduct a separate sentencing proceeding to determine the existence of factors set forth in subsection (b) and to consider any aggravating or mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). The proceeding shall be conducted:

(1) before the jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(2) before a jury impanelled for the purpose of the proceeding if:

A. the defendant was convicted upon a plea of guilty; or

B. the defendant was convicted after a trial before the court sitting without a jury; or

C. the court for good cause shown discharges the jury that determined the defendant's guilt; or

(3) before the court alone if the defendant waives a jury for the separate proceeding.

(e) Evidence and Argument.

During the proceeding any information relevant to any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) may be presented by either the State or the defendant under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. Any information relevant to any additional aggravating factors or any mitigating factors indicated in subsection (c) may be presented by the State or defendant regardless of its admissibility under the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal trials. The State and the defendant shall be given fair opportunity to rebut any information received at the hearing.

(f) Proof.

The burden of proof of establishing the existence of any of the factors set forth in subsection (b) is on the State and shall not be satisfied unless established beyond a reasonable doubt.

(g) Procedure - Jury.

If at the separate sentencing proceeding the jury finds that none of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. If there is a unanimous finding by the jury that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exist, the jury shall consider aggravating and mitigating factors as instructed by the court and shall determine whether the sentence of death shall be imposed. If the jury determines unanimously, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to death. If the court does not concur with the jury determination that death is the appropriate sentence, the court shall set forth reasons in writing including what facts or circumstances the court relied upon, along with any relevant documents, that compelled the court to non-concur with the sentence. This document and any attachments shall be part of the record for appellate review. The court shall be bound by the jury's sentencing determination.

If after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, one or more jurors determines that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(h) Procedure - No Jury.

In a proceeding before the court alone, if the court finds that none of the factors found in subsection (b) exists, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

If the Court determines that one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, the Court shall consider any aggravating and mitigating factors as indicated in subsection (c). If the Court determines, after weighing the factors in aggravation and mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the Court shall sentence the defendant to death.

If the court finds that death is not the appropriate sentence, the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(h-5) Decertification as a capital case.

In a case in which the defendant has been found guilty of first degree murder by a judge or jury, or a case on remand for resentencing, and the State seeks the death penalty as an appropriate sentence, on the court's own motion or the written motion of the defendant, the court may decertify the case as a death penalty case if the court finds that the only evidence supporting the defendant's conviction is the uncorroborated testimony of an informant witness, as defined in Section 115-21 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, concerning the confession or admission of the defendant or that the sole evidence against the defendant is a single eyewitness or single accomplice without any other corroborating evidence. If the court decertifies the case as a capital case under either of the grounds set forth above, the court shall issue a written finding. The State may pursue its right to appeal the decertification pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 604(a)(1). If the court does not decertify the case as a capital case, the matter shall proceed to the eligibility phase of the sentencing hearing.

(i) Appellate Procedure.

The conviction and sentence of death shall be subject to automatic review by the Supreme Court. Such review shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the Supreme Court. The Illinois Supreme Court may overturn the death sentence, and order the imposition of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections if the court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case. If the Illinois Supreme Court finds that the death sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular case, independent of any procedural grounds for relief, the Illinois Supreme Court shall issue a written opinion explaining this finding.

(j) Disposition of reversed death sentence.

In the event that the death penalty in this Act is held to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, any person convicted of first degree murder shall be sentenced by the court to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

In the event that any death sentence pursuant to the sentencing provisions of this Section is declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States or of the State of Illinois, the court having jurisdiction over a person previously sentenced to death shall cause the defendant to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.

(k) Guidelines for seeking the death penalty.

The Attorney General and State's Attorneys Association shall consult on voluntary guidelines for procedures governing whether or not to seek the death penalty. The guidelines do not have the force of law and are only advisory in nature.

(Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)

Section 320. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is amended by changing Sections 102, 302, 303.05, 313, and 320 as follows:

(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)

Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self control with reference to his or her addiction.

(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient, research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:

(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent),

(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an order, or

(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.

(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:

(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,

(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,

(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

(vi) 4-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),

(vii) 5-androstenediol

(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),

(viii) 1-androstenedione

([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),

(ix) 4-androstenedione

(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),

(x) 5-androstenedione

(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),

(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

1,4,-diene-3-one),

(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-

diene-3,17-dione),

(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17

[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-

17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-

androst-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]

-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),

(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.

'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-

androstan-3-one),

(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-

5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-

1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],

17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),

(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)

(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-

androst-4-en-3-one),

(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-

dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),

(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),

(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

[5a]-androstan-3-one),

(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),

(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),

(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxy-5a-androstane),

(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy

-5a-androstane),

(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),

(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-

methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),

(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),

(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone

(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-

androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-

1-testosterone'),

(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-4-ene),

(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-

dihydroxyestr-5-ene),

(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione

(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),

(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-

en-3,17-dione),

(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-

en-3,17-dione),

(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),

(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-

hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),

(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),

(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-

17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),

(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-

(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),

(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-

(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),

(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-

secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic

acid lactone),

(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-

4-en-3-one),

(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-

diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-

4,9,11-trien-3-one),

(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,

11-trien-3-one).

Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, and which the person intends to administer or have administered through such implants, shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for purposes of this Act.

(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" means a Department of Human Services administrative employee licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription Information Library.

(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be compounded.

(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from another Schedule or otherwise.

(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by the Department through administrative rule. The term does not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.

(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:

(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II;

(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II; or

(3) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II.

(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.

(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, with or without consideration, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.

(j) (Blank).

(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.

(n) (Blank).

(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State Police or his or her designated agents.

(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.

(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by authorized health care clinicians and staff.

(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase, store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal euthanasia.

(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.

(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by accepted professional standards including, but not limited to the following, in making the judgment:

(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient relationship,

(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one prescriber for large numbers of patients,

(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,

(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual dose may be used legitimately),

(5) unusual geographic distances between patient, pharmacist and prescriber,

(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.

(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any type.

(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the State of Illinois, or its successor agency.

(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule designated as being a principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled substance; and

(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled substance.

(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled substances within educational facilities approved by the State Board of Education or its successor agency.

(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, County or Municipal peace unit or police force.

(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether the representations made or the circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the following factors in addition to any other factor that may be relevant:

(a) statements made by the owner or person in control of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;

(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the substance may be resold for profit;

(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled substances;

(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable retail market value of the substance.

Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.

Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances involved were controlled substances.

Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding, processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).

(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located in a state of the United States that delivers, dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any substance which requires a prescription.

(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling of its container, except that this term does not include:

(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or

(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, the preparation, compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled substance:

(a) as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice; or

(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(z-1) (Blank).

(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist.

(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; however the term "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

(2) (blank);

(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;

(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have been removed;

(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subparagraphs (1) through (6).

(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.

(cc) (Blank).

(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction sustaining liability.

(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or solution or other liquid form of medication intended for administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal administration.

(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.

(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or association, or any other entity.

(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy Practice Act.

(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.

(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches.

(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research.

(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written prescription that is individually generated by machine or computer in the prescriber's office.

(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05.

(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or of an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law.

(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an electronic library that contains reported controlled substance data.

(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.

(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance other than methamphetamine.

(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to register under Section 302 of this Act.

(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each person authorized to handle controlled substances under the laws of the United States and of this State.

(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the Secretary's designated agents.

(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America.

(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine and its analogs.

(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(720 ILCS 570/302) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1302)

Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substances; engages in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs, within this State; provides canine odor detection services; proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance; proposes to engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances; proposes to engage in purchasing, storing, or administering euthanasia drugs; or proposes to provide canine odor detection services within this State, must obtain a registration issued by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in accordance with its rules. The rules shall include, but not be limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal period for each registration under this Act. The Department, any facility or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded university or college shall be exempt from the regulation requirements of this Section; however, such exemption shall not operate to bar the University of Illinois from requesting, nor the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from issuing, a registration to the University of Illinois Veterinary Teaching Hospital under this Act. Neither a request for such registration nor the issuance of such registration to the University of Illinois shall operate to otherwise waive or modify the exemption provided in this subsection (a).

(b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation under this Act to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services, may possess, manufacture, distribute, engage in chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize controlled substances, dispense those substances, or purchase, store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this Article.

(c) The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this Act:

(1) an agent or employee of any registered manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her employer's lawful business or employment;

(2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or an agent or employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual lawful course of such business or employment;

(3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of a controlled substance prescribed for the ultimate user under a lawful prescription of a practitioner, including an advanced practice registered nurse, practical nurse, or registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice services to a hospice patient or who provides home health services to a person, or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance. In this Section, "home health services" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; and "hospice patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings ascribed to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;

(4) officers and employees of this State or of the United States while acting in the lawful course of their official duties which requires possession of controlled substances;

(5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or the owner of, a pharmacy licensed under this Act and the Federal Controlled Substances Act, at the licensed location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of his or her lawful profession, business, or employment;

(6) a holder of a temporary license issued under Section 17 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987 practicing within the scope of that license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act. In addition to possessing controlled substances, a temporary license holder may order, administer, and prescribe controlled substances when acting within the scope of his or her license and in compliance with the rules adopted under this Act.

(d) A separate registration is required at each place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, or purchases, stores, or administers euthanasia drugs. Persons are required to obtain a separate registration for each place of business or professional practice where controlled substances are located or stored. A separate registration is not required for every location at which a controlled substance may be prescribed.

(e) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation or the Illinois State Police may inspect the controlled premises, as defined in Section 502 of this Act, of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard to persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with subsection (bb) of Section 30-5 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder.

(Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16; 99-247, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)

(720 ILCS 570/303.05)

Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.

(a) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall register licensed physician assistants, licensed advanced practice registered nurses, and prescribing psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and dispense controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia drugs under the following circumstances:

(1) with respect to physician assistants,

(A) the physician assistant has been delegated written authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987; and the physician assistant has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the physician assistant has been delegated authority by a supervising physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the supervising physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the supervising physician;

(iv) the physician assistant must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician;

(v) the physician assistant must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the physician assistant must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the physician assistant must annually complete at least 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;

(2) with respect to advanced practice registered nurses,

(A) the advanced practice registered nurse has been delegated authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. The advanced practice registered nurse has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule; or

(B) the advanced practice registered nurse has been delegated authority by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a written delegation of authority and under the following conditions:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician. This delegation must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be delegated;

(ii) any delegation must be of controlled substances prescribed by the collaborating physician or podiatric physician;

(iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric physician;

(iv) the advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating physician or podiatric physician or in the course of review as required by Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act;

(v) the advanced practice registered nurse must have completed the appropriate application forms and paid the required fees as set by rule;

(vi) the advanced practice registered nurse must provide evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new license issued with Schedule II authority after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; and

(vii) the advanced practice registered nurse must annually complete 5 hours of continuing education in pharmacology;

(2.5) with respect to advanced practice registered nurses certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists practicing in a hospital affiliate,

(A) the advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, has completed the appropriate application forms, and has paid the required fees as set by rule; and

(B) an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances by the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate, then the following conditions must be met:

(i) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral dosage or topical or transdermal application may be designated, provided that the designated Schedule II controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced practice registered nurses in their area of certification; this grant of authority must identify the specific Schedule II controlled substances by either brand name or generic name; authority to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other route of administration may not be granted;

(ii) any grant of authority must be controlled substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice registered nurse;

(iii) any prescription must be limited to no more than a 30-day supply;

(iv) the advanced practice registered nurse must discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician designee; and

(v) the advanced practice registered nurse must meet the education requirements of this Section;

(3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the euthanasia agency has obtained a license from the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and obtained a registration number from the Department; or

(4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the prescribing psychologist has been delegated authority to prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V controlled substances by a collaborating physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has completed the appropriate application forms and has paid the required fees as set by rule.

(b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to prescribe those schedules of controlled substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has delegated prescriptive authority, except that an animal euthanasia agency does not have any prescriptive authority. A physician assistant and an advanced practice registered nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled substances not set forth in the required written delegation of authority.

(c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, and animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a mid-level practitioner controlled substances license for Illinois.

(d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.

(e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.

(f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit generic substitution.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)

(720 ILCS 570/313) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1313)

Sec. 313. (a) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered in hospitals or institutions licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for the controlled substance shall be in writing on the patient's record, signed by the prescriber, and dated, and shall state the name and quantity of controlled substances ordered and the quantity actually administered. The records of such prescriptions shall be maintained for two years and shall be available for inspection by officers and employees of the Illinois State Police and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

The exemption under this subsection (a) does not apply to a prescription (including an outpatient prescription from an emergency department or outpatient clinic) for more than a 72-hour supply of a discharge medication to be consumed outside of the hospital or institution.

(b) Controlled substances that can lawfully be administered or dispensed directly to a patient in a long-term care facility licensed by the Department of Public Health as a skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or long-term care facility for residents under 22 years of age, are exempt from the requirements of Section 312 except that a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must be either a prescription signed by the prescriber or a prescription transmitted by the prescriber or prescriber's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription and must be maintained for 2 years from the date of issue in the same manner as a written prescription signed by the prescriber.

(c) A prescription that is generated for a Schedule II controlled substance to be compounded for direct administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or hospice program may be transmitted by facsimile by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent to the pharmacy providing the home infusion services. The facsimile serves as the original prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.

(c-1) A prescription generated for a Schedule II controlled substance for a patient residing in a hospice certified by Medicare under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act or licensed by the State may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile or electronically as provided in Section 311.5. The practitioner or practitioner's agent must note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile or electronic record serves as the original prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c-1) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.

(d) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered and/or dispensed in drug abuse treatment programs licensed by the Department shall be exempt from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the prescription for such controlled substances shall be issued and authenticated on official prescription logs prepared and maintained in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws. The Department-licensed drug treatment program shall report applicable prescriptions via electronic record keeping software approved by the Department. This software must be compatible with the specifications of the Department. Drug abuse treatment programs shall report to the Department methadone prescriptions or medications dispensed through the use of Department-approved File Transfer Protocols (FTPs). Methadone prescription records must be maintained in accordance with the applicable requirements as set forth by the Department in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and federal laws.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of a hospital pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant hospital clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice registered nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within a hospital. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the authority of an ambulatory surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act to grant ambulatory surgical treatment center clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice registered nurse to select, order or administer medications, including controlled substances to provide services within an ambulatory surgical treatment center.

(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)

(720 ILCS 570/320)

Sec. 320. Advisory committee.

(a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to assist the Department of Human Services in implementing the Prescription Monitoring Program created by this Article and to advise the Department on the professional performance of prescribers and dispensers and other matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence.

(b) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall appoint members to serve on the advisory committee. The advisory committee shall be composed of prescribers and dispensers as follows: 4 physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches; one advanced practice registered nurse; one physician assistant; one optometrist; one dentist; one podiatric physician; and 3 pharmacists. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program may appoint a representative of an organization representing a profession required to be appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall serve as the chair of the committee.

(c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers as it deems appropriate.

(d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no compensation for their services as members of the advisory committee but may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in serving on the advisory committee.

(e) The advisory committee shall:

(1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in order to determine whether changes should be recommended to the General Assembly;

(2) review current drug schedules in order to manage changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the utilization of this Act;

(3) review the following: current clinical guidelines developed by health care professional organizations on the prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances; accredited continuing education programs related to prescribing and dispensing; programs or information developed by health care professional organizations that may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other public and private organizations which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant medical studies; and other publications which involve the prescription of controlled substances;

(4) make recommendations for inclusion of these materials or other studies which may be effective resources for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of the inquiry system established under Section 318;

(5) on at least a quarterly basis, review the content of the Internet website of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has the most current available information;

(6) on at least a quarterly basis, review opportunities for federal grants and other forms of funding to support projects which will increase the number of pilot programs which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health records; and

(7) on at least a quarterly basis, review communication to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system established pursuant to Section 318, including recommendations for relevant accredited continuing education and information regarding prescribing and dispensing.

(f) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall select 5 members, 3 physicians and 2 pharmacists, of the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to serve as members of the peer review subcommittee. The purpose of the peer review subcommittee is to advise the Program on matters germane to the advisory committee's field of competence, establish a formal peer review of professional performance of prescribers and dispensers, and develop communications to transmit to prescribers and dispensers. The deliberations, information, and communications of the peer review subcommittee are privileged and confidential and shall not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with current law.

(1) The peer review subcommittee shall periodically review the data contained within the prescription monitoring program to identify those prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the currently accepted standards in the course of their professional practice.

(2) The peer review subcommittee may identify prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside the currently accepted medical standards in the course of their professional practice and send the identified prescriber or dispenser a request for information regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This request for information shall be sent via certified mail, return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall have 30 days to respond to the request for information.

(3) The peer review subcommittee shall refer a prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in the following situations:

(i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond to three successive requests for information;

(ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of the peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does not have a satisfactory explanation for the practices identified by the peer review subcommittee in its request for information; or

(iii) following communications with the peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in the request for information in the opinion of a majority of the members of the peer review subcommittee.

(4) The Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber or dispenser referred by the peer review subcommittee.

(5) The peer review subcommittee shall prepare an annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall contain the following information: the number of times the peer review subcommittee was convened; the number of prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the peer review committee; the number of requests for information sent out by the peer review subcommittee; and the number of prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to the General Assembly. The report prepared by the peer review subcommittee shall not identify any prescriber, dispenser, or patient.

(Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)

Section 325. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by changing Section 8-2001 as follows:

(735 ILCS 5/8-2001) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-2001)

Sec. 8-2001. Examination of health care records.

(a) In this Section:

"Health care facility" or "facility" means a public or private hospital, ambulatory surgical treatment center, nursing home, independent practice association, or physician hospital organization, or any other entity where health care services are provided to any person. The term does not include a health care practitioner.

"Health care practitioner" means any health care practitioner, including a physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, clinical psychologist, or clinical social worker. The term includes a medical office, health care clinic, health department, group practice, and any other organizational structure for a licensed professional to provide health care services. The term does not include a health care facility.

(b) Every private and public health care facility shall, upon the request of any patient who has been treated in such health care facility, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, permit the patient, his or her health care practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative to examine the health care facility patient care records, including but not limited to the history, bedside notes, charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of such patient, and permit copies of such records to be made by him or her or his or her health care practitioner or authorized attorney.

(c) Every health care practitioner shall, upon the request of any patient who has been treated by the health care practitioner, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, permit the patient and the patient's health care practitioner or authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative, to examine and copy the patient's records, including but not limited to those relating to the diagnosis, treatment, prognosis, history, charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of such patient.

(d) A request for copies of the records shall be in writing and shall be delivered to the administrator or manager of such health care facility or to the health care practitioner. The person (including patients, health care practitioners and attorneys) requesting copies of records shall reimburse the facility or the health care practitioner at the time of such copying for all reasonable expenses, including the costs of independent copy service companies, incurred in connection with such copying not to exceed a $20 handling charge for processing the request and the actual postage or shipping charge, if any, plus: (1) for paper copies 75 cents per page for the first through 25th pages, 50 cents per page for the 26th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page for all pages in excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not exceed $1.25 per page for any copies made from microfiche or microfilm; records retrieved from scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format do not qualify as microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of calculating charges); and (2) for electronic records, retrieved from a scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other digital format in an electronic document, a charge of 50% of the per page charge for paper copies under subdivision (d)(1). This per page charge includes the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or other storage media. Records already maintained in an electronic or digital format shall be provided in an electronic format when so requested. If the records system does not allow for the creation or transmission of an electronic or digital record, then the facility or practitioner shall inform the requester in writing of the reason the records can not be provided electronically. The written explanation may be included with the production of paper copies, if the requester chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006. The facility or health care practitioner may, however, charge for the reasonable cost of all duplication of record material or information that cannot routinely be copied or duplicated on a standard commercial photocopy machine such as x-ray films or pictures.

(d-5) The handling fee shall not be collected from the patient or the patient's personal representative who obtains copies of records under Section 8-2001.5.

(e) The requirements of this Section shall be satisfied within 30 days of the receipt of a written request by a patient or by his or her legally authorized representative, health care practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative. If the facility or health care practitioner needs more time to comply with the request, then within 30 days after receiving the request, the facility or health care practitioner must provide the requesting party with a written statement of the reasons for the delay and the date by which the requested information will be provided. In any event, the facility or health care practitioner must provide the requested information no later than 60 days after receiving the request.

(f) A health care facility or health care practitioner must provide the public with at least 30 days prior notice of the closure of the facility or the health care practitioner's practice. The notice must include an explanation of how copies of the facility's records may be accessed by patients. The notice may be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the area in which the health care facility or health care practitioner is located.

(g) Failure to comply with the time limit requirement of this Section shall subject the denying party to expenses and reasonable attorneys' fees incurred in connection with any court ordered enforcement of the provisions of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-867, eff. 7-30-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)

Section 330. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by changing Sections 30, 34, and 68 as follows:

(745 ILCS 49/30)

Sec. 30. Free medical clinic; exemption from civil liability for services performed without compensation.

(a) A person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a person licensed to practice the treatment of human ailments in any other state or territory of the United States, or a health care professional, including but not limited to an advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, nurse, pharmacist, physical therapist, podiatric physician, or social worker licensed in this State or any other state or territory of the United States, who, in good faith, provides medical treatment, diagnosis, or advice as a part of the services of an established free medical clinic providing care to medically indigent patients which is limited to care that does not require the services of a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and who receives no fee or compensation from that source shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of his or her acts or omissions in providing that medical treatment, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(b) For purposes of this Section, a "free medical clinic" is:

(1) an organized community based program providing medical care without charge to individuals unable to pay for it, at which the care provided does not include the use of general anesthesia or require an overnight stay in a health-care facility; or

(2) a program organized by a certified local health department pursuant to Part 600 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative Code, utilizing health professional members of the Volunteer Medical Reserve Corps (the federal organization under 42 U.S.C. 300hh-15) providing medical care without charge to individuals unable to pay for it, at which the care provided does not include an overnight stay in a health-care facility.

(c) The provisions of subsection (a) of this Section do not apply to a particular case unless the free medical clinic has posted in a conspicuous place on its premises an explanation of the exemption from civil liability provided herein.

(d) The immunity from civil damages provided under subsection (a) also applies to physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers that provide further medical treatment, diagnosis, or advice to a patient upon referral from an established free medical clinic without fee or compensation.

(e) Nothing in this Section prohibits a free medical clinic from accepting voluntary contributions for medical services provided to a patient who has acknowledged his or her ability and willingness to pay a portion of the value of the medical services provided.

Any voluntary contribution collected for providing care at a free medical clinic shall be used only to pay overhead expenses of operating the clinic. No portion of any moneys collected shall be used to provide a fee or other compensation to any person licensed under Medical Practice Act of 1987.

(f) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly apply only to causes of action accruing on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-42, eff. 1-1-16.)

(745 ILCS 49/34)

Sec. 34. Advanced practice registered nurse; exemption from civil liability for emergency care. A person licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who in good faith provides emergency care without fee to a person shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of his or her acts or omissions, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the person in providing the care.

(Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)

(745 ILCS 49/68)

Sec. 68. Disaster Relief Volunteers. Any firefighter, licensed emergency medical technician (EMT) as defined by Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, physician, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, pharmacist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or nurse who in good faith and without fee or compensation provides health care services as a disaster relief volunteer shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, except willful and wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in providing health care services, be liable to a person to whom the health care services are provided for civil damages. This immunity applies to health care services that are provided without fee or compensation during or within 10 days following the end of a disaster or catastrophic event.

The immunity provided in this Section only applies to a disaster relief volunteer who provides health care services in relief of an earthquake, hurricane, tornado, nuclear attack, terrorist attack, epidemic, or pandemic without fee or compensation for providing the volunteer health care services.

The provisions of this Section shall not apply to any health care facility as defined in Section 8-2001 of the Code of Civil Procedure or to any practitioner, who is not a disaster relief volunteer, providing health care services in a hospital or health care facility.

(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)

Section 335. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by changing Section 65 as follows:

(755 ILCS 40/65)

Sec. 65. Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.

(a) An individual of sound mind and having reached the age of majority or having obtained the status of an emancipated person pursuant to the Emancipation of Minors Act may execute a document (consistent with the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form described in Section 2310-600 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois) directing that resuscitating efforts shall not be implemented. Such a document may also be executed by an attending health care practitioner. If more than one practitioner shares that responsibility, any of the attending health care practitioners may act under this Section. Notwithstanding the existence of a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order or Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form, appropriate organ donation treatment may be applied or continued temporarily in the event of the patient's death, in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 20 of this Act, if the patient is an organ donor.

(a-5) Execution of a Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form is voluntary; no person can be required to execute either form. A person who has executed a Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form should review the form annually and when the person's condition changes.

(b) Consent to a Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form may be obtained from the individual, or from another person at the individual's direction, or from the individual's legal guardian, agent under a power of attorney for health care, or surrogate decision maker, and witnessed by one individual 18 years of age or older, who attests that the individual, other person, guardian, agent, or surrogate (1) has had an opportunity to read the form; and (2) has signed the form or acknowledged his or her signature or mark on the form in the witness's presence.

(b-5) As used in this Section, "attending health care practitioner" means an individual who (1) is an Illinois licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or licensed resident after completion of one year in a program; (2) is selected by or assigned to the patient; and (3) has primary responsibility for treatment and care of the patient. "POLST" means practitioner orders for life-sustaining treatments.

(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect the ability of an individual to include instructions in an advance directive, such as a power of attorney for health care. The uniform form may, but need not, be in the form adopted by the Department of Public Health pursuant to Section 2310-600 of the Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law (20 ILCS 2310/2310-600).

(d) A health care professional or health care provider may presume, in the absence of knowledge to the contrary, that a completed Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form, or a copy of that form or a previous version of the uniform form, is valid. A health care professional or health care provider, or an employee of a health care professional or health care provider, who in good faith complies with a cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or life-sustaining treatment order, Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form, or a previous version of the uniform form made in accordance with this Act is not, as a result of that compliance, subject to any criminal or civil liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct, and may not be found to have committed an act of unprofessional conduct.

(e) Nothing in this Section or this amendatory Act of the 94th General Assembly or this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall be construed to affect the ability of a physician or other practitioner to make a do-not-resuscitate order.

(Source: P.A. 98-1110, eff. 8-26-14; 99-319, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 340. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended by changing Sections 4-5.1 and 4-10 as follows:

(755 ILCS 45/4-5.1)

Sec. 4-5.1. Limitations on who may witness health care agencies.

(a) Every health care agency shall bear the signature of a witness to the signing of the agency. No witness may be under 18 years of age. None of the following licensed professionals providing services to the principal may serve as a witness to the signing of a health care agency:

(1) the attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, or psychologist of the principal, or a relative of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, or psychologist;

(2) an owner, operator, or relative of an owner or operator of a health care facility in which the principal is a patient or resident;

(3) a parent, sibling, or descendant, or the spouse of a parent, sibling, or descendant, of either the principal or any agent or successor agent, regardless of whether the relationship is by blood, marriage, or adoption;

(4) an agent or successor agent for health care.

(b) The prohibition on the operator of a health care facility from serving as a witness shall extend to directors and executive officers of an operator that is a corporate entity but not other employees of the operator such as, but not limited to, non-owner chaplains or social workers, nurses, and other employees.

(Source: P.A. 98-1113, eff. 1-1-15; 99-328, eff. 1-1-16.)

(755 ILCS 45/4-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 804-10)

Sec. 4-10. Statutory short form power of attorney for health care.

(a) The form prescribed in this Section (sometimes also referred to in this Act as the "statutory health care power") may be used to grant an agent powers with respect to the principal's own health care; but the statutory health care power is not intended to be exclusive nor to cover delegation of a parent's power to control the health care of a minor child, and no provision of this Article shall be construed to invalidate or bar use by the principal of any other or different form of power of attorney for health care. Nonstatutory health care powers must be executed by the principal, designate the agent and the agent's powers, and comply with the limitations in Section 4-5 of this Article, but they need not be witnessed or conform in any other respect to the statutory health care power.

No specific format is required for the statutory health care power of attorney other than the notice must precede the form. The statutory health care power may be included in or combined with any other form of power of attorney governing property or other matters.

(b) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for Health Care shall be substantially as follows:

NOTICE TO THE INDIVIDUAL SIGNING

THE POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE

No one can predict when a serious illness or accident might occur. When it does, you may need someone else to speak or make health care decisions for you. If you plan now, you can increase the chances that the medical treatment you get will be the treatment you want.

In Illinois, you can choose someone to be your "health care agent". Your agent is the person you trust to make health care decisions for you if you are unable or do not want to make them yourself. These decisions should be based on your personal values and wishes.

It is important to put your choice of agent in writing. The written form is often called an "advance directive". You may use this form or another form, as long as it meets the legal requirements of Illinois. There are many written and on-line resources to guide you and your loved ones in having a conversation about these issues. You may find it helpful to look at these resources while thinking about and discussing your advance directive.

WHAT ARE THE THINGS I WANT MY

HEALTH CARE AGENT TO KNOW?

The selection of your agent should be considered carefully, as your agent will have the ultimate decision making authority once this document goes into effect, in most instances after you are no longer able to make your own decisions. While the goal is for your agent to make decisions in keeping with your preferences and in the majority of circumstances that is what happens, please know that the law does allow your agent to make decisions to direct or refuse health care interventions or withdraw treatment. Your agent will need to think about conversations you have had, your personality, and how you handled important health care issues in the past. Therefore, it is important to talk with your agent and your family about such things as:

(i) What is most important to you in your life?

(ii) How important is it to you to avoid pain and suffering?

(iii) If you had to choose, is it more important to you to live as long as possible, or to avoid prolonged suffering or disability?

(iv) Would you rather be at home or in a hospital for the last days or weeks of your life?

(v) Do you have religious, spiritual, or cultural beliefs that you want your agent and others to consider?

(vi) Do you wish to make a significant contribution to medical science after your death through organ or whole body donation?

(vii) Do you have an existing advanced directive, such as a living will, that contains your specific wishes about health care that is only delaying your death? If you have another advance directive, make sure to discuss with your agent the directive and the treatment decisions contained within that outline your preferences. Make sure that your agent agrees to honor the wishes expressed in your advance directive.

WHAT KIND OF DECISIONS CAN MY AGENT MAKE?

If there is ever a period of time when your physician determines that you cannot make your own health care decisions, or if you do not want to make your own decisions, some of the decisions your agent could make are to:

(i) talk with physicians and other health care providers about your condition.

(ii) see medical records and approve who else can see them.

(iii) give permission for medical tests, medicines, surgery, or other treatments.

(iv) choose where you receive care and which physicians and others provide it.

(v) decide to accept, withdraw, or decline treatments designed to keep you alive if you are near death or not likely to recover. You may choose to include guidelines and/or restrictions to your agent's authority.

(vi) agree or decline to donate your organs or your whole body if you have not already made this decision yourself. This could include donation for transplant, research, and/or education. You should let your agent know whether you are registered as a donor in the First Person Consent registry maintained by the Illinois Secretary of State or whether you have agreed to donate your whole body for medical research and/or education.

(vii) decide what to do with your remains after you have died, if you have not already made plans.

(viii) talk with your other loved ones to help come to a decision (but your designated agent will have the final say over your other loved ones).

Your agent is not automatically responsible for your health care expenses.

WHOM SHOULD I CHOOSE TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT?

You can pick a family member, but you do not have to. Your agent will have the responsibility to make medical treatment decisions, even if other people close to you might urge a different decision. The selection of your agent should be done carefully, as he or she will have ultimate decision-making authority for your treatment decisions once you are no longer able to voice your preferences. Choose a family member, friend, or other person who:

(i) is at least 18 years old;

(ii) knows you well;

(iii) you trust to do what is best for you and is willing to carry out your wishes, even if he or she may not agree with your wishes;

(iv) would be comfortable talking with and questioning your physicians and other health care providers;

(v) would not be too upset to carry out your wishes if you became very sick; and

(vi) can be there for you when you need it and is willing to accept this important role.

WHAT IF MY AGENT IS NOT AVAILABLE OR IS

UNWILLING TO MAKE DECISIONS FOR ME?

If the person who is your first choice is unable to carry out this role, then the second agent you chose will make the decisions; if your second agent is not available, then the third agent you chose will make the decisions. The second and third agents are called your successor agents and they function as back-up agents to your first choice agent and may act only one at a time and in the order you list them.

WHAT WILL HAPPEN IF I DO NOT

CHOOSE A HEALTH CARE AGENT?

If you become unable to make your own health care decisions and have not named an agent in writing, your physician and other health care providers will ask a family member, friend, or guardian to make decisions for you. In Illinois, a law directs which of these individuals will be consulted. In that law, each of these individuals is called a "surrogate".

There are reasons why you may want to name an agent rather than rely on a surrogate:

(i) The person or people listed by this law may not be who you would want to make decisions for you.

(ii) Some family members or friends might not be able or willing to make decisions as you would want them to.

(iii) Family members and friends may disagree with one another about the best decisions.

(iv) Under some circumstances, a surrogate may not be able to make the same kinds of decisions that an agent can make.

WHAT IF THERE IS NO ONE AVAILABLE

WHOM I TRUST TO BE MY AGENT?

In this situation, it is especially important to talk to your physician and other health care providers and create written guidance about what you want or do not want, in case you are ever critically ill and cannot express your own wishes. You can complete a living will. You can also write your wishes down and/or discuss them with your physician or other health care provider and ask him or her to write it down in your chart. You might also want to use written or on-line resources to guide you through this process.

WHAT DO I DO WITH THIS FORM ONCE I COMPLETE IT?

Follow these instructions after you have completed the form:

(i) Sign the form in front of a witness. See the form for a list of who can and cannot witness it.

(ii) Ask the witness to sign it, too.

(iii) There is no need to have the form notarized.

(iv) Give a copy to your agent and to each of your successor agents.

(v) Give another copy to your physician.

(vi) Take a copy with you when you go to the hospital.

(vii) Show it to your family and friends and others who care for you.

WHAT IF I CHANGE MY MIND?

You may change your mind at any time. If you do, tell someone who is at least 18 years old that you have changed your mind, and/or destroy your document and any copies. If you wish, fill out a new form and make sure everyone you gave the old form to has a copy of the new one, including, but not limited to, your agents and your physicians.

WHAT IF I DO NOT WANT TO USE THIS FORM?

In the event you do not want to use the Illinois statutory form provided here, any document you complete must be executed by you, designate an agent who is over 18 years of age and not prohibited from serving as your agent, and state the agent's powers, but it need not be witnessed or conform in any other respect to the statutory health care power.

If you have questions about the use of any form, you may want to consult your physician, other health care provider, and/or an attorney.

MY POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE

THIS POWER OF ATTORNEY REVOKES ALL PREVIOUS POWERS OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE. (You must sign this form and a witness must also sign it before it is valid)

My name (Print your full name):.......... My address:..................................................

I WANT THE FOLLOWING PERSON TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT

(an agent is your personal representative under state and federal law): (Agent name)................. (Agent address)............. (Agent phone number).........................................

(Please check box if applicable) .... If a guardian of my person is to be appointed, I nominate the agent acting under this power of attorney as guardian.

SUCCESSOR HEALTH CARE AGENT(S) (optional):

If the agent I selected is unable or does not want to make health care decisions for me, then I request the person(s) I name below to be my successor health care agent(s). Only one person at a time can serve as my agent (add another page if you want to add more successor agent names):

.....................

(Successor agent #1 name, address and phone number)

..........

(Successor agent #2 name, address and phone number)

MY AGENT CAN MAKE HEALTH CARE DECISIONS FOR ME, INCLUDING:

(i) Deciding to accept, withdraw or decline treatment for any physical or mental condition of mine, including life-and-death decisions.

(ii) Agreeing to admit me to or discharge me from any hospital, home, or other institution, including a mental health facility.

(iii) Having complete access to my medical and mental health records, and sharing them with others as needed, including after I die.

(iv) Carrying out the plans I have already made, or, if I have not done so, making decisions about my body or remains, including organ, tissue or whole body donation, autopsy, cremation, and burial.

The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as possible so that my agent will have the authority to make any decision I could make to obtain or terminate any type of health care, including withdrawal of nutrition and hydration and other life-sustaining measures.

I AUTHORIZE MY AGENT TO (please check any one box):

.... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine when I lack this ability.

(If no box is checked, then the box above shall be implemented.) OR

.... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine when I lack this ability. Starting now, for the purpose of assisting me with my health care plans and decisions, my agent shall have complete access to my medical and mental health records, the authority to share them with others as needed, and the complete ability to communicate with my personal physician(s) and other health care providers, including the ability to require an opinion of my physician as to whether I lack the ability to make decisions for myself. OR

.... Make decisions for me starting now and continuing after I am no longer able to make them for myself. While I am still able to make my own decisions, I can still do so if I want to.

The subject of life-sustaining treatment is of particular importance. Life-sustaining treatments may include tube feedings or fluids through a tube, breathing machines, and CPR. In general, in making decisions concerning life-sustaining treatment, your agent is instructed to consider the relief of suffering, the quality as well as the possible extension of your life, and your previously expressed wishes. Your agent will weigh the burdens versus benefits of proposed treatments in making decisions on your behalf.

Additional statements concerning the withholding or removal of life-sustaining treatment are described below. These can serve as a guide for your agent when making decisions for you. Ask your physician or health care provider if you have any questions about these statements.

SELECT ONLY ONE STATEMENT BELOW THAT BEST EXPRESSES YOUR WISHES (optional):

.... The quality of my life is more important than the length of my life. If I am unconscious and my attending physician believes, in accordance with reasonable medical standards, that I will not wake up or recover my ability to think, communicate with my family and friends, and experience my surroundings, I do not want treatments to prolong my life or delay my death, but I do want treatment or care to make me comfortable and to relieve me of pain.

.... Staying alive is more important to me, no matter how sick I am, how much I am suffering, the cost of the procedures, or how unlikely my chances for recovery are. I want my life to be prolonged to the greatest extent possible in accordance with reasonable medical standards.

SPECIFIC LIMITATIONS TO MY AGENT'S DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY:

The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as possible so that your agent will have the authority to make any decision you could make to obtain or terminate any type of health care. If you wish to limit the scope of your agent's powers or prescribe special rules or limit the power to authorize autopsy or dispose of remains, you may do so specifically in this form. ..................................

..............................

My signature:.................. Today's date:................................................

HAVE YOUR WITNESS AGREE TO WHAT IS WRITTEN BELOW, AND THEN COMPLETE THE SIGNATURE PORTION:

I am at least 18 years old. (check one of the options below):

.... I saw the principal sign this document, or

.... the principal told me that the signature or mark on the principal signature line is his or hers.

I am not the agent or successor agent(s) named in this document. I am not related to the principal, the agent, or the successor agent(s) by blood, marriage, or adoption. I am not the principal's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, psychologist, or a relative of one of those individuals. I am not an owner or operator (or the relative of an owner or operator) of the health care facility where the principal is a patient or resident. Witness printed name:............ Witness address:.............. Witness signature:............... Today's date:................................................

(c) The statutory short form power of attorney for health care (the "statutory health care power") authorizes the agent to make any and all health care decisions on behalf of the principal which the principal could make if present and under no disability, subject to any limitations on the granted powers that appear on the face of the form, to be exercised in such manner as the agent deems consistent with the intent and desires of the principal. The agent will be under no duty to exercise granted powers or to assume control of or responsibility for the principal's health care; but when granted powers are exercised, the agent will be required to use due care to act for the benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the statutory health care power and will be liable for negligent exercise. The agent may act in person or through others reasonably employed by the agent for that purpose but may not delegate authority to make health care decisions. The agent may sign and deliver all instruments, negotiate and enter into all agreements and do all other acts reasonably necessary to implement the exercise of the powers granted to the agent. Without limiting the generality of the foregoing, the statutory health care power shall include the following powers, subject to any limitations appearing on the face of the form:

(1) The agent is authorized to give consent to and authorize or refuse, or to withhold or withdraw consent to, any and all types of medical care, treatment or procedures relating to the physical or mental health of the principal, including any medication program, surgical procedures, life-sustaining treatment or provision of food and fluids for the principal.

(2) The agent is authorized to admit the principal to or discharge the principal from any and all types of hospitals, institutions, homes, residential or nursing facilities, treatment centers and other health care institutions providing personal care or treatment for any type of physical or mental condition. The agent shall have the same right to visit the principal in the hospital or other institution as is granted to a spouse or adult child of the principal, any rule of the institution to the contrary notwithstanding.

(3) The agent is authorized to contract for any and all types of health care services and facilities in the name of and on behalf of the principal and to bind the principal to pay for all such services and facilities, and to have and exercise those powers over the principal's property as are authorized under the statutory property power, to the extent the agent deems necessary to pay health care costs; and the agent shall not be personally liable for any services or care contracted for on behalf of the principal.

(4) At the principal's expense and subject to reasonable rules of the health care provider to prevent disruption of the principal's health care, the agent shall have the same right the principal has to examine and copy and consent to disclosure of all the principal's medical records that the agent deems relevant to the exercise of the agent's powers, whether the records relate to mental health or any other medical condition and whether they are in the possession of or maintained by any physician, psychiatrist, psychologist, therapist, hospital, nursing home or other health care provider. The authority under this paragraph (4) applies to any information governed by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 ("HIPAA") and regulations thereunder. The agent serves as the principal's personal representative, as that term is defined under HIPAA and regulations thereunder.

(5) The agent is authorized: to direct that an autopsy be made pursuant to Section 2 of "An Act in relation to autopsy of dead bodies", approved August 13, 1965, including all amendments; to make a disposition of any part or all of the principal's body pursuant to the Illinois Anatomical Gift Act, as now or hereafter amended; and to direct the disposition of the principal's remains.

(6) At any time during which there is no executor or administrator appointed for the principal's estate, the agent is authorized to continue to pursue an application or appeal for government benefits if those benefits were applied for during the life of the principal.

(d) A physician may determine that the principal is unable to make health care decisions for himself or herself only if the principal lacks decisional capacity, as that term is defined in Section 10 of the Health Care Surrogate Act.

(e) If the principal names the agent as a guardian on the statutory short form, and if a court decides that the appointment of a guardian will serve the principal's best interests and welfare, the court shall appoint the agent to serve without bond or security.

(Source: P.A. 98-1113, eff. 1-1-15; 99-328, eff. 1-1-16.)

Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other Public Act.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon becoming law.".